Akshay Kumar Bhatia vs Cue Learn Private Limited
- CitationCompany Appeal (AT) (Ins) No.454 of 2025
Ratio decidendi
The rule this decision rests on
A pre-existing dispute on the contractual term governing payment (whether the second instalment is payable irrespective of performance of the second service day, or is contingent on it) is a genuine dispute that bars initiation of CIRP under Section 9, where the corporate debtor's defence is plausible rather than fanciful; the Adjudicating Authority must test the defence for plausibility, identify ambiguities without resolving them by construing the contract as a civil court would, and not decide disputed facts on a preponderance of probabilities. A claim for damages for breach of contract does not, by itself, constitute an operational debt under Section 5(21) of the IBC, and a mere right to claim damages is not a debt for commencing CIRP, even though such a claim may be made under Section 3(6).
Written by Miss Lucy from the judgment below, not taken from a headnote.
Judgment
As delivered
Mr. Akshay Kumar Bhatia ...Appellant
Vs
M/s. Cue Learn Private Limited ...Respondent
(Arising out of Order dated 07.01.2025 passed by the Adjudicating Authority (National Company Law Tribunal, New Delhi Bench, Court IV) in C.P. (IB) No. 572 of 2022)
For Appellant: Mr. Krishnendu Datta, Sr. Advocate with Mr. Anish Agarwal, Mr. Pratik Chakma, Ms. Natasha Bagga, Mr. Abinav Maurya, Ms. Alina Merin Mathew, Ms. Tanisha Chaudhary, Advocates For Respondent: Mr. Prithu Garg, Mr. Shivam Singh, Mr. Ashutosh Arvind Kumar, Advocates
JUDGEMENT
Per Justice N. Seshasayee, Member (Judicial)
1. This appeal is preferred challenging the Order of the Adjudicating
Authority in C.P.(IB) 572 of 2022, dated 07.01.2025, dismissing a 2
petition filed by the appellant to initiate a CIRP against the respondent
under Sec.9 IBC.
Facts:
2. The broad facts that lead up to this appeal are required to be outlined.
The appellant herein is an actor and is a popular film star. On
08.03.2021, a tripartite agreement, styled as 'Endorsement Agreement'
came to be executed as between the Respondent as the First party, the
Appellant as the Second party and one Culture Company (P) Ltd., as
the Third party. (The role of the third party to the contract is largely
passive vis-à-vis the purpose of the working agreement, and except in
reply to the demand notice under Sec.8 IBC, it does not find any
reference anywhere in the facts constituting the present dispute). In
other words, the contractual obligations required to be performed are
essentially between the appellant and the respondent herein. The
salient features of the contract which are contextually relevant are:
a) Clause 2 of the said Agreement declares that the term of the
agreement is for two years (from 08.03.2021 and 07.03.2023).
Clause 3.2 of the agreement stipulates that during this period the
appellant has to make himself available for not more than two
days and render his services to the respondent for which
appellant was to be paid Rs.8.10 crores in terms of Clause 5 of
the Agreement. The mode of payment was detailed in Clause
5.1.1 and 5.1.2.
3
b) In terms of Clause 5.1.1, the respondent is required to pay
Rs.4.05 crores (50% of the consideration stipulated in Clause 5)
on or before 08.03.2021. Clause 5.1.2 provides that Rs.4.05
crores is required to be paid on or before 15.04.2022 or seven
days prior to the utilisation of the second of the two days period,
whichever is earlier.
c) The payment in terms of Clause 5.1.1. was paid, and the
appellant's services were utilised for one day (even though, as
would be seen shortly, the reply to the Sec.8 demand notice
seems to allege that the appellant was yet to notify the two days
of his convenience, implying thereby that the appellant has not
rendered any service under the contract). The appellant however,
was not paid the balance 50% in terms of Clause 5.1.2 of the
agreement. In this backdrop, the appellant raised an invoice
dated 15.04.2022 on the respondent for, what the appellant
considered as the balance 50% payable in terms of Clause 5.1.2
of the contract. There was no response to this invoice.
d) Therefore, on 20.05.2022, the appellant issued a statutory
demand notice under Sec.8 IBC, and this was responded to by
the respondent with its reply dated 25.05.2022. To this, on
22.06.2022, the appellant sent its rejoinder.
e) The Respondent's line of defence as could be gathered both from
its reply to Sec.8 notice that no invoice dated 15.04.2022 as
alleged to have been issued was not received, that as per clauses
5.1.1 and 5.2.1 of the contract, without a valid invoice, no liability 4
arises, that discussions were held with Culture Company (the
third party to the contract)'s representative , that in terms of
clauses 5.1 read with Clause 5.2.1, artist must confirm the
availability for two days before payment obligation arises, and
that no mutually agreed dates were ever confirmed, and that the
respondent was awaiting the appellant's confirmation of two days
availability. In its rejoinder to this reply, the appellant would inter
alia contend that the contract does not envisage raising of invoice
for making payment, and at any rate separate invoices were
raised for payment due both under Clauses 5.1.1. and 5.1.2, and
the second invoice was served in the same manner as was the
first invoice.
3. Without any loss of time, the appellant had laid his petition under Sec.9
IBC. The respondent's principal plank of defence was that the
operational debt claimed by the appellant is embroiled in the
construction of the terms of the contract as to whether appellant is
entitled to claim remuneration for the service not rendered on the
second of the two days dedicated period, and that if at all any, the
appellant can only claim damages for breach of contract, but it will not
constitute operational debt under Sec.5(21) of the IBC.
4. Holding that there exists a pre-existing dispute vis-à-vis the
construction of the contract (the Endorsement Agreement), and that at
the best the appellant might be entitled to damages for breach of
contract which falls outside the definition of operational debt, the 5
Adjudicating Authority chose to dismiss the appellant's petition under
Sec.9 IBC. Hence the present appeal.
Appellant's Arguments:
5. The learned counsel for the Appellant argued:
a) that the cause of action for the appellant to seek initiation of a CIRP
involves an understanding of the contract between the parties. A
plain reading of the contract and ascertaining the intent of the
parties is not the same as construction of an ambiguous document.
Sec.94 and Sec.95 of the BSA (previously Sec.91 and 92 of the
Evidence Act) forbids the admissibility of any parole evidence to vary
the terms of a contract. On a plain reading of the Endorsement
Agreement dated 08.03.2021, its quintessential feature is that the
appellant, an artist, shall render services to the respondent for which
the appellant shall set aside two days to be fixed based on mutual
convenience during the contractual term of two years (which was to
end on 07.03.2023) for a consideration to be paid. And the dispute
is over payment of consideration.
b) Payment for the services to be rendered is stipulated in clause 5 of
the contract. Clause 5 says that the appellant shall be paid Rs.8.10
crores plus GST for making himself available to render services, and
it further stipulates the manner of payment in clauses 5.1 and 5.2.
Under Clause 5.1, the appellant was to be paid Rs.4.05 crores plus
taxes and GST on or before 08.03.2021 (the day on which the
agreement was entered into by the parties) or 7 days prior to the 6
utilization of the first day of the two days on which the appellant was
to render his services. This amount was paid, and the appellant had
also rendered his services for one day, even though the respondent
appears to deny that the appellant had ever rendered any services.
c) So far as the payment of the balance amount goes, Clause 5.2 of the
contract stipulates that Rs.4.05 crores plus taxes should be paid on
or before 15.04.2022 or seven days prior to the utilisation of the
second day, whichever is earlier. The phrase "whichever earlier"
makes evident that the Clause 5.2 has created an independent
obligation to make unconditional payment and it is not made related
to the services to be performed. Once the payment for the two
dedicated days is made, it is for the respondent to utilise the services
of the appellant. The respondent however, intends to efface the
phrase 'whichever is earlier' and tries to bring in an interpretation
that payment must be made for actual services, which the plain
reading of clause 5.2 read with clause 5 does not accommodate. The
contention of the appellant stands fortified by a combined reading of
Clause 5, 5.2, 7.2(c) and (d), and clause 3.6(b). In terms of clause
7.2(c), when the respondent defaults, all amounts including the
entire consideration become immediately due and payable while
both clause 7.2(d) and 3.6(b) provides that on respondent's default,
the appellant would not be liable to refund that the payment he had
received. The respondent has used the services of the appellant for
one day, and if it does not use the second day, then it is the choice 7
it has made, and it cannot be made to relate itself to the
unconditional obligation to make the payment in terms of clause 5.2.
d) Any unconditional obligation to make payment constitutes a debt,
and when there is a default in paying it, it gives rise to a cause of
action for seeking the initiation of CIRP against the corporate debtor
under Sec.9 IBC. Any right to payment including that which arises
out of a breach of contract would amount to claim and as held in
Pioneer Urban Land Vs Union of India [(2019) 8 SCC 416], it need
not even be adjudicated by a civil court and replaces the earlier
understanding that breach of contract give rise only to a claim of
damages as held in UOI Vs Raman Iron Foundary [(1974) 2 SCC
231]. It would therefore constitute a debt and any default in paying
the same enables the invocation of Sec.9 IBC.
e) To outmanoeuvre the logical consequence which flow from a plain
reading of Clause 5.2 read with 5 and 3.6(b) of the contract, the
respondent attempts to develop an argument that obligation to
comply with Clause 5.2 is directly associated with actual rendering
of services. Even by the ratio in Mobilox Innovations case [(2018)
1 SCC 353] it is a sham defence.
Reliance was placed on the ratio in Somesh Choudhary v. Knight
Riders Sports P. Ltd. [2022 SCC OnLine NCLAT 3505], Union of India
v. Raman Iron Foundry [(1974) 2 SCC 231], H.P. Housing & Urban
Development Authority v. Ranjit Singh Rana [(2012)4 8
SCC505:(2012) 2SCC(Civ)639], New Okhla Industrial Development
Authority v. Anand Sonbhadra [(2023) 1 SCC 724],
Respondent's Arguments
6. Per contra, the learned counsel for the respondent submitted:
a) The respondent's counsel maintained that the appellant's claim for
the second instalment of ₹4.05 crores does not qualify as an
operational debt under Section 9 of the IBC.
b) The payment was contingent upon performance of the second day of
endorsement services. Since the artist (appellant) neither has offered
nor rendered the services for the second day, the contractual
condition precedent for paying the second instalment has not arisen.
In other words, prior to 15th April, neither the respondent required
the appellant to provide his services for the second day, nor the
appellant had an occasion to offer any contracted service. To state it
differently, when the respondent has not availed the second day and
it is not under any obligation to make any payments. The contract
has created reciprocal obligations and mutual performance was
essential before payment liability could arise. Neither clauses 7.2(c)
or (d) nor Clause 3.6(b) provide for payment without services.
c) When no services were provided, there is no need for making any
payment, and hence there is no issue of any operational debt arising
out of this circumstance. Necessarily there does not arise any default 9
in paying a debt either. The respondent has highlighted the
ambiguity in understanding the terms of the contract, which is
evident from the correspondence before issuance of the demand
notice made this clear. Since the point, whether the obligation to pay
the second instalment was automatic or is contingent, has been
disputed even prior to the demand notice, it satisfies the Mobilox
test of 'genuine pre-existing dispute'. Hence invoking Sec.9 IBC is
barred under the scheme of IBC. After all IBC is not a recovery
mechanism.
Reliance was placed on the ratio in Union of India v. Ram Iron
Foundry [AIR 1974 SC 1265], Tower Vision India Pvt. Ltd. v. Procall
Private Limited [2012 SCC Online Del 4396], Chandrashekhar
Exports Pvt. Ltd. v. Babanraoji Shinde Sugar & Allied Industries
Ltd. [C.P. No. 3667/IBC/MB/2019], Chandrashekhar Exports Pvt.
Ltd. v. Babanraoji Shinde Sugar & Allied Industries Ltd. [C.A.
(AT)(INS) No. 1032 of 2023], Mobilox Innovations Private Limited v.
Kirusa Software Private Limited [(2018) 1 SCC 353], Pioneer Urban
Land and Infrastructure Ltd. v. Union of India [(2019) 8 SCC 416],
Swiss Ribbons (P) Ltd. v. Union of India [(2019) 4 SCC 17].
Discussion & Decision
7. Both sides punctuated their arguments with authorities carrying
precedential value. The principles however, are settled, and they are 10
merely required to be reiterated to provide a basis for our approach to
this case:
a) That the existence of a debt and default, the two fundamental factors
which provide a cause for initiating a CIRP, should be beyond doubt
or debate. To state it differently, the debt and default should not
have been embroiled in a dispute between the parties at any time
prior to the initiation of CIRP under Sec.9 IBC, indeed even prior to
the demand notice required to be issued under Sec.8 IBC. Where
any of these factors is under a shadow of a genuine dispute, then
CD will be in safe zone as CIRP cannot be commenced.
b) Where the CD pivots its defence in a pre-existing dispute over debt
or default, the defence so raised shall have to undergo a forensic
scrutiny by the Adjudicating Authority for ascertaining the prospects
of it being at least plausible. The Adjudicating Authority may
therefore, have to scan and probe every relevant material made
available before it which includes a plain understanding of any
written contract between the parties. In this pursuit even as the
Adjudicating Authority examines any written contract, it is still
beyond its jurisdiction to construct a contract the way a civil court
would do. To expatiate it, if there are any ambiguities in the material
terms of the contract which affect the endeavour of the Adjudicating
Authority to gather the real intent of the contracting parties, then
the Adjudicating Authority is merely required to identify it but not to
iron out the creases for discovering the real intent purported to be
conveyed by the terms of the contract. After all the endeavour of the 11
Adjudicating Authority is limited to ascertaining the existence of the
facts which may enable the commencement of a CIRP, and not to
adjudicate on any disputed fact, based on preponderance of
probabilities as in a recovery proceeding.
The contentions of the rival parties in this case will now be tested on
the plane of these principles.
8. There is no dispute that the contract required the appellant to set aside
2 days within two years ending 07.03.2023 for rendering services,
which in terms of Clause 3.2 of the contract, must be at the date, time
and place and schedules to be mutually agreed to by the parties in
writing. The appellant was paid 50% of the sum agreed to be paid as
consideration for two days as signing amount as provided in Clause
5.1.1, and his services too have been procured for a day. Admittedly,
the second day services were not procured, but the appellant has made
his claim for the second instalment in terms of Clause 5.2. The point
is whether non-payment of the amount stipulated to be paid under
clause 5.1.2 gives rise to an operational debt, or does it merely give rise
to a cause of action for claiming damages for breach of contract.
9. The quintessence of the controversy therefore, is what exactly is the
intent of the parties when they entered into a contract vis-à-vis the
payment of total consideration of Rs.8.10 crores in terms of Clauses 5,
5.1.1, and 5.1.2: whether the total consideration is required to be made
for the services to be rendered irrespective of the number of days over 12
which such service is promised to be rendered, or is it merely payment
for the day on which service is rendered. To be more specific, is the
payment of consideration of Rs.8.10 crores plus taxes is work specific -
for one work to be rendered over a period not exceeding two days, or is
it time specific, which is to mean, consideration of Rs.4.05 crores
payable for every day when the services are rendered by the appellant?
10. Since the parties are at variance on this issue, and inasmuch as
the respondent has raised a dispute over it, it now becomes imperative
to ascertain what the plain reading of the contract supports. It is
underscored that our effort is to identify if a plausible dispute exists in
understanding the terms of the contract and not how we harmonise
internal inconsistences, if any.
11. It made clear that that if the issue eventually boils down to one
involving breach of contract on the part of the respondent entitling the
appellant to a claim for damages, then in terms of Sec.3(6) of the Code,
the appellant would be entitled to make a claim, but a mere right to
claim damages will not still constitute any debt within the meaning of
an operational debt as defined under Sec.5(21). While a claim may
include a debt, not every claim will constitute a debt for commencing a
CIRP. As outlined earlier, there will be a need to travel thus far to enter
a finding on it only if we find that the plain reading of the contract leads
to a conclusion that the defence resting on a pre-existing dispute is
fanciful and sham.
13
12. To commence, whether a plain reading of the contract indicates
that the choice of the expression which the contracting parties have
used for conveying their intent leaves an element of ambiguity in
understanding that intent. Here, the learned counsel for the appellant
contended that Sec.94 & 95 of the BSA (corresponding to Secs. 91 and
92 of the Evidence Act) prohibited the admissibility of parole evidence
to vary the term of the contract. We cannot but admit this statutory
position. That however, may be relevant in a situation where a judicial
fora is invited to construct a contract on the basis of any facts which
are extraneous to the express terms of the contract. We have already
indicated that we are only required to identify if the pre-existing dispute
which the CD puts forth on the basis of its understanding of the
contractual terms is plausible or fanciful, and no more.
13. The object for the formation of the contract could be gathered
from Recital D and Clause 3.2. Recital D reads: "The Company (the
respondent) being desirous of, approached the Artist (read it as the
appellant) to avail the Services (hereinafter defined) of the Artist, for the
endorsement of the Website (hereinafter defined), at the Company's own
cost and risk'. This is required to be read alongside Clause 3.2, and it
is as below:
"Subject to the terms thereof, and subject to the payment of all the amounts including the Consideration amount by the Company to the Artist and performance of all other obligations by the Company, and provided there is no default on the part of the Company, the 14
Artist hereby agrees to make himself available for not more than two (2) days, being the Dedicated Period, to render the Services, at the date, time, places and schedules mutually agreed by and between the Parties hereto in writing. ....."
This recital does not require any decoding since its plain reading
informs that the appellant is required to provide his services as an artist
for the endorsement of the Website of the respondent at a time, place,
and schedules to be mutually agreed to between the parties for not more
than two days during the two years term of the contract (between
08.03.2021 and 07.03.2023), for a consideration. The consideration is
payable only for the services to be rendered.
14. The term regarding payment of consideration is dealt with in
clauses 5, 5.1.1. and 5.1.2. They are as below:
"5. Consideration
5.1 In consideration of the Artist having agreed to make himself available to render the Services. the Company shall pay to the Artist, a sum of Rs.8,10,00,000/ (Rupees Eight Crore Ten Lakhs Only) plus all taxes including, GST, etc. ("Consideration"). in the following manner:
5.1.l Rs.4,05,00,000/- (Rupees Four Crores and Five Lakhs only) plus all taxes including GST, etc., on or before 8th March, 2021 or seven (7) days prior to utilization of one (1) Day, whichever is earlier ("Signing Amount"); and
5.1.2 Rs.4,05,00,000/- (Rupees Four Crores and Five Lakhs only) plus all taxes including GST, etc., on 15
or before 15th April, 2022 or seven (7) days prior to utilization of two (2) Days, whichever is earlier."
A plain reading of the above terms of the contract indicate that total
consideration of Rs.8.10 corers plus taxes is required to be paid to the
appellant for making himself available to render Services, which in terms
of Clause 3.2 is for no more than two mutually agreed days. The
contract is an executory contract and the appellant was required to be
paid for the services to be rendered. Here following aspects which flow
directly on a plain reading of the contract are relevant:
a) The appellant has not, under the contract, blocked any two
specific days for rendering services, and hence the appellant is
least likely to have lost what his talent could have earned him
anytime during the term of the contract even if the respondent
has defaulted in procuring the services of the appellant.
b) While clause 5 stipulates the total consideration required to be
paid, clauses 5.1.1. and 5.1.2 merely provides the time for
payment merely. Here, the parties to the contract agree that it
shall be paid in two instalments: the parties were ad idem that
50% of the consideration shall be paid 'on 08.03.2021 (the date
on which the contract was executed) or 7 days before utilisation of
the one (1) day, whichever is earlier' . Clause 5.1.2 is similar to
clause 5.1.1 except that it stipulates the balance Rs.4.05 crores
is required to be paid 'on 5.04.2021 of 7 days prior to the
utilisation of two (2) Days, whichever is earlier.' If the choice of 16
the words the parties have chosen to employ (even though the
respondent has taken up a plea that the contract was drafted by
the appellant, the fact remains the respondent has executed the
contract with open eyes) is carefully scanned, what it reveals on
a plain reading is that the consideration has to be paid only for
utilisation of the appellant's services for two days, or not
exceeding two days.
c) Does the phrase, 'whichever is earlier' provide any clue to hold
that the second instalment of the consideration has to be paid no
matter that the appellant's services are not required or rendered
for the second day? According to the appellant, the phrase
'whichever is earlier' under clause 5.1.2 makes evident that the
respondent has undertaken to pay latest by 15.04.2021
irrespective of whether the appellant is called upon to render his
contracted services for Day 2 or not. This understanding appears
bit farfetched, but at any rate does not conclusively decide the
issue. Even clause 5.1.1 has the same phrase, but then services
were rendered for Day 1. Here, there is no stipulation in the
contract that the appellant will schedule his two days for
rendering his services only after the entire consideration as
stipulated in clause 5 is paid.
d) The respondent's contention is that the consideration has to be
paid at the rate of Rs.4.05 crores only for the day for which the
appellant has performed his part of the contract, and relies on
clause 5.2. This clause stipulates that if the appellant is required 17
to render his services for any day in excess of the two days to be
reserved by the appellant under the contract then the respondent
is required to pay Rs.4.05 crores plus tax for such additional day.
Does not Clause 5.2 read with clauses 5.1.1 and 5.1.2 indicate a
plausible understanding that the consideration is required to be
made at Rs.4.05 crores for every day on which the appellant has
to perform?
Since we are not constructing the contract, but merely are in the
process of identifying any plausible pre-existing dispute in
understanding the contract, even if a prima facie view could be made
on a plain reading of the contract in support of a pre-existing
dispute, then the finding has to be entered in favour of the corporate
debtor. The result: advantage respondent.
15. The appellant laid considerable emphasis on clauses 3.6(b) and
7.2(c) and 7.2(d) of the contract to fortify his contention. If these
provisions are closely read, they spell out the consequences awaiting
the respondent if it does not perform its part of the contract. Clauses
7.2(c) and (d) reads:
"(c) all amounts including the entire Consideration amount of Rs.8,10,00,000/- (Rupees Eight Crore Ten Lakhs Only) plus all taxes including GST, etc. payable by the Company to the Artist, shall forthwith become due and payable and the Company shall forthwith pay the same to the Artist alongwith interest thereon at the rate of 12% per annum from the date of the Company's Default till the actual payment thereof;
18
(d) the Artist shall not be liable, required, obligated to refund, return any money including the Signing Amount of Rs.4,05,00,000/- (Rupees Four Crores and Five Lakhs only) plus all taxes including GST, etc. or any part thereof to the Company and neither the Company nor shall any person be entitled to receive, recover any money from the Artist"
While Clause 7.2(c) provides that the appellant has a right to make a
claim for the entire consideration where the respondent wholly defaults
in performing its part of the contract, clause 7.2(d) provides for
forfeiture of the signing amount which is the first instalment of the
consideration paid under Clause 5.1.1 in the eventuality of the
respondent defaults in fulfilling its contractual obligations. Cautioning
ourselves not to embark on an enquiry on the effect of these contractual
terms in terms of the principles of Contract Act, we still believe that
consideration payable cannot be separated from the purpose for which
it was agreed to be paid.
16. To sum up while the appellant's understanding of the contract
seems to suggest that he has to provide one service - of endorsing the
respondent's Website. The consideration payable is one consolidated
sum receiving which the appellant has undertaken to perform one
service, which in terms of the contract is required to be made for not
more than two days. The second day in that sense, may have to be
understood as a cushion to meet the contingency when the contracted
services could not be fully performed on the first day. However, nowhere 19
in the contract we find any indication that the consideration as agreed
upon represents a consolidated sum for one service to be rendered for
not more than two days. On the other hand, the terms of the contract
make the understanding of the contract as projected by the respondent
a possibility. This would mean that the pre-existing dispute which the
respondent has raised appears reasonably plausible. Eventually this
has to be sorted out by a civil court and not by us.
Conclusion:
To conclude, we affirm the judgement of the Adjudicating Authority in
C.P. (IB) No. 572 of 2022 dated 07.01.2025 and consequently dismiss
the present appeal. No costs.
[Justice N. Seshasayee] Member (Judicial)
[Indevar Pandey] Member (Technical) rs/beena
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