Mr. Puneet P. Bhatia vs Asrec (India) Limited & Anr
- CitationCompany Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024
Ratio decidendi
The rule this decision rests on
The Adjudicating Authority may permit a financial creditor to amend the pleaded date of default in a Section 7 application before a final order admitting or rejecting the application is passed, since the Code contains no bar on amendment of pleadings or filing of additional documents at that stage, and such amendment is subject to the procedure laid down in the Code and to the principles of natural justice, the Adjudicating Authority exercising its discretion to refuse where there is inordinate delay. A restructuring of a loan does not by itself fix a new date of default; where the restructuring sanction is rendered void for non-compliance with its conditions (here, non-contribution of promoters' sacrifice as required by RBI guidelines), the restructuring does not displace the pre-existing default, and the date of default is the date ninety days before the date of classification of the account as NPA. A default that predates the period covered by Section 10A of the Code is not protected by that provision, and the protection applies only where a direct link is shown between the default and the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic.
Written by Miss Lucy from the judgment below, not taken from a headnote.
Judgment
As delivered
(Arising against the impugned order dated 09.01.2024 passed by the National Company Law Tribunal, Mumbai Bench in C.P.(IB)/280 (MB) 2023)
IN THE MATTER OF:
Puneet P. Bhatia (Suspended Director of Barracks Retail India Pvt. Ltd.) Add:- Flat No103, Building No 27, Evershine Millenium Paradise, Thakur Village, Kandivali East, Mumbai City, ...Appellant Mumbai, Maharashtra, India, 400101.
Versus
ASREC (India) Ltd. Add:- Ground Floor, Build No.2, Solitaire Corporate Park, Andheri, Ghatkopar Link Road Chakala Andheri (E), Mumbai, Maharashtra - 400093. ...Respondent No. 1
E-mail: asrec@asrec.co.in
Mr. Ganesh Venkata Siva Rama Krishna Remani Interim Resolution Professional of Barracks Retail India Pvt. Ltd.
Add:- 302, Nahar Business Center Chandivali, Mumbai Suburban, Maharashtra - 400076. ...Respondent No. 2 E-mail: ganesh.remani@nliten.in
Present:
For Appellant : Mr. Sandeep Bajaj, Mr. Soayib Qureshi, Mr. Rishabh Dua, Advocates.
For Respondents : Mr. Sachin Daga, Advocate for R-1.
Mr. Ganesh Remani for IRP.
Cont'd..../ -2-
J U D G M EN T (9th December, 2024)
INDEVAR PANDEY, MEMBER (T)
This appeal arises from an order dated 09.01.2024 by the National
Company Law Tribunal (NCLT), Mumbai Bench-I, (Adjudicating Authority)
in Company Petition (IB)/280(MB)2023. The Appellant, Mr. Puneet P. Bhatia,
a suspended director of Barracks Retail India Pvt. Ltd., the Corporate
Debtor (in short "CD"), has challenged the Adjudicating Authority's (in short
"AA") decision to admit an application for Corporate Insolvency Resolution
Process (CIRP) initiated by ASREC (India) Limited, Respondent No. 1/
Financial Creditor under Section 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code,
2016 (in short, the "Code").
2. The CIRP application was filed before the Adjudicating Authority (in
short, the "AA") on the ground that the CD has defaulted to repay the
Financial Creditor an amount of Rs. 21,37,94,606/- (Rupees Twenty-One
Crore Thirty-Seven Lakhs Ninety-Four Thousand Six Hundred Six only) as on
30.09.2022.
3. The brief facts of the case are as follows:
(i) Barracks Retail India Pvt. Ltd./CD was incorporated on 25.01.2016,
under the Companies Act, 2013, with its registered office in Mumbai,
focusing on garment manufacturing. In early 2017, CD sought funding
from Bharat Co-operative Bank (Mumbai) Limited (in short the "Bank")
to support its operations. On 21.03.2017, the bank sanctioned a Term
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -3-
Loan of Rs. 5 crores for capital expenses, repayable through monthly
EMIs, along with a Rs. 25 lakh Cash Credit limit for working capital.
To secure these facilities, the CD pledged assets, including 41 non-
agricultural plots in Vikramgarh, Maharashtra, on 30.03.2017, and
executed a series of security documents, including a Deed of Mortgage,
hypothecation agreements, and personal guarantees.
(ii) On 08.06.2018, the Bank reviewed the existing loans, renewing them
and, on 14.08.2018, approving an additional loan of Rs.1.91 crore to
facilitate Barracks Retail's acquisition of Eye Catch Fashions Pvt. Ltd.,
a financially distressed garment company. The Bank advised the CD
to invest 25% of Eye Catch's asset value to prevent an NPA
classification. The bank arranged a transfer of Rs. 5.25 crore directly
to Eye Catch from Barracks Retail's account to avoid NPA status.
Subsequently, another Rs. 2.5 crore was transferred based on a verbal
understanding and an unregistered sale deed, yet Eye Catch's
promoters abandoned the business, leaving the CD liable for the Rs.
5.25 crore without gaining ownership of Eye Catch's assets, adding to
CD's debt burden without the intended business advantage.
(iii) On the request of CD dated 20.12.2019 the Bank sanctioned revised
financial facilities to the CD vide sanction letter dated 17.03.2020 as
detailed below:
Facilities Amount in lacs Sanction letter
Cash Credit 300 BCB/NSW/327/2020 WCTL-1 800 dated 17.03.2020 FITL of WCTL-1 122.90 WCTL-2 15.41 FITL of WCTL-2 1.65 Term loan 505.40
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -4-
FITL of existing 74.65 term loan WCTL-3 19.97 FITL of WCTL-3 2.13
(iv) With the onset of COVID-19, as per RBI Guidelines the Bharat Co-
operative Bank provided temporary relief, including an additional
facility of Rs. 9,48,531/- on 01.09.2020 to cover interest costs, and
allowing CD to defer payments. The CD through its letter of
acknowledgement of debts, documents and securities and consent of
borrowers, joint borrowers and sureties dated 01.09.2020 had
acknowledged the availing of credit facilities.
(v) The Bank vide a letter dated 07.12.2020 issued a notice to CD recalling
the entire outstanding along with further interest @10% from
01.01.2021 till clearance of entire outstanding loan amount within 7
days from the receipt of the notice. The Bank further informed the CD
that failing payment of entire outstanding the bank shall be constrained
to initiate recovery action under SARFAESI Act and/or under Section
84 of Multi-State Co-Operative Societies Act, 2002 or under any law
under force.
(vi) The bank further informed the CD vide the aforesaid letter that
Inspecting officials of RBI on 31.10.2020, had classified CD's account
as NPA as on 01.11.2019, as the restructuring of loan account was done
by the Bank, without getting cleared the entire outstanding Interest/
Overdue Principal amount. As on date of declaration of the NPA i.e.
01.11.2019 the aggregate principal outstanding amount of the CD was
Rs 16,21,73,514/-.
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -5-
(vii) The Bank issued a notice to recall the facilities on 19.03.2021 under
Section 13(2) of SARFAESI Act 2002 requiring the CD to pay all the
outstanding under all credit facility accounts within 60 days from the
date of receipt of the said notice.
(viii) The Bank vide assignment agreement dated 25.03.2021, assigned CD's
loans in favour of ASREC (India) Limited / Respondent-1, which
assumed debt recovery rights including all agreements, deeds and
documents thereto and all collateral and underlying security Interests
and or pledges created to secure and /or guarantees issued in respect
of, the repayment of loans.
(ix) Thereafter, the Respondent-1 filed an application under Section 7 of the
Code on 18.02.2023, for initiating CIRP against the CD, citing a default
date of 31.10.2020. The CD objected to the said petition invoking
Section 10A of the Code, which prohibits CIRP for defaults during the
COVID relief period. ASREC/R-1 amended its application, changing the
default date to 02.08.2019, arguing it predates the COVID exemption.
The Adjudicating Authority allowed the application of Respondent-1
and allowed necessary amendments to CIRP petition vide their orders
dated 13.10.2023 and 24.11.2023.
(x) On 09.01.2024, the Adjudicating Authority admitted the CIRP
application of Respondent-1, accepting the amended default date of
02.08.2019.
(xi) The Appellant contends that the NCLT disregarded evidence and failed
to consider objections, particularly the Section 10A exemption and
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -6-
conflicting default dates, and hence has filed this appeal for setting
aside the AA's order on procedural and legal grounds.
Submissions of the Appellant
4. Ld. Counsel for the appellant submits that this appeal is filed by Mr.
Puneet P. Bhatia, the suspended director of Barracks Retail India Private
Limited, under Section 61 of the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC).
The appellant contends that the Impugned Order should be set aside due to
significant errors in fact and law.
5. The counsel for the appellant argues that the default date cited by the
respondent falls within the period protected under the IBC's "10A" provision,
which shields certain defaults occurring during the COVID-19 pandemic from
CIRP proceedings. This period, introduced as a regulatory relief measure by
the Government of India, was aimed at alleviating the financial distress,
businesses faced due to the pandemic and was enacted specifically to prevent
companies from being pushed into insolvency. As the alleged default falls
within this "10A" period, the appellant asserts that the petition under Section
7 of the IBC is not maintainable.
6. It is further submitted by the counsel for the appellant that the Bank
sanctioned two distinct credit facilities for CD. The first facility was granted
on 21.03.2017, comprising a fresh term loan of INR 10 crores and a new cash
credit limit of INR 8 crores. Subsequently, on 18.08.2018, the second facility
was sanctioned, involving a renewal of the INR 8 crore cash credit limit and
the cancellation of an undisbursed loan amount of INR 389.40 lakhs. Both
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -7-
facilities were restructured once again on 17.03.2020, when the Bank
sanctioned an additional cash credit limit of INR 3 crores, along with a
restructuring of the existing cash credit and term loan facilities. This
restructuring was conducted to adapt to the evolving financial needs of the
CD.
7. The counsel for the appellant highlights that the Bank deferred interest
payments for the period from 01.03.2020 to 31.08.2020 in compliance with
the Reserve Bank of India's (RBI) COVID-19 Regulatory Package. This
deferment aimed to provide relief to borrowers during the pandemic. Since the
original date of default cited by the respondent allegedly arose post-
17.03.2020, during the moratorium period, the appellant contends that it
should be exempt from CIRP initiation as per Section 10A of the IBC. The
protective provisions of Section 10A explicitly cover defaults occurring during
the pandemic, rendering the initiation of CIRP against CD unwarranted under
law.
8. The counsel for the appellant stated that different dates of default have
been shown in different documents. In the notice dated 19.03.2021 under
Section 13(2) of SARFAESI Act, the date of NPA is mentioned as 31.03.2020.
In the Assignment of Debt documents, the date of Default as accepted by the
Respondent is mentioned as 31.10.2020. Further, the counsel for the
appellant asserted that the respondent has attempted to substantiate its
claims by referencing a recall notice issued on 07.12.2020, as well as the date
of default (31.10.2020) recorded in the National E-Governance Services
Limited (NESL) database.
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -8-
9. It is vehement submission of the Appellant that all these dates fall
within the protective "10A" period established under the IBC. Consequently,
any attempt to proceed with the CIRP based on these dates contradicts the
specific protections provided by the IBC during the pandemic. The appellant
further relies upon the Plus Corporate Ventures Private Limited v.
Transnational Growth Fund Limited Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency)
No. 1270 of 2022, wherein this Appellate Tribunal ruled that defaults within
the Section 10A period could not justify initiating CIRP under the IBC.
10. The appellant's counsel states that the respondent unilaterally altered
the date of default from 31.10.2020 to 02.08.2019 during the proceedings,
intending to bypass the protections of the 10A period. This unilateral
alteration is both inappropriate and inconsistent with the terms of the
restructuring facility dated 17.03.2020, which included a fresh credit limit
and a distinct date of default. By introducing a new date of default without
the appellant's agreement, the respondent disregarded the contractual
obligations binding on both parties. The appellant cites the judgement of this
Appellate Tribunal in Pradeep Madhukar More v. Central Bank of India
Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No. 837 of 2023, which holds that
restructuring dates, once established, remain legally binding on both parties
and any subsequent change must follow due legal process.
11. Furthermore, counsel for the appellant stated that the respondent's
attempt to justify its claims by relying on the recall letter dated 07.12.2020 is
legally flawed. The RBI guidelines stipulate that it is the lending bank that
has the authority to classify accounts as Non-Performing Assets (NPA), rather
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -9-
than the RBI. The language within the recall letter acknowledges the
restructuring/rescheduling that occurred, thereby binding both parties to the
restructured terms. Thus, the appellant argues that the date of default could
not reasonably predate the formal restructuring. Consequently, the
respondent's claims regarding the default date of 02.08.2019 lack legal
validity in light of the binding nature of the restructuring terms agreed upon
by both parties.
12. The counsel for the appellant submits that the Impugned Order issued
by the Ld. Adjudicating Authority is fundamentally flawed due to the omission
of critical evidence, notably the recall notice dated 07.12.2020, from its
findings. This omission, coupled with the incorrect reliance on the alleged
default date of 02.08.2019, undermines the integrity of the Impugned Order
and suggests a misinterpretation of the facts presented. The appellant
contends that the failure to consider this key evidence has resulted in a legally
untenable decision, and therefore, requests the Hon'ble Tribunal to set aside
the Impugned Order on this ground.
13. The counsel also submitted that the RBI Circular dated 01.07.2019
clarifies that it is the bank which declares the account as NPA and not the
RBI, in this regard he invited the attention to para 2.2.10 of the aforesaid
circular, which is reproduced below:
"2.2.10 NPA Reporting to Reserve Bank
Banks should report the figures of NPAs to the Regional Office of the
Reserve Bank at the end of each year within two months from the
close of the year in the prescribed proforma given in the Annex-2."
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -10-
14. Finally, summing up his arguments counsel for the appellant stated
that the Ld. Adjudicating Authority has disregarded the impact of the RBI's
COVID-19 Regulatory Packages and Section 10A of the IBC, which were
designed to provide temporary relief to businesses facing unprecedented
economic hardships due to the pandemic. The protections afforded by Section
10A should have precluded the initiation of CIRP based on any defaults falling
within this period. The omission of these protections in the Impugned Order
amounts to a substantive misinterpretation of both regulatory intent and
statutory protections. Therefore, the appellant submits that the Impugned
Order should be set aside in the interest of justice.
Submissions of the Respondent
15. The counsel for respondent submits that first issue to be determined is
whether date of default falls during 10A exemption period or not? In this
regard he mentioned the following:
i. The CD was irregular in making payments and made an application to
the Bank on 21.12.2019 for restructuring of their loan facilities. The
Bank issued Sanction Letter dated 17.03.2020 to restructure the loan
accounts subject to CD satisfying the terms and conditions of the
sanction letter.
ii. The terms and conditions of the Sanction Letter dated 17.03.2020
provided authority to the Bank to revoke said sanction letter dated
17.03.2020 and facilities granted thereunder, at any time, if the CD
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -11-
defaulted in fulfilling the terms and conditions of the said sanction
letter. The para 2 of the bank sanction letter is extracted below:
2. The Bank without assuming any liability, shall be entitled to:
i. withhold or cancel or revoke the credit facility/ies at once, if it is found hereafter that any information documents/ particulars furnished is /are incorrect, forged/misleading. Likewise, the Bank shall be entitled to discontinue the facilities in case of material changes in the circumstances/conditions which in the opinion of Bank will be / likely to be prejudicial to the interest of the bank. ii. discontinue the facility/ies and/or withhold further disbursement without assigning any reason, if there is a breach of any of the terms and conditions stipulated or the terms and conditions on which the facility/ies is/are sanctioned are not complied.
iii. revoke, cancel, alter, modify or change at any time any of the facility/ies sanctioned at its sole discretion without assigning any reasons for the same. Likewise the Bank shall also be entitled to alter, modify or change at any time any of the terms and conditions of the sanction at its sole discretion without assigning any reasons."
16. One of the mandatory terms of the sanction letter is the promoters of
CD were supposed to bring in Promoter's contribution i.e. 15% of the Bank's
sacrifice. This is a mandatory condition as prescribed under the RBI IRAC
guidelines.
17. The counsel submitted that the Covid 19 epidemic started from March
2020 onwards. The RBI conducted inspection of the FC in September 2020-
October 2020 for the financial year FY 2019-20. During the inspection by RBI,
it was found that Promoter of CD never brought in his contribution in
furtherance of the restructuring as mentioned in the Sanction Letter dated
17.03.2020 and hence, RBI found CD ineligible for any restructuring of their
loan facilities.
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -12-
18. Pursuant to inspection, Bank issued letter dated 07.12.2020 to the CD
and its promoters communicating that the CD was ineligible for restructuring
of their loan facilities and Bank recalled all the loan facilities granted to CD.
The promoters of CD never responded to the said letter dated 07.12.2020.
19. The counsel further stated that the Bank had to necessarily abide by
the findings and observations of the regulatory authority ie. RBI and hence
the loan account of CD was declared as NPA on 01.11.2019, as determined
by RBI. The date of default is 90 days prior to date of NPA, accordingly date
of default was fixed as 02.08.2019.
20. The counsel argued that the promoter was well acquainted with all
these communications, but he is trying to take advantage of the exemption
period, despite being in default all the time. Since the promoter did not fulfill
the terms and conditions of the Sanction letter dated 17.03.2020, the same
did not survive and stood revoked and cancelled vide letter dated 07.12.2020.
Therefore, the date of NPA was restored back to 01.11.2019 and consequently
the date of default restored to 02.08.2019 i.e. original date of default.
21. In regard to the issue about the amendment of date of default
mentioned in application under Section 7 of the Code, the counsel for
Respondent No. 1 made the following submissions:
i. The counsel stated that RBI conducted inspection of all the loan
accounts maintained with FC for financial year 2019-20 taking into
consideration financials till 31.03.2020. Upon inspection, the loan
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -13-
accounts of Appellant CD were classified as "Doubtful Asset" as on
31.03.2020.
ii. Doubtful Asset as defined in RBI Master Circular on Asset
Classification are the loan accounts which have remained Non-
Performing Asset for more than 12 months from the date of declaration
of loan accounts as NPA. The relevant para is extracted below:
"3.2.3 Doubtful Assets
With effect from March 31, 2005, an asset is required to be classified as doubtful, if it has remained NPA for more than 12 months. For Tier I banks, the 12-month period of classification of a substandard asset in doubtful category is effective from April 1, 2009. As in the case of sub- standard assets, rescheduling does not entitle the bank to upgrade the quality of an advance automatically. A loan classified as doubtful has all the weaknesses inherent as that classified as sub-standard, with the added characteristic that the weaknesses make collection or liquidation in full, on the basis of currently known facts, conditions and values, highly questionable and improbable."
iii. He submitted that the Bank issued letter dated 07.12.2020 to CD
informing that their loan accounts have been classified as NPA by RBI
officials on 31.10.2020 as of 01.11.2019. Since the date of default is
calculated from 90 days prior to the date of NPA ie. 01.11.2019, the
actual date of default committed by CD was on 02.08.2019.
iv. The counsel further stated that it is most important to note that RBI
had declared the loan accounts of CD as NPA as of 01.11.2019 during
inspection and risk assessment of Bharat Co-operative Bank Limited
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -14-
and the same will prevail over other dates mentioned in the present
appeal as the date of NPA.
v. The counsel further invited our attention to the Hon'ble Supreme
Court's judgment in Laxmi Pat Sunara vs. Union Bank of India &
Another (2021) 8 SCC 481 wherein in Paragraph - 43 the Court has
held that original date of default does not change merely because of
human error. It has been further held by the Hon'ble Supreme Court in
the said judgment that the period of limitation would be attracted from
the date when the default occurs and not from the date of declaration
of NPA. Therefore, the date of NPA cannot be taken to be the date of
default for the purpose of limitation. The extract of Para 43 of Laxmipat
Surana (supra) is extracted below:
"Ordinarily, upon declaration of the loan account/debt as NPA that
date can be reckoned as the date of default to enable the financial
creditor to initiate action under Section 7 IBC. However, Section 7
comes into play when the corporate debtor commits "default".
Section 7, consciously uses the expression "default"- not the date of
notifying the loan account of the corporate person as NPA. Further,
the expression "default" has been defined in Section 3(12) to mean
non-payment of "debt" when whole or any part or instalment of the
amount of debt has become due and payable and is not paid by the
debtor or the corporate debtor, as the case may be. In cases where
the corporate person had offered guarantee in respect of loan
transaction, the right of the financial creditor to initiate action
against such entity being a corporate debtor (corporate guarantor),
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -15-
would get triggered the moment the principal borrower commits
default due to non-payment of debt. Thus, when the principal
borrower and/or the (corporate) guarantor admit and acknowledge
their liability after declaration of NPA but before the expiration of
three years therefrom including the fresh period of limitation due to
(successive) acknowledgments, it is not possible to extricate them
from the renewed limitation accruing due to the effect of Section 18
of the Limitation Act. Section 18 of the Limitation Act gets attracted
the moment acknowledgment in writing signed by the party against
whom such right to initiate resolution process under Section 7 IBC
ensures. Section 18 of the Limitation Act would come into play every
time when the principal borrower and/or the corporate guarantor
(corporate debtor), as the case may be, acknowledge their liability
to pay the debt. Such acknowledgment, however, must be before
the expiration of the prescribed period of limitation including the
fresh period of limitation due to acknowledgment of the debt, from
time to time, for institution of the proceedings under Section 7 IBC.
Further, the acknowledgment must be of a liability in respect of
which the financial creditor can initiate action under Section 7 IBC."
22. The counsel for respondent then argued on the issue, whether date of
NPA determined by the RBI can be overturned merely because of inadvertent
misrepresentation of an officer. In this regard he made the following
submissions:
i. The counsel stated that Point 2.2.7.29 of RBI IRAC guidelines sets out
certain conditions which are to be complied with for restructuring of
loan accounts. The same is extracted below:
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -16-
"2.2.7.29:-However, these benefits will be available subject to compliance with the following conditions:
(v) Promoters' sacrifice and additional funds brought by them should be a minimum of 15% of banks' sacrifice."
ii. The counsel submitted that RBI being a regulatory authority
determined that compliance to the sanction letters were not met and
hence the CD was ineligible for restructuring and to that extent
sanction letter dated 17.03.2020 became void ab-initio and the same
was not tenable in the eyes of law. Therefore, the date of NPA became
01.11.2019 and the original date of default would be 02.08.2019 i.e. 90
days prior the date of NPA as per RBI IRAC Guidelines.
23. The counsel further stated that the Corporate Debtor neither objected
to the amendment sought by Respondent No. 1 in date of default nor they
preferred any appeal before the Hon'ble NCLAT against the amendment
orders. Pursuant to filing of reply by the Corporate Debtor before Ld.
Adjudicating Authority in original C.P. (IB) No. 280/2023, Respondent No. 1
sought liberty from the Ld. Adjudicating Authority to amend the company
petition and the same was granted to Respondent No. 1. The Corporate Debtor
was also granted liberty to contest the amendment, however, the Corporate
Debtor never filed a reply or formally objected to the amendment application.
The relevant orders of the AA dated 13.10.2023 and 24.11.2023 passed in
C.P. (IB) No. 280 of 2023 are extracted below:
"ORDER dated 13.10.2023 C.P. (IB)/280(MB)2023
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -17-
1) Mr. Sachin Daga, Ld. Counsel for the Financial Creditor and Mr. Sandeep Bajaj, Ld. Counsel for the Corporate Debtor are present.
2) Counsel for the Financial Creditor submits that Affidavit in Rejoinder has been filed and placed on record; however, Ld. Counsel for the Corporate Debtor takes objection contending that the Financial Creditor is attempting to modify its Original case by way of Affidavit in Rejoinder.
3) Accordingly, Counsel for the Financial Creditor seeks leave of this Bench to amend the Company Petition thereby amending Form 1 Part IV, to deal with the objections. Leave as prayed is allowed. The Respondent shall be at liberty to contest the amendment, on merits.
4) Financial Creditor is directed to carry out the necessary amendment forthwith and the amended copies be served on the other side and parties concerned, well before the adjourned date.
5) Corporate Debtor shall file and place on record Affidavit in Reply, if they so desire, by duly serving a copy to the other side well in advance.
6) Stand over to 24.11.2023, for further consideration and hearing."
24.11.2023:- Both the parties are present.
2. This bench permits Financial Creditor to file an amendment
affidavit, the Corporate Debtor seek one (1) week time which
is granted to file reply.
3. Listed on 08.12.2023."
(Emphasis Supplied)
24. The counsel for respondents submitted that Appellant's had ample
opportunity to object to the amendment application on further hearings,
however, they did not object or formally file reply to the amendment
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -18-
application of Respondent No. 1. Furthermore, the Ld. Adjudicating Authority
while passing the impugned judgment dated 09.01.2024 has considerably
dealt with the arguments of both parties on amendment carried out by
Respondent No. 1 and has upheld the same.
25. The counsel submitted that, when the Appellant's company never
objected when the permission to carry out amendment was sought initially,
then the Appellant is barred from raising objections regarding such
amendments at the stage of Appeal. He submitted that in light of the
abovementioned submissions, the present company appeal filed before the
Hon'ble Court deserves to be dismissed with costs.
Analysis and Findings
26. We have heard the parties in detail and perused the records. Parties
have also filed their written submissions which has been taken on record.
27. Upon careful examination of the facts, evidence, and submissions
presented in this appeal, it is evident that the core issue revolves around the
validity of the amended default date cited by the respondent and the
applicability of Section 10A of the Code. The appellant has challenged the
order of the Adjudicating Authority, which admitted the Corporate Insolvency
Resolution Process (CIRP) application filed by the respondent. The appellant
contends that the initial default date of 31.10.2020 falls within the
moratorium period under Section 10A, rendering the CIRP application invalid.
The respondent, however, argues that the default date was subsequently
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -19-
amended to 02.08.2019, predating the Section 10A period, and thus the CIRP
application is maintainable.
28. There are two issues involved for the determination in the present
appeal: -
a) Whether the Date of Default can be changed after filing the petition
under Section 7 of the Code?
b) Whether in the present case the date of default has been correctly
identified?
We examine both these issues in detail in subsequent paras.
29. The Corporate Debtor had availed various credit facilities from Bharat
Cooperative Bank through successive sanction letters dated 21.03.2017,
14.08.2018, and 11.03.2020. Despite these agreements and restructuring
efforts, the CD failed to meet payment deadlines, resulting in the debt claimed
by ASREC.
30. ASREC (India) Limited/R-1 initially filed its Section 7 petition stating a
default date of 31.10.2020, which was later amended to 02.08.2019. The
tribunal permitted this amendment on 13.10.2023. The revised date is crucial
as it aims to establish that the default occurred outside the Section 10A
exemption period (introduced to protect defaults during the COVID-19
pandemic).
31. In interpreting whether the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) can
allow amendments to the date of default in applications filed under Section 7
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -20-
of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), we have seen the Judgement of
Hon'ble Supreme Court in Dena Bank v. C. Shivakumar Reddy and Another
[Citation: (2021) 10 SCC 330]. The relevant paragraphs 26, 73, 74, 75, 76,
77, 91, 93 and 144 are extracted below:
"26. A third issue which arises for adjudication of this Court
is, whether there is any bar in law to the amendment of
pleadings, in a Petition under Section 7 of the IBC, or to the filing
of additional documents, apart from those filed initially, along
with the Petition under Section 7 of the IBC in Form-1.
73. Since a Financial Creditor is required to apply under
Section 7 of the IBC, in statutory Form 1, the Financial Creditor
can only fill in particulars as specified in the various columns of
the Form. There is no scope for elaborate pleadings. An
application to the Adjudicating Authority (NCLT) under Section 7
of the IBC in the prescribed form, cannot therefore, be compared
with the plaint in a suit. Such application cannot be judged by
the same standards, as a plaint in a suit, or any other pleadings
in a Court of law.
74. Section 7(3) requires a financial creditor making an
application under Section 7(1) to furnish records of the default
recorded with the information utility or such other record or
evidence of default as may be specified; the name of the
resolution professional proposed to act as an Interim Resolution
Professional and any other information as may be specified by
the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India.
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -21-
75. Section 7(4) of the IBC casts an obligation on the
Adjudicating Authority to ascertain the existence of a default
from the records of an information utility or on the basis of other
evidence furnished by the financial creditor within fourteen
days of the receipt of the application under Section 7. As per the
proviso to Section 7(4) of the IBC, inserted by amendment, by
Act 26 of 2019, if the Adjudicating Authority has not ascertained
the existence of default and passed an order within the
stipulated period of time of fourteen days, it shall record its
reasons for the same in writing. The application does not lapse
for non-compliance of the time schedule. Nor is the Adjudicating
Authority obliged to dismiss the application. On the other hand,
the application cannot be dismissed, without compliance with
the requisites of the Proviso to Section 7(5) of the IBC.
76. Section 7(5)(a) provides that when the Adjudicating
Authority is satisfied that a default has occurred, and the
application under sub- section (2) of Section 7 is complete and
there is no disciplinary proceeding pending against the
proposed resolution professional, it may by order admit such
application. As per Section 7(5)(b), if the Adjudicating Authority
is satisfied that default has not occurred or the application
under sub-Section (2) of Section 7 is incomplete or any
disciplinary proceeding is pending against the proposed
resolution professional, it may, by order, reject such application,
provided that the Adjudicating Authority shall, before rejecting
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -22-
the application under sub- section (b) of Section 5, give notice to
the applicant, to rectify the defects in his application, within 7
days of receipt of such notice from the Adjudicating Authority.
77. The Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process commences
on the date of admission of the application under sub-section (5)
of Section 7 of the IBC. Section 7(7) casts an obligation on the
Adjudicating Authority to communicate an order under clause
(a) of sub-section (5) of Section 7 to the financial creditor and the
corporate debtor and to communicate an order under clause (b)
of sub-section (5) of Section 7 to the financial creditor within
seven days of admission or rejection of such application, as the
case may be. Sections 8 and 9 of IBC pertain to Insolvency
Resolution by an operational creditor and are not attracted in
the facts and circumstances of this case. Section 10 pertains to
initiation of Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process by the
Corporate Debtor itself, and is also not attracted in the facts and
circumstances of the case.
91. On a careful reading of the provisions of the IBC and in
particular the provisions of Section 7(2) to (5) of the IBC read
with the 2016 Adjudicating Authority Rules there is no bar to
the filing of documents at any time until a final order either
admitting or dismissing the application has been passed.
93. Furthermore, the proviso to Section 7(5)(b) of the IBC
obliges the Adjudicating Authority to give notice to an applicant,
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -23-
to rectify the defect in its application within seven days of
receipt of such notice from the Adjudicating Authority, before
rejecting its application under Clause (b) of sub-section (5) of
Section 7 of the IBC. When the Adjudicating Authority calls upon
the applicant to cure some defects that defect has to be rectified
within seven days. There is no penalty prescribed for inability
to cure the defects in an application within seven days from the
date of receipt of notice, and in an appropriate case, the
Adjudicating Authority may accept the cured application, even
after expiry of seven days, for the ends of justice.
144. There is no bar in law to the amendment of pleadings
in an application under Section 7 of the IBC, or to the filing of
additional documents, apart from those initially filed along with
application under Section 7 of the IBC in Form-1. In the absence
of any express provision which either prohibits or sets a time
limit for filing of additional documents, it cannot be said that the
Adjudicating Authority committed any illegality or error in
permitting the Appellant Bank to file additional documents.
Needless however, to mention that depending on the facts and
circumstances of the case, when there is inordinate delay, the
Adjudicating Authority might, at its discretion, decline the
request of an applicant to file additional pleadings and/or
documents, and proceed to pass a final order. In our considered
view, the decision of the Adjudicating Authority to entertain
and/or to allow the request of the Appellant Bank for the filing
of additional documents with supporting pleadings, and to
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -24-
consider such documents and pleadings did not call for
interference in appeal."
(Emphasis Supplied)
32. In the aforesaid case, Dena Bank sought to initiate insolvency
proceedings against a corporate debtor by filing a Section 7 application with
the NCLT. The bank' s petition was based on the default date related to a Non-
Performing Asset (NPA) declared years earlier. Dena Bank later sought to rely
on new documents and amendments. Hon'ble Supreme Court vide judgement
(supra) ruled that amendments to the application or submission of additional
documents could be made before the final order admitting or rejecting the
petition under Section 7. The Court clarified that the law does not explicitly
bar such amendments, as they support the IBC's goal of comprehensive debt
recovery. However, the Court noted that such amendments should not
manipulate the limitation period, but may reflect new acknowledgments of
debt or judgments creating a fresh cause of action.
33. The Dena Bank judgment (supra) explicitly states that in the
proceedings under the CIRP before the NCLT, there is no scope for elaborate
pleadings. An application to the Adjudicating Authority (NCLT) under Section
7 of the IBC in the prescribed form, cannot be compared with the plaint in a
suit. Such application cannot be judged by the same standards, as a plaint
in a suit, or any other pleadings in a Court of law. It further clarifies that
under the provisions of Section 7 of the Code, NCLT can allow amendments
to pleadings under the CIPR proceedings before the final order is passed.
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -25-
34. We observe that in the present case also, the Tribunal noted the
updated date of default as 02.08.2019, and relied on the financial records,
sanction letters, and debt assignment documents provided by ASREC to
substantiate the grounds for default and validate the claim. The amendment
of pleadings in this case was allowed by the AA, which provided for the date
of default as 02.08.2019.
35. The appellant has cited the judgement of this Appellate tribunal in Plus
Corporate Ventures Private Limited vs. Transnational Growth Fund Limited,
Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No. 1270 of 2022, wherein it was held that
defaults occurring during the COVID-19 moratorium period, covered under
Section 10A of the Code are protected from Corporate Insolvency Resolution
Process (CIRP) initiation. The appellant argues that their default should also
fall within this COVID-19 moratorium and be protected by Section 10A. They
assert that the default occurred within the period specified under Section 10A,
thus rendering the initiation of CIRP legally barred.
36. However, in the present case, Unlike Plus Corporate Ventures (Supra),
where the default date clearly fell within the Section 10A period, there is
dispute in the current case, over whether the default indeed occurred during
this period. The respondent asserts that the default date was August 2, 2019,
which predates the Section 10A moratorium period. This amended default
date, places the present case outside the protective scope of Section 10A. As
such, the ratio of Plus Corporate Ventures to this case does not apply.
37. The appellant has also placed reliance on this Appellate Tribunal's
judgement in Pradeep Madhukar More vs. Central Bank of India, Company
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -26-
Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No. 837 of 2023, decided on September 26, 2023, to
support their argument that a new default date should be considered
following any loan restructuring. In Pradeep Madhukar More (Supra) it was
held that a restructuring agreement creates a new set of obligations that
supersede the original terms, setting a fresh default timeline based on the
restructured agreement. The appellant argues that this principle should apply
in their case, as the loan facilities were restructured in March 2020, and
therefore any default date prior to this restructuring should be rendered
irrelevant.
38. In contrast to Pradeep Madhukar More, where it was held that the
restructuring agreement as the authoritative source for establishing default,
the present case presents a different scenario. The respondent claims that the
original default date was August 2, 2019, before the restructuring agreement.
Their contention is that restructuring does not reset the default timeline, but
merely acknowledges a pre-existing default. We observe that the documentary
evidence cited in Pradeep Madhukar More clearly supported the restructuring
date as a new timeline for default. However, we observe that in the present
case, there were repeated restructuring of the loan and the appellant failed to
fulfil its obligations under the restructuring, which was the essential
condition for the restructuring leading to is failure. Accordingly, as per the
clauses of the restructuring the bank had recalled the loan facility and after
due notice filed SARFAESI case for loan recovery. The failure of restructuring
therefore did not lead to any change in date of default.
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -27-
39. The appellant further argued that the debt arrangement in this case
should fall under the blanket protections of the Section 10A moratorium, as
payments were restructured in March 2020 due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
This interpretation is in consonance with the rationale in several judgments,
including Ramesh Kymal vs. Siemens Gamesa Renewable Power Private
Limited, (2021) 3 SCC 224, and Life Insurance Corporation of India vs. Sanjeev
Builders Pvt. Ltd. & Anr., (2022) SCC OnLine SC 1128. Both of these Supreme
Court rulings emphasized that Section 10A provides broad protection for
defaults occurring during the COVID-19 period, intending to shield financially
distressed businesses from insolvency proceedings caused by the pandemic.
40. Yet, for the Section 10A protection to apply here, the appellant must
demonstrate a direct link between the default and the COVID-19 impact,
aligning with the findings in Ramesh Kymal and Sanjeev Builders. In this case,
the respondent's contention that the original default date was August 2, 2019,
prior to the pandemic, suggests that the default was unrelated to COVID-19,
and therefore falls outside Section 10A's scope. The appellant's argument is
further complicated by the bank's actions, as the restructuring implies
acknowledgment of the pre-pandemic default rather than a fresh default
related to COVID-19. Thus, the respondent's substantiation of an August
2019 default date does not support the appellant's reliance on cases such as
Plus Corporate Ventures and Gaurav Hargovindbhai Dave vs. Asset
Reconstruction Company (India) Limited & Anr., (2019) 10 SCC 572, which
both reinforce Section 10A's protections, but do not support defaults pre-
dating the pandemic.
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -28-
41. The appellant has also argued that the amendment of the default date
by the respondent constitutes procedural manipulation aimed at bypassing
Section 10A protections. However, it is seen that the amendment was duly
made during the CIRP proceedings before the AA, as per laid down procedure
following the principles of natural justice. The AA exercised its discretion
appropriately in allowing the amendment. The appellant has not
demonstrated any prejudice resulting from this amendment or any procedural
irregularities in the tribunal's decision to permit it.
42. We have seen from the above discussion that as per the provisions of
the Code, the NCLT is empowered to allow the parties to amend the pleadings
before the final orders in CIRP proceedings are passed. This would however
be subject to the procedure laid down in the code, as confirmed by Dena Bank
(Supra). We have observed that the Adjudication Authority in this case has
correctly followed the laid down process and the judgement of Dena bank
(supra) is applicable squarely in this case. We therefore hold that the
amendment of date of default has been correctly allowed by AA.
43. In determining the validity of the amended date of default, it is crucial
to examine the evidence relied upon by the respondent. It is seen that RBI as
the regulatory authority during the inspection of the bank found that
compliance with the conditions laid down in the sanction letters were not met
and hence the CD was ineligible for restructuring. Accordingly, due to non-
compliance the extent sanction letter dated 17.03.2020 became void ab-initio
and the same was not tenable in the eyes of law. Banks have to mandatorily
comply with the guidelines of the RBI in this regard. Therefore, the date of
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -29-
NPA became 01.11.2019 and the original date of default would be 02.08.2019
i.e., 90 days prior the date of NPA as per RBI IRAC Guidelines. The amended
date of 02.08.2019 is also supported by records from the National E-
Governance Services Limited (NESL) database, which confirms the occurrence
of a default prior to the COVID-19 moratorium period.
44. Furthermore, the respondent's reliance on a recall notice issued on
07.12.2020 highlights the prolonged financial distress of the corporate debtor.
The appellant's argument that the restructuring agreement of March 2020
reset the default timeline lacks merit. Restructuring agreements, while
providing temporary relief, do not negate pre-existing defaults unless
explicitly stated. The evidence presented does not suggest that the
restructuring agreement created a fresh default timeline or nullified the earlier
default of 02.08.2019. This finding aligns with the principles established in
precedent cases, where the courts have consistently held that restructuring
efforts do not alter the classification of a loan as a Non-Performing Asset
(NPA), unless significant repayments or compliance with revised terms occur.
45. Section 10A of the IBC was introduced to provide relief to businesses
affected by the economic impact of the COVID-19 pandemic by precluding
insolvency proceedings for defaults occurring between 25.03.2020 and
25.03.2021. The appellant's reliance on Section 10A is premised on the initial
default date of 31.10.2020, which falls within this protected period. However,
the respondent's assertion of a default on 02.08.2019 predates the
moratorium period, rendering Section 10A inapplicable. The appellant has
failed to provide evidence that directly links the default to the impact of the
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -30-
pandemic. The mere fact that restructuring occurred in March 2020 does not,
in itself, establish that the default arose during the Section 10A period.
Consequently, the appellant's reliance on precedents such as Plus Corporate
Ventures Pvt. Ltd. v. Transnational Growth Fund Ltd. is misplaced, as these
cases involved defaults unequivocally occurring within the protected period.
46. In addition, the appellant's claim that the restructuring agreement set
a new repayment schedule that superseded the earlier obligations is not
substantiated by the evidence on record. The Reserve Bank of India's
guidelines on restructuring do not suggest that pre-existing defaults are
automatically nullified by subsequent restructuring agreements. Rather,
restructuring serves to provide temporary relief, while acknowledging the
debtor's existing financial obligations. The documentation provided by the
respondent supports the conclusion that the default occurred on 02.08.2019
and that subsequent restructuring efforts did not negate this default.
47. The respondent's actions in initiating CIRP are consistent with the
objectives of the IBC, which prioritize the resolution of insolvency cases in a
time-bound manner to maximize asset value and ensure the equitable
treatment of creditors. The evidence presented demonstrates the corporate
debtor's prolonged financial incapacity and failure to fulfill its debt obligations
despite multiple opportunities to restructure and repay. The respondent, as a
financial creditor, is entitled to seek relief under the IBC when defaults are
established and substantiated by documentary evidence. The Hon'ble
Supreme Court's decision in Swiss Ribbons Pvt. Ltd. v. Union of India
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024 -31-
underscores the importance of balancing creditor rights and debtor
obligations within the insolvency framework.
48. In light of the above discussion, we find no infirmity in the impugned
order of the Adjudicating Authority. The appeal is dismissed, pending IAs if
any, are disposed accordingly. There is no order as to costs.
[Justice Rakesh Kumar Jain] Member (Judicial)
[Mr. Naresh Salecha] Member (Technical)
[Mr. Indevar Pandey] Member (Technical)
sa
Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 139 of 2024
This page reproduces a public judgment and a summary of it. It is research material, not legal advice, and it is no substitute for advice from an advocate on your own facts.
Research this judgment with Miss Lucy
Ask what it holds, what has followed it, and what it means for your matter — in plain English, with the citations.
Try Miss Lucy free