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Justice K.S.Puttaswamy(Retd) vs Union Of India

Supreme Court26 September 2018Chief Justice · A.K. Sikri · A.M. Khanwilkar · D.Y. Chandrachud · Ashok Bhushan

Ratio decidendi

The rule this decision rests on

The Constitution Bench established the following principal rules of law supporting its decision: 1. The right to privacy is a fundamental right traceable to Articles 14, 19, and 21 of the Constitution, and restrictions on privacy rights are valid only if they satisfy the three-fold test established in Puttaswamy: (i) existence of law, (ii) legitimate state aim, and (iii) proportionality of the restriction to the aim. 2. Collection and storage of demographic and biometric information under the Aadhaar Act for purposes of issuing unique identification numbers satisfies the three-fold privacy test and does not violate Article 21, as it serves the legitimate state aim of efficient targeted delivery of government subsidies, benefits, and services funded from the Consolidated Fund of India. 3. The Aadhaar Act contains adequate statutory safeguards for protection of information including: prohibition on sharing core biometric information; restrictions on use of demographic information to specified purposes; encryption standards; and audit mechanisms, rendering the collection and storage of identity information constitutional. 4. Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act, making proof of Aadhaar number a condition for receipt of certain subsidies and services, is constitutional as it pursues the legitimate state aim of preventing leakage and ensuring benefits reach intended beneficiaries, with constitutionally mandated provision for alternate identification where authentication fails. 5. Section 29 restricting sharing of information, especially core biometric data, is constitutionally valid and protective of privacy rights rather than violative thereof. 6. Section 33 permitting disclosure of Aadhaar information for court-ordered criminal investigations or in the interest of national security (subject to oversight committee review) does not violate Article 20(3) protection against self-incrimination, as biometric information is not testimonial compulsion. 7. Section 47 restricting initiation of criminal prosecution under the Aadhaar Act to the Authority or authorized officers serves legitimate purpose of preventing frivolous complaints and maintaining integrity of the scheme. 8. Section 57 of the Aadhaar Act, to the extent it permits use of Aadhaar numbers pursuant to law and for purposes regulated by law, is constitutional; however, the phrase "or any contract to this effect" is struck down as unconstitutional for permitting unguided private contractual use without statutory basis. 9. Section 59 validly applies retroactive legal fiction to deem all actions taken under the 2009 executive notification as validly done under the Aadhaar Act, consistent with established jurisprudence permitting retrospective validation of executive actions through subsequent legislation. 10. Collection of biometric and demographic information from children aged 5-18 years requires parental consent to be constitutionally valid, requiring reading-in of this requirement to Regulations 3 and 4 of the Aadhaar Enrolment and Update Regulations, 2016. 11. Rule 9 of the Prevention of Money-Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules, 2005, as amended in 2017 to mandate Aadhaar-based verification for bank account opening and operation, satisfies the three-fold privacy test as it pursues the legitimate state aim of combating money laundering, terrorism financing, and financial crime through mandatory identity verification. 12. The circular dated 23.03.2017 issued by the Department of Telecommunications mandating linking of mobile SIM cards with Aadhaar numbers is unconstitutional and void as it lacks statutory backing, being merely an executive instruction unsupported by law as required by the three-fold privacy test and Sections 7 and 57 of the Aadhaar Act. 13. The decision of the Speaker of the House of the People certifying the Aadhaar Bill as a Money Bill is subject to judicial review for constitutional illegality (as opposed to mere procedural irregularity), and the certification is valid where the substantive provisions of the Bill are covered by Article 110(1) clauses (c) and (e) relating to custody and appropriation of the Consolidated Fund of India. 14. Section 139-AA of the Income Tax Act, 1961, requiring linking of Permanent Account Numbers with Aadhaar numbers, satisfies the three-fold privacy test as it pursues legitimate state aims of preventing tax evasion, detecting black money, and combating money laundering. 15. The enactment of the Aadhaar Act does not violate interim orders passed by this Court during pendency of the writ petitions, as those interim orders applied to the executive scheme

Written by Miss Lucy from the judgment below, not taken from a headnote.

Judgment

As delivered

REPORTABLE

IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

CIVIL ORIGINAL JURISDICTION

WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 494 OF 2012

JUSTICE K.S. PUTTASWAMY (RETD.) AND ANOTHER .....PETITIONER(S)

VERSUS

UNION OF INDIA AND OTHERS .....RESPONDENT(S)

WITH

TRANSFERRED CASE (CIVIL) NO. 151 OF 2013

TRANSFERRED CASE (CIVIL) NO. 152 OF 2013

WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 833 OF 2013

WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 829 OF 2013

TRANSFERRED PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 1797 OF 2013

WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 932 OF 2013

TRANSFERRED PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 1796 OF 2013

CONTEMPT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 144 OF 2014 IN WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 494 OF 2012

TRANSFERRED PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 313 OF 2014

Signature Not Verified TRANSFERRED PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 312 OF 2014 Digitally signed by CHETAN KUMAR

SPECIAL LEAVE PETITION (CRIMINAL) NO. 2524 OF 2014 Date: 2018.09.26 13:36:51 IST Reason:

WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 37 OF 2015

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 1 of 567 WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 220 OF 2015

CONTEMPT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 674 OF 2015 IN WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 829 OF 2013

TRANSFERRED PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 921 OF 2015

CONTEMPT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 470 OF 2015 IN WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 494 OF 2012

WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 231 OF 2016

CONTEMPT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 444 OF 2016 IN WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 494 OF 2012

CONTEMPT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 608 OF 2016 IN WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 494 OF 2012

WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 797 OF 2016

CONTEMPT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 844 OF 2017 IN WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 494 OF 2012

WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 342 OF 2017

WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 372 OF 2017

WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 841 OF 2017

WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 1058 OF 2017

WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 966 OF 2017

WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 1014 OF 2017

WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 1002 OF 2017

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 2 of 567 WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 1056 OF 2017

AND

CONTEMPT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 34 OF 2018 IN WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 1014 OF 2017

JUDGMENT

A.K. SIKRI, J.

(For Chief Justice, himself and A.M. Khanwilkar, J.)

Introduction and Preliminaries:

It is better to be unique than the best. Because, being the best makes you the number one, but being unique makes you the only one.

2) ‘Unique makes you the only one’ is the central message of

Aadhaar, which is on the altar facing constitutional challenge in

these petitions. ‘Aadhaar’ which means, in English, ‘foundation’

or ‘base’, has become the most talked about expression in recent

years, not only in India but in many other countries and

international bodies. A word from Hindi dictionary has assumed

secondary significance. Today, mention of the word ‘Aadhaar’

would not lead a listener to the dictionary meaning of this word.

Instead, every person on the very mentioning of this word

‘Aadhaar’ would associate it with the card that is issued to a

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 3 of 567 person from where he/she can be identified. It is described as an

‘Unique Identity’ and the authority which enrols a person and at

whose behest the Aadhaar Card is issued is known as Unique

Identification Authority of India (hereinafter referred to as ‘UIDAI’

or ‘Authority’). It is described as unique for various reasons.

UIDAI claims that not only it is a foolproof method of identifying a

person, it is also an instrument whereby a person can enter into

any transaction without needing any other document in support.

It has become a symbol of digital economy and has enabled

multiple avenues for a common man. Aadhaar scheme, which

was conceptualised in the year 2006 and launched in the year

2009 with the creation of UIDAI, has secured the enrolment of

almost 1.1 billion people in this country. Its use is spreading like

wildfire, which is the result of robust and aggressive campaigning

done by the Government, governmental agencies and other such

bodies. In this way it has virtually become a household symbol.

The Government boasts of multiple benefits of Aadhaar.

3) At the same time, the very scheme of Aadhaar and the

architecture built thereupon has received scathing criticism from a

section of the society. According to them, Aadhaar is a serious

invasion into the right to privacy of persons and it has the

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 4 of 567 tendency to lead to a surveillance state where each individual can

be kept under surveillance by creating his/her life profile and

movement as well on his/her use of Aadhaar. There has been no

other subject matter in recent past which has evoked the kind of

intensive and heated debate wherein both sides, for and against,

argue so passionately in support of their respective conviction.

The petitioners in these petitions belong to the latter category

who apprehend the totalitarian state if Aadhaar project is allowed

to continue. They are demanding scrapping and demolition of the

entire Aadhaar structure which, according to them, is anathema

to the democratic principles and rule of law, which is the bedrock

of the Indian Constitution. The petitioners have challenged the

Aadhaar project which took off by way of administrative action in

the year 2009. Even after Aadhaar got a shield of statutory cover,

challenge persists as the very enactment known as Aadhaar

(Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and

Services) Act, 2016 (hereinafter referred to as the ‘Aadhaar Act’)

is challenged as constitutionally impermissible. The wide range

of issues involved in this case is evident from the fact that it took

almost four months for the parties to finish their arguments in

these cases, and the Court witnessed highly skilled, suave,

brilliant and intellectual advocacy, with the traces of passions as

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 5 of 567 well.

4) The issue has generated heated public debate as well. Even

outside the Court, there are groups advocating in favour of the

Aadhaar scheme and those who are stoutly opposing the same.

Interestingly, it is not only the commoners who belong to either of

the two groups but intelligentsia is also equally divided. There

have been number of articles, interviews for discourses in favour

of or against Aadhaar. Those in favour see Aadhaar project as

ushering the nation into a regime of good governance, advancing

socio-economic rights, economic prosperity etc. and in the

process they claim that it may make the nation a world leader.

Mr. K.K. Venugopal, learned Attorney General for India, referred

to the commendations by certain international bodies, including

the World Bank. We clarify that we have not been influenced by

such views expressed either in favour or against Aadhaar. Those

opposing Aadhaar are apprehensive that it may excessively

intrude into the privacy of citizenry and has the tendency to

create a totalitarian state, which would impinge upon the

democratic and constitutional values. Some such opinions of

various persons/bodies were referred to during the arguments.

Notwithstanding the passions, emotions, annoyance, despair,

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 6 of 567 ecstasy, euphoria, coupled with rhetoric, exhibited by both sides

in equal measure during the arguments, this Court while giving its

judgment on the issues involved is required to have a posture of

calmness coupled with objective examination of the issues on the

touchstone of the constitutional provisions.

5) Initiative in spearheading the attack on the Aadhaar structure was

taken by the petitioners, namely, Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.)

and Mr. Pravesh Khanna, by filing Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of

2012. At that time, Aadhaar scheme was not under legislative

umbrella. In the writ petition the scheme has primarily been

challenged on the ground that it violates fundamental rights of the

innumerable citizens of India, namely, right to privacy falling

under Article 21 of the Constitution of India. Few others joined

the race by filing connected petitions. Series of orders were

passed in this petition from time to time, some of which would be

referred to by us at the appropriate stage. In 2016, with the

passing of the Aadhaar Act, these very petitioners filed another

writ petition challenging the vires of the Act. Here again, some

more writ petitions have been filed with the same objective. All

these writ petitions were clubbed together. There are number of

interventions as well by various individuals, groups, NGOs, etc.,

some opposing the petitions and some supporting the Aadhaar Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 7 of 567 scheme.

6) Before we go into the premise on which the attack is laid on the

constitutional validity of the Aadhaar project and the Aadhaar Act,

it would be apposite to take note of the events in chronological

order that shaped the formulation, take off and implementation of

the Aadhaar scheme.

7) On March 03, 2006, approval was given by the Department of

Information Technology, Ministry of Communications and

Information Technology, Government of India for the project titled

‘Unique Identification for BPL Families’ to be implemented by the

National Informatics Centre (NIC) for over a period of twelve

months. As a result, a Processes Committee was set up on July

03, 2006 to suggest the process for updation, modification,

addition and deletion of data and fields from the core database to

be created under the Unique Identification for BPL Families

project. This Committee, on November 26, 2006, prepared a

paper known as ‘Strategic Vision Unique Identification of

Residents’. Based thereupon, the Empowered Group of

Ministers (EGoM) was set up on December 04, 2006, to collate

the National Population Register under the Citizenship Act, 1955

and the Unique Identification Number project of the Department

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 8 of 567 of Information Technology. The EGoM was also empowered to

look into the methodology and specific milestones for early and

effective completion of projects and to take a final view on these

projects. The EGoM was composed of the then Ministers of

External Affairs, Home Affairs, Law, Panchayati Raj and

Communications and Information Technology and the then

Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission.

8) Various meetings on the Unique Identification (hereinafter

referred to as ‘UID’) project were held from time to time. In the

fourth meeting held on December 22, 2006, various aspects of

proposed data elements and their formats were discussed.

Thereafter, in its fifth meeting held on April 27, 2007, it was

decided that the evolution of UID database would be in three

stages in principle. The Committee further decided that linkage

with major partner databases such as Household Survey of RD

and the individual State Public Distribution System (PDS)

databases should be taken up in a phased manner. On June 11,

2007, at the final stage of the project, a presentation on the UID

project was made to the then Prime Minister by the Cabinet

Secretary. The sixth meeting of the UID project was held on June

15, 2007. The Committee, inter alia, took the following decisions:

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 9 of 567

(i) The numbering format of 11 digits was approved.

(ii) The need for UID authority to be created by an executive

order under the aegis of the Planning Commission was

appreciated in order to ensure pan-departmental and neutral

identity for the authority.

(iii) The proposal for creation of Central and State UIDs was

approved.

(iv) Department of Information Technology (DIT) was directed

to work out modalities for linkage with Election Commission and

initiate discussions with MoRD and PDS for linkage.

(v) In principle, approval of proposed sequence for phasing

plan was granted.

9) In the seventh meeting held on August 30, 2007, the proposed

administrative framework and structure of UID authority and

manpower requirement, including financial implications, was

discussed. It was decided that a detailed proposal based on the

resource model be presented to the Committee for its ‘in

principle’ approval. At this stage, EGoM convened its first

meeting on November 27, 2007. At this meeting, a consensus

emerged on the following points:

(i) There is a clear need for creating an identity related

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 10 of 567 resident database, regardless of whether the database is created

on a de novo collection of data or is based on an already existing

data (such as the Election Commission’s Voter List).

(ii) Additionally, there is a critical need to create an institutional

mechanism that would ‘own’ the database and be responsible for

its maintenance and updating.

(iii) The next meeting is to consider topics relating to collating

the National Population Register (NPR) and UID schemes,

including methodology, effective implementation techniques,

identification of the institutional mechanism stated above, and the

time schedule for putting the scheme into operation.

A series of meetings took place thereafter to work out the

modalities of the programme. Certain issues were raised therein

and to address those issues, a Committee of Secretaries was

formed. The said Committee gave its recommendations which

were discussed by EGoM. After approving the Aadhaar Scheme

in principle, it instructed the Cabinet Secretary to convene a

meeting to finalise the detailed organisational structure of the

UID.

10) After considering the recommendation of the Cabinet Secretary,

Notification No. A-43011/02/2009-Admn.I was issued on January

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 11 of 567 28, 2009 by the Government of India which constituted and

notified the UIDAI as an attached office under the aegis of the

Planning Commission. Consequent to the constitution of UIDAI,

allocation of Rs.147.31 crores for Phase I of Aadhaar enrolments

was approved by the Finance Minister on the recommendation of

the Standing Committee on Finance. Demo-Official letter dated

February 25, 2009, was sent by the Secretary, Planning

Commission to all Chief Secretaries of 35 States/Union Territories

apprising them of their roles and responsibilities of the

States/Union Territories in implementation of UIDAI, such as

appointment of the State/UT UID Commissioners, logistics

support and coordination with various departments and State

units.

As they say, rest is history, which we recapitulate in brief

hereinafter.

11) A core group was set up to advice and further the work related to

UIDAI. Budgets were allocated to UIDAI to enable it to undertake

its task. Staff was also allocated to it. Meetings of the core group

took place from time to time. The core group, inter alia, decided

that it was better to start with the electoral roll database of 2009

for undertaking the UIDAI project. The status of digitisation of

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 12 of 567 PDS records, state-wise, was sought to be sent from the

Department of Food and Public Distribution to the Standing

Commission/UID. This and other steps taken in this direction

culminated in issuance of Notification dated July 02, 2009

whereby Mr. Nandan Nilekani was appointed as the Chairman of

UIDAI for an initial tenure of five years in the rank and status of a

Cabinet Minister. He assumed charge on July 24, 2009.

Thereafter, the Prime Minister’s Council of UIDAI was constituted

on July 30, 2009 which held its first meeting on August 12, 2009

where the Chairman of UIDAI made detailed representation on

the broad strategy and approach of the proposed UID project.

One of the proposals was to provide a legislative framework for

UID at the earliest so that it could have the legal sanction to

perform its function. Some other Committees like the Biometrics

Standard Committee, Demographic Data Standards and

Verification Procedure Committee were set up as a support

system to the project, which submitted their respective reports in

December 2009. Even a Cabinet Committee on UID was

constituted vide orders dated October 22, 2009 which was

headed by the Prime Minister with the aim to cover all issues

relating to UIDAI, including its organisation, policies,

programmes, schemes, funding and methodology to be adopted

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 13 of 567 for achieving its objectives.

12) The matter was addressed in the Seventeenth Finance

Commission Report also which was tabled in the Parliament on

February 25, 2010. In this report, the Finance Commission

suggested targeting of subsidies through UIDAI. By April 2010,

UIDAI came out with its Strategy Overview. This Overview

describes the features, benefits, revenue model and timelines of

the UIDAI project. Furthermore, it outlined the goal of the UID to

serve as a universal proof of identity, allowing residents to prove

their identities anywhere in the country. The project would give

the Government a clear view of India’s population, enabling it to

target and deliver services effectively, achieve greater returns on

social investments and monitor money and resource flows across

the country. It was felt that crucial to the achievement of this goal

is the active participation of the central, state and local

Governments as well as public and private sector entities. Only

with their support will the project be able to realise a larger vision

of inclusion and development in India.

13) A Cabinet Note bearing No. 4(4)/57/2010/CC-UIDAI for the

Cabinet Committee on UIDAI was submitted on May 12, 2010.

The Note outlined a brief background of UIDAI, proposed an

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 14 of 567 approach for collection of demographic and biometric attributes of

residents for the UID project and sought approval of the Cabinet

Committee for adoption of the aforesaid approach and suggested

that the same standards and processes be adhered to by the

Registrar General of India for the NPR exercise and all other

Registrars in the UID system. Rationale for inclusion of iris

biometrics was also submitted with the aforesaid Cabinet Note to

explain the need for capturing iris scans at the time of capturing

biometric details.

14) By September 2010 enrolment process of Aadhaar began with

the nationwide launch of the Aadhaar project. In December 2010,

UIDAI came out with a report on enrolment process known as

‘UID Enrolment Proof-of-Concept Report’ studying enrolment

proof-of-concept in three rural areas of Karnataka, Bihar and

Andhra Pradesh published by the UIDAI. According to this report,

‘the biometric matching analysis of 40,000 people showed that

the accuracy levels achieved by both iris and ten fingerprints

were more than an order of magnitude better compared to using

either of the two individually. The multi-modal enrolment was

adequate to carry out de-duplication on a much larger scale, with

reasonable expectations of extending it to all residents of India’.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 15 of 567

15) Going by the recommendation of the Chairman of UIDAI for

providing legislative framework to UIDAI, a Bill was introduced in

the Rajya Sabha on December 03, 2010 known as ‘National

Identification Authority of India Bill, 2010’.

16) Various other steps were taken to smoothen the process of

enrolment. There were studies from time to time on the

effectiveness of the enrolment process. Notifications/orders were

also issued by the Reserve Bank of India stating that an Aadhaar

letter would be recognised by Banks to open bank accounts for a

resident. Similar Orders/Notifications were issued by other

authorities as well. On the first anniversary of Aadhaar launch,

which fell on September 29, 2011, announcement was made that

10 crores enrolments and generation of more than 3.75 crores of

Aadhaar had taken place. Some of the reports submitted in due

course of time, which are relevant for our purposes, are taken

note of at this stage:

(i) Report of the Task Force on an Aadhaar-Enabled Unified

Payment Infrastructure for the direct transfer of subsidies on

Kerosene, LPG and Fertilizer.

(ii) In March 2012, Fingerprint Authentication Report was

submitted to UIDAI. This Report showcased the high accuracy

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 16 of 567 rates of using fingerprints to authenticate identities. The study

conducted in the rural setting representing typical demography of

the population established that it is technically possible to use

fingerprint to authenticate a resident in 98.13% of the population.

The accuracy of 96.5% can be achieved using one best finger

and 99.3% can be achieved using two fingers. Further

improvement is possible if the device specifications are tightened

to include only the best devices and certain mechanical guide is

used to aid proper placement of the finger. It was also

demonstrated through benchmarking that the authentication

infrastructure is able to sustain one million authentications per

hour.

(iii) Fifty Third Report of the Standing Committee on Finance on

the ‘Demands for Grants (2012-13)’ of the Ministry of Planning

was presented to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha on April 24,

2012. This Report summarises the objectives and financial

implications of the UID scheme being implemented under the

aegis of the Planning Commission.

(iv) Iris Authentication Accuracy Report was submitted to UIDAI

on September 12, 2012. This Report based on an empirical

study of 5833 residents demonstrated iris authentication to be

viable in Indian context. With current level of device readiness for

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 17 of 567 iris capture, it is capable of providing coverage for 99.67% of

population with authentication accuracy of above 99.5%.

Suggestions made in this document for the vendors, once

implemented, will improve the rates further. The overall systems

– network and software – have shown to meet desired

requirements in real life condition. Finally, six different devices

with variety of form and function are available to provide

competitive vendor eco-system.

(v) Background Note on Introduction to Cash Transfers was

prepared by the National Committee on Direct Cash Transfers in

its first meeting on November 26, 2012. This Report outlines the

advantages of cash transfers in the Indian context stating that a

unique ID for all is a prerequisite for this purpose.

17) At this juncture, Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 was filed in

which show-cause notice dated November 30, 2012 was issued

by this Court. As pointed out above, this writ petition assailed

Aadhaar scheme primarily on the ground that it violates right to

privacy which is a facet of fundamental rights enshrined in Article

21 of the Constitution.

18) Counter affidavit thereto was filed by the Union of India as well as

UIDAI. The stand taken by the respondents, inter alia, was that

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 18 of 567 right to privacy is not a fundamental right, which was so held by

the eight Judge Bench judgment in M.P. Sharma and 4 Others v.

Satish Chandra Distt. Magistrate, Delhi and 4 Others 1. This is

notwithstanding the fact that thereafter in many judgments

rendered by this Court, right to privacy was accepted as a facet of

Article 21. Contention of the respondents, however, was that

those judgments were contrary to the dicta laid down in M.P.

Sharma and were, therefore, per in curium. The matter on this

aspect was heard by a three Judge Bench and after hearing the

parties, the Bench deemed it appropriate to make the reference

to the Constitution Bench. A five Judge Bench was constituted,

which after considering the matter, referred the same to a nine

Judge Bench to resolve the controversy in an authoritative

manner. The nine Judge Bench judgment has given an

unanimous answer to the Reference with conclusive,

unambiguous and emphatic determination that right to privacy is

a part of fundamental rights which can be traced to Articles 14, 19

and 21 of the Constitution of India.

19) We may also record at this stage that in this petition certain

interim orders were passed from time to time. We may give the

gist of some of the relevant orders:

1 1954 SCR 1077 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 19 of 567

(a) Order dated September 23, 2013 (two Judge Bench)

“All the matters require to be heard finally. List all matters for final hearing after the Constitution Bench is over.

In the meanwhile, no person should suffer for not getting the Aadhaar card in spite of the fact that some authority had issued a circular making it mandatory and when any person applies to get the Aadhaar card voluntarily, it may be checked whether that person is entitled for it under the law and it should not be given to any illegal immigrant.”

(b) Order dated November 26, 2013 (two Judge Bench)

“After hearing the matter at length, we are of the view that all the States and Union Territories have to be impleaded as respondents to give effective directions. In view thereof, notice be issued to all the States and Union Territories through standing counsel.

xx xx xx

Interim order to continue, in the meantime.”

(c) Order dated March 16, 2015 (three Judge Bench)

“In the meanwhile, it is brought to our notice that in certain quarters, Aadhaar identification is being insisted upon by the various authorities, we do not propose to go into the specific instances.

Since Union of India is represented by learned Solicitor General and all the States are represented through their respective counsel, we expect that both the Union of India and States and all their functionaries should adhere to the order passed by this Court on 23rd September, 2013.”

(d) Order dated August 11, 2015 (three Judge Bench)

“Having considered the matter, we are of the view that the balance of interest would be best served, till the matter is finally decided by a larger Bench, if the Union of India or the UIDAI proceed in the following manner:

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 20 of 567

1. The Union of India shall give wide publicity in the electronic and print media including radio and television networks that it is not mandatory for a citizen to obtain an Aadhaar card.

2. The production of an Aadhaar card will not be condition for obtaining any benefits otherwise due to a citizen.

3. The Unique Identification Number or the Aadhaar card will not be used by the respondents for any purpose other than the PDS Scheme and in particular for the purpose of distribution of food grains, etc. and cooking fuel, such as kerosene. The Aadhaar card may also be used for the purpose of LPG Distribution Scheme.

4. The information about an individual obtained by the Unique Identification Authority of India while issuing an Aadhaar card shall not be used for any other purpose, save as above, except as may be directed by a Court for the purpose of criminal investigation.”

(d) Order dated October 15, 2015 (Constitution Bench)

“3. After hearing the learned Attorney General for India and other learned senior counsels, we are of the view that in paragraph 3 of the order dated 11.08.2015, if we add, apart from the other two Schemes, namely, P.D.S. Scheme and L.P.G. Distribution Scheme, the Schemes like The Mahatma Gandhi National Social Assistance Programme (Old Age Pensions, Widow Pensions, Disability Pensions), Prime Minister’s Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) and Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) for the present, it would not dilute earlier order passed by this Court. Therefore, we now include the aforesaid Schemes apart from the other two Schemes that this Court has permitted in its earlier order dated 11.08.2015.

4. We impress upon the Union of India that it shall strictly follow all the earlier orders passed by this Court commencing from 23.09.2013.

5. We will also make it clear that the Aadhaar card scheme is purely voluntary and it cannot be made mandatory till the matter is finally decided by this Court one way or the other.”

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 21 of 567

(e) Order dated September 14, 2016 in WP (C) No. 686/2016

“Having regard to the facts and circumstances of the case, the material evidence available on record and the submissions made by learned senior counsel, we stay the operation and implementation of letters dated 14.07.2006 (i.e. Annexure P-5, P-6, P-7) for Pre-Matric Scholarship Scheme, Post-Matric Scholarship Scheme and Merit-cum- Means Scholarship Scheme to the extent they have made submission of Aadhaar mandatory and direct the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, Government of India, i.e. respondent No.2, to remove Aadhaar number as a mandatory condition for student registration form at the National Scholarship Portal of Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, Government of India at the website...”

20) It is also relevant to point out that against an order passed by the

High Court of Bombay at Panaji, in some criminal proceedings,

wherein the Authority was directed to pass on biometric

information on a person, UIDAI had filed Special Leave Petition

(Criminal) No. 2524 of 2014 challenging the said order with the

submission that such a direction for giving biometric information

was contrary to the provisions of the Aadhaar Act and the

Authority was not supposed to give such an information, which

was confidential. In the said special leave petition, order dated

March 24, 2014 was passed staying the operation of the orders of

the Bombay High Court. This order reads as under:

“Issue notice.

In addition to normal mode of service, dasti service, is permitted.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 22 of 567 Operation of the impugned order shall remain stayed.

In the meanwhile, the present petitioner is restrained from transferring any biometric information of any person who has been allotted the Aadhaar number to any other agency without his consent in writing.

More so, no person shall be deprived of any service for want of Aadhaar number in case he/she is otherwise eligible/entitled. All the authorities are directed to modify their forms/circulars/likes so as to not compulsorily require the Aadhaar number in order to meet the requirement of the interim order passed by this Court forthwith.

Tag and list the matter with main matter i.e. WP (C) No. 494 of 2012.”

21) Likewise, in Writ Petition (Civil) No. 1002 of 2017 titled Dr. Kalyan

Menon Sen v. Union of India and Others, where constitutional

validity of linking bank accounts and mobile phones with Aadhaar

linkage was challenged, interim order was passed on November

03, 2017 extending the last date of linking to December 31, 2017

and February 06, 2018 respectively. This order was extended

thereafter and continues to operate.

22) We would also like to refer to the order dated September 14,

2011 passed in People’s Union for Civil Liberties (PDS Matter) v.

Union of India & Ors.2, wherein various directions were given to

ensure effective implementation of the PDS Scheme and in the

process to also undertake the exercise of eliminating the task and

2 (2011) 14 SCC 331 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 23 of 567 ghost ration cards. In the same manner, vide order dated March

16, 2012 it was noted that the Government had set up a task

force under the Chairmanship of Mr. Nandan Nilekani to

recommend, amongst others, an IT strategy for the PDS. Mr.

Nilekani was requested to suggest ways and means by which

computerization process of the PDS can be expedited.

Computerisation of PDS system was directed to be prepared and

in this hue the process of computerisation with Aadhaar

registration was also suggested.

In the same very case above, which also pertained to

providing night shelters to homeless destitute persons, some

orders were passed on February 10, 2010 3 as well as on

September 14, 20114.

23) Again, in the case of State of Kerala & Ors. v. President, Parent

Teachers Association SNVUP School and Ors. 5, where the Court

was concerned with the problem of fake or bogus admissions, it

was felt that instead of involving the Police in schools to prevent

fake admissions, more appropriate method of verification would

be Unique Identification (UID) card as means of verification.

Architecture of the Aadhaar Project and the Aadhaar Act: 3 (2010) 5 SC 318 4 (2010) 13 SCC 45 5 (2013) 2 SCC 705 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 24 of 567

24) Before adverting to the discussion on various issues that have

been raised in these petitions, it would be apposite to first

understand the structure of the Aadhaar Act and how it operates,

having regard to various provisions contained therein. UIDAI was

established in the year 2009 by an administrative order i.e. by

resolution of the Govt. of India, Planning Commission, vide

notification dated January 28, 2009. The object of the

establishment of the said Authority was primarily to lay down

policies to implement the Unique Identification Scheme (for short

the ‘UIS’) of the Government, by which residents of India were to

be provided unique identity number. The aim was to serve this as

proof of identity, which is unique in nature, as each individual will

have only one identity with no chance of duplication. Another

objective was that this number could be used for identification of

beneficiaries for transfer of benefits, subsidies, services and other

purposes. This was the primary reason, viz. to ensure correct

identification of targeted beneficiaries for delivery of various

subsidies, benefits, services, grants, wages and other social

benefits schemes which are funded from the Consolidated Fund

of India. It was felt that the identification of real and genuine

beneficiaries had become a challenge for the Government. In the

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 25 of 567 absence of a credible system to authenticate identity of

beneficiaries, it was becoming difficult to ensure that the

subsidies, benefits and services reach to intended beneficiaries.

As per the Government, failure to establish identity was proving

to be major hindrance for the successful implementation of the

welfare programmes and it was hitting hard the marginalised

section of the society and, in particular, women, children, senior

citizens, persons with disabilities, migrant unskilled and organised

workers, and nomadic tribes. After the establishment of the

Authority, vide the aforesaid notification, it started enrolling the

residents of this country under the UIS. These residents also

started using Aadhaar number allotted to them. It was found that

over a period of time, the use of Aadhaar number had increased

manifold. This necessitated ensuring security of the information

contained in Aadhaar number as well as the information that

generated as a result of the use of Aadhaar numbers. It was,

thus, felt desirable to back the system with a Parliamentary

enactment.

25) With this intention, the Aadhaar Bill was introduced with the

following Introduction:

“The Unique Identification Authority of India was established by a resolution of the Government of India in 2009. It was meant primarily to lay down policies and to Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 26 of 567 implement the Unique Identification Scheme, by which residents of India were to be provided unique identity number. This number wold serve as proof of identity and could be used for identification of beneficiaries for transfer of benefits, subsidies, services and other purposes.

Later on, it was felt that the process of enrollment, authentication, security, confidentiality and use of Aadhaar related information be made statutory so as to facilitate the use of Aadhaar number for delivery of various benefits, subsidies and services, the expenditures of which were incurred from or receipts therefrom formed part of the Consolidated Fund of India.

The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Bill, 2016 inter alia, provides for establishment of Unique Identification Authority of India, issuance of Aadhaar number to individuals, maintenance and updating of information in the Central Identities Data Repository, issues pertaining to security, privacy and confidentiality of information as well as offences and penalties for contravention of relevant statutory provisions.”

26) After mentioning the reasons recorded above, Statement of

Objects and Reasons for introducing the Bill also highlight the

salient features thereof in the following manner:

“5. The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Bill, 2016, inter alia, seeks to provide for—

(a) issue of Aadhaar numbers to individuals on providing his demographic and biometric information to the Unique Identification Authority of India;

(b) requiring Aadhaar numbers for identifying an individual for delivery of benefits, subsidies, and services the expenditure is incurred from or the receipt therefrom forms part of the Consolidated Fund of India;

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 27 of 567 (c) authentication of the Aadhaar number of an Aadhaar number holder in relation to his demographic and biometric information;

(d) establishment of the Unique Identification Authority of India consisting of a Chairperson, two Members and a Member-Secretary to perform functions in pursuance of the objectives above;

(e) maintenance and updating the information of individuals in the Central Identities Data Repository in such manner as may be specified by regulations;

(f) measures pertaining to security, privacy and confidentiality of information in possession or control of the Authority including information stored in the Central Identities Data Repository; and

(g) offences and penalties for contravention of relevant statutory provisions.”

27) The Bill having been passed by the Legislature, received the

assent of the President on March 25, 2016 and, thus, became Act

(18 of 2016). Preamble to this Act again emphasises the aim and

objective which this Act seeks to achieve. It reads:

“An Act to provide for, as a good governance, efficient, transparent, and targeted delivery of subsidies, benefits and services, the expenditure for which is incurred from the Consolidated Fund of India, to individuals residing in India through assigning of unique identity numbers to such individuals and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto”

28) Section 2 of the Act provides certain definitions. Some of the

definitions can be noted at this stage itself, while other relevant

definitions would be mentioned at the appropriate stage.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 28 of 567 “(a) “Aadhaar number” means an identification number issued to an individual under sub-section (3) of Section 3;

(b) “Aadhaar number holder” means an individual who has been issued an Aadhaar number under this Act;

(c) “authentication” means the process by which the Aadhaar number along with demographic information or biometric information of an individual is submitted to the Central Identities Data Repository for its verification and such Repository verifies the correctness, or the lack thereof, on the basis of information available with it;

(d) “authentication record” means the record of the time of authentication and identity of the requesting entity and the response provided by the Authority thereto;

xx xx xx

(f) “benefit” means any advantage, gift, reward, relief, or payment, in cash or kind, provided to an individual or a group of individuals and includes such other benefits as may be notified by the Central Government;

(g) “biometric information” means photograph, finger print, Iris scan, or such other biological attributes of an individual as may be specified by regulations;

(h) “Central Identities Data Repository” means a centralised database in one or more locations containing all Aadhaar numbers issued to Aadhaar number holders along with the corresponding demographic information and biometric information of such individuals and other information related thereto;

xx xx xx

(j) “core biometric information” means finger print, Iris scan, or such other biological attribute of an individual as may be specified by regulations;

(k) “demographic information” includes information relating to the name, date of birth, address and other relevant information of an individual, as may be specified by regulations for the purpose of issuing an Aadhaar number, but shall not include race, religion, caste, tribe, ethnicity,

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 29 of 567 language, records of entitlement, income or medical history;

(l) “enrolling agency” means an agency appointed by the Authority or a Registrar, as the case may be, for collecting demographic and biometric information of individuals under this Act;

(m) “enrollment” means the process, as may be specified by regulations, to collect demographic and biometric information from individuals by the enrolling agencies for the purpose of issuing Aadhaar numbers to such individuals under this Act;

(n) “identity information” in respect of an individual, includes his Aadhaar number, his biometric information and his demographic information;

xx xx xx

(r) “records of entitlement” means records of benefits, subsidies or services provided to, or availed by, any individual under any programme;

xx xx xx

(u) “requesting entity” means an agency or person that submits the Aadhaar number, and demographic information or biometric information, of an individual to the Central Identities Data Repository for authentication;

(v) “resident” means an individual who has resided in India for a period or periods amounting in all to one hundred and eighty-two days or more in the twelve months immediately preceding the date of application for enrolment;

(w) “service” means any provision, facility, utility or any other assistance provided in any form to an individual or a group of individuals and includes such other services as may be notified by the Central Government;

(x) “subsidy” means any form of aid, support, grant, subvention, or appropriation, in cash or kind, to an individual or a group of individuals and includes such other subsidies as may be notified by the Central Government.”

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 30 of 567

29) Chapter II of the Act deals with enrolment. Section 3 in this

Chapter entitles every resident to obtain the Aadhaar number by

submitting his demographic information and biometric

information. As noted above, demographic information includes

information relating to the name, date of birth, address and ‘other

relevant information of an individual, as may be specified by

regulations for the purpose of issuing an Aadhaar number’.

Photograph, fingerprint, iris scan, ‘or such other biological

attribute of an individual as may be specified by regulations’ are

treated as biometric information. Sub-section (2) of Section 3

stipulates that the enrolling agency shall, at the time of enrolment,

inform the individual undergoing enrolment of the following details

in such manner as may be specified by regulations, namely:

(a) the manner in which the information shall be used;

(b) the nature of recipients with whom the information is

intended to be shared during authentication; and

(c) the existence of a right to access information, the procedure

for making requests for such access, and details of the person or

department in-charge to whom such requests can be made.

30) Section 4, inter alia, provides that Aadhaar number issued to an

individual shall not be reassigned to any individual. In this sense, Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 31 of 567 it makes an Aadhaar number given to a particular individual

‘unique’. Section 5 delineates special measures for issuance of

Aadhaar number to certain categories of persons and reads as

under:

“5. Special measures for issuance of Aadhaar number to certain category of persons.— The Authority shall take special measures to issue Aadhaar number to women, children, senior citizens, persons with disability, unskilled and unorganised workers, nomadic tribes or to such other persons who do not have any permanent dwelling house and such other categories of individuals as may be specified by regulations.”

31) Section 6 enables the Authority to update demographic and

biometric information of the Aadhaar number holders from time to

time.

32) Chapter III deals with ‘authentication’, which has generated the

maximum debate in these proceedings. Section 7 falling under

this Chapter mandates that proof of Aadhaar number would be

necessary for receipt of certain subsidies, benefits and services

etc. meaning thereby for availing such subsidies, benefits and

services, it would be necessary for the intended beneficiary to

possess Aadhaar number. In case of an individual to whom no

Aadhaar number has been assigned, he/she would be required to

show that application for enrolment has been given. Where the

Aadhaar number is not assigned, proviso to Section 7 lays down Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 32 of 567 that the individual shall be offered alternate and viable means of

identification for delivery of subsidy, benefit or service. Section 8

deals with authentication of Aadhaar number and provides that on

submission of request by any requesting entity, the Authority shall

perform authentication of Aadhaar number. This authentication is

in relation to biometric information or demographic information of

an Aadhaar number holder. Before collecting identity information

for the purpose of authentication, the requesting entity is to obtain

consent of an individual and also to ensure that the identity

information of that individual is only used for submission to the

Central Identities Data Repository (CIDR) for authentication.

Sections 7 and 8 read as under:

“7. Proof of Aadhaar number necessary for receipt of certain subsidies, benefits and services, etc.— The Central Government or, as the case may be, the State Government may, for the purpose of establishing identity of an individual as a condition for receipt of a subsidy, benefit or service for which the expenditure is incurred from, or the receipt therefrom forms part of, the Consolidated Fund of India, require that such individual undergo authentication, or furnish proof of possession of Aadhaar number or in the case of an individual to whom no Aadhaar number has been assigned, such individual makes an application for enrolment:

Provided that if an Aadhaar number is not assigned to an individual, the individual shall be offered alternate and viable means of identification for delivery of the subsidy, benefit or service.

8. Authentication of Aadhaar number.— (1) The Authority shall perform authentication of the Aadhaar number of an Aadhaar number holder submitted by any Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 33 of 567 requesting entity, in relation to his biometric information or demographic information, subject to such conditions and on payment of such fees and in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

(2) A requesting entity shall—

(a) unless otherwise provided in this Act, obtain the consent of an individual before collecting his identity information for the purposes of authentication in such manner as may be specified by regulations; and

(b) ensure that the identity information of an individual is only used for submission to the Central Identities Data Repository for authentication.

(3) A requesting entity shall inform, in such manner as may be specified by regulations, the individual submitting his identity information for authentication, the following details with respect to authentication, namely—

(a) the nature of information that may be shared upon authentication;

(b) the uses to which the information received during authentication may be put by the requesting entity; and

(c) alternatives to submission of identity information to the requesting entity.

(4) The Authority shall respond to an authentication query with a positive, negative or any other appropriate response sharing such identity information excluding any core biometric information.”

33) Under Section 10, the Authority is given power to engage one or

more entities to establish and maintain the CIDR and to perform

any other functions as may be specified by regulations.

34) Chapter IV deals with the Establishment of the Authority. As per

Section 11, the Central Government, by notification, shall Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 34 of 567 establish an Authority to be known as the Unique Identification

Authority of India. Notification dated July 12, 2016 was issued by

the Central Government establishing the Authority. Other

provisions in this Chapter deal with the composition of the

Authority, qualifications for appointment of the Chairperson and

Members of Authority; term of their office and their removal; and

restrictions on their employment after cessation of office. It also

provides for the functions of Chairperson as well as office of the

Chief Executive Officer (CEO) and his functions and the

meetings of the Authority etc. Powers and functions of the

Authority are stipulated in Section 23.

35) Chapter V talks of grants to the Authority by the Central

Government as well as accounts and audit and annual report of

the Authority.

36) Chapter VI deals with the important aspects pertaining to

‘protection of information’. Section 28 of the Aadhaar Act puts an

obligation on the Authority to ensure the security of identity

information and authentication records of individuals. Likewise,

Section 29 imposes certain restrictions on sharing information i.e.

core biometric information collected or created under the Act or

the identity information. The biometric information collected and

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 35 of 567 stored in electronic form, in accordance with this Act and

regulations made thereunder, is treated as ‘electronic record’ and

‘sensitive personal data or information’ by virtue of Section 30 of

the Act. As these are very material and significant provisions of

the Act, the same are reproduced verbatim in their entirety:

“28. Security and confidentiality of information.— (1) The Authority shall ensure the security of identity information and authentication records of individuals.

(2) Subject to the provisions of this Act, the Authority shall ensure confidentiality of identity information and authentication records of individuals.

(3) The Authority shall take all necessary measures to ensure that the information in the possession or control of the Authority, including information stored in the Central Identities Data Repository, is secured and protected against access, use or disclosure not permitted under this Act or regulations made thereunder, and against accidental or intentional destruction, loss or damage.

(4) Without prejudice to sub-sections (1) and (2), the Authority shall—

(a) adopt and implement appropriate technical and organisational security measures;

(b) ensure that the agencies, consultants, advisors or other persons appointed or engaged for performing any function of the Authority under this Act, have in place appropriate technical and organisational security measures for the information; and

(c) ensure that the agreements or arrangements entered into with such agencies, consultants, advisors or other persons, impose obligations equivalent to those imposed on the Authority under this Act, and require such agencies, consultants, advisors and other persons to act only on instructions from the Authority.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 36 of 567 29. Restriction on sharing information.— (1) No core biometric information, collected or created under this Act, shall be—

(a) shared with anyone for any reason whatsoever; or

(b) used for any purpose other than generation of Aadhaar numbers and authentication under this Act.

(2) The identity information, other than core biometric information, collected or created under this Act may be shared only in accordance with the provisions of this Act and in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

(3) No identity information available with a requesting entity shall be—

(a) used for any purpose, other than that specified to the individual at the time of submitting any identity information for authentication; or

(b) disclosed further, except with the prior consent of the individual to whom such information relates.

(4) No Aadhaar number or core biometric information collected or created under this Act in respect of an Aadhaar number holder shall be published, displayed or posted publicly, except for the purposes as may be specified by regulations.

30. Biometric information deemed to be sensitive personal information.— The biometric information collected and stored in electronic form, in accordance with this Act and regulations made thereunder, shall be deemed to be “electronic record” and “sensitive personal data or information”, and the provisions contained in the Information Technology Act, 2000 (21 of 2000) and the rules made thereunder shall apply to such information, in addition to, and to the extent not in derogation of the provisions of this Act.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this section, the expressions—

(a) “electronic form” shall have the same meaning as assigned to it in clause (r) of sub-section (1) of Section 2 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 (21 of 2000); Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 37 of 567

(b) “electronic record” shall have the same meaning as assigned to it in clause (t) of sub-section (1) of Section 2 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 (21 of 2000);

(c) “sensitive personal data or information” shall have the same meaning as assigned to it in clause (iii) of the Explanation to Section 43-A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 (21 of 2000).”

37) Section 32 provides that the Authority shall maintain

authentication records in such manner and for such period as

may be specified by regulations and enables every Aadhaar

number holder to obtain his authentication record in such manner

as may be specified by regulations. This provision also puts an

embargo upon the Authority to collect, keep or maintain any

information about ‘purpose of authentication’. Section 33,

however, creates an exception to the provisions of Section 28(ii)

and (v) as well as Section 29(ii) by stipulating that the information

can be disclosed pursuant to an order of a court not inferior to

that of a District Judge. It also carves out another exception in

those cases where it becomes necessary to disclose the

information in the interest of national security in pursuance of a

direction of an officer not below the rank of Joint Secretary to the

Government of India specially authorised in this behalf by an

order of the Central Government.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 38 of 567

38) Sections 34 to 47 in Chapter VII of the Act enumerate various

kinds of offences and provide penalties for such offences. For

our purposes, relevant Section is Section 37 which makes act of

disclosing identity information as offence which is punishable with

imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years or with

a fine which may extend to ten thousand rupees. In the case of a

company, this fine can extend to one lakh rupees. Likewise,

Section 38 provides for penalty for unauthorised access to the

CIDR. Penalties for tampering with data in CIDR (Section 39)

and unauthorised use by requesting entity (Section 40) are also

stipulated.

Cognizance of offences under this Chapter can be taken by

a court only on a complaint made by the Authority or any officer or

person authorised by it.

39) Section 50 of the Act empowers the Central Government to issue

directions to the Authority in writing from time to time and the

Authority shall be bound to carry out such directions on questions

of policy. Section 53 empowers the Central Government to make

rules to carry out the provisions of the Act generally as well as the

specific matters enumerated in sub-section (2) thereof. Section

54 empowers the Authority to make regulations consistent with

the Act and Rules made thereunder, for carrying out the Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 39 of 567 provisions of the Act and, in particular, the matters mentioned in

sub-section (2). Such Rules and Regulations are to be laid

before the Parliament, as provided in Section 55.

40) Section 57 provides that the Aadhaar Act would not prevent the

use of Aadhaar number for establishing the identity of an

individual for any purpose and reads as under:

“57. Act not to prevent use of Aadhaar number for other purposes under law.— Nothing contained in this Act shall prevent the use of Aadhaar number for establishing the identity of an individual for any purpose, whether by the State or any body corporate or person, pursuant to any law, for the time being in force, or any contract to this effect:

Provided that the use of Aadhaar number under this section shall be subject to the procedure and obligations under Section 8 and Chapter VI.”

41) If any difficulty arises in giving effect to the provisions of the Act,

the Central Government is empowered to make provisions to

remove those difficulties, provided that such provisions are not

inconsistent with the provisions of the Act. Section 59, which is

the last provision in the Act, is an attempt to save all the acts and

actions of the Central Government under Notification dated

January 28, 2009 vide which the Authority was established or the

Department of Electronics and Information Technology under the

Cabinet Secretariat Notification dated September 12, 2015. This

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 40 of 567 provision is couched in the following language:

“59. Savings.— Anything done or any action taken by the Central Government under the Resolution of the Government of India, Planning Commission bearing Notification Number A-43011/02/2009-Admin. I, dated the 28th January, 2009, or by the Department of Electronics and Information Technology under the Cabinet Secretariat Notification bearing Notification Number S.O. 2492(E), dated the 12th September, 2015, as the case may be, shall be deemed to have been validly done or taken under this Act.”

42) Regulations have been framed under the Act, namely, (1) The

Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update) Regulations, 2016; (2) The

Aadhaar (Authentication) Regulations, 2016; (3) The Aadhaar

(Data Security) Regulations, 2016; and (4) The Aadhaar (Sharing

of Information) Regulations, 2016. The relevant provisions in

these Regulations are reproduced below:

“The Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update) Regulations, 2016

4. Demographic information required for enrolment. — (1) The following demographic information shall be collected from all individuals undergoing enrolment (other than children below five years of age):

(i) Name;

(ii) Date of Birth;

(iii) Gender;

(iv) Residential Address.

(2) The following demographic information may also additionally be collected during enrolment, at the option of the individual undergoing enrolment:

(i) Mobile number

(ii) Email address

(3) In case of Introducer-based enrolment, the following additional information shall be collected:

(i) Introducer name;

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 41 of 567 (ii)Introducer’s Aadhaar number.

(4) In case of Head of Family based enrolment, the following additional information shall be collected:

(i) Name of Head of Family;

(ii) Relationship;

(iii) Head of Family’s Aadhaar number;

(iv) One modality of biometric information of the Head of Family.

(5) The standards of the above demographic information shall be as may be specified by the Authority for this purpose.

(6) The demographic information shall not include race, religion, caste, tribe, ethnicity, language, record of entitlement, income or medical history of the resident.

The Aadhaar (Authentication) Regulations, 2016

3. Types of Authentication.— There shall be two types of authentication facilities provided by the Authority, namely—

(i) Yes/No authentication facility, which may be carried out using any of the modes specified in regulation 4(2); and

(ii) e-KYC authentication facility, which may be carried out only using OTP and/ or biometric authentication modes as specified in regulation 4(2).

4. Modes of Authentication. — (1) An authentication request shall be entertained by the Authority only upon a request sent by a requesting entity electronically in accordance with these regulations and conforming to the specifications laid down by the Authority.

(2) Authentication may be carried out through the following modes:

(a) Demographic authentication: The Aadhaar number and demographic information of the Aadhaar number holder obtained from the Aadhaar number holder is matched with the demographic information of the Aadhaar number holder in the CIDR.

(b) One-time pin based authentication: A One Time Pin (OTP), with limited time validity, is sent to the mobile Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 42 of 567 number and/ or e-mail address of the Aadhaar number holder registered with the Authority, or generated by other appropriate means. The Aadhaar number holder shall provide this OTP along with his Aadhaar number during authentication and the same shall be matched with the OTP generated by the Authority.

(c) Biometric-based authentication: The Aadhaar number and biometric information submitted by an Aadhaar number holder are matched with the biometric information of the said Aadhaar number holder stored in the CIDR. This may be fingerprints-based or iris-based authentication or other biometric modalities based on biometric information stored in the CIDR.

(d) Multi-factor authentication: A combination of two or more of the above modes may be used for authentication.

(3) A requesting entity may choose suitable mode(s) of authentication from the modes specified in sub-regulation (2) for a particular service or business function as per its requirement, including multiple factor authentication for enhancing security. For the avoidance of doubt, it is clarified that e-KYC authentication shall only be carried out using OTP and/ or biometric authentication.

xx xx xx

7. Capturing of biometric information by requesting entity.— (1) A requesting entity shall capture the biometric information of the Aadhaar number holder using certified biometric devices as per the processes and specifications laid down by the Authority.

(2) A requesting entity shall necessarily encrypt and secure the biometric data at the time of capture as per the specifications laid down by the Authority.

(3) For optimum results in capturing of biometric information, a requesting entity shall adopt the processes as may be specified by the Authority from time to time for this purpose.

xx xx xx

9. Process of sending authentication requests.— (1) After collecting the Aadhaar number or any other identifier Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 43 of 567 provided by the requesting entity which is mapped to Aadhaar number and necessary demographic and / or biometric information and/ or OTP from the Aadhaar number holder, the client application shall immediately package and encrypt these input parameters into PID block before any transmission, as per the specifications laid down by the Authority, and shall send it to server of the requesting entity using secure protocols as may be laid down by the Authority for this purpose.

(2) After validation, the server of a requesting entity shall pass the authentication request to the CIDR, through the server of the Authentication Service Agency as per the specifications laid down by the Authority. The authentication request shall be digitally signed by the requesting entity and/or by the Authentication Service Agency, as per the mutual agreement between them.

(3) Based on the mode of authentication request, the CIDR shall validate the input parameters against the data stored therein and return a digitally signed Yes or No authentication response, or a digitally signed e-KYC authentication response with encrypted e-KYC data, as the case may be, along with other technical details related to the authentication transaction.

(4) In all modes of authentication, the Aadhaar number is mandatory and is submitted along with the input parameters specified in sub-regulation (1) above such that authentication is always reduced to a 1:1 match.

(5) A requesting entity shall ensure that encryption of PID Block takes place at the time of capture on the authentication device as per the processes and specifications laid down by the Authority.

xx xx xx

18. Maintenance of logs by requesting entity. — (1) A requesting entity shall maintain logs of the authentication transactions processed by it, containing the following transaction details, namely:—

(a) the Aadhaar number against which authentication is sought;

(b) specified parameters of authentication request submitted;

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 44 of 567

(c) specified parameters received as authentication response;

(d) the record of disclosure of information to the Aadhaar number holder at the time of authentication; and

(e) record of consent of the Aadhaar number holder for authentication, but shall not, in any event, retain the PID information.

(2) The logs of authentication transactions shall be maintained by the requesting entity for a period of 2 (two) years, during which period an Aadhaar number holder shall have the right to access such logs, in accordance with the procedure as may be specified.

(3) Upon expiry of the period specified in sub-regulation (2), the logs shall be archived for a period of five years or the number of years as required by the laws or regulations governing the entity, whichever is later, and upon expiry of the said period, the logs shall be deleted except those records required to be retained by a court or required to be retained for any pending disputes.

(4) The requesting entity shall not share the authentication logs with any person other than the concerned Aadhaar number holder upon his request or for grievance redressal and resolution of disputes or with the Authority for audit purposes. The authentication logs shall not be used for any purpose other than stated in this sub-regulation.

(5) The requesting entity shall comply with all relevant laws, rules and regulations, including, but not limited to, the Information Technology Act, 2000 and the Evidence Act, 1872, for the storage of logs.

(6) The obligations relating to authentication logs as specified in this regulation shall continue to remain in force despite termination of appointment in accordance with these regulations.

xx xx xx

26. Storage and Maintenance of Authentication Transaction Data. — (1) The Authority shall store and maintain authentication transaction data, which shall contain the following information:—

(a) authentication request data received including PID block;

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 45 of 567

(b) authentication response data sent;

(c) meta data related to the transaction;

(d) any authentication server side configurations as necessary Provided that the Authority shall not, in any case, store the purpose of authentication.

The Aadhaar (Data Security) Regulations, 2016

3. Measures for ensuring information security. — (1) The Authority may specify an information security policy setting out inter alia the technical and organisational measures to be adopted by the Authority and its personnel, and also security measures to be adopted by agencies, advisors, consultants and other service providers engaged by the Authority, registrar, enrolling agency, requesting entities, and Authentication Service Agencies.

(2) Such information security policy may provide for:—

(a) identifying and maintaining an inventory of assets associated with the information and information processing facilities;

(b) implementing controls to prevent and detect any loss, damage, theft or compromise of the assets;

(c) allowing only controlled access to confidential information;

(d) implementing controls to detect and protect against virus/malwares;

(e) a change management process to ensure information security is maintained during changes;

(f) a patch management process to protect information systems from vulnerabilities and security risks;

(g) a robust monitoring process to identify unusual events and patterns that could impact security and performance of information systems and a proper reporting and mitigation process;

(h) encryption of data packets containing biometrics, and enabling decryption only in secured locations;

(i) partitioning of CIDR network into zones based on risk and trust;

(j) deploying necessary technical controls for protecting CIDR network;

(k) service continuity in case of a disaster;

(l) monitoring of equipment, systems and networks;

(m) measures for fraud prevention and effective remedies in case of fraud;

(n) requirement of entering into non-disclosure agreements with the personnel;

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 46 of 567

(o) provisions for audit of internal systems and networks;

(p) restrictions on personnel relating to processes, systems and networks.

(q) inclusion of security and confidentiality obligations in the agreements or arrangements with the agencies, consultants, advisors or other persons engaged by the Authority.

(3) The Authority shall monitor compliance with the information security policy and other security requirements through internal audits or through independent agencies.

(4) The Authority shall designate an officer as Chief Information Security Officer for disseminating and monitoring the information security policy and other security-related programmes and initiatives of the Authority.

xx xx xx

5. Security obligations of service providers, etc. — The agencies, consultants, advisors and other service providers engaged by the Authority for discharging any function relating to its processes shall:

(a) ensure compliance with the information security policy specified by the Authority;

(b) periodically report compliance with the information security policy and contractual requirements, as required by the Authority;

(c) report promptly to the Authority any security incidents affecting the confidentiality, integrity and availability of information related to the Authority’s functions;

(d) ensure that records related to the Authority shall be protected from loss, destruction, falsification, unauthorised access and unauthorised release;

(e) ensure confidentiality obligations are maintained during the term and on termination of the agreement;

(f) ensure that appropriate security and confidentiality obligations are provided for in their agreements with their employees and staff members;

(g) ensure that the employees having physical access to CIDR data centers and logical access to CIDR data centers undergo necessary background checks;

(h) define the security perimeters holding sensitive information, and ensure only authorised individuals are allowed access to such areas to prevent any data leakage or misuse; and

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 47 of 567

(i) where they are involved in the handling of the biometric data, ensure that they use only those biometric devices which are certified by a certification body as identified by the Authority and ensure that appropriate systems are built to ensure security of the biometric data.

The Aadhaar (Sharing of Information) Regulations, 2016.

3. Sharing of information by the Authority. — (1) Core biometric information collected by the Authority under the Act shall not be shared with anyone for any reason whatsoever.

(2) The demographic information and photograph of an individual collected by the Authority under the Act may be shared by the Authority with a requesting entity in response to an authentication request for e-KYC data pertaining to such individual, upon the requesting entity obtaining consent from the Aadhaar number holder for the authentication process, in accordance with the provisions of the Act and the Aadhaar (Authentication) Regulations, 2016.

(3) The Authority shall share authentication records of the Aadhaar number holder with him in accordance with regulation 28 of the Aadhaar (Authentication) Regulations, 2016.

(4) The Authority may share demographic information and photograph, and the authentication records of an Aadhaar number holder when required to do so in accordance with Section 33 of the Act.

xx xx xx

6. Restrictions on sharing, circulating or publishing of Aadhaar number. — (1) The Aadhaar number of an individual shall not be published, displayed or posted publicly by any person or entity or agency.

(2) Any individual, entity or agency, which is in possession of Aadhaar number(s) of Aadhaar number holders, shall ensure security and confidentiality of the Aadhaar numbers and of any record or database containing the Aadhaar numbers.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 48 of 567 (3) Without prejudice to sub-regulations (1) and (2), no entity, including a requesting entity, which is in possession of the Aadhaar number of an Aadhaar number holder, shall make public any database or record containing the Aadhaar numbers of individuals, unless the Aadhaar numbers have been redacted or blacked out through appropriate means, both in print and electronic form.

(4) No entity, including a requesting entity, shall require an individual to transmit his Aadhaar number over the Internet unless such transmission is secure and the Aadhaar number is transmitted in encrypted form except where transmission is required for correction of errors or redressal of grievances.

(5) No entity, including a requesting entity, shall retain Aadhaar numbers or any document or database containing Aadhaar numbers for longer than is necessary for the purpose specified to the Aadhaar number holder at the time of obtaining consent.”

43) To sum up broadly, the Authority is established under the Act as a

statutory body which is given the task of developing the policy,

procedure and system for issuing Aadhaar numbers to individuals

and also to perform authentication thereof as per the provisions

of the Act. For the purpose of enrolment and assigning Aadhaar

numbers, enrolling agencies are recruited by the Authority. All the

residents in India are eligible to obtain an Aadhaar number. To

enable a resident to get Aadhaar number, he is required to submit

demographic as well as biometric information i.e., apart from

giving information relating to name, date of birth and address,

biometric information in the form of photograph, fingerprint, iris

scan is also to be provided. Aadhaar number given to a particular Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 49 of 567 person is treated as unique number as it cannot be reassigned to

any other individual.

Insofar as subsidies, benefits or services to be given by the

Central Government or the State Government, as the case may

be, is concerned, these Governments can mandate that receipt of

these subsidies, benefits and services would be given only on

furnishing proof of possession of Aadhaar number (or proof of

making an application for enrolment, where Aadhaar number is

not assigned). An added requirement is that such individual

would undergo authentication at the time of receiving such

benefits etc. A particular institution/body from which the aforesaid

subsidy, benefit or service is to be claimed by such an individual,

the intended recipient would submit his Aadhaar number and is

also required to give her biometric information to that agency. On

receiving this information and for the purpose of its

authentication, the said agency, known as Requesting Entity,

would send the request to the Authority which shall perform the

job of authentication of Aadhaar number. On confirming the

identity of a person, the individual is entitled to receive subsidy,

benefit or service. Aadhaar number is permitted to be used by

the holder for other purposes as well.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 50 of 567

44) In this whole process, any resident seeking to obtain an Aadhaar

number is, in the first instance, required to submit her

demographic information and biometric information at the time of

enrolment. She, thus, parts with her photograph, fingerprint and

iris scan at that stage by giving the same to the enrolling agency,

which may be a private body/person. Likewise, every time when

such Aadhaar holder intends to receive a subsidy, benefit or

service and goes to specified/designated agency or person for

that purpose, she would be giving her biometric information to

that requesting entity, which, in turn, shall get the same

authenticated from the Authority before providing a subsidy,

benefit or service. Whenever request is received for

authentication by the Authority, record of such a request is kept

and stored in the CIDR. At the same time, provisions for

protection of such information/data have been made, as indicated

above. Aadhaar number can also be used for purposes other

than stated in the Act i.e. purposes other than provided under

Section 7 of the Act, as mentioned in Section 57 of the Act, which

permit the State or any body corporate or person, pursuant to any

law, for the time being in force, or any contract to this effect, to

use the Aadhaar number for establishing the identity of an

individual. It can be used as a proof of identity, like other identity

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 51 of 567 proofs such as PAN card, ration card, driving licence, passport

etc.

45) Piercing into the aforesaid Aadhaar programme and its

formation/structure under the Aadhaar Act, foundational

arguments are that it is a grave risk to the rights and liberties of

the citizens of this country which are secured by the Constitution

of India. It militates against the constitutional abiding values and

its foundational morality and has the potential to enable an

intrusive state to become a surveillance state on the basis of

information that is collected in respect of each individual by

creation of a joint electronic mesh. In this manner, the Act strikes

at the very privacy of each individual thereby offending the right

to privacy which is elevated and given the status of fundamental

right by tracing it to Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Constitution of

India by a nine Judge Bench judgment of this Court in K.S.

Puttaswamy & Anr. v. Union of India & Ors.6. Most of the counsel

appearing for different petitioners (though not all) conceded that

there cannot be a serious dispute insofar as allotment of Aadhaar

number, for the purpose of unique identification of the residents,

is concerned. However, apprehensions have been expressed

about the manner in which the Scheme has been rolled out and

6 (2017) 10 SCC 1 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 52 of 567 implemented. The entire edifice of the aforesaid projection is

based on the premise that it forces a person, who intends to enrol

for Aadhaar, to part with his core information namely biometric

information in the form of fingerprints and iris scan. These are to

be given to the enrolment agency in the first instance which is a

private body and, thus, there is risk of misuse of this vital

information pertaining to an individual. Further, it is argued that

the most delicate and fragile part, susceptible to misuse, is the

authentication process which is to be carried out each time the

holder of Aadhaar number wants to establish her identity. At that

stage, not only the individual parts with the biometric information

again with the RE (which may again be a private agency as well),

the purpose for which such a person approaches the RE would

also be known i.e. the nature of transaction which is supposed to

be undertaken by the said person at that time. Such information

relating to different transactions of a person across the life of the

citizen is connected to a central database. This record may

enable the State to profile citizens, track their movements, assess

their habits and silently influence their behaviour. Over a period

of time, the profiling would enable the State to stifle dissent and

influence political decision making. It may also enable the State

to act as a surveillant state and there is a propensity for it to

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 53 of 567 become a totalitarian state. It is stressed that at its core, Aadhaar

alters the relationship between the citizen and the State. It

diminishes the status of the citizen. Rights freely exercised,

liberties freely enjoyed, entitlements granted by the Constitution

and laws are all made conditional, on a compulsory barter. The

barter compels the citizen to give up her biometrics ‘voluntarily’,

allow her biometrics and demographic information to be stored by

the State and private operators and then used for a process

termed ‘authentication’.

To put it in nutshell, provisions of the Aadhaar Act are

perceived by the petitioners as giving away of vital information

about the residents to the State not only in the form of biometrics

but also about the movement as well as varied kinds of

transactions which a resident would enter into from time to time.

The threat is in the form of profiling the citizens by the State on

the one hand and also misuse thereof by private agencies

whether it is enrolling agency or requesting agency or even

private bodies mentioned in Section 57 of the Act. In essence, it

is stated that not only data of aforesaid nature is stored by the

CIDR, which has the threat of being leaked, it can also be

misused by non-State actors. In other words, it is sought to be

highlighted that there is no assurance of any data protection at

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 54 of 567 any level.

46) The respondents, on the other hand, have attempted to shake the

very foundation of the aforesaid structure of the petitioners’ case.

They argue that in the first instance, minimal biometric

information of the applicant, who intends to have Aadhaar

number, is obtained which is also stored in CIDR for the purpose

of authentication. Secondly, no other information is stored. It is

emphasised that there is no data collection in respect of religion,

caste, tribe, language records of entitlement, income or medical

history of the applicant at the time of Aadhaar enrolment. Thirdly,

the Authority also claimed that the entire Aadhaar enrolment eco-

system is foolproof inasmuch as within few seconds of the

biometrics having been collected by the enrolling agency, the said

information gets transmitted the Authorities/CIDR, that too in an

encrypted form, and goes out of the reach of the enrolling

agency. Same is the situation at the time of authentication as

biometric information does not remain with the requesting

agency. Fourthly, while undertaking the authentication process,

the Authority simply matches the biometrics and no other

information is received or stored in respect of purpose, location or

nature or transaction etc. Therefore, the question of profiling does

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 55 of 567 not arise at all. A powerpoint presentation was given by Dr. Ajay

Bhushan Pandey, CEO of the Authority, in the Court, while

explaining various nuances of the whole process. In this

presentation, the enrolment process has been projected in the

following manner:

47) Insofar as Aadhaar authentication service is concerned, it was

explained that the same is e-KYC wherein following process is

involved:

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 56 of 567 48) It was asserted with all vehemence that while doing the aforesaid

authentication, no other information is collected or stored by the

Authority/CIDR, specifically pointing that:

(a) The Authority does not collect purpose, location or details of

transaction. Thus, it is purpose blind.

(b) The information collected as aforesaid remains in silos.

(c) Merging of silos is prohibited.

(d) The RE is provided answer only in Yes or No about the

authentication of the person concerned.

(e) The authentication process is not exposed to the internet

world.

(f) Security measures as per the provisions of Section 29(3)

read with Section 38(g) as well as Regulation 17(1)(d) of the

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 57 of 567 Authentication Regulations are strictly followed and adhere to.

The Aadhaar Authentication Security has been described in

the following manner:

49) In this hue, the Authority has projected that the Aadhaar design

takes full care of privacy and security of the persons. It is sought

to be demonstrated by pointing out the following features:

(i) Privacy is ensured by the very design of Aadhaar which was

conceived by the Authority from very inception and is now even

incarnated in the Aadhaar Act because : (a) it is backed by

minimal data, federated databases, optimal ignorance; and (b)

there is no transaction/pooling data coupled with the fact that

resident authorised access to identity data is available.

(ii) Aadhaar is designed for inclusion inasmuch as : (a) there is

flexibility of demographic data, multi-modal biometrics, and

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 58 of 567 flexible processes; (b) DDSVP Committee by Dr. V.N. Vittal,

former CVC; and (c) Biometric design and Standards Committee

by Dr. Gairola, Former DG, NIC.

(iii) All security numbers are followed which can be seen from:

(a) PKI-2048 encryption from the time of capture, (b) adoption of

best-in-class security standards and practices, and (c) strong

audit and traceability as well as fraud detection.

50) It was explained that the security and data privacy is ensured in

the following way:

(i) The data sent to ABIS is completely anonymised. The ABIS

systems do not have access to resident’s demographic

information as they are only sent biometric information of a

resident with a reference number and asked to de-duplicate. The

de-duplication result with the reference number is mapped back

to the correct enrolment number by the Authorities own enrolment

server.

(ii) The ABIS providers only provide their software and

services. The data is stored in UIDAI storage and it never leaves

the secure premises.

(iii) The ABIS providers do not store the biometric images

(source). They only store template for the purpose of de-

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 59 of 567 duplication (with reference number).

(iv) The encrypted enrolment packet sent by the enrolment

client software to the CIDR is decrypted by the enrolment server

but the decrypted packet is never stored.

(v) The original biometric images of fingerprints, iris and face

are archived and stored offline. Hence, they cannot be accessed

through an online network.

(vi) The biometric system provides high accuracy of over

99.86%. The mixed biometric have been adopted only t enhance

the accuracy and to reduce the errors which may arise on

account of some residents either not having biometrics or not

having some particular biometric.

51) Above all, there is an oversight by Technology and Architecture

Review Board (TARB) and Security Review Committee. This

Board and Committee consists of very high profiled officers. The

aforesaid security measures are shown by the Authority in the

following manner:

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 60 of 567 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 61 of 567

52) We may point out at this stage that to the powerpoint

presentation by Dr. Pandey on the aforesaid lines, certain

questions were put to him by Mr. Shyam Divan as well as Mr.

Vishwanathan, senior advocates, and the answers thereto were

given by Dr. Pandey. In order to have the complete picture, we

will be well advised to reproduce these questions and their

answers as well, which are as follows:

53) Questions and Answers to the queries raised by the petitioners in W.P. (C) No. 1056 of 2017 entitled ‘Nachiket Udupa & Anr. v.

Union of India

(1) What are the figures for authentication failures, both at the

national and state level? Please provide a breakup, between

fingerprints and iris.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 62 of 567 Ans.: UIDAI cannot provide authentication failure rates at the

state level since it does not track the location of the authentication

transactions. Authentication failure rate at national level is as

below:

Modality Unique UID Failed Unique ID Failed Percentage Participated IRIS 1,08,50,391 9,27,132 8.54% FINGER 61,63,63,346 3,69,62,619 6.00%

It must be stated that authentication failures do not mean

exclusion or denial from subsidies, benefits or services since the

requesting entities are obliged under the law to provide for

exception handling mechanisms.

(2) In case a person who is claiming a biometric exception (e.g.

a person suffering from leprosy) does not have a mobile phone

number, or has not given it in the enrolment form, or if the phone

number changes – how will her Aadhaar enrolment and

subsequent authentication occur and under which provision of

law?

Ans.: Aadhaar enrolment is done for all residents, even of

residents with leprosy. Biometric exception process is defined in

the UIDAI resident enrolment process. In the case of a leprosy

patient, who may not be able to do fingerprint authentication, iris

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 63 of 567 authentication can be used for update (and add the mobile

number). This was the reason for multi-modal enrolment and

authentication being selected for use in Aadhaar.

Only in an unlikely scenario where both iris and fingerprint

cannot be used for authentication, the mobile number is one of

the methods for authentication. In cases where authentication

through mobile number is not possible or feasible, the requesting

entities have to provide their own exception and backup

mechanism to ensure services to Aadhaar holders. As part of the

exception handling mechanism, UIDAI has already implemented

a digitally signed QR code into e-Aadhaar which allows agencies

to verify the Aadhaar card in an off-line manner and trust the data

(based on digital signature validation) without accessing e-KYC

API service of UIDAI. This is a simple off-line mechanism to

quickly verify the legitimacy of the Aadhaar card. But, it does not

ensure that the person holding the card is the owner of that

Aadhaar number. It needs either manual check of photo against

the face of the individual (like the way ID is verified at the entry of

airports) or some form of electronic authentication using Aadhaar

authentication API or agency specific authentication scheme. QR

code based verification allows Aadhaar number holders to use

their ID on a day-to-day purpose without using online e-KYC

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 64 of 567 authentication. The verification through offline QR code can be

used for those purposes or cases where proof of presence or

proof of ownership of card is not required.

The Aadhaar Act and Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update)

Regulations, 2016 define special provision for enrolment of

residents with biometric exception. Further, as per Regulation

14(i) of the Authentication Regulations, RE shall implement

exception-handling mechanisms and backup identity

authentication mechanisms to ensure seamless provision of

authentication services to Aadhaar number holders. Accordingly,

DBT Mission Cabinet Secretariat has issued a detailed circular

dated December 19, 2017 regarding exception handling during

use of Aadhaar in the benefit schemes of the Government.

(3) Are there any surprise checks, field studies done to check

the authenticity of the exemption registers?

Ans.: As per Regulation 14(i) of the Authentication Regulations,

this exception handling mechanism is to be implemented and

monitored by the requesting entities and in case of the

Government, their respective Ministries. Further, the DBT

Mission Cabinet Secretariat had issued Circular dated December

19, 2017 on exception handling and audit of exceptions.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 65 of 567 (4) Between the ages of 5-15 years, can a school, as an

‘introducer’, enrol a child without parental consent?

Ans.: School officials, if permitted to act as ‘introducer’, can enrol

only when there is a parental consent to enrol. The disclosure

requirement as per Section 3(2) of the Aadhaar Act and the

Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update) Regulations, 2016 (Schedule-I)

is implemented through the enrolment form which is signed by the

resident making it informed disclosure. In case of children, the

consent form will be signed by the parent/guardian.

(5) Once a child attains the age of 18 years, is there any way

for them to opt out or revoke consent?

Ans.: It is not permissible under the Aadhaar Act. However,

residents have the option of permanently locking their biometrics

and only temporarily unlock it when needed for biometric

authentication as per Regulation 11 of the Authentication

Regulations.

(6) What is the status of the enrolments done by the 49,000

blacklisted enrolment operators? Please provide the number of

enrolments done by them?

Ans.: UIDAI has a policy to enforce the process guidelines and

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 66 of 567 data quality check during the enrolment process. 100% of the

enrolment done by operators undergoes a quality assurance

check, wherein every enrolment passes through a human eye.

Any Aadhaar enrolment found to be contrary to the UIDAI

process, the enrolment itself gets rejected and Aadhaar is not

generated. The resident is advised to re-enroll. Once an

operator is blacklisted or suspended, further enrolments cannot

be carried out by him during the time the order of

blacklisting/suspension is valid.

(7) What are the total number of biometric De-duplication

rejections that have taken place till date? In case an enrolment is

rejected either for: (a) duplicate enrolment and (b) other technical

reason under Regulation 14 of the Aadhaar Enrolment

Regulations, what happens to the data packet that contains the

stored biometric and demographic information?

Ans.: The total number of biometric de-duplication rejections that

have taken place are 6.91 crores as on March 21, 2018. These

figures do not pertain to the number of unique individuals who

have been denied Aadhaar enrolment resulting in no Aadhaar

issued to them. This figure merely pertains to the number of

applications which have been identified by the Aadhaar de-

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 67 of 567 duplication system as having matching biometrics to an existing

Aadhaar number holder. The biometric de-duplication system is

designed to identify as duplicate those cases where any one of

the biometrics (ten fingers and two irises) match. However, very

often it is found that all the biometrics match. It is highly

improbable for the biometrics to match unless the same person

has applied again. There are a number of reasons why the same

person might apply more than once. For instance, many

individuals innocently apply for enrolment multiple times because

of the delay in getting their Aadhaar cards due to postal delays,

loss or destruction of their cards or confusion about how the

system works. Each time one applies for Aadhaar, the system

identifies her as a new enrolment but when it recognises that the

individual’s biometrics match with already those in the database,

thereafter further checks, including manual check through

experienced personnels, are done. After that exercise, if it is

found that the person is already registered, it rejects the

enrolment application. One of their main reasons for rejection is

that multiple people would put their biometric details like

fingerprints for Aadhaar generation either as a fraudulent exercise

or by mistake, which also would get rejected. There were many

fakes and frauds in the earlier systems and several reports have

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 68 of 567 found that almost 50% of the subsidies were getting pilfered away

by fakes and duplicates in the system. Then, there would also be

several such people who may have tried to defraud the Aadhaar

enrolment system as well but failed get multiple Aadhaar numbers

due to the stringent Aadhaar de-duplication process. Thus, the

mere fact that 6.23 crore enrolments have been rejected as

biometric duplicates does not mean that 6.23 crore people have

been denied an Aadhaar number as has been alleged by the

petitioners. Any genuine person who does not have an Aadhaar

number and whose enrolment has been rejected can always

apply again for enrolment. It is worth noting that none of the de-

duplication rejects have come forward to lodge complaints either

with the Authority or with the Government about denial of Aadhaar

number. None of them have even approached any Court of law.

Evidently, the genuine residents have got themselves re-enrolled

and the rest are those who were trying to reach the Aadhaar

system by fraudulent means. That explains why no one has

approached a court of law complaining denial of Aadhaar number.

All the enrolment packets received by UIDAI (accepted/rejected)

are archived in the CIDR irrespective of its status.

(8) If the figure of rejection of enrolment packets was 8 crore,

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 69 of 567 as on 2015, what is the total rejection figure for enrolment

packets as on date? How many field studies/physical verification

have been done to ensure that these persons (who have been

rejected) are indeed “False or duplicate” enrolments?

Ans.: The total rejection figure for enrolment packets is 18.0 cr.

as on March 26, 2018. These rejections are due to various

technical reasons like: (i) data quality reject such as address

incomplete, name incomplete, use of expletives in names,

address etc. photo is of object, photo of photo, age photo

mismatch etc.; and (ii) OSI validation reject such as operator /

supervisor / introducer validation failed, operator / supervisor /

introducer / Head of Family biometric validation failed etc.

Those whose enrolments have been rejected for any reason

and who do not have Aadhaar can re-enrol and obtain Aadhaar.

Rejection of enrolments do not mean that the person will never be

able to get Aadhaar.

(9) What does “any other appropriate response” under Section

8(4) of the Aadhaar Act include?

Ans.: “Any other appropriate responses” includes e-KYC or

limited e-KYC data. As per Regulation 3 of Authentication

Regulations, UIDAI provides two types of authentication facilities,

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 70 of 567 namely -

(i) Yes/No authentication facility; and

(ii) e-KYC authentication facility.

In Yes/No authentication, UIDAI provides the response as

Yes or No along with relevant error codes, if any.

In e-KYC authentication, UIDAI provides the demographic

data along with photograph and in case of mismatch/error, the

relevant error codes.

54) Questions and Answers to the queries raised by the petitioners in W.P. (C) No. 829 of 2013 entitled ‘S.G. Vombatkere & Anr. v. Union of India

(1) Please confirm that no UIDAI official verifies the correctness

of documents offered at the stage of enrolment/updating.

Ans.: As per UIDAI process, the verification of the documents is

entrusted to the Registrar. For Verification based on Documents,

the verifier present at the Enrolment Centre will verify the

documents. Registrars/Enrolment agency must appoint personnel

for the verification of documents.

(2) Please confirm that UIDAI does not know whether the

documents shown at the time of enrolment/updating are genuine

or false.

Ans.: The answer is same as in (1) above.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 71 of 567

(3) Please confirm:

(a) UIDAI does not identify the persons it only matches the

biometric information received at the time of authentication with

its records and provides a Yes/No response;

Ans.: Biometric authentication of an Aadhaar number holder is

always performed as 1:1 biometric match against his/her Aadhaar

number (identity) in CIDR. Based on the match, UIDAI provides

Yes or No response. A “Yes” response means a positive

identification of the Aadhaar number holder.

Each enrolment is biometrically de-duplicated against all

(1.2 billion) residents to issue the Aadhaar number (or Unique

Identity).

(b) UIDAI takes no responsibility with respect to the correctness

of the name, date of birth or address of the person enrolled.

Ans.: The Name/Address/DOB are derived from the Proof of

Identity (POI)/Proof of Address (POA) documents submitted

during enrolments.

The enrolment/update packet (encrypted) retains a scanned

copy of the POI/POA documents used for the enrolment which

can be reviewed in case of dispute.

UIDAI maintains the update history of each Aadhaar

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 72 of 567 number related to changes in name, address, date of birth etc.

(4) Please confirm:

(a) UIDAI takes no responsibility with respect to the correct

identification of a person.

Ans.: Please refer to Answer (1) above. Additionally, it may be

stated that enrolment of Aadhaar is done through a resident

enrolment process and verification of the POI/POA document is

done against the acceptable documents, as per the UIDAI valid

list of documents as provided in Schedule II and III Aadhaar

(Enrolment and Update) Regulations, 2016 read with Regulation

10.

UIDAI takes responsibility in creating and implementing

standards, ensuring matching systems installed in CIDR work as

they are designed to do, and providing options to Aadhaar

holders in terms of controlling their identity (such as updating their

data, locking their biometrics, etc.) and accessing their own

authentication records. One of the key goals of Aadhaar is to

issue a unique identity for the residents of India. Hence, each

enrolment is biometrically de-duplicated against all (1.2 billion)

residents to issue the Aadhaar number (or Unique Identity).

Section 4 of Aadhaar lays down the properties of an

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 73 of 567 Aadhaar number. Sub-section (3) of Section 4 reads as under:

“(3) An Aadhaar number, in physical or electronic form subject to authentication and other conditions, as may be specified by regulations, may be accepted as proof of identity of the Aadhaar number holder for any purpose.”

The requesting entities are at liberty to use any or multiple

of authentication mode available under Regulation 4 of Aadhaar

(Authentication) Regulation, 2016 as per their requirements and

needs of security etc.

(b) The biometric authentication is based on a probabilistic

match of the biometric captured during authentication and the

record stored with CIDR.

Ans.: Biometric authentication is based on 1:1 matching and,

therefore, in that sense it is not probabilistic. If biometrics are

captured it will lead to successful authentication. If biometrics are

not well captured during authentication or an impostor tries

authentication, it will lead to authentication failure. Aadhaar Proof

of Concept studies show that a vast majority of residents (>98%)

can successfully authenticate using biometric modalities such

fingerprints and/or iris.

However, the Aadhaar Act and Regulations provides that an

Aadhaar number holder cannot be denied service due to the

failure of Aadhaar authentication. Hence, all Aadhaar

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 74 of 567 applications must implement exception processes. Possible

methods to implement the exception process include:

(i) Family Based Authentication: Family based applications

such as PDS or Health applications may allow authentication by

family members to allow resident to avail services.

(ii) Alternate Modalities: Some applications may use different

modalities for exception handling. Alternate modalities include:

(a) Iris Authentication

(b) OTP Authentication (if allowed by policy)

(iii) Biometric Fusion: UIDAI is introducing face authentication

as secondary authentication factor to reduce the rate of

authentication failures, especially for senior citizens. At this time,

face authentication will be used only conjunction with another

authentication factor such as finger/iris/OTP.

(a) Face + Finger Fusion

(b) Face + Iris Fusion

(c) Face + OTP Fusion

(iv) Non Aadhaar Based Exception process: Applications may

implement non-Aadhaar based exception process to ensure that

no resident is denied service. Applications need to monitor the

use of exceptions in their applications to prevent misuse of the

exception process.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 75 of 567 (v) Accordingly, DBT Mission Cabinet Secretariat had issued a

detailed circular dated December 19, 2017 regarding use of

Aadhaar in benefit schemes of Government – exception handling.

(5) Please confirm that with respect to individuals under 15

years and over 60 years of age, biometric authentication is likely

to fail due to changes in/fading of biometrics such as fingerprints.

Ans.: Though there is no conclusive evidence to say that

biometric authentication success is dependent upon age, slightly

higher authentication failure rates have been observed only for

fingerprints for senior citizens above the age of 70. A number of

exception processes are provided in answer to Question 4(b)

above to prevent denial of service for failure of authentication.

Further, in case of any issue in biometric authentication, an

Aadhaar number holder may update his/her biometric at any of

the Aadhaar enrolment centres, which is also provided for in the

Aadhaar Act.

(6) Please confirm that the reasons why over 49000 enrolment

operators were blacklisted include: (i) failure to verify documents

presented; (ii) failure to maintain records of documents submitted;

(iii) misuse of information submitted; and (iv) aiding or abetting

false enrolments?

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 76 of 567 Ans.: UIDAI has a policy to enforce the process guidelines and

data quality check during the enrolment process. 100% of the

enrolments done by operators undergoes a quality assurance

check. If any Aadhaar enrolment is found to be not as per the

UIDAI process, the enrolment itself gets rejected and Aadhaar is

not generated. If such mistake by an operator crosses a

threshold defined in the policy, the operator is blacklisted/

removed from the UIDAI ecosystem. As such, of the 49,000

operators who have been blacklisted/removed from the UIDAI

eco-system, all the enrolments which were in violation of the

process were rejected in the QA stage. Enrolment operators may

be blacklisted for the following reasons:

 illegally charging the resident for Aadhaar enrolment

 poor demographic data quality

 invalid biometric exceptions

 other process malpractice

(7) Please confirm:

(a) At the stage of enrolment, there is no verification as to

whether a person is an illegal immigrant.

(b) At the stage of enrolment, there is no verification about a

person being resident in India for 182 days or more in the past 12

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 77 of 567 months.

(c) Foreign nationals may enrol and are issued Aadhaar

numbers.

(d) Persons retain their Aadhaar number even after they cease

to be resident. This is true of foreign nationals as well.

Ans.:

(a) At the time of enrolment, verification is done based upon

documents provided by the resident. In case any violation of

prescribed guidelines comes to light, the concerned Aadhaar is

omitted/deactivated.

(b) This has been included through the enrolment form where

resident undertakes and signs the disclosure:

“Disclosure under Section 3(2) of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial And Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016

I confirm that I have been residing in India for at least 182 days in the preceding 12 months & information (including biometrics) provided by me to the UIDAI is my own and is true, correct and accurate. I am aware that my information (including biometrics) will be used for generation of Aadhaar and authentication. I understand that my identity information (except core biometric) may be provided to an agency only with my consent during authentication or as per the provisions of the Aadhaar Act. I have a right to access my identity information (except core biometrics) following the procedure laid down by UIDAI.”

(c) Aadhaar is issued to the resident of India and the word

‘resident’ is defined in Section 2(v) of the Aadhaar Act. Aadhaar

numbers may be issued to foreign nationals who are resident in Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 78 of 567 India. Section 2(v) reads as under:

“ ‘resident’ means an individual who has resided in India for a period or periods amounting in all to one hundred and eighty-two days or more in the twelve months immediately preceding the date of application for enrolment;”

A foreign national fulfilling the above criteria is eligible for

Aadhaar, provided he submits the acceptable POI/POA document

as per the UIDAI valid list of documents.

(d) As per the Aadhaar Act, an Aadhaar number is issued to a

resident who has been residing in India for at least 182 days in

the preceding 12 months. An Aadhaar number is issued to an

individual for life and may be omitted/deactivated in case of

violation of prescribed guidelines only. Ineligibility of a person to

retain an Aadhaar number owing to become non-resident may be

treated as a ground for deactivation of Aadhaar number and

Regulation 28(l)(f) of the Aadhaar Enrolment Regulations. This is

in keeping with Section 31(1) and (3) of the Aadhaar Act wherein

it is an obligation on an Aadhaar number holder to inform the

UIDAI of changes in demographic information and for the

Authority to make the necessary alteration.

(8) Please confirm the Points Of Service (POS) biometric

readers are capable of storing biometric information.

Ans.: UIDAI has mandated use of Registered Devices (RD) for Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 79 of 567 all authentication requests. With RDs, biometric data is signed

within the device/RD service using the provider key to ensure it is

indeed captured live. The device provider RD service encrypts

the PID block before returning to the host application. This RD

service encapsulates the biometric capture, signing and

encryption of biometrics all within it. Therefore, introduction of

RD in Aadhaar authentication system rules out any possibility of

use of stored biometric and replay of biometrics captured from

other source. Requesting entities are not legally allowed to store

biometrics captured for Aadhaar authentication under Regulation

17(1)(a) of the Authentication Regulations.

(9) Referring to slide/page 13, please confirm that the

architecture under the Aadhaar Act includes: (i) authentication

user agencies (e.g. Kerala Dairy Farmers Welfare Fund Board);

(ii) authentication service agencies (e.g. Airtel); and (iii) CIDR.

Ans.: UIDAI appoints Requesting Entities (AUA/KUA) and

Authentication Service Agency (ASA) as per Regulation 12 of

Authentication Regulations. List of Requesting Entitles

(AUA/KUA) and Authentication Service Agency appointed by

UIDAI is available on UIDAI’s website. An AUA/KUA can do

authentication on behalf of other entities under Regulation 15 and

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 80 of 567 Regulation 16.

(10) Please confirm that one or more entitles in the Aadhaar

architecture described in the previous paragraph record the date

and time of the authentication, the client IP, the device ID and

purpose of authentication.

Ans.: UIDAI does not ask requesting entities to maintain any logs

related to IP address of the device, GPS coordinates of the

device and purpose of authentication. However, AUAs like banks,

telecom etc., in order to ensure that their systems are secure,

frauds are managed, they may store additional information as per

their requirement under their respective laws to secure their

system. Section 32(3) of the Aadhaar Act specifically prevents

the UIDAI from either by itself or through any entity under its

control to keep or maintain any information about the purpose of

authentication.

Requesting entities are mandated to maintain following logs

as per Regulation 18 of the Authentication Regulations. These

are:

(i) the Aadhaar number against which authentication is

sought;

(ii) specified parameters of authentication request

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 81 of 567 submitted;

(iii) specified parameters received as authentication

response;

(iv) the record of disclosure of information to the Aadhaar

number holder at the time of authentication; and

(v) record of consent of the Aadhaar number holder for

authentication, but shall not, in any event, retain the PID

information.

Further, even if a requesting entity captures any other data

as per their own requirement, UIDAI will only audit the

authentication logs maintained by the requesting entity as per

Regulation 18(1) of the Authentication Regulations.

ASAs are not permitted to maintain any logs related to IP

address of the device, GPS coordinates of the device etc. ASAs

are mandated to maintain logs as per Regulation 20 of the

Authentication Regulations:

(i) identity of the requesting entity;

(ii) parameters of authentication request submitted; and

(iii) parameters received as authentication response.

Provided that no Aadhaar number, PID information, device

identity related data and e-KYC response data, where applicable,

shall be retained.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 82 of 567 (11) Referring to slide/page 7 and 14, please confirm that

‘traceability’ features enable UIDAI to track the specific device

and its location from where each and every authentication takes

place.

Ans.: UIDAI gets the AUA code, ASA code, unique device code,

registered device code used for authentication. UIDAI does not

get any information related to the IP address or the GPS location

from where authentication is performed as these parameters are

not part of authentication (v2.0) and e-KYC (v2.1) API UIDAI

would only know from which device the authentication has

happened, through which AUA/ASA etc. This is what the slides

meant by traceability. UIDAI does not receive any information

about at what location the authentication device is deployed, its

IP address and its operator and the purpose of authentication.

Further, the UIDAI or any entity under its control is statutorily

barred from collecting, keeping or maintaining any information

about the purpose of authentication under Section 32(3) of the

Aadhaar Act.

Summing up the Scheme:

55) The whole architecture of Aadhaar is devised to give unique

identity to the citizens of this country. No doubt, a person can

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 83 of 567 have various documents on the basis of which that individual can

establish her identify. It may be in the form of a passport,

Permanent Account Number (PAN) card, ration card and so on.

For the purpose of enrolment itself number of documents are

prescribed which an individual can produce on the basis of which

Aadhaar card can be issued. Thus, such documents, in a way,

are also proof of identity. However, there is a fundamental

difference between the Aadhaar card as a mean of identity and

other documents through which identity can be established.

Enrolment for Aadhaar card also requires giving of demographic

information as well as biometric information which is in the form

of iris and fingerprints. This process eliminates any chance of

duplication. It is emphasised that an individual can manipulate

the system by having more than one or even number of PAN

cards, passports, ration cards etc. When it comes to obtaining

Aadhaar card, there is no possibility of obtaining duplicate card.

Once the biometric information is stored and on that basis

Aadhaar card is issued, it remains in the system with the

Authority. Wherever there would be a second attempt for

enrolling for Aadhaar and for this purpose same person gives his

biometric information, it would immediately get matched with the

same biometric information already in the system and the second

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 84 of 567 request would stand rejected. It is for this reason the Aadhaar

card is known as Unique Identification (UID). Such an identity is

unparalleled.

56) There is, then, another purpose for having such a system of

issuing unique identification cards in the form of Aadhaar card. A

glimpse thereof is captured under the heading ‘Introduction’

above while mentioning how and under what circumstances the

whole project was conceptualised. To put it tersely, in addition to

enabling any resident to obtain such unique identification proof, it

is also to empower marginalised section of the society,

particularly those who are illiterate and living in abject poverty or

without any shelter etc. It gives identity to such persons also.

Moreover, with the aid of Aadhaar card, they can claim various

privileges and benefits etc. which are actually meant for these

people.

Identity of a person has a significance for every individual in

his/her life. In a civilised society every individual, on taking birth,

is given a name. Her place of birth and parentage also becomes

important as she is known in the society and these demographic

particulars also become important attribute of her personality.

Throughout their lives, individuals are supposed to provide such

information: be it admission in a school or college or at the time of Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 85 of 567 taking job or engaging in any profession or business activity, etc.

When all this information is available in one place, in the form of

Aadhaar card, it not only becomes unique, it would also qualify as

a document of empowerment. Added with this feature, when an

individual knows that no other person can clone her, it assumes

greater significance.

57) Thus, the scheme by itself can be treated as laudable when it

comes to enabling an individual to seek Aadhaar number, more

so, when it is voluntary in nature. Howsoever benevolent the

scheme may be, it has to pass the muster of constitutionality.

According to the petitioners, the very architecture of Aadhaar is

unconstitutional on various grounds, glimpse whereof can be

provided at this stage:

Gist of the challenge to the Aadhaar Scheme as well as the Act:

58) The petitioners accept that the case at hand is unique, simply

because of the reason that the programme challenged here is

itself without precedent. According to them, no democratic

society has adopted a programme that is similar in its command

and sweep. The case is about a new technology that the

Government seeks to deploy and a new architecture of

governance that it seeks to build on this technology. The

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 86 of 567 petitioners are discrediting the Government’s claim that biometric

technology employed and the Aadhaar Act is greatly beneficial.

As per the petitioners, this is an inroad into the rights and liberties

of the citizens which the Constitution of India guarantees. It is

intrusive in nature. At its core, Aadhaar alters the relationship

between the citizen and the State. It diminishes the status of the

citizens. Rights freely exercised, liberties freely enjoyed,

entitlements granted by the Constitution and laws are all made

conditional, on a compulsory barter. The barter compels the

citizens to give up their biometrics ‘voluntarily’, allow their

biometrics and demographic information to be stored by the State

and private operators and then used for a process termed

‘authentication’. According to them, by the very scheme of the

Act and the way it operates, it has propensity to cause ‘civil

death’ of an individual by simply switching of Aadhaar of that

person. It is the submission of the petitioners that the

Constitution balances rights of individuals against State interest.

The Aadhaar completely upsets this balance and skews the

relationship between the citizen and the State enabling the State

to totally dominate the individual.

59) The challenge is directed at the constitutional validity of the

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 87 of 567 following facets of Aadhaar:

(i) The Aadhaar programme that operated between January

28, 2009 until the bringing into force of the Aadhaar Act on

July 12, 2016.

(ii) The Aadhaar Act (and alternatively certain provisions of

that Act).

(iii) Elements of the Aadhaar project or programme that

continues to operate, though not within the cover of the

Aadhaar Act.

(iv) Specific Regulations framed under the Aadhaar Act,

illustratively the Aadhaar (Authentication) Regulations,

2016.

(v) A set of subordinate legislation in the form of statutory

rules/regulations including the Money Laundering

(Amendment) Rules, 2017.

(vi) All notifications (nearly 139) issued under Section 7 of the

Aadhaar Act (assuming the Act is upheld) insofar as they

make Aadhaar mandatory for availing certain

benefits/services/subsidies, including PDS, MGNREGA

and social security pension.

(vii) Actions on the part of the authorities to make Aadhaar

mandatory even where not covered by Section 7, inter

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 88 of 567 alia: Actions by CBSE, NEET, JEE and UGC requirements

for scholarship.

(viii) Specifically, actions on part of the Government mandating

linking of mobile phones and Aadhaar vide DoT circular

dated March 23, 2017.

(ix) Section 139AA of the Income Tax Act, 1961 insofar as it

violates Article 21 by mandating linking Aadhaar to PAN

and requiring Aadhaar linkage for filing returns.

60) Apart from the declaratory reliefs regarding ultra vires and

certiorari to quash the provisions/actions enumerated above,

there are certain other reliefs that are also sought, including:

(i) Suitable declarations regarding the physical autonomy of a

person over her own body qua the Indian State.

(ii) Mandatory directions requiring the respondents to give an

option to persons who are enrolled with the Aadhaar

programme to opt out and to delete the data with suitable

certification for compliance.

(iii) Mandatory directions to all concerned authorities that

should the Aadhaar Act, etc. be upheld, nevertheless,

every person must be entitled to avail services, benefits

etc. through alternative means of identification.

Negatively, nothing can be withheld from a citizen merely Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 89 of 567 because he/she does not have an Aadhaar Card or does

not wish to use their Aadhaar Card.

(iv) Mandatory directions consistent with the fundamental right

to privacy and the right of a citizen to be let alone that no

electronic trial or record of his/her authentication be

maintained.

61) On the aforesaid premise, the petitioners point out following

heads of challenge:

Surveillance:

62) The project creates the architecture for pervasive surveillance

and unless the project is stopped, it will lead to an Orwellian State

where every move of the citizen is constantly tracked and

recorded by the State. The architecture of the project comprises

a Central Identities Data Repository (CIDR) which stores and

maintains authentication transaction data. The authentication

record comprises the time of authentication and the identity of the

requesting entity. Based on this architecture it is possible for the

State to track down the location of the person seeking

authentication. Since the requesting entity is also identified, the

activity that the citizen is engaging in is also known.

Violation of Fundamental Right to Privacy:

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 90 of 567

63) The fundamental right to privacy is breached by the Aadhaar

project and the Aadhaar Act in numerous ways. Following are the

illustrations given by the petitioners:

(a) Between 2009-10 and July 2016 the project violated the

right to privacy with respect to personal demographic as well as

biometric information collected, stored and shared as there was

no law authorising these actions.

(b) During both the pre-Act and post-Act periods, the project

continues to violate the right to privacy by requiring individuals to

part with demographic as well as biometric information to private

enrolling agencies.

(c) By enabling private entities to use the Aadhaar

authentication platform, the citizen’s right to informational privacy

is violated inasmuch as the citizen is compelled to ‘report’ his/her

actions to the State.

(d) Even where a person is availing of a subsidy, benefit or

service from the State, mandatory authentication through the

Aadhaar platform (without an option to the citizen to use an

alternative mode of identification) violates the right to

informational privacy.

(e) With Aadhaar being made compulsory for holding a bank

account, operating a cell phone, having a valid PAN, holding

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 91 of 567 mutual funds, securing admission to school, taking a board

examination, etc. the citizen has no option but to obtain Aadhaar.

Compelling the citizen to part with biometric information violates

individual autonomy and dignity.

(f) In a digital society an individual has the right to protect

himself by controlling the dissemination of personal information,

including biometric information. Compelling an individual to

establish his identity by planting her biometric at multiple points of

service violates privacy involving the person.

(g) The seeding of Aadhaar in distinct databases enables the

content of information about an individual that is stored in

different silos to be aggregated. This enables the State to build

complete profiles of individuals violating privacy through the

convergence of data.

Limited Government:

64) A fundamental feature of the Constitution is the sovereignty of the

people with limited Government authority. The Constitution limits

governmental authority in various ways, amongst them

Fundamental Rights, the distribution of powers amongst organs

of the State and the ultimate check by way of judicial review. The

Aadhaar project is destructive of the limited Government. The

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 92 of 567 Constitution is not about the power of the State, but about the

limits on the power of the State. Post Aadhaar, the State will

completely dominate the citizen and alter the relationship

between citizen and the State. The features of a totalitarian state

is seen from:

(a) A person cannot conduct routine activities such as operating

a bank account, holding an investment in mutual funds, receiving

government pension, receiving scholarship, receiving food

rations, operating a mobile phone without the State knowing

about these activities.

(b) The State can build a profile of the individual based on the

trial of authentication from which the nature of the citizen’s activity

can be determined.

(c) By disabling Aadhaar the State can cause civil death of the

person.

(d) By making Aadhaar compulsory for other activities such as

air travel, rail travel, directorship in companies, services and

benefits extended by the State Governments and Municipal

Corporations, etc. there will be virtually no zone of activity left

where the citizen is not under the gaze of the State. This will

have a chilling effect on the citizen.

(e) In such a society, there is little or no personal autonomy.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 93 of 567 The State is pervasive, and dignity of the individual stands

extinguished.

(f) This is an inversion of the accountability in the Right to

Information age: instead of the State being transparent to the

citizen, it is the citizen who is rendered transparent to the State.

Impugned Act illegally passed as a ‘Money Bill’:

65) The Bill No. 47 of 2016 introduced in the Lok Sabha and which

upon passage became the impugned Act was not a Money Bill in

terms of Article 110 of the Constitution of India. Even though the

object and purpose of the impugned legislation states that it is to

be used for the delivery of subsidies, benefits and services,

expenditure for which is incurred from the Consolidated Fund of

India, the scope of the impugned Act is far beyond what is

envisaged under Article 110. Inasmuch as the impugned Act has

not followed the constitutional procedure mandated for the

passage of a law by disguising the statute as a ‘Money Bill’, there

is no valid legislative process that has been followed in this case.

The legislative process being colourable and since judicial review

extends wherever Part III rights are violated, the Aadhaar Act is

liable to be struck down.

Procedure followed violates Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution:

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 94 of 567

66) The procedure adopted by the respondents, both pre-Act and

post-Act, is arbitrary and in violation of Articles 14 and 21 of the

Constitution because:

(a) There is no informed consent at the time of enrolment.

Individuals are not told about crucial aspects such as potential

misuse of the information, the commercial value of the

information, the storage of information in a centralised database,

that the information supplied could be used against the individual

in criminal proceedings pursuant to a court order, there is no opt-

out option, the entire enrolment process is conducted by private

entities without any governmental supervision, etc.

(b) UIDAI has no direct relationship with the enrolling agency

which collects sensitive personal information (biometric and

demographic).

(c) The data collected and uploaded in to the CIDR is not

verified by any Government official designated by the UIDAI. The

data collected and stored lacks integrity.

(d) The procedure at the stage of enrolment and authentication

enables the enrolling agency as well as the ‘requesting entity’ to

capture, store and misuse/use the biometric as well as

demographic information without the UIDAI having any control

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 95 of 567 over such misuse/use.

Unreliability of Biometrics and Exclusion:

67) The foundation of the project, i.e. biometrics, is an unreliable and

untested technology. Moreover, biometric exceptions severely

erode reliability. The biometric authentication system works on a

probabilistic model. Consequently, entitlements are reduced from

certainty to a chance delivery where the biometrics match.

Across the country several persons are losing out on their

entitlements, for say food rations, because of a biometric

mismatch resulting in them being excluded from various welfare

schemes. The project is not an ‘identity’ project but an

‘identification’ exercise. Unless the biometrics work, a person in

flesh and blood, does not exist for the State.

Illegal Object:

68) It is submitted before us that the objective of creating a single

pervasive identification over time is itself illegal. There are

several facets to the illegality and amongst them is the very

negation of an individual citizen’s freedom to identify through

different means. The coercive foundation of the impugned Act is

in substance an illegal objective that renders the statute ultra

vires Article 14 of the Constitution of India.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 96 of 567 Democracy, Identity and Choice:

69) A citizen or resident in a democratic society has a choice to

identify himself/herself through different modes in the course of

his/her interactions generally in society as well as his/her

interactions with the State. Mandating identification by only one

highly intrusive mode is excessive, disproportionate and violates

Articles 14, 19 and 21.

Children:

70) As per the petitioners, there is no justification to include children

in the Aadhaar programme for various reasons.

71) It may also be recorded at this juncture itself that insofar as the

Aadhaar Act is concerned, following provisions thereof are

specifically attacked as unconstitutional:

(i) Section 2(c) and 2(d) - authentication and authentication

record, read with Section 32

(ii) Section 2(h) read with Section 10 of CIDR

(iii) Section 2(l) read with Regulation 23 of the Aadhaar

(Enrolment and Updates) Regulation - ‘enrolling agency’

(iv) Section 2(v) - ‘resident’

(v) Section 3 – Aadhaar Number

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 97 of 567

(vi) Section 5 – Special treatment to children

(vii) Section 6 – Update of information

(viii) Section 7

(ix) Section 8

(x) Section 9

(xi) Chapter IV – Sections 11 to 23

(xii) Sections 23 and 54 – excessive delegation

(xiii) Section 23(2)(g) read with Chapter VI & VII – Regulations

27 to 32 of the Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update) Regulations,

2016

(xiv) Section 29

(xv) Section 33

(xvi) Section 47

(xvii) Section 48 – Power of Central Government to supersede

UIDAI

(xviii) Section 57

(xix) Section 59

Some Introductory Remarks:

72) Before proceeding further, it would be necessary to state here the

approach which we have adopted in dealing with various issues

that are raised in these petitions. That may help in understanding

the manner in which the matter is dealt with. This necessitates Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 98 of 567 some introductory remarks:

(i) We may remark at this stage itself that many of the heads of

challenge which are taken note of above are overlapping and,

therefore, discussion on one aspect may provide substantial

answers to the arguments advanced under the other head of

challenge as well. Our endeavour, therefore, would be to eschew

the repetitive discussion. However, our anxiety to bring clarity

and also in order to have continuity of thought while discussing a

particular head, may have led to some repetitions at different

places. In any case, we would be dealing with the various heads

of challenge, one by one, so as to cover the entire spectrum.

(ii) In order to have a smooth flow of discussion, we are going

to formulate the questions which arise in all these petitions and

then decide those issues. Since, number of advocates 7 appeared

on both sides, many of the arguments addressed by them were

overlapping and repetitive. In this scenario, we deem it proper to

collate the arguments of all the counsel and present the same

while undertaking the discussion on each of the issues. Thus, in

the process, we would not be referring to each counsel and her

arguments. We may, however, intend to place on record that all

7 S/Shri Kapil Sibal, Gopal Subramaniam, P. Chidambaram, Shyam Divan, K.V. Viswanathan, Neeraj Kishan Kaul, C.U. Singh, Anand Grover, Sanjay R. Hegde, Arvind P. Datar, V. Giri, Rakesh Dwivedi, Jayant Bhushan, Sajan Poovayya, P.V. Surendra Nath, Senior Advocates, K.K. Venugopal, Attorney General for India, Tushar Mehta, Additional Solicitor General of India, Gopal Sankaranarayanan and Zoheb Hossain, Advocates.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 99 of 567 the counsel on both sides had taken the advocacy to its highest

level by presenting all possible nuances of the complex issues

involved. In the process, plethora of literature on such issues,

including the law prevailing across the Globe was cited. We,

therefore, place on record our appreciation of the sublime nature

of lawyering in this case.

(iii) As pointed out above, many number of foreign judgments

were cited during arguments. The history of this Court reflects

that this Court has liberally accepted the good practices, rules of

interpretation and norms of constitutional courts of other

jurisdictions. In fact, in drafting Indian Constitution itself, the

framing fathers had studied various foreign models and adopted

provisions from different Constitutions after deep reflection.

Constitutional influences of system prevailing in some of the

countries on Indian Constitution can be summarised as under:

From UK - Parliamentary Type of Government - Cabinet System of Ministers - Bicameral Parliament - Lower House more powerful - Council of Minsters responsible to Lower House From US - Written Constitution

- Executive head of State known as President and his being the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces

- Vice-President as the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha

- Bill of Rights Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 100 of 567

- Supreme Court

- Provision of States

- Independence of Judiciary and judicial review

- Preamble

- Removal of Supreme Court and High Court Judges From USSR - Fundamental Duties

- Five Year Plan From Australia - Concurrent List

- Language of the preamble

- Provision regarding trade, commerce and intercourse From Japan - Law on which the Supreme Court function From Weimar - Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Constitution of the emergency Germany From Canada - Scheme of federation with a strong centre

- Distribution of powers between the centre and the states and placing residuary powers with the centre From Ireland - Concept of Directive Principles of States Policy

- Method of election of President

- Nomination of members in the Rajya Sabha by the President

It was, therefore, but natural to find out the manner in which

particular provisions have been interpreted by the constitutional

courts of the aforesaid countries. Case law of this Court would

reflect this for interpreting the provisions relating to ‘Inter-State

Trade, Commerce & Intercourse’. The case law of the Australian

High Court is liberally referred as this Chapter is influenced by the

provisions contained in the Australian Constitution. Likewise, for

interpreting provisions of Part IX of the Constitution on ‘Relations Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 101 of 567 between the Union and the States’ where Canadian model is

followed, the judgments of Canadian Supreme Court have been

cited by this Court from time to time. Influence of U.S.

Constitutionalism, tempered by the wish to preserve India’s own

characteristics, while interpreting chapter relating to fundamental

rights as well as power of judicial review is also discernible. A

critical analysis of the various judgments of this Court, where

foreign precedents are cited8, formulates four typologies of use,

namely:

(a) Where the court relies on foreign precedents for guidance

on general constitutional principles and when necessary to;

(b) Where the court frames the issue posed for adjudication

and/or to formulate evaluative test and frameworks;

(c) To distinguish the country’s context from the foreign one 9;

(d) To ‘read’ in the Constitution implied or unenumerated

rights10.

It can be said that though this Court has been liberally

relying upon the judgments of the constitutional courts of other

countries, particularly when it comes to human rights discourse,

at the same time, in certain situations, note of caution is also

8 Thiruvengadam, The Use of Foreign Law in Constitutional Cases in India and Singapore (2010) 9 Basheshar Nath v. Commissioner of Income Tax, Delhi and Rajasthan & Anr., 1959 Supp (1) SCR 528 10 Romesh Thappar v. State of Madras, 1950 SCR 594 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 102 of 567 added to give a message that the judgment of other jurisdiction

cannot be relied blindly and it would depend as to whether a

particular judgment will fit in Indian context or not. As a matter of

fact, in Basheshar Nath, the Court discussed the doctrine of

waiver in force in the United States and rejected it firmly stating

that:

:...the doctrine of waiver enunciated by some American Judges in construing the American Constitution cannot be introduced in our Constitution...We are not for the moment convinced that this theory has any relevancy in construing the fundamental rights conferred by Part III of the Constitution.”

On the contrary, in Romesh Thappar, the Court completely

based its decision to strike down a law restricting the free

circulation of newspapers on two US precedents, Ex parte

Jackson11 and Lovell v. City of Griffin12, and affirmed that the

protection of freedom of expression in India follows the maxim of

Madison that the Court transposed from its quotation in Near v.

Minnesota13, according to which ‘it is better to leave a few of its

noxious branches to their luxuriant growth, than, by pruning them

away, to injure the vigour of those yielding the proper fruits’.

Likewise, the role of foreign precedents in a majority opinion is

confirmed in the decision of His Holiness Kesavananda Bharati

11 Ex Parte Jackson, 96 US 727 (1878).

12 Lovell v. City of Griffin, 303 US 444 (1938). 13 Near v. Minnesota, 282 US 607 (1931) 717-18. Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 103 of 567 Sripadagalvaru which clarifies Parliament’s power to amend the

Constitution. At the same time, looking to the use of foreign

precedents in this judgment, Justice S.M. Sikri (as His Lordship

then was), dealing with the interpretation of Article 368 of the

Constitution, first of all, highlighted that:

“No other Constitution in the world is like ours. No other Constitution combines under its wings such diverse peoples, numbering now more than 550 millions [sic], with different languages and religions and in different stages of economic development, into one nation, and no other nation is faced with such vast socio-economic problems.

After this premise, however, His Lordship accepts, in order

to define what an ‘amendment’ is according to the Indian

Constitution, the reasoning of Lord Greene in Bidie v. General

Accident, Fire and Life Assurance Corporation 14 and that of

Justice Holmes in Towne v. Eisner15, which affirm that to

understand a word it is necessary to understand the context in

which it is inserted. To strengthen this, James v. Commonwealth

of Australia16 is also referred to.

We have stated the trend in brief with a purpose. Number

of judgments of U.K. Courts, German Supreme Court, European

Commission of Human Rights (ECHR), U.S. Supreme Court etc.

were cited. However, there is no similarity in approach by these

14 Bidie v. General Accident, Fire and Life Assurance Corporation (1948) 2 All ER 995, 998. 15 Towne v. Eisner, 245 US 418.

16 James v. Commonwealth of Australia, (1936) AC 578. Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 104 of 567 Courts in deciding a particular issue by applying different

principles, particularly when it comes to the issues of data

protection and privacy. In this backdrop, it becomes necessary,

while referring to these judgments, to keep in mind the ethos,

cultural background and vast socio-economic problems of this

country and on that basis to accept a particular norm, or for that

matter, to formulate a constitutional norm which is relevant in our

context. That is the endeavour which is made by us.

(iv) Many arguments of the petitioners relate to the working of

the system. The petitioners had argued that the architecture of

Aadhaar, by its very nature, is probabilistic and, therefore, it may

result in exclusion, in many cases. Therefore, rather than

extending subsidies, benefits and services to the section of

society for which these are meant, it may have the tendency to

exclude them from receiving such subsidies, benefits and

services. The respondents, on the other hand, have stated on

affidavit that the attempt of the respondents would be to ensure

that no individual who is eligible for such benefits etc. is deprived

form receiving those benefits, even when in a particular case, it is

found that on authentication, his fingerprints or iris are not

matching and is resulting into failure. It was clarified that since

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 105 of 567 Aadhaar project is an ongoing project, there may be some

glitches in its working and there is a continuous attempt to make

improvements in order to ensure that it becomes foolproof over a

period of time. We have eschewed detailed discussion in respect

of those arguments, which may not have much relevance when

judging the constitutional validity of the Act and the scheme.

However, such arguments of exclusion etc. leading to violation of

Articles 14 and 21 are dealt with at an appropriate stage. But the

argument based on alleged inaccurate claims of savings by the

Authority/Union of India in respect of certain programmes, like

saving of USD 11 billion per annum due to the Aadhaar project,

as well as savings in the implementation of the MGNREGA

scheme, LPG subsidy, PDS savings need not detain us for long.

Such rebuttals raised by the petitioners may have relevance

insofar as working of the Act is concerned. That by itself cannot

be a ground to invalidate the statute.

(v) As mentioned above, notwithstanding the passions and

emotions evoked on both sides in equal measure, this Court has

adopted a lambent approach while dealing with the issues raised,

having a posture of calmness coupled with objective examination

of the issues on the touchstone of the constitutional provisions.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 106 of 567 We are in the age of constitutional democracy, that too

substantive and liberal democracy. Such a democracy is not

based solely on the rule of people through their representatives

which is known as “formal democracy”. It also has other precepts

like rule of law, human rights, independence of judiciary,

separation of powers, etc. The framers of Indian Constitution

duly recognized the aforesaid precepts of liberal and substantive

democracy with rule of law as an important and fundamental

pillar. At the same time, in the scheme of the Constitution, it is

the judiciary which is assigned the role of upholding rule of law

and protecting the Constitution and democracy.

The essence of rule of law is to preclude arbitrary action.

Dicey, who propounded the rule of law, gave distinct meaning to

this concept and explained that it was based on three kindered

features, which are as follows:

(i) absence of arbitrary powers on the part of authorities;

(ii) equality before law; and

(iii) the Constitution is part of the ordinary law of the land.

There are three aspects of the rule of law, which are as

follows:

(a) A formal aspect which means making the law rule.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 107 of 567 (b) A jurisprudential or doctrinal aspect which is concerned with

the minimal condition for the existence of law in society.

(c) A substantive aspect as per which the rule of law is

concerned with properly balancing between the individual and

society.

When we talk of jurisprudential rule of law, it includes

certain minimum requirements without which a legal system

cannot exist and which distinguished a legal system from an

automatic system where the leader imposes his will on everyone

else. Professor Lon Fuller has described these requirements

collectively as the 'inner morality of law'. In addition to

jurisprudential concept, which is important and an essential

condition for the rule of law, the substantive concept of the rule of

law is equally important and inseparable norm of the rule of law in

real sense. It encompasses the 'right conception' of the rule of

law propounded by Dworkin. It means guaranteeing fundamental

values of morality, justice, and human rights, with a proper

balance between these and the other needs of the society.

Justice Aharon Barak, former Chief Justice of Israel, has lucidly

explained this facet of rule of law in the following manner:

“The rule of law is not merely public order, the rule of law is social justice based on public order. The law exists to ensure proper social life. Social life, however, is not a goal in itself but a means to allow the individual to live in dignity Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 108 of 567 and develop himself. The human being and human rights underlie this substantive perception of the rule of law, with a proper balance among the different rights and between human rights and the proper needs of society. The substantive rule of law “is the rule of proper law, which balances the needs of society and the individual”. This is the rule of law that strikes a balance between society's need for political independence, social equality, economic development, and internal order, on the one hand, and the needs of the individual, his personal liberty, and his human dignity on the other. The Judge must protect this rich concept of the rule of law.”

The 'rule of law', which is a fine sonorous phrase, is

dynamic and ever expanding and can be put alongside the

brotherhood of man, human rights and human dignity. About the

modern rule of law, Professor Garner observed:

“The concept in its modern dress meets a need that has been felt throughout the history of civilization, law is not sufficient in itself and it must serve some purpose. Man is a social animal, but to live in society he has had to fashion for himself and in his own interest the law and other instruments of government, and as a consequence those must to some extent limit his personal liberties. The problem is how to control those instruments of government in accordance with the Rule of Law and in the interest of the governed.”

Likewise, the basic spirit of our Constitution is to provide

each and every person of the nation equal opportunity to grow as

a human being, irrespective of race, caste, religion, community

and social status. Granville Austin while analyzing the functioning

of Indian Constitution in first 50 years has described three

distinguished strands of Indian Constitution: (i) protecting national

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 109 of 567 unity and integrity, (ii) establishing the institution and spirit of

democracy; and (iii) fostering social reforms. The strands are

mutually dependent and inextricably intertwined in what he

elegantly describes as a 'seamless web'. And there cannot be

social reforms till it is ensured that each and every citizen of this

country is able to exploit his/her potentials to the maximum. The

Constitution, although drafted by the Constituent Assembly, was

meant for the people of India and that is why it is given by the

people to themselves as expressed in the opening words “We the

People...”. What is the most important gift to the common person

given by this Constitution is “fundamental rights” which may be

called human rights as well.

Speaking for the vision of our founding fathers, in State of

Karnataka & Anr. v. Shri Ranganatha Reddy & Anr. 17, this Court

speaking through Justice Krishna Iyer observed:

“The social philosophy of the Constitution shapes creative judicial vision and orientation. Our nation has, as its dynamic doctrine, economic democracy sans which political democracy is chimerical. We say so because our Constitution, in Parts III and IV and elsewhere, ensouls such a value system, and the debate in this case puts precisely this soul in peril….Our thesis is that the dialectics of social justice should not be missed if the synthesis of Parts III and Part IV is to influence State action and court pronouncements. Constitutional problems cannot be studied in a socio-economic vacuum, since socio-cultural changes are the source of the new values, and sloughing off old legal thought is part of the process the new equity-

17 (1977) 4 SCC 471 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 110 of 567 loaded legality. A judge is a social scientist in his role as constitutional invigilator and fails functionally if he forgets this dimension in his complex duties.”

In Dattatraya Govind Mahajan v. State of Maharashtra18 the

spirit of our Constitution was explained thus:

“Our Constitution is a tryst with destiny, preamble with lucent solemnity in the words ‘Justice – social, economic and political.’ The three great branches of Government, as creatures of the Constitution, must remember this promise in their fundamental role and forget it at their peril, for to do so will be a betrayal of chose high values and goals which this nation set for itself in its objective Resolution and whose elaborate summation appears in Part IV of the Paramount Parchment. The history of our country’s struggle for independence was the story of a battle between the forces of socio-economic exploitation and the masses of deprived people of varying degrees and the Constitution sets the new sights of the nation…..Once we grasp the dharma of the Constitution, the new orientation of the karma of adjudication becomes clear. Our founding fathers, aware of our social realities, forged our fighting faith and integrating justice in its social, economic and political aspects. While contemplating the meaning of the Articles of the Organic Law, the Supreme Court shall not disown Social Justice.”

In National Human Rights Commission v. State of

Arunachal Pradesh19, the Supreme Court explained it again, as

under:

“We are a country governed by the Rule of Law. Our Constitution confers certain rights on every human being and certain other rights on citizens. Every person is entitled to equality before the law and equal protection of the laws.”

Looking the matter from this angle, when the judiciary is

assigned the role of upholding the rule of law, the first function of

18 (1977) 2 SCC 548 19 (1996) 1 SCC 742 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 111 of 567 the judiciary is to protect the democracy as well as the

Constitution. At the same time, second role of the Court, which is

equally important, is to bridge the gap between the law and the

society. In the process of undertaking this role, a third role, which

is of equal significance also springs up. Judiciary is also to

ensure that social and economic justice is meted out to the

deserving lot by affirmative action of the State. Our attempt has

been to strive the balancing of competing Constitutional norms.

The complex issues are dealt with keeping in view this role of the

Supreme Court as assigned by the Constitution; albeit within the

constitutional norms.

Scope of Judicial Review:

73) The aforesaid discussion leads us to pick up and discuss another

strand viz. the scope of judicial review in such matters.

74) Judicial review means the Supremacy of law. It is the power of

the court to review the actions of the Legislature, the Executive

and the Judiciary itself and to scrutinize the validity of any law or

action. It has emerged as one of the most effective instruments of

protecting and preserving the cherished freedoms in a

constitutional democracy and upholding principles such as

separation of powers and rule of law. The Judiciary, through

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 112 of 567 judicial review, prevents the decisions of other branches from

impinging on the constitutional values. The fundamental nature

of the Constitution is that of a limiting document, it curtails the

powers of majoritarianism from hijacking the State. The power of

review is the shield which is placed in the hands of the most

judiciaries of constitutional democracies to enable the protection

of the supreme document.

75) In Binoy Viswam v. Union of India & Ors.20, scope of judicial

review of legislative Act was described in the following manner:

“76. Under the Constitution, Supreme Court as well as High Courts are vested with the power of judicial review of not only administrative acts of the executive but legislative enactments passed by the legislature as well. This power is given to the High Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution and to the Supreme Court under Article 32 as well as Article 136 of the Constitution. At the same time, the parameters on which the power of judicial review of administrative act is to be undertaken are different from the parameters on which validity of legislative enactment is to be examined. No doubt, in exercises of its power of judicial review of legislative action, the Supreme Court, or for that matter, the High Courts can declare law passed by Parliament or the State Legislature as invalid. However, the power to strike down primary legislation enacted by the Union or the State Legislatures is on limited grounds. Courts can strike down legislation either on the basis that it falls foul of federal distribution of powers or that it contravenes fundamental rights or other constitutional rights/provisions of the Constitution of India. No doubt, since the Supreme Court and the High Courts are treated as the ultimate arbiter in all matters involving interpretation of the Constitution, it is the courts which have the final say on questions relating to rights and whether such a right is violated or not. The basis of the aforesaid statement lies in

20 (2017) 7 SCC 59 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 113 of 567 Article 13(2) of the Constitution which proscribes the State from making “any law which takes away or abridges the right conferred by Part III”, enshrining fundamental rights. It categorically states that any law made in contravention thereof, to the extent of the contravention, be void.

77. We can also take note of Article 372 of the Constitution at this stage which applies to pre-constitutional laws. Article 372(1) reads as under:

“372. Continuance in force of existing laws and their adaptation.—(1) Notwithstanding the repeal by this Constitution of the enactments referred to in Article 395 but subject to the other provisions of this Constitution, all the laws in force in the territory of India immediately before the commencement of this Constitution shall continue in force therein until altered or repealed or amended by a competent legislature or other competent authority.”

In the context of judicial review of legislation, this provision gives an indication that all laws enforced prior to the commencement of the Constitution can be tested for compliance with the provisions of the Constitution by courts. Such a power is recognised by this Court in Union of India v. SICOM Ltd. In that judgment, it was also held that since the term “laws”, as per Article 372, includes common law the power of judicial review of legislation, which is a part of common law applicable in India before the Constitution came into force, would continue to vest in the Indian courts.

78. …These contours of the judicial review are spelled out in the clear terms in Rakesh Kohli, and particularly in the following paragraphs: (SCC pp. 321-22 & 325-27, paras 16-17, 26-28 & 30)

“16. The statute enacted by Parliament or a State Legislature cannot be declared unconstitutional lightly. The court must be able to hold beyond any iota of doubt that the violation of the constitutional provisions was so glaring that the legislative provision under challenge cannot stand. Sans flagrant violation of the constitutional provisions, the law made by Parliament or a State Legislature is not declared bad.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 114 of 567

17. This Court has repeatedly stated that legislative enactment can be struck down by court only on two grounds, namely (i) that the appropriate legislature does not have the competence to make the law, and

(ii) that it does not (sic) take away or abridge any of the fundamental rights enumerated in Part III of the Constitution or any other constitutional provisions. In McDowell and Co. while dealing with the challenge to an enactment based on Article 14, this Court stated in para 43 of the Report as follows: (SCC pp. 737-38)

‘43. … A law made by Parliament or the legislature can be struck down by courts on two grounds and two grounds alone viz. (1) lack of legislative competence, and (2) violation of any of the fundamental rights guaranteed in Part III of the Constitution or of any other constitutional provision. There is no third ground. … if an enactment is challenged as violative of Article 14, it can be struck down only if it is found that it is violative of the equality clause/equal protection clause enshrined therein. Similarly, if an enactment is challenged as violative of any of the fundamental rights guaranteed by sub-clauses (a) to

(g) of Article 19(1), it can be struck down only if it is found not saved by any of the clauses (2) to (6) of Article 19 and so on. No enactment can be struck down by just saying that it is arbitrary or unreasonable. Some or the other constitutional infirmity has to be found before invalidating an Act. An enactment cannot be struck down on the ground that court thinks it unjustified. Parliament and the legislatures, composed as they are of the representatives of the people, are supposed to know and be aware of the needs of the people and what is good and bad for them. The court cannot sit in judgment over their wisdom.’

xx xx xx

26. In Mohd. Hanif Quareshi, the Constitution Bench further observed that there was always a presumption in favour of constitutionality of an enactment and the burden is upon him, who attacks it, to show that there has been a clear violation of the constitutional principles. It stated in para 15 of the Report as under:

(AIR pp. 740-41)

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 115 of 567 ‘15. … The courts, it is accepted, must presume that the legislature understands and correctly appreciates the needs of its own people, that its laws are directed to problems made manifest by experience and that its discriminations are based on adequate grounds. It must be borne in mind that the legislature is free to recognise degrees of harm and may confine its restrictions to those cases where the need is deemed to be the clearest and finally that in order to sustain the presumption of constitutionality the court may take into consideration matters of common knowledge, matters of common report, the history of the times and may assume every state of facts which can be conceived existing at the time of legislation.’

27. The above legal position has been reiterated by a Constitution Bench of this Court in Mahant Moti Das v. S.P. Sahi.

28. In Hamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India, inter alia, while referring to the earlier two decisions, namely, Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. and Mahant Moti Das, it was observed in para 8 of the Report as follows: (Hamdard Dawakhana case, AIR p. 559)

‘8. Therefore, when the constitutionality of an enactment is challenged on the ground of violation of any of the articles in Part III of the Constitution, the ascertainment of its true nature and character becomes necessary i.e. its subject-matter, the area in which it is intended to operate, its purport and intent have to be determined. In order to do so it is legitimate to take into consideration all the factors such as history of the legislation, the purpose thereof, the surrounding circumstances and conditions, the mischief which it intended to suppress, the remedy for the disease which the legislature resolved to cure and the true reason for the remedy….’

In Hamdard Dawakhana, the Court also followed the statement of law in Mahant Moti Das and the two earlier decisions, namely, Charanjit Lal Chowdhury v. Union of India and State of Bombay v. F.N. Balsara and reiterated the principle that presumption was always in favour of constitutionality of an enactment. Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 116 of 567

xx xx xx

30. A well-known principle that in the field of taxation, the legislature enjoys a greater latitude for classification, has been noted by this Court in a long line of cases. Some of these decisions are Steelworth Ltd. v. State of Assam [Steelworth Ltd. v. State of Assam, 1962 Supp (2) SCR 589], Gopal Narain v. State of U.P. [Gopal Narain v. State of U.P., AIR 1964 SC 370], Ganga Sugar Corpn. Ltd. v. State of U.P. [Ganga Sugar Corpn. Ltd. v. State of U.P., (1980) 1 SCC 223 : 1980 SCC (Tax) 90], R.K. Garg v. Union of India [R.K. Garg v. Union of India, (1981) 4 SCC 675 :

1982 SCC (Tax) 30] and State of W.B. v. E.I.T.A. India Ltd. [State of W.B. v. E.I.T.A. India Ltd., (2003) 5 SCC 239]” (emphasis in original)

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83. It is, thus, clear that in exercise of power of judicial review, the Indian courts are invested with powers to strike down primary legislation enacted by Parliament or the State Legislatures. However, while undertaking this exercise of judicial review, the same is to be done at three levels. In the first stage, the Court would examine as to whether impugned provision in a legislation is compatible with the fundamental rights or the constitutional provisions (substantive judicial review) or it falls foul of the federal distribution of powers (procedural judicial review). If it is not found to be so, no further exercise is needed as challenge would fail. On the other hand, if it is found that legislature lacks competence as the subject legislated was not within the powers assigned in the List in Schedule VII, no further enquiry is needed and such a law is to be declared as ultra vires the Constitution. However, while undertaking substantive judicial review, if it is found that the impugned provision appears to be violative of fundamental rights or other constitutional rights, the Court reaches the second stage of review. At this second phase of enquiry, the Court is supposed to undertake the exercise as to whether the impugned provision can still be saved by reading it down so as to bring it in conformity with the constitutional provisions. If that is not achievable then the enquiry enters the third stage. If the offending portion of the statute is severable, it is severed and the Court strikes down the

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 117 of 567 impugned provision declaring the same as unconstitutional.”

76) In support of the aforesaid proposition that an Act of the

Parliament can be invalidated only on the aforesaid two grounds,

passages from various judgments were extracted 21. The Court

also noted the observations from State of A.P. & Ors. v.

MCDOWELL & Co. & Ors.22 wherein it was held that apart from

the aforesaid two grounds, no third ground is available to validate

any piece of legislation. In the process, it was further noted that

in Rajbala & Ors. v. State of Haryana & Ors.23 (which followed

MCDOWELL & Co. case), the Court held that a legislation cannot

be declared unconstitutional on the ground that it is ‘arbitrary’

inasmuch as examining as to whether a particular Act is arbitrary

or not implies a value judgment and courts do not examine the

wisdom of legislative choices, and, therefore, cannot undertake

this exercise.

77) The issue whether law can be declared unconstitutional on the

ground of arbitrariness has received the attention of this Court in

a Constitution Bench judgment in the case of Shayara Bano v.

Union of India & Ors.24. R.F. Nariman and U.U. Lalit, JJ. 21 State of M.P. v. Rakesh Kohli, (2012) 6 SCC 312; Ashoka Kumar Thakur v. Union of India, (2008) 6 SCC 1 22 (1996) 3 SCC 709 23 (2016) 2 SCC 445 24 (2017) 9 SCC 1 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 118 of 567 discredited the ratio of the aforesaid judgments wherein the Court

had held that a law cannot be declared unconstitutional on the

ground that it is arbitrary. The Judges pointed out the larger

Bench judgment in the case of Dr. K.R. Lakshmanan v. State of

T.N. & Anr.25 and Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India & Anr.26 where

‘manifest arbitrariness’ is recognised as the third ground on which

the legislative Act can be invalidated. Following discussion in this

behalf is worthy of note:

“87. The thread of reasonableness runs through the entire fundamental rights chapter. What is manifestly arbitrary is obviously unreasonable and being contrary to the rule of law, would violate Article 14. Further, there is an apparent contradiction in the three-Judge Bench decision in McDowell [State of A.P. v. McDowell and Co., (1996) 3 SCC 709] when it is said that a constitutional challenge can succeed on the ground that a law is “disproportionate, excessive or unreasonable”, yet such challenge would fail on the very ground of the law being “unreasonable, unnecessary or unwarranted”. The arbitrariness doctrine when applied to legislation obviously would not involve the latter challenge but would only involve a law being disproportionate, excessive or otherwise being manifestly unreasonable. All the aforesaid grounds, therefore, do not seek to differentiate between State action in its various forms, all of which are interdicted if they fall foul of the fundamental rights guaranteed to persons and citizens in Part III of the Constitution.

88. We only need to point out that even after McDowell [State of A.P. v. McDowell and Co., (1996) 3 SCC 709] , this Court has in fact negated statutory law on the ground of it being arbitrary and therefore violative of Article 14 of the Constitution of India. In Malpe Vishwanath Acharya v.

State of Maharashtra [Malpe Vishwanath Acharya v. State of Maharashtra, (1998) 2 SCC 1] , this Court held that after passage of time, a law can become arbitrary, and, 25 (1996) 2 SCC 226 26 (1978) 1 SCC 248 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 119 of 567 therefore, the freezing of rents at a 1940 market value under the Bombay Rent Act would be arbitrary and violative of Article 14 of the Constitution of India (see paras 8 to 15 and 31).

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99. However, in State of Bihar v. Bihar Distillery Ltd. [State of Bihar v. Bihar Distillery Ltd., (1997) 2 SCC 453] , SCC at para 22, in State of M.P. v. Rakesh Kohli [State of M.P. v. Rakesh Kohli, (2012) 6 SCC 312 : (2012) 3 SCC (Civ) 481], SCC at paras 17 to 19, in Rajbala v. State of Haryana [Rajbala v. State of Haryana, (2016) 2 SCC 445], SCC at paras 53 to 65 and in Binoy Viswam v. Union of India [Binoy Viswam v. Union of India, (2017) 7 SCC 59], SCC at paras 80 to 82, McDowell [State of A.P. v. McDowell and Co., (1996) 3 SCC 709] was read as being an absolute bar to the use of “arbitrariness” as a tool to strike down legislation under Article 14. As has been noted by us earlier in this judgment, McDowell [State of A.P. v. McDowell and Co., (1996) 3 SCC 709] itself is per incuriam, not having noticed several judgments of Benches of equal or higher strength, its reasoning even otherwise being flawed. The judgments, following McDowell [State of A.P. v. McDowell and Co., (1996) 3 SCC 709] are, therefore, no longer good law.”

78) The historical development of the doctrine of arbitrariness has

been noticed by the said Judges in Shayara Bano in detail. It

would be suffice to reproduce paragraphs 67 to 69 of the said

judgment as the discussion in these paras provide a sufficient

guide as to how a doctrine of arbitrariness is to be applied while

adjudging the constitutional validity of a legislation.

“67. We now come to the development of the doctrine of arbitrariness and its application to State action as a distinct doctrine on which State action may be struck down as being violative of the rule of law contained in Article 14. In a significant passage, Bhagwati, J., in E.P. Royappa v. State of T.N. stated: (SCC p. 38, para 85) Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 120 of 567 “85. The last two grounds of challenge may be taken up together for consideration. Though we have formulated the third ground of challenge as a distinct and separate ground, it is really in substance and effect merely an aspect of the second ground based on violation of Articles 14 and 16. Article 16 embodies the fundamental guarantee that there shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State. Though enacted as a distinct and independent fundamental right because of its great importance as a principle ensuring equality of opportunity in public employment which is so vital to the building up of the new classless egalitarian society envisaged in the Constitution, Article 16 is only an instance of the application of the concept of equality enshrined in Article 14. In other words, Article 14 is the genus while Article 16 is a species. Article 16 gives effect to the doctrine of equality in all matters relating to public employment. The basic principle which, therefore, informs both Articles 14 and 16 is equality and inhibition against discrimination. Now, what is the content and reach of this great equalising principle? It is a founding faith, to use the words of Bose, J., “a way of life”, and it must not be subjected to a narrow pedantic or lexicographic approach. We cannot countenance any attempt to truncate its all- embracing scope and meaning, for to do so would be to violate its activist magnitude. Equality is a dynamic concept with many aspects and dimensions and it cannot be “cribbed, cabined and confined” within traditional and doctrinaire limits. From a positivistic point of view, equality is antithetic to arbitrariness. In fact equality and arbitrariness are sworn enemies; one belongs to the rule of law in a republic while the other, to the whim and caprice of an absolute monarch. Where an act is arbitrary, it is implicit in it that it is unequal both according to political logic and constitutional law and is therefore violative of Article 14, and if it effects any matter relating to public employment, it is also violative of Article 16. Articles 14 and 16 strike at arbitrariness in State action and ensure fairness and equality of treatment. They require that State action must be based on valid relevant principles applicable alike to all similarly situate and it must not be guided by any extraneous Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 121 of 567 or irrelevant considerations because that would be denial of equality. Where the operative reason for State action, as distinguished from motive inducing from the antechamber of the mind, is not legitimate and relevant but is extraneous and outside the area of permissible considerations, it would amount to mala fide exercise of power and that is hit by Articles 14 and 16. Mala fide exercise of power and arbitrariness are different lethal radiations emanating from the same vice: in fact the latter comprehends the former. Both are inhibited by Articles 14 and 16.” (emphasis supplied)

68. This was further fleshed out in Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, where, after stating that various fundamental rights must be read together and must overlap and fertilise each other, Bhagwati, J., further amplified this doctrine as follows: (SCC pp. 283-84, para 7)

“The nature and requirement of the procedure under Article 21

7. Now, the question immediately arises as to what is the requirement of Article 14: what is the content and reach of the great equalising principle enunciated in this article? There can be no doubt that it is a founding faith of the Constitution. It is indeed the pillar on which rests securely the foundation of our democratic republic. And, therefore, it must not be subjected to a narrow, pedantic or lexicographic approach. No attempt should be made to truncate its all-embracing scope and meaning, for to do so would be to violate its activist magnitude. Equality is a dynamic concept with many aspects and dimensions and it cannot be imprisoned within traditional and doctrinaire limits. We must reiterate here what was pointed out by the majority in E.P. Royappa v. State of T.N. , namely, that: (SCC p. 38, para 85)

‘85. … From a positivistic point of view, equality is antithetic to arbitrariness. In fact equality and arbitrariness are sworn enemies; one belongs to the rule of law in a republic, while the other, to the whim and caprice of an absolute monarch. Where an act is arbitrary, it is implicit in it that it is unequal both according to political logic and constitutional law and is therefore violative of Article 14….’ Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 122 of 567 Article 14 strikes at arbitrariness in State action and ensures fairness and equality of treatment. The principle of reasonableness, which legally as well as philosophically, is an essential element of equality or non-arbitrariness pervades Article 14 like a brooding omnipresence and the procedure contemplated by Article 21 must answer the test of reasonableness in order to be in conformity with Article 14. It must be “right and just and fair” and not arbitrary, fanciful or oppressive; otherwise, it would be no procedure at all and the requirement of Article 21 would not be satisfied.” (emphasis supplied)

69. This was further clarified in A.L. Kalra v. Project and Equipment Corpn., following Royappa and holding that arbitrariness is a doctrine distinct from discrimination. It was held: (A.L. Kalra case, SCC p. 328, para 19)

“19. … It thus appears well settled that Article 14 strikes at arbitrariness in executive/administrative action because any action that is arbitrary must necessarily involve the negation of equality. One need not confine the denial of equality to a comparative evaluation between two persons to arrive at a conclusion of discriminatory treatment. An action per se arbitrary itself denies equal of (sic) protection by law. The Constitution Bench pertinently observed in Ajay Hasia case and put the matter beyond controversy when it said: (SCC p. 741, para 16)

‘16. … Wherever therefore, there is arbitrariness in State action whether it be of the legislature or of the executive or of an “authority” under Article 12, Article 14 immediately springs into action and strikes down such State action.’

This view was further elaborated and affirmed in D.S. Nakara v. Union of India . In Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India it was observed that Article 14 strikes at arbitrariness in State action and ensures fairness and equality of treatment. It is thus too late in the day to contend that an executive action shown to be arbitrary is not either judicially reviewable or within the reach of Article 14.”

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 123 of 567 The same view was reiterated in Babita Prasad v. State of Bihar , SCC at p. 285, para 31.”

This doctrine is, thus, treated as a facet of both Articles 14

and 21 of the Constitution.

79) We would like to record that we have proceeded on the premise

that manifest arbitrariness also furnishes a ground on the basis

on which a legislative enactment can be judicially reviewed. In

the process, even the constitutional validity of Section 139AA of

the Income Tax Act, 1961 is given a fresh look on the touchstone

of this norm.

Explaining the doctrine/principles on which the cases are to be decided:

80) Our discussion up to this stage, which gives a glimpse of the

attack to the Aadhaar scheme and the Aadhaar Act, spearheaded

by the petitioners, would reveal that in the forefront is the right to

privacy and that forms the main pillar on which the edifice of

arguments is substantially constructed 27. Inbuilt in this right to

privacy is the right to live with dignity, which is a postulate of right

to privacy. In the process, discussion leads to the issue of

proportionality, viz. whether measures taken under the Aadhaar

Act satisfy the doctrine of proportionality. We would, therefore, 27 There are few other incidental and ancillary issues raised by the petitioners as well, which we propose to discuss and deal with after answering these fundamental submissions.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 124 of 567 be well advised to explain these concepts, so that their

application to the fact situation is undertaken with clear and

stable norms in mind.

Contours of Right to Privacy:

81) It stands established, with conclusive determination of the nine

Judge Bench judgment of this Court in K.S. Puttaswamy that right

to privacy is a fundamental right. The majority judgment authored

by Dr. D.Y. Chandrachud, J. (on behalf of three other Judges) and

five concurring judgments of other five Judges have declared, in

no uncertain terms and most authoritatively, right to privacy to be

a fundamental right. This judgment also discusses in detail the

scope and ambit of right to privacy. The relevant passages in this

behalf have been reproduced above while taking note of the

submissions of the learned counsel for the petitioners as well as

respondents. One interesting phenomenon that is discerned from

the respective submissions on either side is that both sides have

placed strong reliance on different passages from this very

judgment to support their respective stances. A close reading of

this judgment brings about the following features:

(i) Privacy has always been a natural right: The correct

position in this behalf has been established by a number of

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 125 of 567 judgments starting from Gobind v. State of M.P.28 Various

opinions conclude that:

(a) privacy is a concomitant of the right of the individual to

exercise control over his or her personality.

(b) Privacy is the necessary condition precedent to the

enjoyment of any of the guarantees in Part III.

(c) The fundamental right to privacy would cover at least three

aspects – (i) intrusion with an individual’s physical body, (ii)

informational privacy, and (iii) privacy of choice.

(d) One aspect of privacy is the right to control the

dissemination of personal information. And that every individual

should have a right to be able to control exercise over his/her own

life and image as portrayed in the world and to control

commercial use of his/her identity.

Following passages from different opinions reflect the

aforesaid proposition:

Dr. D.Y. Chandrachud, J.:

42. Privacy is a concomitant of the right of the individual to exercise control over his or her personality. It finds an origin in the notion that there are certain rights which are natural to or inherent in a human being. Natural rights are inalienable because they are inseparable from the human personality. The human element in life is impossible to conceive without the existence of natural rights. In 1690, John Lockehad in his Second Treatise of Government observed that the lives, liberties and estates of individuals

28 (1975) 2 SCC 148 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 126 of 567 are as a matter of fundamental natural law, a private preserve. The idea of a private preserve was to create barriers from outside interference. In 1765, William Blackstone in his Commentaries on the Laws of England spoke of a “natural liberty”. There were, in his view, absolute rights which were vested in the individual by the immutable laws of nature. These absolute rights were divided into rights of personal security, personal liberty and property. The right of personal security involved a legal and uninterrupted enjoyment of life, limbs, body, health and reputation by an individual.

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46. Natural rights are not bestowed by the State. They inhere in human beings because they are human. They exist equally in the individual irrespective of class or strata, gender or orientation.

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318. Life and personal liberty are inalienable rights. These are rights which are inseparable from a dignified human existence. The dignity of the individual, equality between human beings and the quest for liberty are the foundational pillars of the Indian Constitution.

S.A. Bobde, J. :

415. Therefore, privacy is the necessary condition precedent to the enjoyment of any of the guarantees in Part III. As a result, when it is claimed by rights bearers before constitutional courts, a right to privacy may be situated not only in Article 21, but also simultaneously in any of the other guarantees in Part III. In the current state of things, Articles 19(1), 20(3), 25, 28 and 29 are all rights helped up and made meaningful by the exercise of privacy.

This is not an exhaustive list. Future developments in technology and social ordering may well reveal that there are yet more constitutional sites in which a privacy right inheres that are not at present evident to us.

R.F. Nariman, J. :

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 127 of 567

521. In the Indian context, a fundamental right to privacy would cover at least the following three aspects:

 Privacy that involves the person i.e. when there is some invasion by the State of a person's rights relatable to his physical body, such as the right to move freely;

 Informational privacy which does not deal with a person's body but deals with a person's mind, and therefore recognises that an individual may have control over the dissemination of material that is personal to him. Unauthorised use of such information may, therefore lead to infringement of this right; and  The privacy of choice, which protects an individual's autonomy over fundamental personal choices.

For instance, we can ground physical privacy or privacy relating to the body in Articles 19(1)(d) and (e) read with Article 21; ground personal information privacy under Article 21; and the privacy of choice in Articles 19(1)(a) to

(c), 20(3), 21 and 25. The argument based on “privacy” being a vague and nebulous concept need not, therefore, detain us.

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532. The learned counsel for the petitioners also referred to another important aspect of the right to privacy. According to the learned counsel for the petitioner this right is a natural law right which is inalienable. Indeed, the reference order itself, in para 12, refers to this aspect of the fundamental right contained. It was, therefore, argued before us that given the international conventions referred to hereinabove and the fact that this right inheres in every individual by virtue of his being a human being, such right is not conferred by the Constitution but is only recognised and given the status of being fundamental. There is no doubt that the petitioners are correct in this submission.

However, one important roadblock in the way needs to be got over.

533. In ADM, Jabalpur v. Shivakant Shukla, a Constitution Bench of this Court arrived at the conclusion (by majority) that Article 21 is the sole repository of all rights to life and personal liberty, and, when suspended, takes away those

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 128 of 567 rights altogether. A remarkable dissent was that of Khanna, J. [ Khanna, J. was in line to be Chief Justice of India but was superseded because of this dissenting judgment. Nani Palkhivala in an article written on this great Judge's supersession ended with a poignant sentence, “To the stature of such a man, the Chief Justiceship of India can add nothing.” Seervai, in his monumental treatise Constitutional Law of India had this to say:“53. If in this Appendix the dissenting judgment of Khanna, J. has not been considered in detail, it is not for lack of admiration for the judgment, or the courage which he showed in delivering it regardless of the cost and consequences to himself. It cost him the Chief Justiceship of India, but it gained for him universal esteem not only for his courage but also for his inflexible judicial independence. If his judgment is not considered in detail it is because under the theory of precedents which we have adopted, a dissenting judgment, however valuable, does not lay down the law and the object of a critical examination of the majority judgments in this Appendix was to show that those judgments are untenable in law, productive of grave public mischief and ought to be overruled at the earliest opportunity. The conclusion which Justice Khanna has reached on the effect of the suspension of Article 21 is correct. His reminder that the rule of law did not merely mean giving effect to an enacted law was timely, and was reinforced by his reference to the mass murders of millions of Jews in Nazi concentration camps under an enacted law. However, the legal analysis in this Chapter confirms his conclusion though on different grounds from those which he has given.” (at Appendix p. 2229).] The learned Judge held: (SCC pp. 747 & 751, paras 525 & 531)

“525. The effect of the suspension of the right to move any court for the enforcement of the right conferred by Article 21, in my opinion, is that when a petition is filed in a court, the court would have to proceed upon the basis that no reliance can be placed upon that article for obtaining relief from the court during the period of emergency. Question then arises as to whether the rule that no one shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty without the authority of law still survives during the period of emergency despite the Presidential Order suspending the right to move any court for the enforcement of the right contained in Article 21. The answer to this question is linked with the answer to the question as Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 129 of 567 to whether Article 21 is the sole repository of the right to life and personal liberty. After giving the matter my earnest consideration, I am of the opinion that Article 21 cannot be considered to be the sole repository of the right to life and personal liberty. The right to life and personal liberty is the most precious right of human beings in civilised societies governed by the rule of law. Many modern Constitutions incorporate certain fundamental rights, including the one relating to personal freedom. According to Blackstone, the absolute rights of Englishmen were the rights of personal security, personal liberty and private property. The American Declaration of Independence (1776) states that all men are created equal, and among their inalienable rights are life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness. The Second Amendment to the US Constitution refers inter alia to security of person, while the Fifth Amendment prohibits inter alia deprivation of life and liberty without due process, of law. The different Declarations of Human Rights and fundamental freedoms have all laid stress upon the sanctity of life and liberty. They have also given expression in varying words to the principle that no one shall be derived of his life or liberty without the authority of law. The International Commission of Jurists, which is affiliated to UNESCO, has been attempting with, considerable success to give material content to “the rule of law”, an expression used in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. One of its most notable achievements was the Declaration of Delhi, 1959. This resulted from a Congress held in New Delhi attended by jurists from more than 50 countries, and was based on a questionnaire circulated to 75,000 lawyers. “Respect for the supreme value of human personality” was stated to be the basis of all law (see p. 21 of the Constitutional and Administrative Law by O. Hood Phillips, 3rd Edn.).

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531. I am unable to subscribe to the view that when right to enforce the right under Article 21 is suspended, the result would be that there would be no remedy against deprivation of a person's life or liberty by the State even though such deprivation is without the authority of law or even in flagrant Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 130 of 567 violation of the provisions of law. The right not to be deprived of one's life or liberty without the authority of law was not the creation of the Constitution. Such right existed before the Constitution came into force. The fact that the Framers of the Constitution made an aspect of such right a part of the fundamental rights did not have the effect of exterminating the independent identity of such right and of making Article 21 to be the sole repository of that right. Its real effect was to ensure that a law under which a person can be deprived of his life or personal liberty should prescribe a procedure for such deprivation or, according to the dictum laid down by Mukherjea, J. in Gopalan case [A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras, AIR 1950 SC 27 : 1950 SCR 88] , such law should be a valid law not violative of fundamental rights guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution. Recognition as fundamental right of one aspect of the pre- constitutional right cannot have the effect of making things less favourable so far as the sanctity of life and personal liberty is concerned compared to the position if an aspect of such right had not been recognised as fundamental right because of the vulnerability of fundamental rights accruing from Article 359. I am also unable to agree that in view of the Presidential Order in the matter of sanctity of life and liberty, things would be worse off compared to the state of law as it existed before the coming into force of the Constitution.” (emphasis in original)

S.K. Kaul, J.:

574. I have had the benefit of reading the exhaustive and erudite opinions of Rohinton F. Nariman and Dr D.Y. Chandrachud, JJ. The conclusion is the same, answering the reference that privacy is not just a common law right, but a fundamental right falling in Part III of the Constitution of India. I agree with this conclusion as privacy is a primal, natural right which is inherent to an individual. However, I am tempted to set out my perspective on the issue of privacy as a right, which to my mind, is an important core of any individual existence.

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Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 131 of 567

620. I had earlier adverted to an aspect of privacy — the right to control dissemination of personal information. The boundaries that people establish from others in society are not only physical but also informational. There are different kinds of boundaries in respect to different relations. Privacy assists in preventing awkward social situations and reducing social frictions. Most of the information about individuals can fall under the phrase “none of your business”. On information being shared voluntarily, the same may be said to be in confidence and any breach of confidentiality is a breach of the trust. This is more so in the professional relationships such as with doctors and lawyers which requires an element of candour in disclosure of information. An individual has the right to control one's life while submitting personal data for various facilities and services. It is but essential that the individual knows as to what the data is being used for with the ability to correct and amend it. The hallmark of freedom in a democracy is having the autonomy and control over our lives which becomes impossible, if important decisions are made in secret without our awareness or participation. [ Daniel Solove, “10 Reasons Why Privacy Matters” published on 20-1-2014 <https://www.teachprivacy.com/10-reasons-

privacy-matters/>.]

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625. Every individual should have a right to be able to exercise control over his/her own life and image as portrayed to the world and to control commercial use of his/her identity. This also means that an individual may be permitted to prevent others from using his image, name and other aspects of his/her personal life and identity for commercial purposes without his/her consent. [ The Second Circuit's decision in Haelan Laboratories Inc. v. Topps Chewing Gum Inc., 202 F 2d 866 (2d Cir 1953) penned by Jerome Frank, J. defined the right to publicity as “the right to grant the exclusive privilege of publishing his picture”.]”

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646. If the individual permits someone to enter the house it does not mean that others can enter the house. The only check and balance is that it should not harm the other individual or affect his or her rights. This applies both to the physical form and to technology. In an era where there are Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 132 of 567 wide, varied, social and cultural norms and more so in a country like ours which prides itself on its diversity, privacy is one of the most important rights to be protected both against State and non-State actors and be recognised as a fundamental right. How it thereafter works out in its inter- play with other fundamental rights and when such restrictions would become necessary would depend on the factual matrix of each case. That it may give rise to more litigation can hardly be the reason not to recognise this important, natural, primordial right as a fundamental right.”

(ii) The sanctity of privacy lies in its functional relationship with

dignity: Privacy ensures that a human being can lead a life of

dignity by securing the inner recesses of the human personality

from unwanted intrusions. While the legitimate expectation of

privacy may vary from intimate zone to the private zone and from

the private to the public arena, it is important to underscore that

privacy is not lost or surrendered merely because the individual is

in a public place. Further, privacy is a postulate of dignity itself.

Also, privacy concerns arise when the State seeks to intrude into

the body and the mind of the citizen. This aspect is discussed in

the following manner:

Dr. D.Y. Chandrachud, J. :

127. The submission that recognising the right to privacy is an exercise which would require a constitutional amendment and cannot be a matter of judicial interpretation is not an acceptable doctrinal position. The argument assumes that the right to privacy is independent of the liberties guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution.

There lies the error. The right to privacy is an element of human dignity. The sanctity of privacy lies in its functional relationship with dignity. Privacy ensures that a human Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 133 of 567 being can lead a life of dignity by securing the inner recesses of the human personality from unwanted intrusion. Privacy recognises the autonomy of the individual and the right of every person to make essential choices which affect the course of life. In doing so privacy recognises that living a life of dignity is essential for a human being to fulfill the liberties and freedoms which are the cornerstone of the Constitution. To recognise the value of privacy as a constitutional entitlement and interest is not to fashion a new fundamental right by a process of amendment through judicial fiat. Neither are the Judges nor is the process of judicial review entrusted with the constitutional responsibility to amend the Constitution. But judicial review certainly has the task before it of determining the nature and extent of the freedoms available to each person under the fabric of those constitutional guarantees which are protected. Courts have traditionally discharged that function and in the context of Article 21 itself, as we have already noted, a panoply of protections governing different facets of a dignified existence has been held to fall within the protection of Article 21.

xx xx xx

297. What, then, does privacy postulate? Privacy postulates the reservation of a private space for the individual, described as the right to be let alone. The concept is founded on the autonomy of the individual. The ability of an individual to make choices lies at the core of the human personality. The notion of privacy enables the individual to assert and control the human element which is inseparable from the personality of the individual. The inviolable nature of the human personality is manifested in the ability to make decisions on matters intimate to human life. The autonomy of the individual is associated over matters which can be kept private. These are concerns over which there is a legitimate expectation of privacy. The body and the mind are inseparable elements of the human personality. The integrity of the body and the sanctity of the mind can exist on the foundation that each individual possesses an inalienable ability and right to preserve a private space in which the human personality can develop. Without the ability to make choices, the inviolability of the personality would be in doubt. Recognising a zone of privacy is but an acknowledgment that each individual must be entitled to chart and pursue the course of development Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 134 of 567 of personality. Hence privacy is a postulate of human dignity itself. Thoughts and behavioural patterns which are intimate to an individual are entitled to a zone of privacy where one is free of social expectations. In that zone of privacy, an individual is not judged by others. Privacy enables each individual to take crucial decisions which find expression in the human personality. It enables individuals to preserve their beliefs, thoughts, expressions, ideas, ideologies, preferences and choices against societal demands of homogeneity. Privacy is an intrinsic recognition of heterogeneity, of the right of the individual to be different and to stand against the tide of conformity in creating a zone of solitude. Privacy protects the individual from the searching glare of publicity in matters which are personal to his or her life. Privacy attaches to the person and not to the place where it is associated. Privacy constitutes the foundation of all liberty because it is in privacy that the individual can decide how liberty is best exercised. Individual dignity and privacy are inextricably linked in a pattern woven out of a thread of diversity into the fabric of a plural culture.

xx xx xx

322. Privacy is the constitutional core of human dignity. Privacy has both a normative and descriptive function. At a normative level privacy subserves those eternal values upon which the guarantees of life, liberty and freedom are founded. At a descriptive level, privacy postulates a bundle of entitlements and interests which lie at the foundation of ordered liberty.

323. Privacy includes at its core the preservation of personal intimacies, the sanctity of family life, marriage, procreation, the home and sexual orientation. Privacy also connotes a right to be left alone. Privacy safeguards individual autonomy and recognises the ability of the individual to control vital aspects of his or her life. Personal choices governing a way of life are intrinsic to privacy. Privacy protects heterogeneity and recognises the plurality and diversity of our culture. While the legitimate expectation of privacy may vary from the intimate zone to the private zone and from the private to the public arenas, it is important to underscore that privacy is not lost or surrendered merely because the individual is in a public place. Privacy attaches to the person since it is an essential facet of the dignity of the human being. Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 135 of 567 S.A. Bobde, J. :

407. Undoubtedly, privacy exists, as the foregoing demonstrates, as a verifiable fact in all civilised societies.

But privacy does not stop at being merely a descriptive claim. It also embodies a normative one. The normative case for privacy is intuitively simple. Nature has clothed man, amongst other things, with dignity and liberty so that he may be free to do what he will consistent with the freedom of another and to develop his faculties to the fullest measure necessary to live in happiness and peace. The Constitution, through its Part III, enumerates many of these freedoms and their corresponding rights as fundamental rights. Privacy is an essential condition for the exercise of most of these freedoms. Ex facie, every right which is integral to the constitutional rights to dignity, life, personal liberty and freedom, as indeed the right to privacy is, must itself be regarded as a fundamental right.

408. Though he did not use the name of “privacy”, it is clear that it is what J.S. Mill took to be indispensable to the existence of the general reservoir of liberty that democracies are expected to reserve to their citizens. In the introduction to his seminal On Liberty (1859), he characterised freedom in the following way:

“This, then, is the appropriate region of human liberty. It comprises, first, the inward domain of consciousness; demanding liberty of conscience, in the most comprehensive sense; liberty of thought and feeling; absolute freedom of opinion and sentiment on all subjects, practical or speculative, scientific, moral, or theological. The liberty of expressing and publishing opinions may seem to fall under a different principle, since it belongs to that part of the conduct of an individual which concerns other people; but, being almost of as much importance as the liberty of thought itself, and resting in great part on the same reasons, is practically inseparable from it. Secondly, the principle requires liberty of tastes and pursuits; of framing the plan of our life to suit our own character; of doing as we like, subject to such consequences as may follow: without impediment from our fellow creatures, so long as what we do does not harm them, even though they should think our conduct foolish, perverse, or wrong. Thirdly, from this liberty of Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 136 of 567 each individual, follows the liberty, within the same limits, of combination among individuals; freedom to unite, for any purpose not involving harm to others:

the persons combining being supposed to be of full age, and not forced or deceived.

No society in which these liberties are not, on the whole, respected, is free, whatever may be its form of Government; and none is completely free in which they do not exist absolute and unqualified. The only freedom which deserves the name, is that of pursuing our own good in our own way, so long as we do not attempt to deprive others of theirs, or impede their efforts to obtain it. Each is the proper guardian of his own health, whether bodily, or mental and spiritual. Mankind are greater gainers by suffering each other to live as seems good to themselves, than by compelling each to live as seems good to the rest.

Though this doctrine is anything but new, and, to some persons, may have the air of a truism, there is no doctrine which stands more directly opposed to the general tendency of existing opinion and practice. Society has expended fully as much effort in the attempt (according to its lights) to compel people to conform to its notions of personal, as of social excellence.” [John Stuart Mill, On Liberty and Other Essays (Stefan Collini Edition, 1989) (1859)] (emphasis supplied)

409. The first and natural home for a right to privacy is in Article 21 at the very heart of “personal liberty” and life itself. Liberty and privacy are integrally connected in a way that privacy is often the basic condition necessary for exercise of the right of personal liberty. There are innumerable activities which are virtually incapable of being performed at all and in many cases with dignity unless an individual is left alone or is otherwise empowered to ensure his or her privacy. Birth and death are events when privacy is required for ensuring dignity amongst all civilised people. Privacy is thus one of those rights “instrumentally required if one is to enjoy” [ Laurence H. Tribe and Michael C. Dorf, “Levels of Generality in the Definition of Rights”, 57 U CHI L REV 1057 (1990) at p. 1068.] rights specified and enumerated in the constitutional text.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 137 of 567

410. This Court has endorsed the view that “life” must mean “something more than mere animal existence” [Munn v. Illinois, 1876 SCC OnLine US SC 4 : 24 L Ed 77 : 94 US 113 (1877) (Per Field, J.) as cited in Kharak Singh, (1964) 1 SCR 332 at pp. 347-48] on a number of occasions, beginning with the Constitution Bench in Sunil Batra (1) v. Delhi Admn. [Sunil Batra v. Delhi Admn., (1978) 4 SCC 494 : 1979 SCC (Cri) 155] Sunil Batra [Sunil Batra v. Delhi Admn., (1978) 4 SCC 494 : 1979 SCC (Cri) 155] connected this view of Article 21 to the constitutional value of dignity. In numerous cases, including Francis Coralie Mullin v. UT of Delhi [Francis Coralie Mullin v. UT of Delhi, (1981) 1 SCC 608 : 1981 SCC (Cri) 212] , this Court has viewed liberty as closely linked to dignity. Their relationship to the effect of taking into the protection of “life” the protection of “faculties of thinking and feeling”, and of temporary and permanent impairments to those faculties. In Francis Coralie Mullin[Francis Coralie Mullin v. UT of Delhi, (1981) 1 SCC 608 : 1981 SCC (Cri) 212] , Bhagwati, J. opined as follows: (SCC p. 618, para 7)

“7. Now obviously, the right to life enshrined in Article 21 cannot be restricted to mere animal existence. It means something much more than just physical survival. In Kharak Singh v. State of U.P. [Kharak Singh v. State of U.P., AIR 1963 SC 1295 : (1963) 2 Cri LJ 329 : (1964) 1 SCR 332], Subba Rao, J.

quoted with approval the following passage from the judgment of Field, J. in Munn v. Illinois [Munn v. Illinois, 1876 SCC OnLine US SC 4 : 24 L Ed 77 : 94 US 113 (1877)] to emphasise the quality of life covered by Article 21: (Kharak Singh case [Kharak Singh v. State of U.P., AIR 1963 SC 1295 : (1963) 2 Cri LJ 329 : (1964) 1 SCR 332] , AIR p. 1301, para

15)

15. … “By the term “life” as here used something more is meant than mere animal existence. The inhibition against its deprivation extends to all those limbs and faculties by which life is enjoyed. The provision equally prohibits the mutilation of the body or amputation of an arm or leg or the putting out of an eye or the destruction of any other organ of the body through which the soul communicates with the outer world.” ’

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 138 of 567 and this passage was again accepted as laying down the correct law by the Constitution Bench of this Court in the first Sunil Batra case [Sunil Batra v. Delhi Admn., (1978) 4 SCC 494 : 1979 SCC (Cri) 155].

Every limb or faculty through which life is enjoyed is thus protected by Article 21 and a fortiori, this would include the faculties of thinking and feeling. Now deprivation which is inhibited by Article 21 may be total or partial, neither any limb or faculty can be totally destroyed nor can it be partially damaged. Moreover it is every kind of deprivation that is hit by Article 21, whether such deprivation be permanent or temporary and, furthermore, deprivation is not an act which is complete once and for all: it is a continuing act and so long as it lasts, it must be in accordance with procedure established by law. It is therefore clear that any act which damages or injures or interferes with the use of, any limb or faculty of a person, either permanently or even temporarily, would be within the inhibition of Article 21.” (emphasis supplied)

Privacy is, therefore, necessary in both its mental and physical aspects as an enabler of guaranteed freedoms.

411. It is difficult to see how dignity—whose constitutional significance is acknowledged both by the Preamble and by this Court in its exposition of Article 21, among other rights —can be assured to the individual without privacy. Both dignity and privacy are intimately intertwined and are natural conditions for the birth and death of individuals, and for many significant events in life between these events. Necessarily, then, the right to privacy is an integral part of both “life” and “personal liberty” under Article 21, and is intended to enable the rights bearer to develop her potential to the fullest extent made possible only in consonance with the constitutional values expressed in the Preamble as well as across Part III.

R.F. Nariman, J:

525. But most important of all is the cardinal value of fraternity which assures the dignity of the individual. [ In 1834, Jacques-Charles Dupont de l'Eure associated the three terms liberty, equality and fraternity together in the Revue Républicaine, which he edited, as follows:“Any man aspires to liberty, to equality, but he cannot achieve it Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 139 of 567 without the assistance of other men, without fraternity.”Many of our decisions recognise human dignity as being an essential part of the fundamental rights chapter. For example, see Prem Shankar Shukla v. Delhi Admn., (1980) 3 SCC 526 at para 21, Francis Coralie Mullin v. UT of Delhi, (1981) 1 SCC 608 at paras 6, 7 and 8, Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India, (1984) 3 SCC 161 at para 10, Maharashtra University of Health Sciences v. Satchikitsa Prasarak Mandal, (2010) 3 SCC 786 at para 37, Shabnam v. Union of India, (2015) 6 SCC 702 at paras 12.4 and 14 and Jeeja Ghosh v. Union of India, (2016) 7 SCC 761 at para 37.] The dignity of the individual encompasses the right of the individual to develop to the full extent of his potential. And this development can only be if an individual has autonomy over fundamental personal choices and control over dissemination of personal information which may be infringed through an unauthorised use of such information. It is clear that Article 21, more than any of the other articles in the fundamental rights chapter, reflects each of these constitutional values in full, and is to be read in consonance with these values and with the international covenants that we have referred to. In the ultimate analysis, the fundamental right to privacy, which has so many developing facets, can only be developed on a case-to-case basis. Depending upon the particular facet that is relied upon, either Article 21 by itself or in conjunction with other fundamental rights would get attracted.

S.K. Kaul, J. :

618. Rohinton F. Nariman, and Dr D.Y. Chandrachud, JJ., have emphasised the importance of the protection of privacy to ensure protection of liberty and dignity. I agree with them and seek to refer to some legal observations in this regard:

618.1. In Robertson and Nicol on Media Law [ Geoffrey Robertson, QC and Andrew Nicol, QC, Media Law, 5th Edn., p. 265.] it was observed:

“Individuals have a psychological need to preserve an intrusion-free zone for their personality and family and suffer anguish and stress when that zone is violated. Democratic societies must protect privacy as part of their facilitation of individual freedom, and offer some legal support for the individual choice as to what Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 140 of 567 aspects of intimate personal life the citizen is prepared to share with others. This freedom in other words springs from the same source as freedom of expression: a liberty that enhances individual life in a democratic community.”

618.2. Lord Nicholls and Lord Hoffmann in their opinion in Naomi Campbell case[Campbell v. MGN Ltd., (2004) 2 AC 457 : (2004) 2 WLR 1232 : (2004) UKHL 22 (HL)] recognised the importance of the protection of privacy. Lord Hoffman opined as under: (AC p. 472 H & 473 A-D, paras 50-51)

“50. What human rights law has done is to identify private information as something worth protecting as an aspect of human autonomy and dignity. And this recognition has raised inescapably the question of why it should be worth protecting against the state but not against a private person. There may of course be justifications for the publication of private information by private persons which would not be available to the state — I have particularly in mind the position of the media, to which I shall return in a moment — but I can see no logical ground for saying that a person should have less protection against a private individual than he would have against the state for the publication of personal information for which there is no justification. Nor, it appears, have any of the other Judges who have considered the matter.

51. The result of these developments has been a shift in the centre of gravity of the action for breach of confidence when it is used as a remedy for the unjustified publication of personal information. … Instead of the cause of action being based upon the duty of good faith applicable to confidential personal information and trade secrets alike, it focuses upon the protection of human autonomy and dignity — the right to control the dissemination of information about one's private life and the right to the esteem and respect of other people.”

618.3. Lord Nicholls opined as under: (Naomi Campbell case [Campbell v. MGN Ltd., (2004) 2 AC 457 : (2004) 2 WLR 1232 : (2004) UKHL 22 (HL)] , AC p. 464 D-F, para

12)

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 141 of 567 “12. The present case concerns one aspect of invasion of privacy: wrongful disclosure of private information. The case involves the familiar competition between freedom of expression and respect for an individual's privacy. Both are vitally important rights. Neither has precedence over the other. The importance of freedom of expression has been stressed often and eloquently, the importance of privacy less so. But it, too, lies at the heart of liberty in a modern state. A proper degree of privacy is essential for the well-being and development of an individual. And restraints imposed on government to pry into the lives of the citizen go to the essence of a democratic state: see La Forest J. in R. v. Dyment [R. v. Dyment, 1988 SCC OnLine Can SC 86 : (1988) 2 SCR 417] , SCC OnLine Can SC para 17 : SCR p.

426.”

619. Privacy is also the key to freedom of thought. A person has a right to think. The thoughts are sometimes translated into speech but confined to the person to whom it is made. For example, one may want to criticise someone but not share the criticism with the world.

Chelameswar, J.:

372. History abounds with examples of attempts by Governments to shape the minds of subjects. In other words, conditioning the thought process by prescribing what to read or not to read; what forms of art alone are required to be appreciated leading to the conditioning of beliefs; interfering with the choice of people regarding the kind of literature, music or art which an individual would prefer to enjoy. [Stanleyv. Georgia, 1969 SCC OnLine US SC 78 : 22 L Ed 2d 542 : 394 US 557 (1969)“3. … that the mere private possession of obscene matter cannot constitutionally be made a crime.***9. … State has no business telling a man, sitting alone in his own house, what books he may read or what films he may watch. Our whole constitutional heritage rebels at the thought of giving Government the power to control men's minds.” (SCC OnLine US SC paras 3 & 9)] Such conditioning is sought to be achieved by screening the source of information or prescribing penalties for making choices which Governments do not approve. [Bijoe Emmanuel v. State of Kerala, (1986) 3 SCC 615] Insofar as religious beliefs are concerned, a good deal of the misery our species suffer Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 142 of 567 owes its existence to and centres around competing claims of the right to propagate religion. Constitution of India protects the liberty of all subjects guaranteeing [“25.

Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.—(1) Subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practice and propagate religion.(2) Nothing in this article shall affect the operation of any existing law or prevent the State from making any law—(a) regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice;(b) providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.Explanation I.—The wearing and carrying of kirpans shall be deemed to be included in the profession of the Sikh religion. Explanation II.—In sub-clause (b) of clause (2), the reference to Hindus shall be construed as including a reference to persons professing the Sikh, Jaina or Buddhist religion, and the reference to Hindu religious institutions shall be construed accordingly.”] the freedom of conscience and right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion. While the right to freely “profess, practice and propagate religion” may be a facet of free speech guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a), the freedom of the belief or faith in any religion is a matter of conscience falling within the zone of purely private thought process and is an aspect of liberty. There are areas other than religious beliefs which form part of the individual's freedom of conscience such as political belief, etc. which form part of the liberty under Article 21.

373. Concerns of privacy arise when the State seeks to intrude into the body of subjects. [Skinner v. Oklahoma, 1942 SCC OnLine US SC 125 : 86 L Ed 1655 : 316 US 535 (1942)“20. There are limits to the extent to which a legislatively represented majority may conduct biological experiments at the expense of the dignity and personality and natural powers of a minority—even those who have been guilty of what the majority defines as crimes.” (SCC OnLine US SC para 20)—Jackson, J.] Corporeal punishments were not unknown to India, their abolition is of a recent vintage. Forced feeding of certain persons by the State raises concerns of privacy. An individual's rights to refuse life prolonging medical treatment or terminate his life is another freedom which falls within the zone of the right to Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 143 of 567 privacy. I am conscious of the fact that the issue is pending before this Court. But in various other jurisdictions, there is a huge debate on those issues though it is still a grey area. [ For the legal debate in this area in US, See Chapter 15.11 of American Constitutional Law by Laurence H. Tribe, 2nd Edn.] A woman's freedom of choice whether to bear a child or abort her pregnancy are areas which fall in the realm of privacy. Similarly, the freedom to choose either to work or not and the freedom to choose the nature of the work are areas of private decision-making process. The right to travel freely within the country or go abroad is an area falling within the right to privacy. The text of our Constitution recognised the freedom to travel throughout the country under Article 19(1)(d). This Court has already recognised that such a right takes within its sweep the right to travel abroad. [Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, (1978) 1 SCC 248] A person's freedom to choose the place of his residence once again is a part of his right to privacy [Williams v. Fears, 1900 SCC OnLine US SC 211 : 45 L Ed 186 : 179 US 270 (1900)—“8. Undoubtedly the right of locomotion, the right to remove from one place to another according to inclination, is an attribute of personal liberty….” (SCC OnLine US SC para 8)] recognised by the Constitution of India under Article 19(1)(e) though the predominant purpose of enumerating the abovementioned two freedoms in Article 19(1) is to disable both the federal and State Governments from creating barriers which are incompatible with the federal nature of our country and its Constitution. The choice of appearance and apparel are also aspects of the right to privacy. The freedom of certain groups of subjects to determine their appearance and apparel (such as keeping long hair and wearing a turban) are protected not as a part of the right to privacy but as a part of their religious belief. Such a freedom need not necessarily be based on religious beliefs falling under Article 25. Informational traces are also an area which is the subject-matter of huge debate in various jurisdictions falling within the realm of the right to privacy, such data is as personal as that of the choice of appearance and apparel. Telephone tappings and internet hacking by State, of personal data is another area which falls within the realm of privacy. The instant reference arises out of such an attempt by the Union of India to collect biometric data regarding all the residents of this country. The abovementioned are some of the areas where some interest of privacy exists. The examples given above

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 144 of 567 indicate to some extent the nature and scope of the right to privacy.

374. I do not think that anybody in this country would like to have the officers of the State intruding into their homes or private property at will or soldiers quartered in their houses without their consent. I do not think that anybody would like to be told by the State as to what they should eat or how they should dress or whom they should be associated with either in their personal, social or political life. Freedom of social and political association is guaranteed to citizens under Article 19(1)(c). Personal association is still a doubtful area. [The High Court of A.P. held that Article 19(1)

(c) would take within its sweep the matrimonial association in T. Sareetha v. T. Venkata Subbaiah, 1983 SCC OnLine AP 90 : AIR 1983 AP 356. However, this case was later overruled by this Court in Saroj Rani v. Sudarshan Kumar Chadha, (1984) 4 SCC 90 : AIR 1984 SC 1562.] The decision-making process regarding the freedom of association, freedoms of travel and residence are purely private and fall within the realm of the right to privacy. It is one of the most intimate decisions.

375. All liberal democracies believe that the State should not have unqualified authority to intrude into certain aspects of human life and that the authority should be limited by parameters constitutionally fixed. Fundamental rights are the only constitutional firewall to prevent State's interference with those core freedoms constituting liberty of a human being. The right to privacy is certainly one of the core freedoms which is to be defended. It is part of liberty within the meaning of that expression in Article 21.

376. I am in complete agreement with the conclusions recorded by my learned Brothers in this regard.”

(iii) Privacy is intrinsic to freedom, liberty and dignity: The right

to privacy is inherent to the liberties guaranteed by Part-III of the

Constitution and privacy is an element of human dignity. The

fundamental right to privacy derives from Part-III of the

Constitution and recognition of this right does not require a

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 145 of 567 constitutional amendment. Privacy is more than merely a

derivative constitutional right. It is the necessary basis of rights

guaranteed in the text of the Constitution. Discussion in this

behalf is captured in the following passages:

Dr. D.Y. Chandrachud, J. :

127. The submission that recognising the right to privacy is an exercise which would require a constitutional amendment and cannot be a matter of judicial interpretation is not an acceptable doctrinal position. The argument assumes that the right to privacy is independent of the liberties guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution.

There lies the error. The right to privacy is an element of human dignity. The sanctity of privacy lies in its functional relationship with dignity. Privacy ensures that a human being can lead a life of dignity by securing the inner recesses of the human personality from unwanted intrusion. Privacy recognises the autonomy of the individual and the right of every person to make essential choices which affect the course of life. In doing so privacy recognises that living a life of dignity is essential for a human being to fulfill the liberties and freedoms which are the cornerstone of the Constitution. To recognise the value of privacy as a constitutional entitlement and interest is not to fashion a new fundamental right by a process of amendment through judicial fiat. Neither are the Judges nor is the process of judicial review entrusted with the constitutional responsibility to amend the Constitution. But judicial review certainly has the task before it of determining the nature and extent of the freedoms available to each person under the fabric of those constitutional guarantees which are protected. Courts have traditionally discharged that function and in the context of Article 21 itself, as we have already noted, a panoply of protections governing different facets of a dignified existence has been held to fall within the protection of Article 21.

S.A. Bobde, J. :

416. There is nothing unusual in the judicial enumeration of one right on the basis of another under the Constitution. In Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 146 of 567 the case of Article 21's guarantee of “personal liberty”, this practice is only natural if Salmond's formulation of liberty as “incipient rights” [ P.J. Fitzgerald, Salmond on Jurisprudence at p. 228.] is correct. By the process of enumeration, constitutional courts merely give a name and specify the core of guarantees already present in the residue of constitutional liberty. Over time, the Supreme Court has been able to imply by its interpretative process that several fundamental rights including the right to privacy emerge out of expressly stated fundamental rights.

In Unni Krishnan, J.P. v. State of A.P. [Unni Krishnan, J.P. v. State of A.P., (1993) 1 SCC 645] , a Constitution Bench of this Court held that “several unenumerated rights fall within Article 21 since personal liberty is of widest amplitude” [Unni Krishnan, J.P. v. State of A.P., (1993) 1 SCC 645 at p. 669, para 29] on the way to affirming the existence of a right to education. It went on to supply the following indicative list of such rights, which included the right to privacy: (SCC pp. 669-70, para 30)

“30. The following rights are held to be covered under Article 21:

1. The right to go abroad. Satwant Singh v. D. Ramarathnam [Satwant Singh Sawhney v. D. Ramarathnam, (1967) 3 SCR 525 : AIR 1967 SC 1836] .

2. The right to privacy. Gobind v. State of M.P. [Gobind v. State of M.P., (1975) 2 SCC 148 : 1975 SCC (Cri) 468] In this case reliance was placed on the American decision in Griswold v. Connecticut [Griswold v. Connecticut, 1965 SCC OnLine US SC 124 : 14 L Ed 2d 510 : 85 S Ct 1678 : 381 US 479 (1965)] , US at p. 510.

3. The right against solitary confinement. Sunil Batra (1) v. Delhi Admn. [Sunil Batra v. Delhi Admn., (1978) 4 SCC 494 : 1979 SCC (Cri) 155] , SCC at p. 545.

4. The right against bar fetters. Charles Sobhraj v. Supt., Central Jail [Charles Sobraj v. Supt., Central Jail, (1978) 4 SCC 104 : 1978 SCC (Cri) 542].

5. The right to legal aid. M.H. Hoskot v. State of Maharashtra [M.H. Hoskot v. State of Maharashtra, (1978) 3 SCC 544 : 1978 SCC (Cri) 468].

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 147 of 567

6. The right to speedy trial. Hussainara Khatoon (1) v. State of Bihar[Hussainara Khatoon (1) v. State of Bihar, (1980) 1 SCC 81 : 1980 SCC (Cri) 23] .

7. The right against handcuffing. Prem Shankar v. Delhi Admn. [Prem Shankar Shukla v. Delhi Admn., (1980) 3 SCC 526 : 1980 SCC (Cri) 815]

8. The right against delayed execution. T.V. Vatheeswaran v. State of T.N. [T.V. Vatheeswaran v. State of T.N., (1983) 2 SCC 68 : 1983 SCC (Cri) 342]

9. The right against custodial violence. Sheela Barse v. State of Maharashtra [Sheela Barse v. State of Maharashtra, (1983) 2 SCC 96 : 1983 SCC (Cri) 353].

10. The right against public hanging. Attorney General of India v. Lachma Devi [Attorney General of India v. Lachma Devi, 1989 Supp (1) SCC 264 : 1989 SCC (Cri) 413].

11. Doctor's assistance. Paramananda Katara v. Union of India [Parmanand Katara v. Union of India, (1989) 4 SCC 286 : 1989 SCC (Cri) 721].

12. Shelter. Santistar Builders v. Narayan Khimalal Totame [Shantistar Builders v. Narayan Khimalal Totame, (1990) 1 SCC 520] .”

In the case of privacy, the case for judicial enumeration is especially strong. It is no doubt a fair implication from Article 21, but also more. Privacy is a right or condition, “logically presupposed” [ Laurence H. Tribe And Michael C. Dorf, “Levels Of Generality in the Definition of Rights”, 57 U CHI L REV 1057 (1990) at p. 1068.] by rights expressly recorded in the constitutional text, if they are to make sense. As a result, privacy is more than merely a derivative constitutional right. It is the necessary and unavoidable logical entailment of rights guaranteed in the text of the Constitution.

R.F. Nariman, J:

482. Shri Sundaram has argued that rights have to be traced directly to those expressly stated in the fundamental rights chapter of the Constitution for such rights to receive Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 148 of 567 protection, and privacy is not one of them. It will be noticed that the dignity of the individual is a cardinal value, which is expressed in the Preamble to the Constitution. Such dignity is not expressly stated as a right in the fundamental rights chapter, but has been read into the right to life and personal liberty. The right to live with dignity is expressly read into Article 21 by the judgment in Jolly George Varghesev. Bank of Cochin [Jolly George Varghese v.

Bank of Cochin, (1980) 2 SCC 360] , at para 10. Similarly, the right against bar fetters and handcuffing being integral to an individual's dignity was read into Article 21 by the judgment in Sunil Batra v. Delhi Admn. [Sunil Batra v. Delhi Admn., (1978) 4 SCC 494 : 1979 SCC (Cri) 155] , at paras 192, 197-B, 234 and 241 and Prem Shankar Shukla v. Delhi Admn. [Prem Shankar Shukla v. Delhi Admn., (1980) 3 SCC 526 : 1980 SCC (Cri) 815] , at paras 21 and 22. It is too late in the day to canvas that a fundamental right must be traceable to express language in Part III of the Constitution. As will be pointed out later in this judgment, a Constitution has to be read in such a way that words deliver up principles that are to be followed and if this is kept in mind, it is clear that the concept of privacy is contained not merely in personal liberty, but also in the dignity of the individual.”

(iv) Privacy has both positive and negative content: The

negative content restrains the State from committing an intrusion

upon the life and personal liberty of a citizen. Its positive content

imposes an obligation on the State to take all necessary

measures to protect the privacy of the individual.

Dr. D.Y. Chandrachud, J.:

326. Privacy has both positive and negative content. The negative content restrains the State from committing an intrusion upon the life and personal liberty of a citizen. Its positive content imposes an obligation on the State to take all necessary measures to protect the privacy of the individual.”

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 149 of 567

(v) Informational Privacy is a facet of right to privacy: The old

adage that ‘knowledge is power’ has stark implications for the

position of individual where data is ubiquitous, an all-

encompassing presence. Every transaction of an individual user

leaves electronic tracks without her knowledge. Individually these

information silos may seem inconsequential. In aggregation,

information provides a picture of the beings. The challenges

which big data poses to privacy emanate from both State and

non-State entities. This proposition is described in the following

manner:

Dr. D.Y. Chandrachud, J.:

300. Ours is an age of information. Information is knowledge. The old adage that “knowledge is power” has stark implications for the position of the individual where data is ubiquitous, an all-encompassing presence.

Technology has made life fundamentally interconnected. The internet has become all-pervasive as individuals spend more and more time online each day of their lives. Individuals connect with others and use the internet as a means of communication. The internet is used to carry on business and to buy goods and services. Individuals browse the web in search of information, to send e-mails, use instant messaging services and to download movies. Online purchases have become an efficient substitute for the daily visit to the neighbouring store. Online banking has redefined relationships between bankers and customers. Online trading has created a new platform for the market in securities. Online music has refashioned the radio. Online books have opened up a new universe for the bibliophile. The old-fashioned travel agent has been rendered redundant by web portals which provide everything from restaurants to rest houses, airline tickets to art galleries, museum tickets to music shows. These are but a few of the reasons people access the internet each day of their lives.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 150 of 567 Yet every transaction of an individual user and every site that she visits, leaves electronic tracks generally without her knowledge. These electronic tracks contain powerful means of information which provide knowledge of the sort of person that the user is and her interests [See Francois Nawrot, Katarzyna Syska and Przemyslaw Switalski, “Horizontal Application of Fundamental Rights — Right to Privacy on the Internet”, 9th Annual European Constitutionalism Seminar (May 2010), University of Warsaw, available at <http://en.zpc.wpia.uw.edu.pl/wp- content/uploads/2010/04/9_Horizontal_Application_of_Fun damental_Rights.pdf>.] . Individually, these information silos may seem inconsequential. In aggregation, they disclose the nature of the personality: food habits, language, health, hobbies, sexual preferences, friendships, ways of dress and political affiliation. In aggregation, information provides a picture of the being: of things which matter and those that do not, of things to be disclosed and those best hidden.

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304. Data mining processes together with knowledge discovery can be combined to create facts about individuals. Metadata and the internet of things have the ability to redefine human existence in ways which are yet fully to be perceived. This, as Christina Moniodis states in her illuminating article, results in the creation of new knowledge about individuals; something which even she or he did not possess. This poses serious issues for the Court. In an age of rapidly evolving technology it is impossible for a Judge to conceive of all the possible uses of information or its consequences:

“… The creation of new knowledge complicates data privacy law as it involves information the individual did not possess and could not disclose, knowingly or otherwise. In addition, as our State becomes an “information State” through increasing reliance on information—such that information is described as the “lifeblood that sustains political, social, and business decisions. It becomes impossible to conceptualize all of the possible uses of information and resulting harms. Such a situation poses a challenge for courts who are effectively asked to anticipate and remedy invisible, evolving harms.” [ Christina P. Moniodis, “Moving from Nixon to NASA: Privacy's Second Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 151 of 567 Strand — A Right to Informational Privacy”, Yale Journal of Law and Technology (2012), Vol. 15 (1), at p. 154.]

The contemporary age has been aptly regarded as “an era of ubiquitous dataveillance, or the systematic monitoring of citizen's communications or actions through the use of information technology” [Yvonne McDermott, “Conceptualizing the Right to Data Protection in an Era of Big Data”, Big Data and Society (2017), at p. 1.] . It is also an age of “big data” or the collection of data sets. These data sets are capable of being searched; they have linkages with other data sets; and are marked by their exhaustive scope and the permanency of collection. [Id, at pp. 1 and 4.] The challenges which big data poses to privacy interests emanate from State and non-State entities. Users of wearable devices and social media networks may not conceive of themselves as having volunteered data but their activities of use and engagement result in the generation of vast amounts of data about individual lifestyles, choices and preferences. Yvonne McDermott speaks about the quantified self in eloquent terms:

“… The rise in the so-called ‘quantified self’, or the self-tracking of biological, environmental, physical, or behavioural information through tracking devices, Internet-of-things devices, social network data and other means (?Swan.2013) may result in information being gathered not just about the individual user, but about people around them as well. Thus, a solely consent-based model does not entirely ensure the protection of one's data, especially when data collected for one purpose can be repurposed for another.” [Id, at p. 4.]

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328. Informational privacy is a facet of the right to privacy.

The dangers to privacy in an age of information can originate not only from the State but from non-State actors as well. We commend to the Union Government the need to examine and put into place a robust regime for data protection. The creation of such a regime requires a careful and sensitive balance between individual interests and legitimate concerns of the State. The legitimate aims of the State would include for instance protecting national Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 152 of 567 security, preventing and investigating crime, encouraging innovation and the spread of knowledge, and preventing the dissipation of social welfare benefits. These are matters of policy to be considered by the Union Government while designing a carefully structured regime for the protection of the data. Since the Union Government has informed the Court that it has constituted a Committee chaired by Hon'ble Shri Justice B.N. Srikrishna, former Judge of this Court, for that purpose, the matter shall be dealt with appropriately by the Union Government having due regard to what has been set out in this judgment.

S.K. Kaul, J.:

585. The growth and development of technology has created new instruments for the possible invasion of privacy by the State, including through surveillance, profiling and data collection and processing. Surveillance is not new, but technology has permitted surveillance in ways that are unimaginable. Edward Snowden shocked the world with his disclosures about global surveillance. States are utilising technology in the most imaginative ways particularly in view of increasing global terrorist attacks and heightened public safety concerns. One such technique being adopted by the States is “profiling”. The European Union Regulation of 2016 [ Regulation No. (EU) 2016/679 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 27-4-

2016 on the protection of natural persons with regard to the processing of personal data and on the free movement of such data, and repealing Directive No. 95/46/EC (General Data Protection Regulation).] on data privacy defines “profiling” as any form of automated processing of personal data consisting of the use of personal data to evaluate certain personal aspects relating to a natural person, in particular to analyse or predict aspects concerning that natural person's performance at work, economic situation, health, personal preferences, interests, reliability, behaviour, location or movements [ Regulation No. (EU) 2016/679 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 27-4-2016 on the protection of natural persons with regard to the processing of personal data and on the free movement of such data, and repealing Directive No. 95/46/EC (General Data Protection Regulation).] . Such profiling can result in discrimination based on religion, ethnicity and caste. However, “profiling” can also be used to further public interest and for the benefit of national security.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 153 of 567

586. The security environment, not only in our country, but throughout the world makes the safety of persons and the State a matter to be balanced against this right to privacy.

587. The capacity of non-State actors to invade the home and privacy has also been enhanced. Technological development has facilitated journalism that is more intrusive than ever before.

588. Further, in this digital age, individuals are constantly generating valuable data which can be used by non-State actors to track their moves, choices and preferences. Data is generated not just by active sharing of information, but also passively, with every click on the “world wide web”. We are stated to be creating an equal amount of information every other day, as humanity created from the beginning of recorded history to the year 2003 — enabled by the “world wide web”. [ Michael L. Rustad, SannaKulevska, “Reconceptualizing the right to be forgotten to enable transatlantic data flow”, (2015) 28 Harv JL & Tech 349.]

589. Recently, it was pointed out that “ “Uber”, the world's largest taxi company, owns no vehicles. “Facebook”, the world's most popular media owner, creates no content. “Alibaba”, the most valuable retailer, has no inventory. And “Airbnb”, the world's largest accommodation provider, owns no real estate. Something interesting is happening.” [ Tom Goodwin “The Battle is for Customer Interface”, <https://techcrunch.com/2015/03/03/in-the-age-of- disintermediation-the-battle-is-all-for-the-customer- interface/>.] “Uber” knows our whereabouts and the places we frequent. “Facebook” at the least, knows who we are friends with. “Alibaba” knows our shopping habits. “Airbnb” knows where we are travelling to. Social network providers, search engines, e-mail service providers, messaging applications are all further examples of non-State actors that have extensive knowledge of our movements, financial transactions, conversations — both personal and professional, health, mental state, interest, travel locations, fares and shopping habits. As we move towards becoming a digital economy and increase our reliance on internet- based services, we are creating deeper and deeper digital footprints — passively and actively.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 154 of 567

590. These digital footprints and extensive data can be analysed computationally to reveal patterns, trends, and associations, especially relating to human behaviour and interactions and hence, is valuable information. This is the age of “big data”. The advancement in technology has created not just new forms of data, but also new methods of analysing the data and has led to the discovery of new uses for data. The algorithms are more effective and the computational power has magnified exponentially. A large number of people would like to keep such search history private, but it rarely remains private, and is collected, sold and analysed for purposes such as targeted advertising. Of course, “big data” can also be used to further public interest. There may be cases where collection and processing of big data is legitimate and proportionate, despite being invasive of privacy otherwise.

591. Knowledge about a person gives a power over that person. The personal data collected is capable of effecting representations, influencing decision-making processes and shaping behaviour. It can be used as a tool to exercise control over us like the “big brother” State exercised. This can have a stultifying effect on the expression of dissent and difference of opinion, which no democracy can afford.

592. Thus, there is an unprecedented need for regulation regarding the extent to which such information can be stored, processed and used by non-State actors. There is also a need for protection of such information from the State. Our Government was successful in compelling Blackberry to give to it the ability to intercept data sent over Blackberry devices. While such interception may be desirable and permissible in order to ensure national security, it cannot be unregulated. [ Kadhim Shubber, “Blackberry gives Indian Government ability to intercept messages” published by Wired on 11-7-2013 <http://www.wired.co.uk/article/blackberry-india>.]

593. The concept of “invasion of privacy” is not the early conventional thought process of “poking ones nose in another person's affairs”. It is not so simplistic. In today's world, privacy is a limit on the Government's power as well as the power of private sector entities. [ Daniel Solove, “10 Reasons Why Privacy Matters” published on 20-1-2014 <https://www.teachprivacy.com/10-reasons-privacy- matters/>.]

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 155 of 567

594. George Orwell created a fictional State in Nineteen Eighty-Four. Today, it can be a reality. The technological development today can enable not only the State, but also big corporations and private entities to be the “big brother”.

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629. The right of an individual to exercise control over his personal data and to be able to control his/her own life would also encompass his right to control his existence on the internet. Needless to say that this would not be an absolute right. The existence of such a right does not imply that a criminal can obliterate his past, but that there are variant degrees of mistakes, small and big, and it cannot be said that a person should be profiled to the nth extent for all and sundry to know.

630. A high school teacher was fired after posting on her Facebook page that she was “so not looking forward to another [school] year” since the school district's residents were “arrogant and snobby”. A flight attendant was fired for posting suggestive photos of herself in the company's uniform. [ Patricia Sánchez Abril, “Blurred Boundaries:

Social Media Privacy and the Twenty-First-Century Employee”, 49 Am Bus LJ 63 at p. 69 (2012).] In the pre- digital era, such incidents would have never occurred. People could then make mistakes and embarrass themselves, with the comfort that the information will be typically forgotten over time.

631. The impact of the digital age results in information on the internet being permanent. Humans forget, but the internet does not forget and does not let humans forget. Any endeavour to remove information from the internet does not result in its absolute obliteration. The footprints remain. It is thus, said that in the digital world preservation is the norm and forgetting a struggle [ Ravi Antani, “ THE RESISTANCE OF MEMORY : COULD THE EUROPEAN UNION'S RIGHT TO BE FORGOTTEN EXIST IN THE UNITED STATES?”, 30 Berkeley Tech LJ 1173 (2015).] .

632. The technology results almost in a sort of a permanent storage in some way or the other making it difficult to begin life again giving up past mistakes. People are not static, they change and grow through their lives. They evolve. They make mistakes. But they are entitled to re-invent themselves and reform and correct their Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 156 of 567 mistakes. It is privacy which nurtures this ability and removes the shackles of unadvisable things which may have been done in the past.

633. Children around the world create perpetual digital footprints on social network websites on a 24/7 basis as they learn their “ABCs”: Apple, Bluetooth and chat followed by download, e-mail, Facebook, Google, Hotmail and Instagram. [ Michael L. Rustad, SannaKulevska, “Reconceptualizing the right to be forgotten to enable transatlantic data flow”, (2015) 28 Harv JL & Tech 349.] They should not be subjected to the consequences of their childish mistakes and naivety, their entire life. Privacy of children will require special protection not just in the context of the virtual world, but also the real world.

634. People change and an individual should be able to determine the path of his life and not be stuck only on a path of which he/she treaded initially. An individual should have the capacity to change his/her beliefs and evolve as a person. Individuals should not live in fear that the views they expressed will forever be associated with them and thus refrain from expressing themselves.

635. Whereas this right to control dissemination of personal information in the physical and virtual space should not amount to a right of total eraser of history, this right, as a part of the larger right to privacy, has to be balanced against other fundamental rights like the freedom of expression, or freedom of media, fundamental to a democratic society.

636. Thus, the European Union Regulation of 2016 [Regulation No. (EU) 2016/679 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 27-4-2016 on the protection of natural persons with regard to the processing of personal data and on the free movement of such data, and repealing Directive No. 95/46/EC (General Data Protection Regulation).] has recognised what has been termed as “the right to be forgotten”. This does not mean that all aspects of earlier existence are to be obliterated, as some may have a social ramification. If we were to recognise a similar right, it would only mean that an individual who is no longer desirous of his personal data to be processed or stored, should be able to remove it from the system where the personal data/information is no longer necessary, relevant, or is incorrect and serves no legitimate interest. Such a right Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 157 of 567 cannot be exercised where the information/data is necessary, for exercising the right of freedom of expression and information, for compliance with legal obligations, for the performance of a task carried out in public interest, on the grounds of public interest in the area of public health, for archiving purposes in the public interest, scientific or historical research purposes or statistical purposes, or for the establishment, exercise or defence of legal claims. Such justifications would be valid in all cases of breach of privacy, including breaches of data privacy.”

(vi) Right to privacy cannot be impinged without a just, fair and

reasonable law: It has to fulfill the test of proportionality i.e. (i)

existence of a law; (ii) must serve a legitimate State aim; and (iii)

proportionality.

“Dr. D.Y. Chandrachud, J. :

310. While it intervenes to protect legitimate State interests, the State must nevertheless put into place a robust regime that ensures the fulfilment of a threefold requirement. These three requirements apply to all restraints on privacy (not just informational privacy). They emanate from the procedural and content-based mandate of Article 21. The first requirement that there must be a law in existence to justify an encroachment on privacy is an express requirement of Article 21. For, no person can be deprived of his life or personal liberty except in accordance with the procedure established by law. The existence of law is an essential requirement. Second, the requirement of a need, in terms of a legitimate State aim, ensures that the nature and content of the law which imposes the restriction falls within the zone of reasonableness mandated by Article 14, which is a guarantee against arbitrary State action. The pursuit of a legitimate State aim ensures that the law does not suffer from manifest arbitrariness. Legitimacy, as a postulate, involves a value judgment. Judicial review does not reappreciate or second guess the value judgment of the legislature but is for deciding whether the aim which is sought to be pursued suffers from palpable or manifest arbitrariness. The third requirement ensures that the means which are adopted by the legislature are Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 158 of 567 proportional to the object and needs sought to be fulfilled by the law. Proportionality is an essential facet of the guarantee against arbitrary State action because it ensures that the nature and quality of the encroachment on the right is not disproportionate to the purpose of the law. Hence, the threefold requirement for a valid law arises out of the mutual interdependence between the fundamental guarantees against arbitrariness on the one hand and the protection of life and personal liberty, on the other. The right to privacy, which is an intrinsic part of the right to life and liberty, and the freedoms embodied in Part III is subject to the same restraints which apply to those freedoms.

311. Apart from national security, the State may have justifiable reasons for the collection and storage of data. In a social welfare State, the Government embarks upon programmes which provide benefits to impoverished and marginalised sections of society. There is a vital State interest in ensuring that scarce public resources are not dissipated by the diversion of resources to persons who do not qualify as recipients. Allocation of resources for human development is coupled with a legitimate concern that the utilisation of resources should not be siphoned away for extraneous purposes. Data mining with the object of ensuring that resources are properly deployed to legitimate beneficiaries is a valid ground for the State to insist on the collection of authentic data. But, the data which the State has collected has to be utilised for legitimate purposes of the State and ought not to be utilised unauthorisedly for extraneous purposes. This will ensure that the legitimate concerns of the State are duly safeguarded while, at the same time, protecting privacy concerns. Prevention and investigation of crime and protection of the revenue are among the legitimate aims of the State. Digital platforms are a vital tool of ensuring good governance in a social welfare State. Information technology—legitimately deployed is a powerful enabler in the spread of innovation and knowledge.

312. A distinction has been made in contemporary literature between anonymity on one hand and privacy on the other. [See in this connection, Jeffrey M. Skopek, “Reasonable Expectations of Anonymity”, Virginia Law Review (2015), Vol. 101, at pp. 691-762.] Both anonymity and privacy prevent others from gaining access to pieces of personal information yet they do so in opposite ways.

Privacy involves hiding information whereas anonymity Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 159 of 567 involves hiding what makes it personal. An unauthorised parting of the medical records of an individual which have been furnished to a hospital will amount to an invasion of privacy. On the other hand, the State may assert a legitimate interest in analysing data borne from hospital records to understand and deal with a public health epidemic such as malaria or dengue to obviate a serious impact on the population. If the State preserves the anonymity of the individual it could legitimately assert a valid State interest in the preservation of public health to design appropriate policy interventions on the basis of the data available to it.

313. Privacy has been held to be an intrinsic element of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and as a constitutional value which is embodied in the fundamental freedoms embedded in Part III of the Constitution. Like the right to life and liberty, privacy is not absolute. The limitations which operate on the right to life and personal liberty would operate on the right to privacy. Any curtailment or deprivation of that right would have to take place under a regime of law. The procedure established by law must be fair, just and reasonable. The law which provides for the curtailment of the right must also be subject to constitutional safeguards.

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325. Like other rights which form part of the fundamental freedoms protected by Part III, including the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21, privacy is not an absolute right. A law which encroaches upon privacy will have to withstand the touchstone of permissible restrictions on fundamental rights. In the context of Article 21 an invasion of privacy must be justified on the basis of a law which stipulates a procedure which is fair, just and reasonable. The law must also be valid with reference to the encroachment on life and personal liberty under Article 21. An invasion of life or personal liberty must meet the threefold requirement of (i) legality, which postulates the existence of law; (ii) need, defined in terms of a legitimate State aim; and (iii) proportionality which ensures a rational nexus between the objects and the means adopted to achieve them.

S.A. Bobde, J. :

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 160 of 567

426. There is no doubt that privacy is integral to the several fundamental rights recognised by Part III of the Constitution and must be regarded as a fundamental right itself. The relationship between the right to privacy and the particular fundamental right (or rights) involved would depend on the action interdicted by a particular law. At a minimum, since privacy is always integrated with personal liberty, the constitutionality of the law which is alleged to have invaded into a rights bearer's privacy must be tested by the same standards by which a law which invades personal liberty under Article 21 is liable to be tested. Under Article 21, the standard test at present is the rationality review expressed in Maneka Gandhi case [Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, (1978) 1 SCC 248] . This requires that any procedure by which the State interferes with an Article 21 right to be “fair, just and reasonable, not fanciful, oppressive or arbitrary” [Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, (1978) 1 SCC 248 at p.

323, para 48].

R.F. Nariman, J. :

526. But this is not to say that such a right is absolute. This right is subject to reasonable regulations made by the State to protect legitimate State interests or public interest.

However, when it comes to restrictions on this right, the drill of various articles to which the right relates must be scrupulously followed. For example, if the restraint on privacy is over fundamental personal choices that an individual is to make, State action can be restrained under Article 21 read with Article 14 if it is arbitrary and unreasonable; and under Article 21 read with Article 19(1)

(a) only if it relates to the subjects mentioned in Article 19(2) and the tests laid down by this Court for such legislation or subordinate legislation to pass muster under the said article. Each of the tests evolved by this Court, qua legislation or executive action, under Article 21 read with Article 14; or Article 21 read with Article 19(1)(a) in the aforesaid examples must be met in order that State action pass muster. In the ultimate analysis, the balancing act that is to be carried out between individual, societal and State interests must be left to the training and expertise of the judicial mind.

S.K. Kaul, J. :

638. The concerns expressed on behalf of the petitioners arising from the possibility of the State infringing the right to Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 161 of 567 privacy can be met by the test suggested for limiting the discretion of the State:

“(i) The action must be sanctioned by law;

(ii) The proposed action must be necessary in a democratic society for a legitimate aim;

(iii) The extent of such interference must be proportionate to the need for such interference;

(iv) There must be procedural guarantees against abuse of such interference.”

Chelameswar, J.:

377. It goes without saying that no legal right can be absolute. Every right has limitations. This aspect of the matter is conceded at the Bar. Therefore, even a fundamental right to privacy has limitations. The limitations are to be identified on case-to-case basis depending upon the nature of the privacy interest claimed. There are different standards of review to test infractions of fundamental rights. While the concept of reasonableness overarches Part III, it operates differently across Articles (even if only slightly differently across some of them).

Having emphatically interpreted the Constitution's liberty guarantee to contain a fundamental right to privacy, it is necessary for me to outline the manner in which such a right to privacy can be limited. I only do this to indicate the direction of the debate as the nature of limitation is not at issue here.

378. To begin with, the options canvassed for limiting the right to privacy include an Article 14 type reasonableness enquiry [A challenge under Article 14 can be made if there is an unreasonable classification and/or if the impugned measure is arbitrary. The classification is unreasonable if there is no intelligible differentia justifying the classification and if the classification has no rational nexus with the objective sought to be achieved. Arbitrariness, which was first explained at para 85 of E.P. Royappa v. State of T.N., (1974) 4 SCC 3 : 1974 SCC (L&S) 165 : AIR 1974 SC 555, is very simply the lack of any reasoning.] ; limitation as per the express provisions of Article 19; a just, fair and reasonable basis (that is, substantive due process) for limitation per Article 21; and finally, a just, fair and Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 162 of 567 reasonable standard per Article 21 plus the amorphous standard of “compelling State interest”. The last of these four options is the highest standard of scrutiny [ A tiered level of scrutiny was indicated in what came to be known as the most famous footnote in constitutional law, that is, fn 4 in United States v. Carolene Products Co., 1938 SCC OnLine US SC 93 : 82 L Ed 1234 : 304 US 144 (1938). Depending on the graveness of the right at stake, the court adopts a correspondingly rigorous standard of scrutiny.] that a court can adopt. It is from this menu that a standard of review for limiting the right to privacy needs to be chosen.

379. At the very outset, if a privacy claim specifically flows only from one of the expressly enumerated provisions under Article 19, then the standard of review would be as expressly provided under Article 19. However, the possibility of a privacy claim being entirely traceable to rights other than Article 21 is bleak. Without discounting that possibility, it needs to be noted that Article 21 is the bedrock of the privacy guarantee. If the spirit of liberty permeates every claim of privacy, it is difficult, if not impossible, to imagine that any standard of limitation other than the one under Article 21 applies. It is for this reason that I will restrict the available options to the latter two from the above described four.

380. The just, fair and reasonable standard of review under Article 21 needs no elaboration. It has also most commonly been used in cases dealing with a privacy claim hitherto. [District Registrar and Collector v. Canara Bank, (2005) 1 SCC 496 : AIR 2005 SC 186] , [State of Maharashtra v. Bharat Shanti Lal Shah, (2008) 13 SCC 5] Gobind [Gobind v. State of M.P., (1975) 2 SCC 148 : 1975 SCC (Cri) 468] resorted to the compelling State interest standard in addition to the Article 21 reasonableness enquiry. From the United States, where the terminology of “compelling State interest” originated, a strict standard of scrutiny comprises two things—a “compelling State interest” and a requirement of “narrow tailoring” (narrow tailoring means that the law must be narrowly framed to achieve the objective). As a term, “compelling State interest” does not have definite contours in the US. Hence, it is critical that this standard be adopted with some clarity as to when and in what types of privacy claimsit is to be used. Only in privacy claims which deserve the strictest scrutiny is the standard of compelling State interest to be used. As for Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 163 of 567 others, the just, fair and reasonable standard under Article 21 will apply. When the compelling State interest standard is to be employed, must depend upon the context of concrete cases. However, this discussion sets the ground rules within which a limitation for the right to privacy is to be found.”

82) In view of the aforesaid detailed discussion in all the opinions

penned by six Hon’ble Judges, it stands established, without any

pale of doubt, that privacy has now been treated as part of

fundamental rights. The Court has held, in no uncertain terms,

that privacy has always been a natural right which gives an

individual freedom to exercise control over his or her personality.

The judgment further affirms three aspects of the fundamental

right to privacy, namely:

(i) intrusion with an individual’s physical body;

(ii) informational privacy; and

(iii) privacy of choice.

83) As succinctly put by Nariman, J. first aspect involves the person

himself/herself and guards a person’s rights relatable to his/her

physical body thereby controlling the uncalled invasion by the

State. Insofar as the second aspect, namely, informational

privacy is concerned, it does not deal with a person’s body but

deals with a person’s mind. In this manner, it protects a person

by giving her control over the dissemination of material that is Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 164 of 567 personal to her and disallowing unauthorised use of such

information by the State. Third aspect of privacy relates to

individual’s autonomy by protecting her fundamental personal

choices. These aspects have functional connection and

relationship with dignity. In this sense, privacy is a postulate of

human dignity itself. Human dignity has a constitutional value

and its significance is acknowledged by the Preamble. Further,

by catena of judgments, human dignity is treated as a

fundamental right and as a facet not only of Article 21 but that of

right to equality (Article 14) and also part of bouquet of freedoms

stipulated in Article 19. Therefore, privacy as a right is intrinsic of

freedom, liberty and dignity. Viewed in this manner, one can

trace positive and negative contents of privacy. The negative

content restricts the State from committing an intrusion upon the

life and personal liberty of a citizen. Its positive content imposes

an obligation on the State to take all necessary measures to

protect the privacy of the individual.

84) A brief summation of the judgment on privacy would indicate that

privacy is treated as fundamental right. It is predicated on the

basis that privacy is a postulate of dignity and the concept of

dignity can be traced to the preamble of the Constitution as well

as Article 21 thereof. Further, privacy is considered as a subset Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 165 of 567 of personal liberty thereby accepting the minority opinion in

Kharak Singh v. State of U.P. & Ors.29 Another significant

jurisprudential development of this judgment is that right to

privacy as a fundamental right is not limited to Article 21. On the

contrary, privacy resonates through the entirety of Part III of the

Constitution which pertains to fundamental rights and, in

particular, Articles 14, 19 and 21. Privacy is also recognised as a

natural right which inheres in individuals and is, thus, inalienable.

In developing the aforesaid concepts, the Court has been

receptive to the principles in international law and international

instruments. It is a recognition of the fact that certain human

rights cannot be confined within the bounds of geographical

location of a nation but have universal application. In the

process, the Court accepts the concept of universalisation of

human rights, including the right to privacy as a human right and

the good practices in developing and understanding such rights in

other countries have been welcomed. In this hue, it can also be

remarked that comparative law has played a very significant role

in shaping the aforesaid judgment on privacy in Indian context,

notwithstanding the fact that such comparative law has only a

persuasive value.

29 AIR 1963 SC 1295 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 166 of 567

85) The whole process of reasoning contained in different opinions of

the Hon’ble Judges would, thus, reflect that the argument that it is

difficult to precisely define the common denominator of privacy,

was rejected. While doing so, the Court referred to various

approaches in formulating privacy30. An astute and sagacious

analysis of the judgment by the Centre for Internet and Society

brings about the following approaches which contributed to

formulating the following right to privacy:

(a) Classifying privacy on the basis of ‘harms’, thereby adopting

the approach conceptualised by Daniel Solove. In his book,

Understanding Privacy31, Daniel Solove makes a case for privacy

being a family resemblance concept.

(b) Classifying privacy on the basis of ‘interests’: Gary

Bostwick’s taxonomy of privacy is among the most prominent

amongst the scholarship that sub-areas within the right to privacy

protect different ‘interests’ or ‘justifications’. This taxonomy is

adopted in Chelameswar, J.’s definition of ‘privacy’ and includes

the three interests of privacy of repose, privacy of sanctuary and

privacy of intimate decision. Repose is the ‘right to be let alone’,

sanctuary is the interest which prevents others from knowing,

30 See the analysis of this judgment by the Centre for Internet and Society, https://cis- india.org/internet-governance/blog/the-fundamental-right-to-privacy-an-analysis 31 Daniel Solove, Understanding Privacy, Cambridge, Massachusetts: Harvard University Press, 2008.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 167 of 567 seeing and hearing thus keeping information within the private

zone, and finally, privacy of intimate decision protects the

freedom to act autonomously.

(c) Classifying privacy as an ‘aggregation of rights’: This

approach in classifying privacy as a right, as highlighted above, is

not limited to one particular provision in the Chapter of

Fundamental Rights under the Constitution but is associated with

amalgam of different but connected rights. In formulating this

principle, the Court has referred to scholars like Roger Clarke,

Anita Allen etc. It has led to the recognition of private spaces or

zones as protected under the right to privacy (thereby extending

the ambit and scope of spatial privacy), informational privacy and

decisional autonomy.

86) The important question that arises, which is directly involved in

these cases, is:

What is the scope of the right to privacy and in what

circumstances such a right can be limited?

87) Concededly, fundamental rights are not absolute. The

Constitution itself permits State to impose reasonable restrictions

on these rights under certain circumstances. Thus, extent and

scope of the right to privacy and how and when it can be limited

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 168 of 567 by the State actions is also to be discerned. As noted above,

Nariman, J. has led the path by observing that “when it comes to

restrictions on this right, the drill of various Articles to which the

right relates must be scrupulously followed”. Therefore,

examination has to be from the point of view of Articles 14, 19

and 21 for the reason that right to privacy is treated as having

intimate connection to various rights in Part III and is not merely

related to Article 21. Looked from this angle, the action of the

State will have to be tested on the touchstone of Article 14. This

judgment clarifies that the ‘classification’ test adopted earlier has

to be expanded and instead the law/action is to be tested on the

ground of ‘manifest arbitrariness’. This aspect has already been

discussed in detail under the caption ‘Scope of Judicial Review’

above. When it comes to examining the ‘restrictions’ as per the

provisions of Article 19 of the Constitution, the judgment proceeds

to clarify that a law which impacts dignity and liberty under Article

21, as well as having chilling effects on free speech which is

protected by Article 19(1)(a), must satisfy the standards of judicial

review under both provisions. Therefore, such restriction must

satisfy the test of judicial review under: (i) one of the eight

grounds mentioned under Article 19(2); and (ii) the restriction

should be reasonable. This Court has applied multiple standards

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 169 of 567 to determine reasonableness, including proximity, arbitrariness,

and proportionality. Further, the reasonable restrictions must be

in the interests of: (i) the sovereignty and integrity of India, (ii) the

security of the State, (iii) friendly relations with foreign States, (iv)

public order, (v) decency or morality or (vi) in relation to contempt

of court, (vii) defamation or (viii) incitement to an offence.

88) The judgment further lays down that in the context of Article 21,

the test to be applied while examining a particular provision is the

‘just, fair and reasonable test’ thereby bringing notion of

proportionality.

89) The petitioners have sought to build their case on the aforesaid

parameters of privacy and have submitted that this right of

privacy, which is now recognised as a fundamental right, stands

violated by the very fabric contained in the scheme of Aadhaar. It

is sought to be highlighted that the data which is collected by the

State, particularly with the authentication of each transaction

entered into by an individual, can be assimilated to construct a

profile of such an individual and it particularly violates

informational privacy. No doubt, there can be reasonable

restrictions on this right, which is conceded by the petitioners. It

is, however, argued that right to privacy cannot be impinged

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 170 of 567 without a just, fair and reasonable law. Therefore, in the first

instance, any intrusion into the privacy of a person has to be

backed by a law. Further, such a law, to be valid, has to pass the

test of legitimate aim which it should serve and also

proportionality i.e. proportionate to the need for such interference.

Not only this, the law in question must also provide procedural

guarantees against abuse of such interference.

90) At the same time, it can also be deduced from the reading of the

aforesaid judgment that the reasonable expectation of privacy

may vary from the intimate zone to the private zone and from the

private zone to the public arena. Further, privacy is not lost or

surrendered merely because the individual is in a public place.

For example, if a person was to post on Facebook vital

information about himself, the same being in public domain, he

would not be entitled to claim privacy right. This aspect is

highlighted by some of the Hon’ble Judges as under:

Dr. D.Y. Chandrachud, J.:

“297. What, then, does privacy postulate? Privacy postulates the reservation of a private space for the individual, described as the right to be let alone. The concept is founded on the autonomy of the individual. The ability of an individual to make choices lies at the core of the human personality. The notion of privacy enables the individual to assert and control the human element which is inseparable from the personality of the individual. The inviolable nature of the human personality is manifested in

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 171 of 567 the ability to make decisions on matters intimate to human life. The autonomy of the individual is associated over matters which can be kept private. These are concerns over which there is a legitimate expectation of privacy. The body and the mind are inseparable elements of the human personality. The integrity of the body and the sanctity of the mind can exist on the foundation that each individual possesses an inalienable ability and right to preserve a private space in which the human personality can develop. Without the ability to make choices, the inviolability of the personality would be in doubt. Recognising a zone of privacy is but an acknowledgment that each individual must be entitled to chart and pursue the course of development of personality. Hence privacy is a postulate of human dignity itself. Thoughts and behavioural patterns which are intimate to an individual are entitled to a zone of privacy where one is free of social expectations. In that zone of privacy, an individual is not judged by others. Privacy enables each individual to take crucial decisions which find expression in the human personality. It enables individuals to preserve their beliefs, thoughts, expressions, ideas, ideologies, preferences and choices against societal demands of homogeneity. Privacy is an intrinsic recognition of heterogeneity, of the right of the individual to be different and to stand against the tide of conformity in creating a zone of solitude. Privacy protects the individual from the searching glare of publicity in matters which are personal to his or her life. Privacy attaches to the person and not to the place where it is associated. Privacy constitutes the foundation of all liberty because it is in privacy that the individual can decide how liberty is best exercised. Individual dignity and privacy are inextricably linked in a pattern woven out of a thread of diversity into the fabric of a plural culture.

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299. Privacy represents the core of the human personality and recognises the ability of each individual to make choices and to take decisions governing matters intimate and personal. Yet, it is necessary to acknowledge that individuals live in communities and work in communities.

Their personalities affect and, in turn are shaped by their social environment. The individual is not a hermit. The lives of individuals are as much a social phenomenon. In their interactions with others, individuals are constantly engaged in behavioural patterns and in relationships impacting on Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 172 of 567 the rest of society. Equally, the life of the individual is being consistently shaped by cultural and social values imbibed from living in the community. This state of flux which represents a constant evolution of individual personhood in the relationship with the rest of society provides the rationale for reserving to the individual a zone of repose. The lives which individuals lead as members of society engender a reasonable expectation of privacy. The notion of a reasonable expectation of privacy has elements both of a subjective and objective nature. Privacy at a subjective level is a reflection of those areas where an individual desires to be left alone. On an objective plane, privacy is defined by those constitutional values which shape the content of the protected zone where the individual ought to be left alone. The notion that there must exist a reasonable expectation of privacy ensures that while on the one hand, the individual has a protected zone of privacy, yet on the other, the exercise of individual choices is subject to the rights of others to lead orderly lives. For instance, an individual who possesses a plot of land may decide to build upon it subject to zoning regulations. If the building bye- laws define the area upon which construction can be raised or the height of the boundary wall around the property, the right to privacy of the individual is conditioned by regulations designed to protect the interests of the community in planned spaces. Hence while the individual is entitled to a zone of privacy, its extent is based not only on the subjective expectation of the individual but on an objective principle which defines a reasonable expectation.

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307. The sphere of privacy stretches at one end to those intimate matters to which a reasonable expectation of privacy may attach. It expresses a right to be left alone. A broader connotation which has emerged in academic literature of a comparatively recent origin is related to the protection of one's identity. Data protection relates closely with the latter sphere. Data such as medical information would be a category to which a reasonable expectation of privacy attaches. There may be other data which falls outside the reasonable expectation paradigm. Apart from safeguarding privacy, data protection regimes seek to protect the autonomy of the individual. This is evident from the emphasis in the European data protection regime on the centrality of consent. Related to the issue of consent is the requirement of transparency which requires a Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 173 of 567 disclosure by the data recipient of information pertaining to data transfer and use.”

S.A. Bobde, J:

“421. Shri Rakesh Dwivedi, appearing for the State of Gujarat, while referring to several judgments of the Supreme Court of the United States, submitted that only those privacy claims which involve a “reasonable expectation of privacy” be recognised as protected by the fundamental right. It is not necessary for the purpose of this case to deal with the particular instances of privacy claims which are to be recognised as implicating a fundamental right. Indeed, it would be premature to do so. The scope and ambit of a constitutional protection of privacy can only be revealed to us on a case-by-case basis.”

91) Though Nariman, J. did not subscribe to the aforesaid view in

totality, however, His Lordship has also given an example that if a

person has to post on Facebook vital information, the same being

in public domain, she would not be entitled to the claim of privacy

right.

92) We would also like to reproduce following discussion, in the

opinion authored by Nariman, J., giving the guidance as to how a

law has to be tested when it is challenged on the ground that it

violates the fundamental right to privacy:

“...Statutory provisions that deal with aspects of privacy would continue to be tested on the ground that they would violate the fundamental right to privacy, and would not be struck down, if it is found on a balancing test that the social or public interest and the reasonableness of the restrictions would outweigh the particular aspect of privacy claimed. If this is so, then statutes which would enable the State to contractually obtain information about persons would pass muster in given circumstances, provided they safeguard the individual right to privacy as well. A Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 174 of 567 simple example would suffice. If a person was to paste on Facebook vital information about himself/herself, such information, being in the public domain, could not possibly be claimed as a privacy right after such disclosure. But, in pursuance of a statutory requirement, if certain details need to be given for the statutory purpose concerned, then such details would certainly affect the right to privacy, but would on a balance, pass muster as the State action concerned has sufficient inbuilt safeguards to protect this right—viz. the fact that such information cannot be disseminated to anyone else, save on compelling grounds of public interest.”

93) One important comment which needs to be made at this stage

relates to the standard of judicial review while examining the

validity of a particular law that allegedly infringes right to privacy.

The question is as to whether the Court is to apply ‘strict scrutiny’

standard or the ‘just, fair and reasonableness’ standard. In the

privacy judgment, different observations are made by different

Hon’ble Judges and the aforesaid aspect is not determined

authoritatively, may be for the reason that the Bench was

deciding the reference on the issue as to whether right to privacy

is a fundamental right or not and, in the process, it was called

upon to decide the specific questions referred to it. We have

dealt with this aspect at the appropriate stage.

Principles of Human Dignity:

94) While undertaking the analysis of the judgment in K.S.

Puttaswamy, we have mentioned that one of the attributes laid

down therein is that the sanctity of privacy lies in its functional Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 175 of 567 relationship with dignity. Privacy is the constitutional core of

human dignity. In the context of Aadhaar scheme how the

concept of human dignity is to be applied assumes significance.

95) In Common Cause v. Union of India32, the concept of human

dignity has been explained in much detail 33. The concept of

human dignity developed in the said judgment was general in

nature which is based on right to autonomy and right of choice

and it has become a constitutional value. In the last 40 years or

so, this Court has given many landmark judgments wherein

concept of human dignity is recognised as an attribute of

fundamental rights. In the earlier years, though the meaning and

scope of human dignity by itself was not expanded, this exercise

has been undertaken in last few years. Earlier judgments have

mentioned that human dignity is the intrinsic value of every

human being and, in the process, a person’s autonomy as an

attribute of dignity stands recognised. The judgments rendered in

the last few years have attempted to provide jurisprudential basis

to the concept of human dignity itself.

96) In National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India & Ors. 34

while recognising the right of transgenders of self determination

32 (2018) 5 SCC 1 33 See paras 72-79 of the judgment 34 (2014) 5 SCC 438 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 176 of 567 of their sex, the Court explained the contours of human dignity in

the following words:

“106. The basic principle of the dignity and freedom of the individual is common to all nations, particularly those having democratic set up. Democracy requires us to respect and develop the free spirit of human being which is responsible for all progress in human history. Democracy is also a method by which we attempt to raise the living standard of the people and to give opportunities to every person to develop his/her personality. It is founded on peaceful co-existence and cooperative living. If democracy is based on the recognition of the individuality and dignity of man, as a fortiori we have to recognize the right of a human being to choose his sex/gender identity which is integral to his/her personality and is one of the most basic aspect of self-determination, dignity and freedom. In fact, there is a growing recognition that the true measure of development of a nation is not economic growth; it is human dignity.

107. More than 225 years ago, Immanuel Kant propounded the doctrine of free will, namely, the free willing individual as a natural law ideal. Without going into the detailed analysis of his aforesaid theory of justice (as we are not concerned with the analysis of his jurisprudence) what we want to point out is his emphasis on the “freedom” of human volition. The concepts of volition and freedom are “pure”, that is not drawn from experience. They are independent of any particular body of moral or legal rules.

They are presuppositions of all such rules, valid and necessary for all of them.

108. Over a period of time, two divergent interpretations of the Kantian criterion of justice came to be discussed. One trend was an increasing stress on the maximum of individual freedom of action as the end of law. This may not be accepted and was criticised by the protagonist of “hedonist utilitarianism”, notably Bentham. This school of thought laid emphasis on the welfare of the society rather than an individual by propounding the principle of maximum of happiness to most of the people. Fortunately, in the instant case, there is no such dichotomy between the individual freedom/liberty we are discussing, as against public good. On the contrary, granting the right to choose gender leads to public good. The second tendency of the Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 177 of 567 Kantian criterion of justice was found in reinterpreting “freedom” in terms not merely of absence of restraint but in terms of attainment of individual perfection. It is this latter trend with which we are concerned in the present case and this holds good even today. As pointed out above, after the Second World War, in the form of the UN Charter and thereafter there is more emphasis on the attainment of individual perfection. In that united sense at least there is a revival of the natural law theory of justice. Blackstone, in the opening pages in his “Vattelian Fashion” said that the principal aim of society “is to protect individuals in the enjoyment of those absolute rights which were vested in them by the immutable laws of nature….”

97) Thus, right of choice and right of self determination were

accepted as facets of human dignity. It was also emphasised that

in certain cases, like the case at hand (that of transgenders),

recognition of this aspect of human dignity would yield happiness

to the individuals and, at the same time, also be in public good.

98) Advancement in conceptualising the doctrine of human dignity

took place in the case of Shabnam v. Union of India & Ors. 35

wherein this Court has gone to the extent of protecting certain

rights of death convicts by holding that they cannot be executed

till they exhaust all available constitutional and statutory

remedies. In the process, the Court held as under:

““15. This right to human dignity has many elements. First and foremost, human dignity is the dignity of each human being 'as a human being'. Another element, which needs to be highlighted, in the context of the present case, is that human dignity is infringed if a person's life, physical or mental welfare is harmed. It is in this sense torture,

35 (2015) 6 SCC 702 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 178 of 567 humiliation, forced labour, etc. all infringe on human dignity.

It is in this context many rights of the accused derive from his dignity as a human being. These may include the presumption that every person is innocent until proven guilty; the right of the accused to a fair trial as well as speedy trial; right of legal aid, all part of human dignity. Even after conviction, when a person is spending prison life, allowing humane conditions in jail is part of human dignity. Prisons reforms or Jail reforms measures to make convicts a reformed person so that they are able to lead normal life and assimilate in the society, after serving the jail term, are motivated by human dignity jurisprudence.

16. In fact, this principle of human dignity has been used frequently by Courts in the context of considering the death penalty itself. Way back in the year 1972, the United States Supreme Court kept in mind this aspect in the case of Furman v. Georgia 408 US 238 (1972). The Court, speaking through Brennan, J., while considering the application of Eighth Amendment's prohibition on cruel and unusual punishments, summed up the previous jurisprudence on the Amendment as 'prohibit(ing) the infliction of uncivilized and inhuman punishments. The State, even as it punishes, must treat its members with respect for their intrinsic worth as human beings. A punishment is 'cruel and unusual', therefore, if it does not comport with human dignity'. In Gregg v. Georgia 428 US 153 (1976), that very Court, again through Brennan, J., considered that 'the fatal constitutional infirmity in the punishment of death is that it treats “members of the human race as non-humans, as objects to be toyed with an discarded. (It is), thus, inconsistent with the fundamental premise of the clause that even the vilest criminal remains a human being possessed of common human dignity'. The Canadian Supreme Court, the Hungarian Constitutional Court and the South African Supreme Court have gone to the extent of holding that capital punishment constitutes a serious impairment of human dignity and imposes a limitation on the essential content of the fundamental rights to life and human dignity and on that touchstone declaring that dignity as unconstitutional.”

99) Next judgment in this line of cases would be that of Jeeja Ghosh

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 179 of 567 & Another v. Union of India & Ors.36 wherein the Court, while

expanding the jurisprudential basis, outlined three models of

dignity which have been discussed by us above. These were

referred to while explaining the normative role of human dignity,

alongside, in the following manner:

“37. The rights that are guaranteed to differently-abled persons under the 1995 Act, are founded on the sound principle of human dignity which is the core value of human right and is treated as a significant facet of right to life and liberty. Such a right, now treated as human right of the persons who are disabled, has it roots in Article 21 of the Constitution. Jurisprudentially, three types of models for determining the content of the constitutional value of human dignity are recognised. These are: (i) Theological Models, (ii) Philosophical Models, and (iii) Constitutional Models. Legal scholars were called upon to determine the theological basis of human dignity as a constitutional value and as a constitutional right. Philosophers also came out with their views justifying human dignity as core human value. Legal understanding is influenced by theological and philosophical views, though these two are not identical. Aquinas and Kant discussed the jurisprudential aspects of human dignity based on the aforesaid philosophies. Over a period of time, human dignity has found its way through constitutionalism, whether written or unwritten. Even right to equality is interpreted based on the value of human dignity. Insofar as India is concerned, we are not even required to take shelter under theological or philosophical theories. We have a written Constitution which guarantees human rights that are contained in Part III with the caption “Fundamental Rights”. One such right enshrined in Article 21 is right to life and liberty. Right to life is given a purposeful meaning by this Court to include right to live with dignity. It is the purposive interpretation which has been adopted by this Court to give a content of the right to human dignity as the fulfilment of the constitutional value enshrined in Article 21. Thus, human dignity is a constitutional value and a constitutional goal. What are the dimensions of constitutional value of human dignity? It is

36 (2016) 7 SCC 761 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 180 of 567 beautifully illustrated by Aharon Barak (former Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of Israel) in the following manner:

“The constitutional value of human dignity has a central normative role. Human dignity as a constitutional value is the factor that unites the human rights into one whole. It ensures the normative unity of human rights. This normative unity is expressed in the three ways: first, the value of human dignity serves as a normative basis for constitutional rights set out in the Constitution; second, it serves as an interpretative principle for determining the scope of constitutional rights, including the right to human dignity; third, the value of human dignity has an important role in determining the proportionality of a statute limiting a constitutional right.”

38. All the three goals of human dignity as a constitutional value are expanded by the author in a scholarly manner.

Some of the excerpts thereof, are reproduced below which give a glimpse of these goals:

“The first role of human dignity as a constitutional value is expressed in the approach that it comprises the foundation for all of the constitutional rights. Human dignity is the central argument for the existence of human rights. It is the rationale for them all. It is the justification for the existence of rights. According to Christoph Enders, it is the constitutional value that determines that every person has the right to have rights…

The second role of human dignity as a constitutional value is to provide meaning to the norms of the legal system. According to purposive interpretation, all of the provisions of the Constitution, and particularly all of the rights in the constitutional bill of rights, are interpreted in light of human dignity…

Lastly, human dignity as a constitutional value influences the development of the common law. Indeed, where common law is recognised, Judges have the duty to develop it, and if necessary, modify it, so that it expresses constitutional values, including the constitutional value of human dignity. To the extent that common law determines rights and duties between individuals, it might limit the human dignity of Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 181 of 567 one individual and protect the human dignity of the other.”

100) The concept was developed and expanded further in K.S.

Puttaswamy. The Court held that privacy postulates the

reservation of a private space for an individual, described as the

right to be let alone, as a concept founded on autonomy of the

individual. In this way, right to privacy has been treated as a

postulate of human dignity itself. While defining so, the Court

also remarked as under:

“298. Privacy of the individual is an essential aspect of dignity. Dignity has both an intrinsic and instrumental value. As an intrinsic value, human dignity is an entitlement or a constitutionally protected interest in itself. In its instrumental facet, dignity and freedom are inseparably intertwined, each being a facilitative tool to achieve the other. The ability of the individual to protect a zone of privacy enables the realisation of the full value of life and liberty... The family, marriage, procreation and sexual orientation are all integral to the dignity of the individual. Above all, the privacy of the individual recognises an inviolable right to determine how freedom shall be exercised...”

101) This concept of dignity took a leap forwarded in the case of

Common Cause v. Union of India37 pertaining to passive

euthanasia. Though this right was earlier recognised in Aruna

Ramachandra Shanbaug v. Union of India & Ors.38, a totally new

dimension was given to this right, based on freedom of choice

37 (2018) 5 SCC 1 38 (2011) 4 SCC 454 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 182 of 567 which is to be given to an individual accepting his dignity. There

were four concurring opinions. In one of the opinions 39, the

aspects of dignity are succinctly brought out in the following

manner:

“154. Dignity of an individual has been internationally recognised as an important facet of human rights in the year 1948 itself with the enactment of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. Human dignity not only finds place in the Preamble of this important document but also in Article 1 of the same. It is well known that the principles set out in UDHR are of paramount importance and are given utmost weightage while interpreting human rights all over the world. The first and foremost responsibility fixed upon the State is the protection of human dignity without which any other right would fall apart. Justice Brennan in his book The Constitution of the United States:

Contemporary Ratification has referred to the Constitution as “a sparkling vision of the supremacy of the human dignity of every individual”.

155. In fact, in Christine Goodwin v. United Kingdom the European Court of Human Rights, speaking in the context of the Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms, has gone to the extent of stating that “the very essence of the Convention is respect for human dignity and human freedom”. In the South African case of S. v. Makwanyane, O’Regan, J. stated in the Constitutional Court that “without dignity, human life is substantially diminished”.

xx xx xx

157. The concept and value of dignity requires further elaboration since we are treating it as an inextricable facet of right to life that respects all human rights that a person enjoys. Life is basically self-assertion. In the life of a person, conflict and dilemma are expected to be normal phenomena. Oliver Wendell Holmes, in one of his addresses, quoted a line from a Latin poet who had uttered the message, “Death plucks my ear and says, Live—I am coming”. That is the significance of living. But when a 39 Rendered by Dipak Misra, CJI Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 183 of 567 patient really does not know if he/she is living till death visits him/her and there is constant suffering without any hope of living, should one be allowed to wait? Should she/he be cursed to die as life gradually ebbs out from her/his being? Should she/he live because of innovative medical technology or, for that matter, should he/she continue to live with the support system as people around him/her think that science in its progressive invention may bring about an innovative method of cure? To put it differently, should he/she be “Guinea pig” for some kind of experiment? The answer has to be an emphatic “No” because such futile waiting mars the pristine concept of life, corrodes the essence of dignity and erodes the fact of eventual choice which is pivotal to privacy.

xx xx xx

159. In Mehmood Nayyar Azam v. State of Chhattisgarh, a two-Judge Bench held thus: (SCC p. 6, para 1)

“1. … Albert Schweitzer, highlighting on Glory of Life, pronounced with conviction and humility, “the reverence of life offers me my fundamental principle on morality”. The aforesaid expression may appear to be an individualistic expression of a great personality, but, when it is understood in the complete sense, it really denotes, in its conceptual essentiality, and connotes, in its macrocosm, the fundamental perception of a thinker about the respect that life commands. The reverence of life is insegregably associated with the dignity of a human being who is basically divine, not servile. A human personality is endowed with potential infinity and it blossoms when dignity is sustained. The sustenance of such dignity has to be the superlative concern of every sensitive soul. The essence of dignity can never be treated as a momentary spark of light or, for that matter, “a brief candle”, or “a hollow bubble”. The spark of life gets more resplendent when man is treated with dignity sans humiliation, for every man is expected to lead an honourable life which is a splendid gift of “creative intelligence”.”

xx xx xx

166. The purpose of saying so is only to highlight that the law must take cognizance of the changing society and Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 184 of 567 march in consonance with the developing concepts. The need of the present has to be served with the interpretative process of law. However, it is to be seen how much strength and sanction can be drawn from the Constitution to consummate the changing ideology and convert it into a reality. The immediate needs are required to be addressed through the process of interpretation by the Court unless the same totally falls outside the constitutional framework or the constitutional interpretation fails to recognise such dynamism. The Constitution Bench in Gian Kaur [Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab, (1996) 2 SCC 648 : 1996 SCC (Cri) 374] , as stated earlier, distinguishes attempt to suicide and abetment of suicide from acceleration of the process of natural death which has commenced. The authorities, we have noted from other jurisdictions, have observed the distinctions between the administration of lethal injection or certain medicines to cause painless death and non-administration of certain treatment which can prolong the life in cases where the process of dying that has commenced is not reversible or withdrawal of the treatment that has been given to the patient because of the absolute absence of possibility of saving the life. To explicate, the first part relates to an overt act whereas the second one would come within the sphere of informed consent and authorised omission. The omission of such a nature will not invite any criminal liability if such action is guided by certain safeguards. The concept is based on non-prolongation of life where there is no cure for the state the patient is in and he, under no circumstances, would have liked to have such a degrading state. The words “no cure” have to be understood to convey that the patient remains in the same state of pain and suffering or the dying process is delayed by means of taking recourse to modern medical technology. It is a state where the treating physicians and the family members know fully well that the treatment is administered only to procrastinate the continuum of breath of the individual and the patient is not even aware that he is breathing. Life is measured by artificial heartbeats and the patient has to go through this undignified state which is imposed on him. The dignity of life is denied to him as there is no other choice but to suffer an avoidable protracted treatment thereby thus indubitably casting a cloud and creating a dent in his right to live with dignity and face death with dignity, which is a preserved concept of bodily autonomy and right to privacy. In such a stage, he has no old memories or any future hopes but he is in a state of misery which nobody ever desires to have.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 185 of 567 Some may also silently think that death, the inevitable factum of life, cannot be invited. To meet such situations, the Court has a duty to interpret Article 21 in a further dynamic manner and it has to be stated without any trace of doubt that the right to life with dignity has to include the smoothening of the process of dying when the person is in a vegetative state or is living exclusively by the administration of artificial aid that prolongs the life by arresting the dignified and inevitable process of dying. Here, the issue of choice also comes in. Thus analysed, we are disposed to think that such a right would come within the ambit of Article 21 of the Constitution.”

102) In the other opinion40, four facets of euthanasia were discussed,

namely: (i) philosophy of euthanasia, (ii) morality of euthanasia,

(iii) dignity in euthanasia, and (iv) economics of euthanasia.

While discussing dignity in euthanasia, the three models of

dignity, namely, theological, philosophical and constitutional

model, were highlighted. Thereafter, postulates of dignity have

been explained in the following manner:

“292. Aharon Barak, former Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of Israel, attributes two roles to the concept of human dignity as a constitutional value, which are:

292.1. Human dignity lays a foundation for all the human rights as it is the central argument for the existence of human rights.

292.2. Human dignity as a constitutional value provides meaning to the norms of the legal system. In the process, one can discern that the principle of purposive interpretation exhorts us to interpret all the rights given by the Constitution, in the light of the human dignity. In this sense, human dignity influences the purposive interpretation of the Constitution. Not only this, it also influences the interpretation of every sub-constitutional norm in the legal system. Moreover, human dignity as a 40 Rendered by A.K. Sikri, J.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 186 of 567 constitutional value also influences the development of the common law.

xx xx xx

295. Dworkin, being a philosopher-jurist, was aware of the idea of a Constitution and of a constitutional right to human dignity. In his book, Taking Rights Seriously, he noted that everyone who takes rights seriously must give an answer to the question why human rights vis-à-vis the State exist. According to him, in order to give such an answer one must accept, as a minimum, the idea of human dignity. As he writes:

“Human dignity … associated with Kant, but defended by philosophers of different schools, supposes that there are ways of treating a man that are inconsistent with recognising him as a full member of the human community, and holds that such treatment is profoundly unjust.”41

296. In his Book, Is Democracy Possible Here?42 Dworkin develops two principles about the concept of human dignity. First principle regards the intrinsic value of every person viz. every person has a special objective value which value is not only important to that person alone but success or failure of the lives of every person is important to all of us. The second principle, according to Dworkin, is that of personal responsibility. According to this principle, every person has the responsibility for success in his own life and, therefore, he must use his discretion regarding the way of life that will be successful from his point of view. Thus, Dworkin's jurisprudence of human dignity is founded on the aforesaid two principles which, together, not only define the basis but the conditions for human dignity. Dworkin went on to develop and expand these principles in his book, Justice for Hedgehogs (2011)43.

297. When speaking of rights, it is impossible to envisage it without dignity. In his pioneering and all-inclusive Justice for Hedgehogs, he proffered an approach where respect for human dignity, entails two requirements; first, self- respect i.e. taking the objective importance of one's own

41 Ronald Dworkin, Taking Rights Seriously (A&C Black, 2013) 239. 42 Ronald Dworkin, Is Democracy Possible Here? Principles for a New Political Debate (Princeton University Press, 2006) 43 Harvard University Press, 2011.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 187 of 567 life seriously; this represents the free will of the person, his capacity to think for himself and to control his own life and second, authenticity i.e. accepting a “special, personal responsibility for identifying what counts as success” in one's own life and for creating that life “through a coherent narrative” that one has chosen44. According to Dworkin, these principles form the fundamental criteria supervising what we should do in order to live well.45 They further explicate the rights that individuals have against their political community,46 and they provide a rationale for the moral duties we owe to others. This notion of dignity, which Dworkin gives utmost importance to, is indispensable to any civilised society. It is what is constitutionally recognised in our country and for good reason. Living well is a moral responsibility of individuals; it is a continuing process that is not a static condition of character but a mode that an individual constantly endeavours to imbibe. A life lived without dignity, is not a life lived at all for living well implies a conception of human dignity which Dworkin interprets includes ideals of self-respect and authenticity.”

103) In summation, it can be said that the concept of human dignity

dates back to thousands of years. Historically, human dignity, as

a concept, found its origin in different religions which is held to be

an important component of their theological approach. Jurists

have given this approach as ‘theological model’ of dignity. It is

primarily based on the premise that human beings are the

creation of God and cannot be treated as mere material beings.

Human identity is more ethical than spiritual because man is

creation of God; harm to a human being is harm to God. God,

thus, wishes to grant human being recognition, dignity and

44 Kenneth W. Simons, “Dworkin's Two Principle of Dignity: An Unsatisfactory Non- Consequentialist Account of Interpersonal Moral Duties”, 90 Boston Law Rev. 715 (2010)] 45 Footnote 33 above.

46 Footnote 32 above.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 188 of 567 authority. It is also religious belief that God is rational and

determines his goals for himself. Likewise, human being created

by God too is rational and determines his own goal. Therefore,

man has freedom of will. A couple of centuries ago, philosophical

approach was given to the conception of human dignity. This

sphere was headed by German Philosopher Immanuel Kant

whose moral theory is divided into two parts: ethics and right.

According to Kant, a person acts ethically when he acts by force

of a duty that a rational agent self-legislates onto his own will.

Thus, he talked of free will of the human being. For Kant, ethics

include duties of oneself (for example - to develop one's talents)

and to others (for example - to contribute to their happiness).

This ability is the human dignity of man. Philosophical approach,

thus, is metaethical one, which is a journey from ‘human being’

and ‘remaining human’. This is explained by Professor Upendra

Baxi as the relationship between ‘self’, ‘others’ and ‘society’. In

this philosophical sense, dignity is ‘respect’ for an individual

person based on the principle of freedom and capacity of making

choices and a good or just social order is one which respects

dignity via assuring ‘contexts’ and ‘conditions’ as the ‘source of

free and informed choice’. To put it philosophically, each

individual has a right to live her life the way she wants, without

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 189 of 567 any subjugation. One can rule others, but then it is never noble.

It is immoral because the other is not a means to you, the other is

an end to herself. Kant also maintains that to use the other as a

means is the basic immoral act. Everything else that is immoral

is immoral because of this, so this should be the criterion: Are

you using the other as a means? Someone has put this

remarkably in the following words:

“Alexander the Great is not noble, only Gautam the Buddha is noble, for the simple reason that Buddha has no rule over others but he is a matter of himself.

There is no part of his being which is not in tune with him. He has come to attain absolute harmony. There is no conflict in him, there is a reign of absolute peace. And his consciousness is supreme, nothing is above it – no instinct, no intellect, nothing is higher than his consciousness.”

104) Historically, a transition has taken place into the idea of dignity by

transforming the amalgam of theological approach (man as

creation of God deserving dignity) and philosophical approach

based on morality, by elevating human dignity as a constitutional

norm attaching constitutional value to it. It is a transition from

‘respect’ to ‘right’ by making respect as enforceable right. The

manner in which it has happened in India has been traced above.

105) From the aforesaid discussion, it follows that dignity as a

jurisprudential concept has now been well defined by this Court.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 190 of 567 Its essential ingredients can be summarised as under:

The basic principle of dignity and freedom of the individual

is an attribute of natural law which becomes the right of all

individuals in a constitutional democracy. Dignity has a central

normative role as well as constitutional value. This normative role

is performed in three ways:

First, it becomes basis for constitutional rights;

Second, it serves as an interpretative principle for

determining the scope of constitutional rights; and,

Third, it determines the proportionality of a statute limiting a

constitutional right. Thus, if an enactment puts limitation on a

constitutional right and such limitation is disproportionate, such a

statute can be held to be unconstitutional by applying the doctrine

of proportionality.

106) As per Dworkin, there are two principles about the concept of

human dignity. First principle regards an ‘intrinsic value’ of every

person, namely, every person has a special objective value,

which value is not only important to that person alone but

success or failure of the lives of every person is important to all of

us. It can also be described as self respect which represents the

free will of the person, her capacity to think for herself and to

control her own life. The second principle is that of ‘personal Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 191 of 567 responsibility’, which means every person has the responsibility

for success in her own life and, therefore, she must use her

discretion regarding the way of life that will be successful from

her point of view.

107) Sum total of this exposition is well defined by Professor Baxi by

explaining that as per the aforesaid view, dignity is to be treated

as ‘empowerment’ which makes a triple demand in the name of

‘respect’ for human dignity, namely:

(i) respect for one's capacity as an agent to make one's own free

choices;

(ii) respect for the choices so made; and

(iii) respect for one's need to have a context and conditions in

which one can operate as a source of free and informed choice.

108) In this entire formulation, ‘respect’ for an individual is the fulcrum,

which is based on the principle of freedom and capacity to make

choices and a good or just social order is one which respects

dignity via assuring ‘contexts’ and ‘conditions’ as the ‘source of

free and informed choice’.

109) The aforesaid discourse on the concept of human dignity is from

an individual point of view. That is the emphasis of the petitioners

as well. That would be one side of the coin. A very important Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 192 of 567 feature which the present case has brought into focus is another

dimension of human dignity, namely, in the form of ‘common

good’ or ‘public good’. Thus, our endeavour here is to give richer

and more nuanced understanding to the concept of human

dignity. Here, dignity is not limited to an individual and is to be

seen in an individualistic way. A reflection on this facet of human

dignity was stated in National Legal Services Authority

(Transgenders’ case), which can be discerned from the following

discussion:

“103. A corollary of this development is that while so long the negative language of Article 21 and use of the word “deprived” was supposed to impose upon the State the negative duty not to interfere with the life or liberty of an individual without the sanction of law, the width and amplitude of this provision has now imposed a positive obligation (Vincent Panikurlangara v. Union of India) upon the State to take steps for ensuring to the individual a better enjoyment of his life and dignity e.g.:

(i) Maintenance and improvement of public health (Vincent Panikurlangara v. Union of India).

(ii) Elimination of water and air pollution (M.C. Mehta v.

Union of India).

(iii) Improvement of means of communication (State of H.P. v. Umed Ram Sharma).

(iv) Rehabilitation of bonded labourers (Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India).

(v) Providing human conditions in prisons (Sher Singh v. State of Punjab) and protective homes (Sheela Barse v. Union of India).

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 193 of 567

(vi) Providing hygienic condition in a slaughterhouse (Buffalo Traders Welfare Assn. v. Maneka Gandhi).

104. The common golden thread which passes through all these pronouncements is that Article 21 guarantees enjoyment of life by all citizens of this country with dignity, viewing this human right in terms of human development.

105. The concepts of justice social, economic and political, equality of status and of opportunity and of assuring dignity of the individual incorporated in the Preamble, clearly recognise the right of one and all amongst the citizens of these basic essentials designed to flower the citizen's personality to its fullest. The concept of equality helps the citizens in reaching their highest potential. Thus, the emphasis is on the development of an individual in all respects.”

110) Christopher McCrudden, an Oxford Academic, in his article

‘Human Dignity and Judicial Interpretation of Human Rights’ 47

published in the European Journal of International Law on

September 01, 2008 traces the evolution of concept of human

dignity. In substance, his analysis is that in the early stages of

social evolution, human dignity was understood as a concept

associated with ‘status’. Only those individuals were considered

worthy of respect who enjoyed a certain status within the social

construct. Though one finds statements about dignity of humans

as human beings on account of the human being the highest

creation of God and his possession of mind and the power of

reason in the Oration of Marcus Tullius Cicero, a Roman

Politician and Philosopher (63 BC), and in the works of Pico della 47 Published in the European Journal of International Law on September 01, 2008 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 194 of 567 Mirandola, a Reformation Humanist (1486) ‘On the dignity of

man’, yet there existed human beings who were not considered

as human beings. There were slaves who were treated at par

with animals.

111) Kant expounded the theory that humans should be treated as an

end in themselves and not merely as a means to an end with

ability to choose their destiny. Emphasis was laid on the intrinsic

worth of the human being. Based on this philosophy emerged

the initial declaration of rights. Kant wrote thus:

“Humanity itself is a dignity; for a human being cannot be used merely as a means by any human being (...) but must always be used at the same time as an end. It is just in this that his dignity (personality) consists, by which he raises himself above all other beings in the world that are not human beings and yet can be used, and so overall things.”

112) Charles Bernard Renouvier, a French Philosopher, said:

“Republic is a State which best reconciles dignity of individual with dignity of everyone.”

113) Dignity extended to all citizens involves the idea of

communitarism. A little earlier in 1798, Friedrich Schiller, a

German poet of freedom and philosophy, brought out the

connection between dignity and social condition in his work

“Wurde des Menschen”. He said “(g)ive him food and shelter;

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 195 of 567 when you have covered his nakedness, dignity will follow by

itself.” It was during the period that abolition of slavery became

an important political agenda. Slavery was considered as an

affront to human dignity.

114) The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) recorded in

the Preamble recognition of the inherent dignity and of the equal

and inalienable rights of all members of the human family as the

foundation of freedom, justice and peace. It included freedom

from fear and want as amongst the highest aspirations of the

common people. This is of course subject to resources of each

State. But the realisation is contemplated through national effort

and international cooperation. Evidently, the UDHR adopts a

substantive or communitarian concept of human dignity. The

realisation of intrinsic worth of every human being, as a member

of society through national efforts as an indispensable condition

has been recognised as an important human right. Truly

speaking, this is directed towards the deprived, downtrodden and

have nots.

115) We, therefore, have to keep in mind humanistic concept of

human dignity which is to be accorded to a particular segment of

the society and, in fact, a large segment. Their human dignity is Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 196 of 567 based on the socio-economic rights that are read in to the

fundamental rights, as already discussed above.

116) When we read socio-economic rights into human dignity, the

community approach also assumes importance along with

individualistic approach to human dignity. It has now been well

recognised that at its core, human dignity contains three

elements, namely, intrinsic value, autonomy and community

value. These are known as core values of human dignity. These

three elements can assist in structuring legal reasoning and

justifying judicial choices in ‘hard cases’. It has to be borne in

mind that human dignity is a constitutional principle, rather than

free standing fundamental rights. Insofar as intrinsic value is

concerned, here human dignity is linked to the nature of being.

We may give brief description of these three contents of the idea

of human dignity as below:

(I) Intrinsic Value:

The uniqueness of human kind is the product of a

combination of inherent traits and features – including

intelligence, sensibility, and the ability to communicate – that give

humans a special status in the world, distinct from other

species.48 The intrinsic value of all individuals results in two 48 See George Kateb, Human Dignity 5 (2011) (“[W]e can distinguish between the dignity of every Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 197 of 567 basic postulates: anti-utilitarian and anti-authoritarian. The former

consists of the formulation of Kant’s categorical imperative that

every individual is an end in him or herself, not a means for

collective goals or the purposes of others. The latter is

synthesized in the idea that the State exists for the individual, not

the other way around. As for its legal implications, intrinsic value

is the origin of a set of fundamental rights. The first of these

rights is the right to life, a basic precondition for the enjoyment of

any other right. A second right directly related to the intrinsic

value of each and every individual is equality before and under

the law. All individuals are of equal value and, therefore, deserve

equal respect and concern. This means not being discriminated

against due to race, colour, ethnic or national origin, sex, age or

mental capacity (the right to non-discrimination), as well as

respect for cultural, religious, or linguistic diversity (the right to

recognition). Human dignity fulfills only part of the content of the

idea of equality, and in many situations it may be acceptable to

differentiate among people. In the contemporary world, this is

particularly at issue in cases involving affirmative action and the

rights of religious minorities. Intrinsic value also leads to the right

to integrity, both physical and mental. The right to physical

human individual and the dignity of the human species as a whole.”). Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 198 of 567 integrity includes the prohibition of torture, slave labour, and

degrading treatment or punishment. Discussions on life

imprisonment, interrogation techniques, and prison conditions

take place within the scope of this right. The right to mental

integrity comprises the right to personal honour and image and

includes the right to privacy.

(II) Autonomy:

Autonomy is the ethical element of human dignity. It is the

foundation of the free will of individuals, which entitles them to

pursue the ideals of living well and having a good life in their own

ways. The central notion is that of self-determination: An

autonomous person establishes the rules that will govern his or

her life. Kantian conception of autonomy is the will governed by

the moral law (moral autonomy). Here, we are concerned with

personal autonomy, which is value neutral and means the free

exercise of the will according to one’s own values, interests, and

desires. Autonomy requires the fulfillment of certain conditions,

such as reason (the mental capacity to make informed decisions),

independence (the absence of coercion, manipulation and severe

want), and choice (the actual existence of alternatives).

Autonomy, thus, is the ability to make personal decisions and

choices in life based on one’s conception of the good, without Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 199 of 567 undue external influences. As for its legal implications, autonomy

underlies a set of fundamental rights associated with democratic

constitutionalism, including basic freedoms (private autonomy)

and the right of political participation (public autonomy).

It would be pertinent to emphasise here that with the rise of

the welfare state, many countries in the world (and that includes

India) also consider a fundamental right to minimum living

conditions (the existential minimum) in the balancing that results

into effective autonomy. Thus, there are three facets of

autonomy, namely: private autonomy, public autonomy and the

existential minimum. Insofar as the last component is concerned,

it is also referred to as social minimum or the basic right to the

provision of adequate living conditions has its roots in right to

equality as well. In fact, equality, in a substantive sense, and

especially autonomy (both private and public), are dependent on

the fact that individuals are “free from want,” meaning that their

essential needs are satisfied. To be free, equal, and capable of

exercising responsible citizenship, individuals must pass

minimum thresholds of well-being, without which autonomy is a

mere fiction. This requires access to some essential utilities,

such as basic education and health care services, as well as

some elementary necessities, such as food, water, clothing, and

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 200 of 567 shelter. The existential minimum, therefore, is the core content of

social and economic rights. This concept of minimum social right

is protected by the Court, time and again.

(III) Community Value:

This element of human dignity as community value relates

to the social dimension of dignity. The contours of human dignity

are shaped by the relationship of the individual with others, as

well as with the world around him. English poet John Donne

expresses the same sentiments when he says ‘no man is an

island, entire of itself’ 49. The individual, thus, lives within himself,

within a community, and within a state. His personal autonomy is

constrained by the values, rights, and morals of people who are

just as free and equal as him, as well as by coercive regulation.

Robert Post identified three distinct forms of social order:

community (a “shared world of common faith and fate”),

management (the instrumental organization of social life through

law to achieve specific objectives), and democracy (an

arrangement that embodies the purpose of individual and

collective self-determination. These three forms of social order

presuppose and depend on each other, but are also in constant

tension.

49 See John Donne, XVII. Mediation, in Devotions upon Emergent Occasions 107, 108-09 (Uyniv. Of Mich. Press 1959) (1624) Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 201 of 567 Dignity as a community value, therefore, emphasises the

role of the state and community in establishing collective goals

and restrictions on individual freedoms and rights on behalf of a

certain idea of the good life. The relevant question here is in

what circumstances and to what degree should these actions be

regarded as legitimate in a constitutional democracy? The liberal

predicament that the state must be neutral with regard to different

conceptions of the good in a plural society is not incompatible, of

course, with limitation resulting from the necessary coexistence of

different views and potentially conflicting rights. Such

interferences, however, must be justified on grounds of a

legitimate idea of justice, an “overlapping consensus” 50 that can

be shared by most individuals and groups. Whenever such

tension arises, the task of balancing is to be achieved by the

Courts.

We would like to highlight one more significant feature

which the issues involved in the present case bring about. It is

the balancing of two facets of dignity of the same individual.

Whereas, on the one hand, right of personal autonomy is a part

of dignity (and right to privacy), another part of dignity of the

same individual is to lead a dignified life as well (which is again a 50 “Overlapping consensus” is a term coined by John Rawls that identifies basic ideas of justice that can be shared by supporters of different religious, political, and moral comprehensive doctrines.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 202 of 567 facet of Article 21 of the Constitution). Therefore, in a scenario

where the State is coming out with welfare schemes, which strive

at giving dignified life in harmony with human dignity and in the

process some aspect of autonomy is sacrificed, the balancing of

the two becomes an important task which is to be achieved by

the Courts. For, there cannot be undue intrusion into the

autonomy on the pretext of conferment of economic benefits.

Precisely, this very exercise of balancing is undertaken by the

Court in resolving the complex issues raised in the petitions.

Doctrine of Proportionality:

117) As noted above, whenever challenge is laid to an action of the

State on the ground that it violates the right to privacy, the action

of the State is to be tested on the following parameters:

(a) the action must be sanctioned by law;

(b) the proposed action must be necessary in a democratic

society for a legitimate aim; and

(c) the extent of such interference must be proportionate to the

need for such interference.

118) Doctrine of proportionality was explained by the Constitution

Bench judgment of this Court in Modern Dental College and

Research Centre & Ors. v. State of Madhya Pradesh & Ors. 51. In

51 (2016) 7 SCC 353 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 203 of 567 the first instance, therefore, it would be apt to reproduce the said

discussion:

“60. ...Thus, while examining as to whether the impugned provisions of the statute and rules amount to reasonable restrictions and are brought out in the interest of the general public, the exercise that is required to be undertaken is the balancing of fundamental right to carry on occupation on the one hand and the restrictions imposed on the other hand. This is what is known as “doctrine of proportionality”. Jurisprudentially, “proportionality” can be defined as the set of rules determining the necessary and sufficient conditions for limitation of a constitutionally protected right by a law to be constitutionally permissible. According to Aharon Barak (former Chief Justice, Supreme Court of Israel), there are four sub-components of proportionality which need to be satisfied [Aharon Barak, Proportionality: Constitutional Rights and Their Limitation (Cambridge University Press 2012)], a limitation of a constitutional right will be constitutionally permissible if:

(i) it is designated for a proper purpose;

(ii) the measures undertaken to effectuate such a

limitation are rationally connected to the fulfilment of that purpose;

(iii) the measures undertaken are necessary in that there are no alternative measures that may similarly achieve that same purpose with a lesser degree of limitation; and finally

(iv) there needs to be a proper relation (“proportionality stricto sensu” or “balancing”) between the importance of achieving the proper purpose and the social importance of preventing the limitation on the constitutional right.

61. Modern theory of constitutional rights draws a fundamental distinction between the scope of the constitutional rights, and the extent of its protection. Insofar as the scope of constitutional rights is concerned, it marks the outer boundaries of the said rights and defines its contents. The extent of its protection prescribes the limitations on the exercises of the rights within its scope. In

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 204 of 567 that sense, it defines the justification for limitations that can be imposed on such a right.

62. It is now almost accepted that there are no absolute constitutional rights [ Though, debate on this vexed issue still continues and some constitutional experts claim that there are certain rights, albeit very few, which can still be treated as “absolute”. Examples given are:(a) Right to human dignity which is inviolable,(b) Right not to be subjected to torture or to inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment. Even in respect of such rights, there is a thinking that in larger public interest, the extent of their protection can be diminished. However, so far such attempts of the States have been thwarted by the judiciary.] and all such rights are related. As per the analysis of Aharon Barak [Aharon Barak, Proportionality:

Constitutional Rights and Their Limitation (Cambridge University Press 2012).] , two key elements in developing the modern constitutional theory of recognising positive constitutional rights along with its limitations are the notions of democracy and the rule of law. Thus, the requirement of proportional limitations of constitutional rights by a sub- constitutional law i.e. the statute, is derived from an interpretation of the notion of democracy itself. Insofar as the Indian Constitution is concerned, democracy is treated as the basic feature of the Constitution and is specifically accorded a constitutional status that is recognised in the Preamble of the Constitution itself. It is also unerringly accepted that this notion of democracy includes human rights which is the cornerstone of Indian democracy. Once we accept the aforesaid theory (and there cannot be any denial thereof), as a fortiori, it has also to be accepted that democracy is based on a balance between constitutional rights and the public interests. In fact, such a provision in Article 19 itself on the one hand guarantees some certain freedoms in clause (1) of Article 19 and at the same time empowers the State to impose reasonable restrictions on those freedoms in public interest. This notion accepts the modern constitutional theory that the constitutional rights are related. This relativity means that a constitutional licence to limit those rights is granted where such a limitation will be justified to protect public interest or the rights of others. This phenomenon—of both the right and its limitation in the Constitution—exemplifies the inherent tension between democracy's two fundamental elements. On the one hand is the right's element, which constitutes a fundamental component of substantive democracy; on the Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 205 of 567 other hand is the people element, limiting those very rights through their representatives. These two constitute a fundamental component of the notion of democracy, though this time in its formal aspect. How can this tension be resolved? The answer is that this tension is not resolved by eliminating the “losing” facet from the Constitution. Rather, the tension is resolved by way of a proper balancing of the competing principles. This is one of the expressions of the multi-faceted nature of democracy. Indeed, the inherent tension between democracy's different facets is a “constructive tension”. It enables each facet to develop while harmoniously coexisting with the others. The best way to achieve this peaceful coexistence is through balancing between the competing interests. Such balancing enables each facet to develop alongside the other facets, not in their place. This tension between the two fundamental aspects—rights on the one hand and its limitation on the other hand—is to be resolved by balancing the two so that they harmoniously coexist with each other. This balancing is to be done keeping in mind the relative social values of each competitive aspects when considered in proper context.

63. In this direction, the next question that arises is as to what criteria is to be adopted for a proper balance between the two facets viz. the rights and limitations imposed upon it by a statute. Here comes the concept of “proportionality”, which is a proper criterion. To put it pithily, when a law limits a constitutional right, such a limitation is constitutional if it is proportional. The law imposing restrictions will be treated as proportional if it is meant to achieve a proper purpose, and if the measures taken to achieve such a purpose are rationally connected to the purpose, and such measures are necessary. This essence of doctrine of proportionality is beautifully captured by Dickson, C.J. of Canada in R. v. Oakes [R. v. Oakes, (1986) 1 SCR 103 (Can SC)] , in the following words (at p. 138):

‘To establish that a limit is reasonable and demonstrably justified in a free and democratic society, two central criteria must be satisfied. First, the objective, which the measures, responsible for a limit on a Charter right or freedom are designed to serve, must be “of” sufficient importance to warrant overriding a constitutional protected right or freedom … Second … the party invoking Section 1 must show that the means chosen are reasonable and Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 206 of 567 demonstrably justified. This involves “a form of proportionality test…” Although the nature of the proportionality test will vary depending on the circumstances, in each case courts will be required to balance the interests of society with those of individuals and groups. There are, in my view, three important components of a proportionality test. First, the measures adopted must be … rationally connected to the objective. Second, the means … should impair “as little as possible” the right or freedom in question … Third, there must be a proportionality between the effects of the measures which are responsible for limiting the Charter right or freedom, and the objective which has been identified as of “sufficient importance”. The more severe the deleterious effects of a measure, the more important the objective must be if the measure is to be reasonable and demonstrably justified in a free and democratic society.’

64. The exercise which, therefore, is to be taken is to find out as to whether the limitation of constitutional rights is for a purpose that is reasonable and necessary in a democratic society and such an exercise involves the weighing up of competitive values, and ultimately an assessment based on proportionality i.e. balancing of different interests.

65. We may unhesitatingly remark that this doctrine of proportionality, explained hereinabove in brief, is enshrined in Article 19 itself when we read clause (1) along with clause (6) thereof. While defining as to what constitutes a reasonable restriction, this Court in a plethora of judgments has held that the expression “reasonable restriction” seeks to strike a balance between the freedom guaranteed by any of the sub-clauses of clause (1) of Article 19 and the social control permitted by any of the clauses (2) to (6). It is held that the expression “reasonable” connotes that the limitation imposed on a person in the enjoyment of the right should not be arbitrary or of an excessive nature beyond what is required in the interests of public. Further, in order to be reasonable, the restriction must have a reasonable relation to the object which the legislation seeks to achieve, and must not go in excess of that object (see P.P. Enterprises v. Union of India). At the same time, reasonableness of a restriction has to be determined in an objective manner and from the standpoint of the interests Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 207 of 567 of the general public and not from the point of view of the persons upon whom the restrictions are imposed or upon abstract considerations (see Mohd. Hanif Quareshi v. State of Bihar). In M.R.F. Ltd. v. State of Kerala, this Court held that in examining the reasonableness of a statutory provision one has to keep in mind the following factors:

(1) The directive principles of State policy.

(2) Restrictions must not be arbitrary or of an excessive nature so as to go beyond the requirement of the interest of the general public.

(3) In order to judge the reasonableness of the restrictions, no abstract or general pattern or a fixed principle can be laid down so as to be of universal application and the same will vary from case to case as also with regard to changing conditions, values of human life, social philosophy of the Constitution, prevailing conditions and the surrounding circumstances.

(4) A just balance has to be struck between the restrictions imposed and the social control envisaged by Article 19(6).

(5) Prevailing social values as also social needs which are intended to be satisfied by the restrictions.

(6) There must be a direct and proximate nexus or reasonable connection between the restrictions imposed and the object sought to be achieved. If there is a direct nexus between the restrictions, and the object of the Act, then a strong presumption in favour of the constitutionality of the Act will naturally arise.” (emphasis in original)

119) We may note at this stage that there is a growing awareness of

the practical importance of the principle of proportionality for

rights adjudication and it has sparked a wave of academic

scholarship as well. The first integrates the doctrine of

proportionality into a broader theoretical framework. It is

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 208 of 567 propounded by Robert Alexy, premised on the theory of rights as

principles and optimisation requirements52. For Alexy, all norms

are either rules or principles. Constitutional rights are principles,

which means that they must be realised to the greatest extent

factually and legally possible. For Alexy, the principle of

proportionality follows logically from the nature of constitutional

rights as principles. On the other hand, Mattias Kumm presented

his theory of rights adjudication as Socratic contestation, with

proportionality principle at its centre. As per Kumm,

proportionality is the doctrinal tool which allows Judges to assess

the reasonableness or plausibility, of a policy and thus to

determine whether it survives Socratic contestation 53. Recently,

Kai Moller has proposed another theory, which is an autonomy-

based theory of what he calls ‘the global model of constitutional

rights’, at the core of which lies the obligation of the State to take

the autonomy interests of every person adequately into account 54.

In this process, his understanding of autonomy leads to one

consequence, viz., there will often be conflicts of autonomy

interests, which have to be resolved in line with each agent’s

52 Robert Alexy, A Theory of Constitutional Rights, (Oxford, Oxford University Press, 2002) 53 M Kumm, ‘The Idea of Socratic Contestation and the Right to Justification: The Point and Purpose of Rights-Based Proportionality Review’ (2010) 4 Law & Ethics of Human Rights 141; M Kumm, ‘Institutionalising Socratic Contestation: The Rationalist Human Rights Paradigm, Legitimate Authority and the point of Judicial Review’ (2007) 1 European Journal of Legal Studies.

54 K Moller, The Global Model of Constitutional Rights (Oxford, Oxford University Press, 2012). Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 209 of 567 status as an equal. Here, the proportionality principle becomes

the doctrinal tool which guides Judges through the process of

resolving those conflicts.

One thing is clear from the above, i.e. jurisprudential

explanations of proportionality principle. There may be some

differences about the approach on the application of

proportionality doctrine, it is certain that proportionality has

become the lingua franca of judicial systems across borders,

concerning the circumstances under which it is appropriate to

limit fundamental rights.

120) The proportionality test which is stated in the aforesaid judgment,

accepting Justice Barak’s conceptualisation, essentially takes the

version which is used by the German Federal Constitutional

Court and is also accepted by most theorists of proportionality.

According to this test, a measure restricting a right must, first,

serve a legitimate goal (legitimate goal stage); it must, secondly,

be a suitable means of furthering this goal (suitability or rational

connection stage); thirdly, there must not be any less restrictive

but equally effective alternative (necessity stage); and fourthly,

the measure must not have a disproportionate impact on the

right-holder (balancing stage).

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 210 of 567

121) Many issues arise while undertaking the exercise of

proportionality inquiry. At legitimate goal stage, question arises

as to what does it mean to speak of the goal of a policy, and what

does it mean to require a goal to be legitimate? 55 With regard to

the suitability and necessity stages, some of the open issues are

how to deal with empirical uncertainty: should this lead to wide-

ranging deference to the elected branches? 56 At the balancing

stage, we have to ask the question of what it means to say that a

right is ‘balanced’ against a competing right or public interest.

One remarkable feature of the German test is that it tends to

push most of the important issues into the last stage, viz., the

balancing stage. At the legitimate goal stage, any goal that is

legitimate will be accepted. At the suitability stage, even a

marginal contribution to the achievement of the goal will suffice.

At the necessity stage, it is very rare for a policy to fail because

less restrictive alternatives normally come with some

disadvantage and cannot, therefore, be considered equally

effective. Thus, the balancing stage dominates the legal analysis

and is usually determinative of the outcome.

55 On this issue there is a detailed discussion in M Kumm, ‘Political Liberalism and the Structure of Rights: On the Place and Limits of the Proportionality Requirement’ in Pavlakos (ed), Law, Rights and Discourse: The Legal Philosophy of Robert Alexy (Oxford, Hart Publishing, 2007) 131; Moller, the Global Model of Constitutional Rights (Oxford, Oxford University Press, 2012) ch

7. 56 As a proposal of how to deal with uncertainty, see Alexy’s ‘Second Law of Balancing’, which he proposes in the Postscript to A Theory of Constitutional Rights (Oxford, Oxford University Press, 2002).

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 211 of 567

122) In contrast, Canadian Supreme Court has chartered different

course while using proportionality test. R. v. Oakes57 (popularly

known as Oakes test), has held that the objective must be ‘of

sufficient importance to warrant overriding a constitutionally

protected right or freedom’; there must be a rational connection

between measure and objective; the means must ‘impair “as little

as possible” the right or freedom in question’; and finally, ‘there

must be a proportionality between the effects of the measures

which are responsible for limiting the Charter right or freedom,

and the objective which has been identified as of “sufficient

importance”’. Under this test, arguably more issues are

addressed at the earlier stages. Instead of accepting any

legitimate goal, Oakes requires a goal ‘of sufficient importance to

warrant overriding a constitutionally protected right or freedom’.

And the minimal impairment test is different from the German

necessity test both in the way in which it is formulated (there is no

requirement that the less restrictive measure be equally effective)

and in the way it is applied in practice: the Canadian Supreme

Court tends to resolve cases at that stage and not, as the

German Federal Constitutional Court, at the balancing stage.

123) There is a great debate as to which out of the aforesaid two 57 (1986) 1 SCR 103 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 212 of 567 approaches is a better approach. Some jurists are of the view

that the proper application of the German test leads to a practice

of constitutional review with two connected problems: first, as

pointed about above, usually almost all the moral work is done at

the balancing stage, arguably rendering the earlier stages largely

useless and throwing doubt on the truth of the popular argument

that proportionality is a valuable doctrine partly because it

structures the analysis of rights issues in a meaningful way.

Secondly, the balancing act at the final stage is often carried out

in an impressionistic fashion which seems to be largely unguided

by principle and thus opens the door for subjective, arbitrary and

unpredictable judgments encroaching on what ought to be the

proper domain of the democratic legislature. These concerns

can, however, be addressed. According to Bilchitz 58, first concern

can be addressed by focusing on the necessity stage of the test.

He takes issue with both the German test – according to which

almost all policies are necessary because any alternative policy

will usually have some disadvantage which means that it cannot

be considered equally effective – and the Canadian minimal

impairment test – which, taken seriously, narrows down the range

of constitutionally acceptable policies far too much: ‘minimal

58 ‘Necessity and Proportionality: Towards A Balanced Approach?’, Hart Publishing, Oxford and Portland, Oregon, 2016.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 213 of 567 impairment’ can be read as insisting that only one measure could

pass constitutional scrutiny, namely the measure which impairs

the right least.59 So the alternatives seem to be either to

construct the necessity (minimal impairment) test as filtering out

almost nothing or to allow only one policy, thus rendering the

elected branches partly superfluous. In order to preserve a

meaningful but not unduly strict role for the necessity stage,

Bilchitz proposes the following inquiry. First, a range of possible

alternatives to the measure employed by the Government must

be identified. Secondly, the effectiveness of these measures

must be determined individually; the test here is not whether each

respective measure realises the governmental objective to the

same extent, but rather whether it realises it in a ‘real and

substantial manner’. Thirdly, the impact of the respective

measures on the right at stake must be determined. Finally, an

overall judgment must be made as to whether in light of the

findings of the previous steps, there exists an alternative which is

preferable; and this judgment will go beyond the strict means-

ends assessment favoured by Grimm and the German version of

the proportionality test; it will also require a form of balancing to

59 On the various problems which the Canadian Supreme Court created for itself because of its early unfortunate statements on proportionality see S Choudhry, ‘So What Is the Real Legacy of Oakes? Two Decades of Proportionality Analysis under the Canadian Charter’s Section 1’ (2006) 34 Supreme Court Law Review 501.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 214 of 567 be carried out at the necessity stage.

124) Insofar as second problem in German test is concerned, it can be

taken care of by avoiding ‘ad-hoc balancing’ and instead

proceeding on some ‘bright-line rules’ i.e. by doing the act of

balancing on the basis of some established rule or by creating a

sound rule. We may point out that whereas Chandrachud, J. has

formulated the test of ‘legitimate state interest’, other two of the

Judges, namely, Chelameswar and Sapre, JJ. have used the test

of ‘compelling state interest’ and not ‘legitimate state interest’.

On the other hand, S.K. Kaul, J. has held that the test to be

applied is whether the law satisfies ‘public interest’. Nariman, J.,

on the other hand, pointed out that the Right to Information Act,

2005 has provided for personal information being disclosed to

third parties subject to ‘larger public interest’ being satisfied. If

this test is applied, the result is that one would be entitled to

invoke ‘large public interest’ in lieu of ‘legitimate state aim’ or

‘legitimate state interest’, as a permissible restriction on a claim to

privacy of an individual – a more lenient test. However, since

judgment of Chandrachud, J. is on behalf of himself and three

other Judges and S.K. Kaul, J. has also virtually adopted the

same test, we can safely adopt the test of ‘legitimate state

interest’ as the majority opinion, instead of applying the test of Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 215 of 567 ‘compelling state interest’.

125) In Modern Dental College & Research Centre, four sub

components or proportionality which need to be satisfied were

taken note of. These are:

(a) A measure restricting a right must have a legitimate goal

(legitimate goal stage).

(b) It must be a suitable means of furthering this goal (suitability

or rationale connection stage).

(c) There must not be any less restrictive but equally effective

alternative (necessity stage).

(d) The measure must not have a disproportionate impact on

the right holder (balancing stage).

126) This has been approved in K.S. Puttaswamy as well. Therefore,

the aforesaid stages of proportionality can be looked into and

discussed. Of course, while undertaking this exercise it has also

to be seen that the legitimate goal must be of sufficient

importance to warrant overriding a constitutionally protected right

or freedom and also that such a right impairs freedom as little as

possible. This Court, in its earlier judgments, applied German

approach while applying proportionality test to the case at hand.

We would like to proceed on that very basis which, however, is

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 216 of 567 tempered with more nuanced approach as suggested by Bilchitz.

This, in fact, is the amalgam of German and Canadian approach.

We feel that the stages, as mentioned in Modern Dental College

& Research Centre and recapitulated above, would be the safe

method in undertaking this exercise, with focus on the

parameters as suggested by Bilchitz, as this projects an ideal

approach that need to be adopted.

Issues:

127) After setting the tone of the case, it is now time to specify the

precise issues which are involved that need to be decided in

these matters:

(1) Whether the Aadhaar Project creates or has tendency to create surveillance state and is, thus, unconstitutional on this ground?

(a) What is the magnitude of protection that needs to be accorded to collection, storage and usage of biometric data?

(b) Whether the Aadhaar Act and Rules provide such protection, including in respect of data minimisation, purpose limitation, time period for data retention and data protection and security?

(2) Whether the Aadhaar Act violates right to privacy and is unconstitutional on this ground?

{This issue is considered in the context of Sections 7 and 8 of the Aadhaar Act. Incidental issue of ‘Exclusion’ is also considered here}

(3) Whether children can be brought within the sweep of Sections 7 and 8 of the Aadhaar Act?

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 217 of 567 (4) Whether the following provisions of the Aadhaar Act and Regulations suffer from the vice of unconstitutionality:

(i) Sections 2(c) and 2(d) read with Section 32

(ii) Section 2(h) read with Section 10 of CIDR

(iii) Section 2(l) read with Regulation 23

(iv) Section 2(v)

(v) Section 3

(vi) Section 5

(vii) Section 6

(viii) Section 8

(ix) Section 9

(x) Sections 11 to 23

(xi) Sections 23 and 54

(xii) Section 23(2)(g) read with Chapter VI & VII – Regulations 27 to 32

(xiii) Section 29

(xiv) Section 33

(xv) Section 47 (xvi) Section 48 (xvii) Section 57 (xviii) Section 59

(5) Whether the Aadhaar Act defies the concept of Limited Government, Good Governance and Constitutional Trust?

(6) Whether the Aadhaar Act could be passed as ‘Money Bill’ within the meaning of Article 110 of the Constitution?

(7) Whether Section 139AA of the Income Tax Act, 1961 is violative of right to privacy and is, therefore, unconstitutional?

(8) Whether Rule 9(a)(17) of the Prevention of Money Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules, 2005 and the notifications issued thereunder, which mandate linking of Aadhaar with bank accounts, are unconstitutional?

(9) Whether Circular dated March 23, 2017 issued by the Department of Telecommunications mandating linking of mobile number with Aadhaar is illegal and unconstitutional?

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 218 of 567 (10) Whether certain actions of the respondents are in contravention of the interim orders passed by the Court, if so, the effect thereof?

128) We now proceed to discuss the arguments on these grounds, as

advanced by the petitioners, reply thereto and our conclusions

thereupon.

Surveillance:

Whether the Aadhaar Project creates or has tendency to create surveillance state and is, thus, unconstitutional on this ground?

Education took us from thumb impression to signature Technology has taken us from signature to thumb impression, again

129) It may be remarked at the outset that the argument of

surveillance draws sustenance, to a larger extent, from privacy

rights as well. Therefore, the arguments which were addressed

under this caption have traces of privacy also. However, these

are discussed in the context of surveillance state argument.

130) It was submitted that Aadhaar project creates the architecture of

a ‘cradle to grave’ surveillance state and society. This means that

it enables the State to profile citizens, track their movements,

assess their habits and silently influence their behaviour

throughout their lives. Over time, the profiling enables the State to

stifle dissent and influence political decision making. The

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 219 of 567 architecture of the project comprises a Central Identities Data

Repository which stores and maintains authentication transaction

data. The authentication record comprises the time of

authentication and the identity of the requesting entity. The UIDAI

and the Authentication Service Agency (ASA) is permitted to store

this authentication record for 2 + 5 years (as per Regulations 20

and 26/27 of the Authentication Regulations). Based on this

architecture it is possible for the State to track down the location

of the person seeking authentication. Since the requesting entity

is also identified, the activity that the citizen is engaging in is also

known. (Sections 2(d), 2(h), 8, 10, 32 of the Act read with

Regulations 18, 20, 26 of the Aadhaar (Authentication)

Regulation, 2016).

131) According to the petitioners, the Authority has the following

information (according to the document on technical specification

of Aadhaar registered devices published by the Authority in

February 2017) – Aadhaar number, name of Aadhaar holder,

whether authentication failed or was successful, reason for such

failure, requesting entities’ Internet Protocol (IP) address, date

and time of authentication, device ID and its unique ID of

authentication device which can be used to locate the individual.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 220 of 567 132) Authentication of Aadhaar number enables tracking, tagging and

profiling of individuals as the IP Address of the authentication

device gives an idea of its geographical location (determinable

within the range of 2 kilometres), country, city, region, pin

code/zip code). Mr. Divan submits that an individual is on an

electronic leash, tethered to a central data repository that has the

architecture to track all activities of an individual. The Aadhaar

Act creates a database of all Indian residents and citizens with

their core biometric information, demographic information and

meta data. In light of the enormous potential of information,

concentration of information in a single entity, i.e., the Authority,

enabling easier access to aggregated information puts the State

in a position to wield enormous power. Given that with

advancements in technology, such information can affect every

aspect of an individual’s personal, professional, religious and

social life, such power is a threat to individual freedoms

guaranteed under Articles 19(1)(a) to 19(1)(g) of the Constitution

and other fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 21 (Right

to informational privacy) and Article 25 of the Constitution. It was

submitted that the Aadhaar Act treats the entire populace of the

country as potential criminals ignoring the necessity to balance

the State’s mandate of protection against crime with the right to

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 221 of 567 personal bodily integrity which is envisaged under Article 21 read

with Article 20(3) of the Constitution. It does not require the

collection of data to have a nexus with a crime. Mr. Sibal submits

that in the decision in Selvi & Ors. v. State of Karnataka60, this

Court has held:

“The theory of interrelationship of rights mandates that the right against self-incrimination should also be read as a component of “personal liberty” under Article 21. Hence, our understanding of the “right to privacy” should account for its intersection with Article 20(3)”

133) It is argued that the Aadhaar Act, therefore, violates the right to

protection from self-incrimination, and the right to privacy and

personal dignity/bodily integrity under Article 20(3) and Article 21.

134) It was argued that the Constitution of India repudiates mass

surveillance as enabled by Aadhaar and the project ought to be

struck down on this ground alone. There is no question of

balancing or justification in case of a surveillance architecture.

135) Passages from various judgments were quoted in an attempt to

establish that surveillance causes interference with right to

privacy, life and liberty. From Kharak Singh v. State of U.P. 61,

dissenting opinion of Subba Rao, J. (which has been upheld in

K.S. Puttaswamy) was relied upon. With respect to how

60 (2010) 7 SCC 263 61 (1964) 1 SCR 332 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 222 of 567 surveillance constricts right to life and liberty, His Lordship held

that:

“Now let us consider the scope of Article 21. The expression "life" used in that Article cannot be confined only to the taking away of life, i.e., causing death. In Munn v. Illinois (1), Field, J., defined "life" in the following words:

“Something more than mere animal existence. The inhibition against its deprivation extends to all those limbs and faculties by which life is enjoyed. The provision equally prohibits the mutilation of the body by the amputation of an arm or leg, or the putting out of an eye, or the destruction of any other organ of the body through which the soul communicates with the outer world. The expression "'liberty" is given a very wide meaning in America. It takes in all the freedoms. In Bolling v. Sharpe (2), the Supreme Court of America observed that the said expression was not confined to mere freedom from bodily restraint and that liberty under law extended to the full range of conduct which the individual was free to pursue. But this absolute right to liberty was regulated to protect other social interests by the State exercising its powers such as police power, the power of eminent domain, the power of taxation etc. The proper exercise of the power which is called the due process of law is controlled by the Supreme Court of America. In India the word "liberty" has been qualified by the word "Personal", indicating thereby that it is confined only to the liberty of the person. The other aspects of the liberty have been provided for in other Articles of the Constitution

xx xx xx

It is true our Constitution does not expressly declare a right to privacy as a fundamental right, but the said right is an essential ingredient of personal liberty. Every democratic country sanctifies domestic life; it is expected to give him rest, physical happiness, peace of mind and security. In the last resort, a person's house, where he lives with his family, is his “castle”; it is his rampart against encroachment on his personal liberty. The pregnant words of that famous Judge,

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 223 of 567 Frankfurter J., in Wolf v. Colorado [[1949] 238 US 25] pointing out the importance of the security of one's privacy against arbitrary intrusion by the police, could have no less application to an Indian home as to an American one. If physical restraints on a person's movements affect his personal liberty, physical encroachments on his private life would affect it in a larger degree. Indeed, nothing is more deleterious to a man's physical happiness and health than a calculated interference with his privacy. We would, therefore, define the right of personal liberty in Article 21 as a right of an individual to be free from restrictions or encroachments on his person, whether those restrictions or encroachments are directly imposed or indirectly brought about by calculated measures.

xx xx xx

The freedom of movement in clause (d) of Article 19 therefore must be a movement in a free country i.e. in a country where he can do whatever he likes, speak to whomsoever he wants, meet people of his own choice without any apprehension, subject of course to the law of social control. The petitioner under the shadow of surveillance is certainly deprived of this freedom. He can move physically, but he cannot do so freely, for all his activities are watched and noted.

The shroud of surveillance cast upon him perforce engender inhibitions in him and he cannot act freely as he would like to do. ”

136) In the case of District Registrar and Collector, Hyderabad and

Anr. v. Canara Bank and Ors.62, this Court struck down provisions

of a legislation on grounds that it was too intrusive of citizens’

right to privacy. The case involved an evaluation of the Andhra

Pradesh Stamp Act which authorized the collector to delegate

“any person” to enter any premises in order to search for and

62 (2005) 1 SCC 496 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 224 of 567 impound any document that was found to be improperly stamped.

After an exhaustive analysis of privacy laws across the world, and

in India, the Court held that in the absence of any safeguards as

to probable or reasonable cause or reasonable basis, this

provision was violative of the constitutionally guaranteed right to

privacy “both of the house and of the person”. The Court held:

“The A.P. amendment permits inspection being carried out by the Collector by having access to the documents which are in private custody i.e. custody other than that of a public officer. It is clear that this provision empowers invasion of the home of the person in whose possession the documents 'tending' to or leading to the various facts stated in sec. 73 are in existence and sec. 73 being one without any safeguards as to probable or reasonable cause or reasonable basis or materials violates the right to privacy both of the house and of the person. We have already referred to R. Rajagopal's case wherein the learned judges have held that the right to personal liberty also means the life free from encroachments unsustainable in law and such right flowing from Article 21 of the Constitution.”

137) Reference was made to the U.S Supreme Court case of U.S. v.

Jones63 where the court held that installing a Global Positioning

System (GPS) tracking device on a vehicle and using the device

to monitor the vehicle's movements constitutes an unlawful

search under the Fourth Amendment. Sotomayor, J. in her

concurring judgment observed that Fourth Amendment search

and seizure is not only concerned with physical trespassory

intrusions on property but also non-physical violation of privacy 63 132 S.Ct. 945 (2012) Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 225 of 567 that society recognizes as reasonable. She notes that GPS data

can reveal an entire profile of a person simply by knowing the

places she visits and that the Government can mine this data in

the future:

“With increasing regularity, the Government will be capable of duplicating the monitoring undertaken in this case by enlisting factory or owner-installed vehicle tracking devises or GPS enabled smart-phones … In cases of electronic or other novel modes of surveillance that do not depend upon a physical invasion on property, the trespassory test may provide little guidance.

xx xx xx

GPS monitoring generates a precise, comprehensive record of a person’s public movements that reflects a wealth of detail about her familial, political, professional, religious, and sexual associations … disclosed GPS data will be trips to the psychiatrist, plastic surgeon, abortion clinic, AIDS treatment centre, strip club, criminal defence attorney …

Government can store such records and efficiently mine them for information years into the future… awareness that the government may be watching chills associational and expressive freedom … it may alter the relationship between citizen and government in a way that is inimical to democratic society.

xx xx xx

I would not assume that all information voluntarily disclosed to some member of the public for a limited purpose is, for that reason alone, disentitled to Fourth Amendment protection … (“Privacy is not a discrete commodity, possessed absolutely or not at all. Those who disclose certain facts to a bank or phone company for a limited business purpose need not assume that this information will be released to other persons for other purposes”) ... (“[W]hat [a person] seeks to preserve as private, even in an area accessible to the public, may be constitutionally protected”).” Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 226 of 567

138) The judgment of the ECtHR in Zakharov v. Russia64 was also

referred to where the ECtHR examined an application claiming

violation of Article 8 of the Convention (right to respect for private

and family life) alleging that the mobile operators had permitted

unrestricted interception of all telephone communications by the

security services without prior judicial authorisation, under the

prevailing national law. The Court observed that:

“Mr Zakharov was entitled to claim to be a victim of a violation of the European Convention, even though he was unable to allege that he had been the subject of a concrete measure of surveillance. Given the secret nature of the surveillance measures provided for by the legislation, their broad scope (affecting all users of mobile telephone communications) and the lack of effective means to challenge them at national level… Russian law did not meet the “quality of law” requirement and was incapable of keeping the interception of communications to what was “necessary in a democratic society”. There had accordingly been a violation of Article 8 of the Convention… existence of arbitrary and abusive surveillance practices, which appear to be due to inadequate safeguards provided by law”.

139) The Court held that any interference with the right to privacy

under Article 8 can only be justified under Article 8(2) if it is in

accordance with law, pursues one or more legitimate aims and is

necessary in a democratic society to achieve such aim. “In

accordance with the law” requires the impugned measure both to

have some basis in domestic law and to be compatible with the

64 (2015) Application No. 47143/2006 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 227 of 567 rule of law, which is expressly mentioned in the Preamble to the

Convention and inherent in the object and purpose of Article 8.

The law must, thus, meet quality requirements: it must be

accessible to the person concerned and foreseeable as to its

effects. With respect to foreseeability of surveillance, the court

held:

“Foreseeability in the special context of secret measures of surveillance, such as the interception of communications, cannot mean that an individual should be able to foresee when the authorities are likely to intercept his communications so that he can adapt his conduct accordingly. However, especially where a power vested in the executive is exercised in secret, the risks of arbitrariness are evident. It is therefore essential to have clear, detailed rules on interception of telephone conversations, especially as the technology available for use is continually becoming more sophisticated. The domestic law must be sufficiently clear to give citizens an adequate indication as to the circumstances in which and the conditions on which public authorities are empowered to resort to any such measures.

xx xx xx

Since the implementation in practice of measures of secret surveillance of communications is not open to scrutiny by the individuals concerned or the public at large, it would be contrary to the rule of law for the discretion granted to the executive or to a judge to be expressed in terms of an unfettered power. Consequently, the law must indicate the scope of any such discretion conferred on the competent authorities and the manner of its exercise with sufficient clarity to give the individual adequate protection against arbitrary interference.”

140) The Court observed that the following minimum safeguards that

should be set out in law in order to avoid abuses of power for

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 228 of 567 surveillance are: the nature of offences which may give rise to an

interception order; a definition of the categories of people liable to

have their telephones tapped; a limit on the duration of telephone

tapping; the procedure to be followed for examining, using and

storing the data obtained; the precautions to be taken when

communicating the data to other parties; and the circumstances

in which recordings may or must be erased or destroyed.

141) For establishing if the measures were “necessary in a democratic

society” in pursuit of a legitimate aim, the Court observed:

“When balancing the interest of the respondent State in protecting its national security through secret surveillance measures against the seriousness of the interference with an applicant’s right to respect for his or her private life, the national authorities enjoy a certain margin of appreciation in choosing the means for achieving the legitimate aim of protecting national security. However, this margin is subject to European supervision embracing both legislation and decisions applying it. In view of the risk that a system of secret surveillance set up to protect national security may undermine or even destroy democracy under the cloak of defending it, the Court must be satisfied that there are adequate and effective guarantees against abuse. The assessment depends on all the circumstances of the case, such as the nature, scope and duration of the possible measures, the grounds required for ordering them, the authorities competent to authorise, carry out and supervise them, and the kind of remedy provided by the national law. The Court has to determine whether the procedures for supervising the ordering and implementation of the restrictive measures are such as to keep the “interference” to what is “necessary in a democratic society”.”

142) Two other cases of violation of Article of the European

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 229 of 567 Convention of Human Rights were cited, namely Digital Rights

Ireland Ltd. v. Minister for Communication, Marine and Natural

Resources65 and S and Marper v. United Kingdom66. In Digital

Ireland, the European Parliament and the Council of the

European Union adopted Directive 2006/24/EC (Directive), which

regulated Internet Service Providers’ storage of

telecommunications data. It could be used to retain data

generated or processed in connection with the provision of

publicly available electronic communications services or of public

communications network for the purpose of fighting serious crime

in the European Union (EU). The data included data necessary to

trace and identify the source of communication and its

destination, to identify the date, time duration, type of

communication, IP address, telephone number and other fields.

The European Court of Justice (ECJ) evaluated the compatibility

of the Directive with Articles 7 and 8 of the Charter of

Fundamental Rights of the European Union and declared the

Directive to be invalid. According to the ECJ, the Directive

interfered with the right to respect for private life under Article 7

and with the right to the protection of personal data under Article

8. It allowed very precise conclusion to be drawn concerning the

65 [2014] All ER (D) 66 (Apr) 66 (2008) ECHR 1581 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 230 of 567 private lives of the persons whose data had been retained, such

as habits of everyday life, permanent or temporary places of

residence, daily and other movements, activities carried out,

social relationships and so on. The invasion of right was not

proportionate to the legitimate aim pursued.

143) In S and Marper, the storing of DNA profiles and cellular samples

of any person arrested in the United Kingdom was challenged

before the ECtHR. Even if the individual was never charged, if

criminal proceedings were discontinued, or if the person was later

acquitted of any crime, their DNA profile could nevertheless be

kept permanently on record. It held that there had been a

violation of Article 8 of the ECHR. Fingerprints, DNA profiles and

cellular samples, constituted personal data and their retention

was capable of affecting private life of an individual. Retention of

such data without consent, thus, constitutes violation of Article 8

as they relate to identified and identifiable individuals. The Court

held that invasion of privacy was not “necessary in a democratic

society as it did not fulfill any pressing social need. The blanket

and indiscriminate nature of retention of data was excessive and

did not strike a balance between private and public interest.

144) The respondents, on the other hand, rebutted the arguments of

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 231 of 567 the petitioners that the architecture of the Aadhaar Act enables

State surveillance. It was submitted that bare minimal information

was obtained from the individual who enrolled for Aadhaar.

Insofar as demographic information is concerned, it included

name, date of birth, address, gender, mobile number and email

address. The latter two are optional and meant for transmitting

relevant information to the AMH and for One Time Password

(OTP) based authentication. This information was in respect of

an individual and is always in public domain. Section 2(k) of the

Aadhaar Act specifically provides that regulations cannot include

race, religion, caste, tribe, ethnicity, language, records of

entitlement, income or medical history. Therefore, sensitive

information specifically stands excluded. This specific exclusion,

in the context, ensures that the scope of including additional

demographic information is very narrow and limited. It was also

argued that even the biometric information was limited to the

fingerprints and iris scan, which is considered to be the core

biometric information. Such information is, again, frequently

utilised globally to ascertain the identity of a person. The

argument was, thus, that the information gathered was non-

invasive and non-intrusive identity information.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 232 of 567

145) It was also argued that the very scheme of the Aadhaar and the

manner in which it operates excludes every possibility of data

profiling and, therefore, the question of State surveillance would

not arise. The powerpoint presentation which was given by Dr.

Pandey, as has been stated above, was referred to, on the basis

of which it was argued that the Aadhaar design takes full care of

security of persons.

146) It was also argued by the respondents that identity information

data resides in the CIDR which is not in the control of the

Government or the police force. The Authority is a body

constituted as a body corporate having perpetual succession and

a common seal. It is regulated by substantive and procedural

checks to protect the identity information and authentication

record. This information cannot be published, displayed or posted

publicly. It does not have the authority to carry out surveillance.

The State Governments and the police forces cannot obtain the

information contained in the CIDR or the authentication records

except in two situations contemplated by Section 33 – (i) When

the District Judge orders so after giving an opportunity of hearing

to the authority (even in this situation core biometric information

will not be shared; and (ii) in the interest of National Security

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 233 of 567 where a Joint Secretary or a superior officer of the Government of

India specially authorizes in this behalf, and in this case every

direction is reviewed by an oversight committee chaired by the

Cabinet Secretary. Further, this direction is limited for three

months and extendable by a further period of 3 months.

147) It was submitted that surveillance, if at all, can only be carried out

by unauthorised use of CIDR information, despite its statutory

prohibition and punitive injunctions or by other means such as

physical surveillance. That is, however, an illegal surveillance.

The architecture of the Act does not allow surveillance. It was

submitted that the petitioners have not made out a case of

surveillance by the Authority but points out a mere possibility of

surveillance.

148) We may reiterate that the argument of surveillance also has the

reflections of privacy and in fact the argument is structured on the

basis that the vital information which would be available with the

Government can be utilised to create the profiling of individuals

and retention of such information in the hands of the respondents

is a risky affair which may enable the State to do the surveillance

of any individual it wants.

149) Insofar as the aspect of privacy of individual is concerned, that Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 234 of 567 would be dealt with in detail while addressing that issue. To

segregate issue of surveillance from privacy, we are focusing the

discussion to the aspect whether there is sufficient data available

with the respondents which may facilitate the profiling and misuse

thereof or whether there are sufficient safeguards to ward off the

same. In the process, we would be discussing the issues

pertaining to data protection as well. At the same time, there

would be some overlapping of discussion inasmuch as it will have

to be seen as to the collection, storage and use of biometric data

satisfies the proportionality principle.

150) It is clear that the argument of the petitioners is that on the basis

of the data available with the Authority, there can be a profiling of

an individual which may make the surveillance state. And such a

mass surveillance is not permitted by the Constitution of India.

The entire foofaraw about the Aadhaar architecture is the so-

called enormous information that would be available to the

Government on using Aadhaar card by residents. Two issues

arise from the respective arguments of the parties:

(a) whether the architecture of the Aadhaar project enables the

Sate to create a regime of surveillance?; and

(b) whether there are adequate provisions for data protection?

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 235 of 567 151) Insofar as issue (a) above is concerned, after going through the

various aspects of the Aadhaar project, the provisions of the

Aadhaar Act and the manner in which it operates, it is difficult to

accept the argument of the petitioners. The respondents have

explained that the enrolment and authentication processes are

strongly regulated so that data is secure. The enrolment agency,

which collects the biometric and demographic of the individuals

during enrolment, is appointed either by UIDAI or by a Registrar

[Section 2(s)]. The Registrars are appointed through MoUs or

agreements for enrolment and are to abide by a code of conduct

and processes, policies and guidelines issued by the Authority.

They are responsible for the process of enrolment. Categories of

persons eligible for appointment are limited by the Regulations.

The agency employs a certified supervisor, an operator and a

verifier under Enrolment and Update Regulations. Registrars and

the enrolling agencies are obliged to use the software provided or

authorized by UIDAI for enrolment purpose. The standard

software has security features as specified by the Authority. All

equipment used is as per the specification issued by the

Authority. The Registrars are prohibited from using the

information collected for any purpose other than uploading the

information to CIDR. Sub-contracting of enrolment function is not

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 236 of 567 allowed. The Code of Conduct contains specific directions for

following the confidentiality, privacy and security protocols and

submission of periodic reports of enrolment. Not only there are

directions prohibiting manipulation and fraudulent practices but

the Act contains penal provisions for such violations in Chapter

VII of the Regulations. The enrolment agencies are empanelled

by the Authority. They are given an enrolling agency code using

which the Registrar can onboard such agency to the CIDR. The

enrolment data is uploaded to the Central Identities Data

Repository (CIDR) certified equipment and software with a digital

signature of the Registrar/enrolling agency. The data is encrypted

immediately upon capture. The decryption key is with the UIDAI

solely. Section 2(ze) of the Information Technology Act, 2000

(hereinafter referred to as the ‘IT Act’) which defines ‘secure

systems’ and Section 2(w) of the Act, which defines

‘intermediaries’ apply to the process. Authentication only

becomes available through the Authentication Service Agency

(ASA). They are regulated by the Aadhaar (Authentication)

Regulations, 2016. Their role and responsibilities are provided by

Regulation 19 of the Authentication Regulations. They are to use

certified devices. The equipment or software has to be duly

registered with or approved or certified by the Authority/agency.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 237 of 567 The systems and operations are audited by information system

auditor. The requesting entities pass the encrypted data to the

CIDR through the ASA and the response (Yes/No authentication

or e-KYC information) also takes the same route back. The

server of the ASA has to perform basic compliance and

completeness checks on the authentication data packet before

forwarding it to the CIDR. The Act prohibits sharing and

disclosure of core biometric data under Section 8 and 29. Other

identity information is shared with requesting entity (AUAs and

KUAs) only for the limited purpose of authentication. The data is

transferred from the requesting entity to the ASA to the CIDR in

an encrypted manner through a leased line circuitry using secure

Protocols (Regulation 9 of the Authentication Regulations). The

storage of data templates is in safely located servers with no

public internet inlet/outlet, and offline storage of original

encrypted data (PID blocks). There are safety and security

provisions such as audit by Information Systems Auditor.

Requesting entities are appointed through agreement. They can

enter into agreement with sub-AUA or sub-KUA with permission

of the UIDAI. Whatever identity information is obtained by the

requesting entity is based on a specific consent of the Aadhaar

number holder. The e-KYC data shared with the requesting entity

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 238 of 567 can only be after prior consent of the Aadhaar holder. Such data

cannot be shared and has to be stored in encrypted form. The

biometric information used is not permitted to be stored. Only the

logs of authentication transactions are maintained for a short

period. Full identity information is never transmitted back to the

requesting entity. There is a statutory bar from sharing biometric

information (Section 29(1)(a)/Section 29(4)). Data centres of

ASA, requesting entities and CIDR should be within the territory

of India. There are various other provisions for monitoring,

auditing, inspection, limits on data sharing, data protection,

punishments etc., grievance redressal mechanism, suspension

and termination of services, etc. so that all actions the entities

involved in the process are regulated. Regulation 3(i) & (j) of

Aadhaar (Data Security) Regulation, 2016 enables partitioning of

CIDR network into zones based on risk and trust and other

security measures. CIDR being a computer resource is notified to

be a “Protected System” under Section 70 of the IT Act by the

Central Government on December 11, 2015. Anyone trying to

unlawfully gain access into this system is liable to be punished

with 10 years imprisonment and fine. The storage involves end to

end encryption, logical partitioning, firewalling and anonymisation

of decrypted biometric data. Breaches of penalty are made

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 239 of 567 punitive by Chapter VII of the Act. Biometric information is

deemed to be an “electronic record”, and “Sensitive personal data

or information” under the IT Act. There are further guards under

the Aadhaar (Data Security) Regulations, 2016.

152) That apart, we have recorded in detail the powerpoint

presentation that was given by Dr. Ajay Bhushan Pandey, CEO of

the Authority, which brings out the following salient features:

(a) During the enrolment process, minimal biometric data in the

form of iris and fingerprints is collected. The Authority does not

collect purpose, location or details of transaction. Thus, it is

purpose blind. The information collected, as aforesaid, remains

in silos. Merging of silos is prohibited. The requesting agency is

provided answer only in ‘Yes’ or ‘No’ about the authentication of

the person concerned. The authentication process is not

exposed to the Internet world. Security measures, as per the

provisions of Section 29(3) read with Section 38(g) as well as

Regulation 17(1)(d) of the Authentication Regulations are strictly

followed and adhered to.

(b) There are sufficient authentication security measures taken

as well, as demonstrated in Slides 14, 28 and 29 of the

presentation.

(c) The Authority has sufficient defence mechanism, as Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 240 of 567 explained in Slide 30. It has even taken appropriate protection

measures as demonstrated in Slide 31.

(d) There is an oversight by Technology and Architecture

Review Board (TARB) and Security Review Committee.

(e) During authentication no information about the nature of

transaction etc. is obtained.

(f) The Authority has mandated use of Registered Devices

(RD) for all authentication requests. With these, biometric data is

signed within the device/RD service using the provider key to

ensure it is indeed captured live. The device provider RD service

encrypts the PID block before returning to the host application.

This RD service encapsulates the biometric capture, signing and

encryption of biometrics all within it. Therefore, introduction of

RD in Aadhaar authentication system rules out any possibility of

use of stored biometric and replay of biometrics captured from

other source. Requesting entities are not legally allowed to store

biometrics captured for Aadhaar authentication under Regulation

17(1)(a) of the Authentication Regulations.

(g) The Authority gets the AUA code, ASA code, unique device

code, registered device code used for authentication. It does not

get any information related to the IP address or the GPS location

from where authentication is performed as these parameters are

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 241 of 567 not part of authentication (v2.0) and e-KYC (v2.1) API. The

Authority would only know from which device the authentication

has happened, through which AUA/ASA etc. It does not receive

any information about at what location the authentication device

is deployed, its IP address and its operator and the purpose of

authentication. Further, the authority or any entity under its

control is statutorily barred from collecting, keeping or maintaining

any information about the purpose of authentication under

Section 32(3) of the Aadhaar Act.

153) After going through the Aadhaar structure, as demonstrated by

the respondents in the powerpoint presentation from the

provisions of the Aadhaar Act and the machinery which the

Authority has created for data protection, we are of the view that

it is very difficult to create profile of a person simply on the basis

of biometric and demographic information stored in CIDR. Insofar

as authentication is concerned, the respondents rightly pointed

out that there are sufficient safeguard mechanisms. To

recapitulate, it was specifically submitted that there were security

technologies in place (slide 28 of Dr. Pandey’s presentation), 24/7

security monitoring, data leak prevention, vulnerability

management programme and independent audits (slide 29) as

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 242 of 567 well as the Authority’s defence mechanism (slide 30). It was

further pointed out that the Authority has taken appropriate pro-

active protection measures, which included disaster recovery

plan, data backup and availability and media response plan (slide

31). The respondents also pointed out that all security principles

are followed inasmuch as: (a) there is PKI-2048 encryption from

the time of capture, meaning thereby, as soon as data is given at

the time of enrolment, there is an end to end encryption thereof

and it is transmitted to the Authority in encrypted form. The said

encryption is almost foolproof and it is virtually impossible to

decipher the same; (b) adoption of best-in-class security

standards and practices; and (c) strong audit and traceability as

well as fraud detection. Above all, there is an oversight of

Technology and Architecture Review Board (TARB) and Security

Review Committee. This Board and Committee consist of very

high profiled officers. Therefore, the Act has endeavoured to

provide safeguards67.

67 We may also take on record responsible statements of the learned Attorney General and Mr. Dwivedi who appeared for UIDAI that no State would be interested in any mass surveillance of 1.2 Billion people of the country or even the overwhelming majority of officers and employees or professionals. The very idea of mass surveillance by State which pursues what an ANH does all the time and based on Aadhaar is an absurdity and an impossibility. According to them, the petitioners submission is based on too many imaginary possibilities, viz.:

(i) Aadhaar makes it possible for the State to obtain identity information of all ANH. It is possible that UIDAI would share identity information/authentication records in CIDR notwithstanding statutory prohibition and punitive injunctions in the Act. It is possible that the State would unleash its investigators to surveil a sizeable section of the ANH, if not all based on the authentication records. It is submitted that given the architecture of the Aadhaar Act, there are no such possibilities and in any event, submission based on imaginary possibility do not provide any basis for questioning the validity of Aadhaar Act. (ii) None of the writ petitions set forth specific facts and even allegations that any Aadhaar number holder is being subjected to Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 243 of 567

154) Issue (b) relates to data protection. According to the petitioners

there is no data protection and there is a likelihood of misuse of

data/personal information of the individuals.

155) The question to be determined is whether the safeguards

provided for the protection of personal biometric data in the

Aadhaar Act and Rules are sufficient. The crucial tasks that the

Court needs to undertake are – (i) to discuss the significance of

data in the world of technology and its impact; (ii) to determine

the magnitude of protection that should be accorded to collection,

storage and use of sensitive biometric data, so that they can

qualify as proportionate; and (iii) to determine whether the

Aadhaar Act and Rules provide such data protection, thereby

obviating any possibility of surveillance.

(i) Significance of Data:

156) Alvin Toffler in his illuminating article titled ‘What will our future be

like?’ has presented mind boggling ideas. Toffler traces the

transition – from agriculture society to industry society to

knowledge based society. If we go back to the beginnings of time, surveillance by UIDAI or the Union/States. The emphasis during the argument was only on the possibility of surveillance based on electronic track trails and authentication records. It was asserted that there are tools in the market for track back. The entire case was speculative and conjectural. In Clapper, Director of National Intelligence v. Amnesty International USA, the majority judgment did not approve the submissions in the context of Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act and one of the reason was that the allegations were conjectural and speculative. There were no facts pleaded on the basis of which the asserted threat could be fairly traced to. However, we have not deliberated on this argument.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 244 of 567 agriculture was the prime source and the entire mankind was

based on agriculture. 350 years later with the invention of steam

engines came the industrialized age and now what we are living

through is the third gigantic wave, which is way more powerful

than industrialized age. An age that is based on knowledge.

Toffler emphasises that in today’s society the only thing that leads

to creation of wealth is knowledge. Unlike the past wherein

economics was described as the science of the allocation of

scarce resources, today we are primarily dependent on

knowledge and that is not a scarce resource. Times are

changing, we can no longer trust the straight line projection. His

view is that we are going from a society which is more and more

uniform to a highly de-massified society. Knowledge is power.

We are in the era of information. Probably what Toffler is hinting

is that access to this vast reservoir of information is available in

digital world. Information is available online, at the touch of a

button. With this, however, we usher into the regime of data.

157) In a recent speech by Mr. Benjamin Netanyahu, Prime Minister of

Israel, while talking about innovation and entrepreneurship, he

brought out an interesting phenomena in the world of free market

principles, i.e. in the era of globalisation, in the following words:

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 245 of 567

“Look at the ten leading companies in 2006, five energy companies, one IT company Microsoft and a mere ten years later, in 2016, a blink of an eye, in historical terms, its completely reversed, five IT companies one energy company left. The true wealth is in innovation - you know these companies - Apple, Google, Microsoft, Amazon, Facebook.”

158) He adds by making a significant statement as the reason behind

this change:

“...there is a reason something is going on, it’s a great change - you want to hear a jargan – it’s a one sentence, this is a terrible sentence, but I have no other way to say, it’s a confluence of big data, connectivity and artificial intelligence. Ok, you get that? You know what that does – it revolutionises old industries and it creates entirely new industries, so here is an old industry that Israel was always great in – Agriculture. We are always good in agriculture but now we have precision agriculture. You know what that is? See that drone in the sky is connected to a big database and there is sensor at the field and in the field there is drip irrigation and drip fertilization and now we can target with this technology the water that we give, the fertilizer that we give down to the individual plant that needs it. That’s precision agriculture, that’s Israel. Unbelievable.”

159) This brings us to the world of data – big data. It has its own

advantages of tremendous nature. It is making life of people

easier. People can connect with each other even when they are

located at places far away from each other. Not only they can

converse with each other but can even see each other while

talking. There is a wealth of information available on different

networks to which they can easily access and satisfy their quest

for knowledge within seconds by getting an answer. People can

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 246 of 567 move from one place to the other with the aid of Global

Positioning System (GPS). They can hear music and watch

movies on their handy gadgets, including smart cellphones. We

are in the age of digital economy which has enabled multiple

avenues for a common man. Internet access is becoming

cheaper by the day, which can be accessed not only through the

medium of desktop computers or laptops and even other handy

gadgets like smart phones. Electronic transactions like online

shopping, bill payments, movie/train/air ticket bookings, funds

transfer, e-wallet payments, online banking and online insurance

etc. are happening with extreme ease at the touch of a finger.

Such tasks can be undertaken sitting in drawing rooms. Even

while travelling from one place to the other in their car, they can

indulge in all the aforesaid activities. In that sense, technology

has made their life so easy.

160) However, there is another side to do as well, like any coin which

has two sides. The use of such technologies is at the cost of

giving away personal information, which is in the realm of privacy.

In order to connect with such technologies and avail their

benefits, the users are parting with their biometric information like

fingerprints and iris as well as demographic information like their

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 247 of 567 names, parentage, family members, their age, even personal

information like their sex, blood group or even the ailments they

are suffering from. Not only this, use of aforesaid facilities on net

or any portal like Apple, Google, Facebook etc. involves tracking

their movements, including the nature of activities, like the kind of

shopping, the places from where shopping is done, the actual

money spent thereon, the nature of movies watched etc. All this

data is there with the companies in respect of its users which may

even turn into metadata. In fact, cases after cases are reported

where such data of users is parted with various purposes.

Interestingly, for using such facilities, people knowingly and

willingly, are ready to part with their vital personal information.

Every transaction on a digital platform is linked with some form of

sensitive personal information. It can be an individual’s user

name, password, account number, PAN number, biometric

details, e-mail ID, debit/credit card number, CVV number and

transaction OTP etc.

161) These have raised concerns about the privacy and protection of

data, which has become a matter of great concern. Problem is

not limited to data localisation but has become extra-territorial.

There are issues of cross-border transfers of personal data,

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 248 of 567 regulation whereof is again a big challenge with which various

opinions are grappling. There are even talks of convergence of

regulatory regime in this behalf so that uniform approach is

adopted in providing a legal ecosystem to regulate cross-border

data transfer. Asian Business Law Institute (ABLI), in

collaboration with Singapore Academy of Law (SAL) has, after

undertaking in-depth study, compiled 14 country reports in their

respective jurisdictions on the regulation of cross-border data

transfer and data localisation in Asia.

162) In the aforesaid scenario, interesting issue is posed by the

respondents, viz., when so much personal information about

people is already available in public domain, how can there be an

expectancy of data privacy. That aspect is dealt with while

discussing the issue of privacy. Here, we are concerned with

data protection under Aadhaar that is available with the State. As

pointed out above, even in respect of private players, the data

protection has become a matter of serious concern. When it

comes to the State or the instrumentality of the State, the matter

has to be taken with all seriousness, on the touchstone of

constitutionalism and the concept of limited Government.

(ii) Law on Data Protection:

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 249 of 567

163) In order to determine this aspect, i.e. the nature and magnitude of

data protection that is required to enable legal collection and use

of biometric data, reliance can be placed on – (a) various existing

legislations – both in India and across the world; and (b) case law

including the judgment in K.S. Puttaswamy.

(a) Legislation in India:

(i) Information Technology Act, 2000

The only existing legislation covering data protection related

to biometric information are Section 43A and Section 72A of the

IT Act and the Information Technology (Reasonable Security

Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Personal Data or

Information) Rules, 2011 (hereinafter “Sensitive Personal Data

Rules”). Although the IT Act and Rules do not determine the

constitutionality of use of biometric data and information by the

Aadhaar Act and Rules, they are instructive in determining the

safeguards that must be taken to collect biometric information 68.

164) Following are the provisions which cover biometric information

under the IT Act:

Section 43A of the IT Act attaches liability to a body

corporate, which is possessing, handling and dealing with any

68 A challenge to the Aadhaar project for violation of IT Act and Rules has been filed in the Delhi High Court in the matter of Shamnad Basheer v UIDAI and Ors. Therefore, we are not dealing with this aspect, nor does it arise for consideration in these proceedings.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 250 of 567 ‘sensitive personal information or data’ and is negligent in

implementing and maintaining reasonable security practices

resulting in wrongful loss or wrongful gain to any person.

‘Sensitive personal information or data’ is defined under Rule 3 of

the Sensitive Personal Data Rules to include information relating

to biometric data. Section 43A reads as follows:

“43A. Compensation for failure to protect data. -Where a body corporate, possessing, dealing or handling any sensitive personal data or information in a computer resource which it owns, controls or operates, is negligent in implementing and maintaining reasonable security practices and procedures and thereby causes wrongful loss or wrongful gain to any person, such body corporate shall be liable to pay damages by way of compensation to the person so affected.

Explanation. -For the purposes of this section,-

(i) "body corporate" means any company and includes a firm, sole proprietorship or other association of individuals engaged in commercial or professional activities;

(ii) "reasonable security practices and procedures"

means security practices and procedures designed to protect such information from unauthorised access, damage, use, modification, disclosure or impairment, as may be specified in an agreement between the parties or as may be specified in any law for the time being in force and in the absence of such agreement or any law, such reasonable security practices and procedures, as may be prescribed by the Central Government in consultation with such professional bodies or associations as it may deem fit;

(iii) "sensitive personal data or information" means such personal information as may be prescribed by the Central Government in consultation with such professional bodies or associations as it may deem fit.]”

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 251 of 567

165) Similarly, Section 72A of the IT Act makes intentional disclosure

of ‘personal information’ obtained under a contract, without

consent of the parties concerned and in breach of a lawful

contract, punishable with imprisonment and fine. Rule 2(i) of the

Sensitive Personal Data Rules define "personal information" to

mean any information that relates to a natural person, which,

either directly or indirectly, in combination with other information

available or likely to be available with a body corporate, is

capable of identifying such person. Thus, biometrics will form a

part of “personal information”. The Section reads as under-

“72A. Punishment for disclosure of information in breach of lawful contract - Save as otherwise provided in this Act or any other law for the time being in force, any person including an intermediary who, while providing services under the terms of lawful contract, has secured access to any material containing personal information about another person, with the intent to cause or knowing that he is likely to cause wrongful loss or wrongful gain discloses, without the consent of the person concerned, or in breach of a lawful contract, such material to any other person, shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine which may extend to five lakh rupees, or with both.”

166) The Sensitive Personal Data Rules provide for additional

requirements on commercial and business entities (body

corporates as defined under Section 43A of the IT Act) relating to

the collection and disclosure of sensitive personal data (including

biometric information). The crucial requirements, which are Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 252 of 567 indicative of the principles for data protection that India adheres

to, inter alia include:

(i) The body corporate or any person who on behalf of body

corporate collects, receives, possesses, stores, deals or handle

information of provider of information, shall provide a privacy

policy for handling of or dealing in personal information including

sensitive personal data or information and ensure that the same

are available for view.

(ii) Body corporate or any person on its behalf shall obtain

consent in writing from the provider of the sensitive personal data

or information regarding purpose of usage before collection of

such information.

(iii) Body corporate or any person on its behalf shall not collect

sensitive personal data or information unless — (a) the

information is collected for a lawful purpose connected with a

function or activity of the body corporate or any person on its

behalf; and (b) the collection of the sensitive personal data or

information is considered necessary for that purpose

(iv) The person concerned has the knowledge of — (a) the fact

that the information is being collected; (b) the purpose for which

the information is being collected; (c) the intended recipients of

the information; and (d) name and address of the agency

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 253 of 567 collecting and retaining the information.

(v) Body corporate or any person on its behalf holding sensitive

personal data or information shall not retain that information for

longer than is required for the purposes for which the information

may lawfully be used or is otherwise required under any other law

for the time being in force.

(vi) Information collected shall be used for the purpose for

which it has been collected.

(vii) Body corporate or any person on its behalf shall, prior to the

collection of information, including sensitive personal data or

information, provide an option to the provider of the information to

not to provide the data or information sought to be collected.

(viii) Body corporate shall address any discrepancies and

grievances of their provider of the information with respect to

processing of information in a time bound manner.

(ix) Disclosure of sensitive personal data or information by body

corporate to any third party shall require prior permission from the

provider of such information, who has provided such information

under lawful contract or otherwise, unless such disclosure has

been agreed to in the contract between the body corporate and

provider of information, or where the disclosure is necessary for

compliance of a legal obligation.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 254 of 567 (x) A body corporate or a person on its behalf shall comply with

reasonable security practices and procedure i.e. implement such

security practices and standards and have a comprehensive

documented information security programme and information

security policies that contain managerial, technical, operational

and physical security control measures that are commensurate

with the information assets being protected with the nature of

business. In the event of an information security breach, the

body corporate or a person on its behalf shall be required to

demonstrate, as and when called upon to do so by the agency

mandated under the law, that they have implemented security

control measures as per their documented information security

programme and information security policies.

The above substantive and procedural safeguards are

required for legal collection, storage and use of biometric

information under the IT Act. They indicate the rigour with which

such processes need to be carried out.

Position in other countries:

(a) EUGDPR (European Union General Data Protection Regulation)69

69 Regulation (EU) 2016/679 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 27 April 2016 on the protection of natural persons with regard to the processing of personal data and on the free movement of such data, and repealing Directive 95/46/EC (General Data Protection Regulation) Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 255 of 567 EUGDPR which was enacted by the EU in 2016 came into

force on May 25, 2018 replacing the Data Protection Directive of

1995. It is an exhaustive and comprehensive legal framework that

is aimed at protection of natural persons from the processing of

personal data and their right to informational privacy. It deals with

all kinds of processing of personal data while delineating rights of

data subjects and obligations of data processors in detail. The

following fundamental principles of data collection, processing,

storage and use reflect the proportionality principle underpinning

the EUGDPR -

(i) the personal data shall be processed lawfully, fairly, and in a

transparent manner in relation to the data subject (principle of

lawfulness, fairness, and transparency);

(ii) the personal data must be collected for specified, explicit,

and legitimate purposes (principle of purpose limitation);

(iii) processing must also be adequate, relevant, and limited to

what is necessary (principle of data minimization) as well as

accurate and, where necessary, kept up to date (principle of

accuracy);

(iv) data is to be kept in a form that permits identification of data

subjects for no longer than is necessary for the purposes for

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 256 of 567 which the personal data are processed (principle of storage

limitation);

(v) data processing must be secure (principle of integrity and

confidentiality); and

(vi) data controller is to be held responsible (principle of

accountability).

167) The EUGDPR under Article 9 prohibits the collection of biometric

data unless except in few circumstances which include (but are

not limited to) -

(a) there is an explicit consent by the party whose data is being

collected. The consent should be freely given, which is clearly

distinguishable in an intelligible and easily accessible form, using

clear and plain language. This consent can be withdrawn at any

time without affecting the actions prior to the withdrawal;

(b) processing is necessary for the purposes of carrying out the

obligations and exercising specific rights of the controller or of the

data subject in the field of employment and social security and

social protection law;

(c) processing relates to personal data which is manifestly

made public by the data subject; and

(d) processing is necessary for reasons of substantial public

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 257 of 567 interest, and it shall be proportionate to the aim pursued, respect

the essence of the right to data protection and provide for suitable

and specific measures to safeguard the fundamental rights and

the interests of the data subject.

168) The Regulation also institutes rights of the data subject (the

person whose data is collected), subject to exceptions, which

include the data subject’s right of access to information about the

purpose of collection of data, details of data controller and

subsequent use and transfer of data, the data subject’s right to

rectification of data, right to erasure or right to be forgotten, the

data subject’s right to restriction of processing, the right to be

informed, the right to data portability and the data subject’s right

to object to illegitimate use of data.

(b) Biometric Privacy Act in the United States of America

169) Some States in the United States of America have laws

regulating collection and use of biometric information. Illinois has

passed Biometric Information Privacy Act (740 ILCS 14/1 or

BIPA) in 2008. Texas has also codified the law for capture of use

of biometric identifier (Tex. Bus. & Com. Code Ann. §503.001) in

2009. The Governor of the Washington State signed into law

House Bill 1493 (“H.B. 1493”) on May 16, 2017, which sets forth

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 258 of 567 requirements for businesses who collect and use biometric

identifiers for commercial purposes. BIPA, Illinois, for example

makes it unlawful for private entities to collect, store, or use

biometric information, such as retina/iris scans, voice scans, face

scans, or fingerprints, without first obtaining individual consent for

such activities. BIPA also requires that covered entities take

specific precautions to secure the information.

(b) Case Laws:

170) In K.S. Puttaswamy’s judgment, all the Judges highlighted the

importance of informational privacy in the age of easy access,

transfer, storage and mining of data. The means of aggregation

and analysis of data of individuals through various tools are

explained. Chandrachud, J. observed that with the increasing

ubiquity of electronic devices, information can be accessed,

stored and disseminated without notice to the individual.

Metadata and data mining make the individual’s personal

information subject to private companies and the state. In this

background, His Lordship discusses the necessity of a data

protection regime for safeguarding privacy and protecting the

autonomy of the individual. The following observations in the

conclusion of the judgment are worth quoting:

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 259 of 567

“328. Informational privacy is a facet of the right to privacy.

The dangers to privacy in an age of information can originate not only from the state but from non-state actors as well. We commend to the Union Government the need to examine and put into place a robust regime for data protection. The creation of such a regime requires a careful and sensitive balance between individual interests and legitimate concerns of the state. The legitimate aims of the state would include for instance protecting national security, preventing and investigating crime, encouraging innovation and the spread of knowledge, and preventing the dissipation of social welfare benefits. These are matters of policy to be considered by the Union government while designing a carefully structured regime for the protection of the data. Since the Union government has informed the Court that it has constituted a Committee chaired by Hon’ble Shri Justice B N Srikrishna, former Judge of this Court, for that purpose, the matter shall be dealt with appropriately by the Union government having due regard to what has been set out in this judgment.”

171) S.K. Kaul, J. cited the European Union General Data Protection

Regulations70 to highlight the importance of data protection and

the circumstances in which restrictions on the right to privacy may

be justifiable subject to the principle of proportionality. These

include balance against other fundamental rights, legitimate

national security interest, public interest including scientific or

historical research purposes or statistical purposes, criminal

offences, tax purposes, etc.

172) There are numerous case laws – both American and European –

presented by the petitioners and the respondents with respect to

70 Regulation (EU) 2016/679 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 27 April 2016 on the protection of natural persons with regard to the processing of personal data and on the free movement of such data, and repealing Directive 95/46/EC (General Data Protection Regulation) Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 260 of 567 the collection, storage and use of biometric data which have been

taken note of above. They are illustrative of the method and

safeguards required to satisfy the proportionality principle while

dealing with biometric data. The first set of cases cited by the

petitioners are cases from European Human Rights Courts.

173) The European Human Rights legislations have both explicitly and

through case laws recognized the right to informational privacy

and data protection. The EU Charter of Fundamental Rights

states in Article 7 that ‘everyone has the right to respect for his or

her private and family life, home and communications’ and in

Article 8 it grants a fundamental right to protection of personal

data. The first article of the EU Charter affirms the right to respect

and protection of human dignity. The ECHR also recognises the

right to respect for private and family life, home and his

correspondence which have been read to include protection of

right to control over personal biometric information.

174) As pointed out above as well, a prominent case which addresses

the question of storage of biometric data, i.e. whether storage

and retention of DNA samples and fingerprints violates Article 8 of

the ECHR, is S and Marper71. In this case, the storing of DNA

71 S and Marper v. United Kingdom [2008] ECHR 1581 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 261 of 567 profiles and cellular samples of any person arrested in the United

Kingdom was challenged before the ECtHR. Even if the individual

was never charged or if criminal proceedings were discontinued

or if the person was later acquitted of any crime, their DNA profile

could nevertheless be kept permanently on record without their

consent.

175) In a unanimous verdict, the seventeen-judge bench held that

there had been a violation of Article 8 of the ECHR. Fingerprints,

DNA profiles and cellular samples, constituted personal data and

their retention was capable of affecting private life of an

individual. The retention of such data without consent, thus,

constitutes violation of Article 8 as they relate to identified and

identifiable individuals. It held that:

“84. …fingerprints objectively contain unique information about the individual concerned allowing his or her identification with precision in a wide range of circumstances. They are thus capable of affecting his or her private life and retention of this information without the consent of the individual concerned cannot be regarded as neutral or insignificant.”

176) It articulated the proportionality principle in the following words:

“101. An interference will be considered “necessary in a democratic society” for a legitimate aim if it answers a “pressing social need” and, in particular, if it is proportionate to the legitimate aim pursued and if the reasons adduced by the national authorities to justify it are "relevant and sufficient

xx xx xx Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 262 of 567 The protection of personal data is of fundamental importance to a person's enjoyment of his or her right to respect for private and family life, as guaranteed by Article 8 of the Convention. The domestic law must afford appropriate safeguards to prevent any such use of personal data as may be inconsistent with the guarantees of this Article. The need for such safeguards is all the greater where the protection of personal data undergoing automatic processing is concerned, not least when such data are used for police purposes. The domestic law should notably ensure that such data are relevant and not excessive in relation to the purposes for which they are stored; and preserved in a form which permits identification of the data subjects for no longer than is required for the purpose for which those data are stored … The domestic law must also afford adequate guarantees that retained personal data was efficiently protected from misuse and abuse.”

177) The issue in the case according to the Court was whether the

retention of the fingerprints and DNA data of the applicants, as

persons who had been suspected but not convicted of certain

criminal offences, was justified under Article 8 of the Convention.

178) The Court held that such invasion of privacy was not

proportionate as it was not “necessary in a democratic society” as

it did not fulfill any pressing social need. The blanket and

indiscriminate nature of retention of data was excessive and did

not strike a balance between private and public interest. It held:

“125. the blanket and indiscriminate nature of the powers of retention of the fingerprints, cellular samples and DNA profiles of persons suspected but not convicted of offences, as applied in the case of the present applicants, fails to strike a fair balance between the competing public and Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 263 of 567 private interests and that the respondent State has overstepped any acceptable margin of appreciation in this regard. Accordingly, the retention at issue constitutes a disproportionate interference with the applicants' right to respect for private life and cannot be regarded as necessary in a democratic society. This conclusion obviates the need for the Court to consider the applicants' criticism regarding the adequacy of certain particular safeguards, such as too broad an access to the personal data concerned and insufficient protection against the misuse or abuse of such data.”

179) The two crucial aspects of the case that need to be kept in mind

are – First, in that case, the fingerprints were collected for

criminal purposes and without the consent of the individual to

whom the fingerprints belonged. Second, the fingerprints were to

be stored indefinitely without the consent of the individual and

that the individual did not have an option to seek deletion. These

aspects were vital for the Court to decide that the retention

violated the citizen’s right to privacy.

180) Similarly, in the Digital Ireland case72, the European Parliament

and the Council of the European Union adopted Directive

2006/24/EC (Directive), which regulated Internet Service

Providers’ storage of telecommunications data. It could be used

to retain data which was generated or processed in connection

with the provision of publicly available electronic communications

services or of public communications network, for the purpose of

72 Digital Rights Ireland Ltd v Minister for Communication, Marine and Natural Resources [2014] All ER (D) 66 (Apr) Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 264 of 567 fighting serious crime in the European Union. The data included

data necessary to trace and identify the source of communication

and its destination, to identify the date, time duration, type of

communication, IP address, telephone number and other fields.

The Court of Justice of European Court (CJEU) evaluated the

compatibility of the Directive with Articles 7 and 8 of the Charter

and declared the Directive to be invalid.

181) According to the CJEU, the Directive interfered with the right to

respect for private life under Article 7 and with the right to the

protection of personal data under Article 8 of the Charter of

Fundamental Rights of the European Union. It allowed very

precise conclusion to be drawn concerning the private lives of the

persons whose data had been retained, such as habits of

everyday life, permanent or temporary places of residence, daily

and other movements, activities carried out, social relationships

and so on. The invasion of right was not proportionate to the

legitimate aim pursued for the following reasons:

(i) Absence of limitation of data retention pertaining to a

particular time period and/or a particular geographical zone

and/or to a circle of particular persons likely to be involved.

(ii) Absence of objective criterion, substantive and procedural

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 265 of 567 conditions to determine the limits of access of the competent

national authorities to the data and their subsequent use for the

purposes of prevention, detection or criminal prosecutions. There

was no prior review carried out by a court or by an independent

administrative body whose decision sought to limit access to the

data and their use to what is strictly necessary for attaining the

objective pursued.

(iii) Absence of distinction being made between the categories

of data collected based on their possible usefulness.

(iv) Period of retention i.e. 6 months was very long being not

based on an objective criterion.

(v) Absence of rules to protect data retained against the risk of

abuse and against any unlawful access and use of that data.

(vi) Directive does not require the data in question to be

retained within the European Union.

182) In Tele2 Sverige AB vs. Post-och telestyrelsen73, the CJEU was

seized with the issue as to whether in light of Digital Rights

Ireland, a national law which required a provider of electronic

communications services to retain meta-data (name, address,

telephone number and IP address) regarding users/subscribers

for the purpose of fighting crime was contrary to Article 7, 8 and

73 Tele2 Sverige AB v. Post-och telestyrelsen and Secretary of State for the Home Department v. Tom Watson, Peter Brice, Geoffrey Lewis, Joined Cases C-203/15 and C-698/15, 2016 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 266 of 567 11 of the EU Charter. The CJEU struck down the provision

allowing collection of such meta data on grounds of lack of

purpose limitation, data differentiation, data protection, prior

review by a court or administrative authority and consent,

amongst other grounds. It held:

“103. While the effectiveness of the fight against serious crime, in particular organised crime and terrorism (…) cannot in itself justify that national legislation providing for the general and indiscriminate retention of all traffic and location data should be considered to be necessary for the purposes of that fight.

xx xx xx

105. Second, national legislation (…) provides for no differentiation, limitation or exception according to the objective pursued. It is comprehensive in that it affects all persons using electronic communication services, even though those persons are not, even indirectly, in a situation that is liable to give rise to criminal proceedings. It therefore applies even to persons for whom there is no evidence capable of suggesting that their conduct might have a link, even an indirect or remote one, with serious criminal offences. Further, it does not provide for any exception, and consequently it applies even to persons whose communications are subject, according to rules of national law, to the obligation of professional secrecy.

xx xx xx

if it is to be ensured that data retention is limited to what is strictly necessary, it must be observed that, while those conditions may vary according to the nature of the measures taken for the purposes of prevention, investigation, detection and prosecution of serious crime, the retention of data must continue nonetheless to meet objective criteria, that establish a connection between the data to be retained and the objective pursued. In particular, such conditions must be shown to be such as actually to circumscribe, in practice, the extent of that measure and, thus, the public affected.” Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 267 of 567

183) With respect to measures for data security and data protection

the court held :

“122. Those provisions require those providers to take appropriate technical and organisational measures to ensure the effective protection of retained data against risks of misuse and against any unlawful access to that data. Given the quantity of retained data, the sensitivity of that data and the risk of unlawful access to it, the providers of electronic communications services must, in order to ensure the full integrity and confidentiality of that data, guarantee a particularly high level of protection and security by means of appropriate technical and organisational measures. In particular, the national legislation must make provision for the data to be retained within the European Union and for the irreversible destruction of the data at the end of the data retention period.”

184) In BVerfG74, the German Constitutional Court rendered on March

02, 2010 a decision by which provisions of the data retention

legislation adopted for, inter alia, the prevention of crime were

rendered void because of lack of criteria for rendering the data

retention proportional.

185) In Maximillian Schrems v. Data Protection Commissioner75, the

CJEU struck down the transatlantic US-EU Safe Harbor

agreement that enabled companies to transfer data from Europe

to the United States on the ground that there was not an

adequate level of safeguard to protect the data. It held that the

74 2.03. 2010, 1 BvR 256 / 08 , 1 BvR 263 / 08 , 1 BvR 586 / 08 75 [2016] 2 W.L.R. 873 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 268 of 567 U.S. authorities could access the data beyond what was strictly

necessary and proportionate to the protection of national security.

The subject had no administrative or judicial means of accessing,

rectifying or erasing their data.

186) In Szabo and Vissy v. Hungary76, the ECtHR held unanimously

that there had been a violation of Article 8 (right to respect for

private and family life, the home and correspondence) of the

European Convention on Human Rights. The case concerned

Hungarian legislation on secret anti-terrorist surveillance

introduced in 2011. The court held that the legislation in question

did not have sufficient safeguards to avoid abuse. Notably, the

scope of the measures could include virtually anyone in Hungary,

with new technologies enabling the Government to intercept

masses of data easily concerning even persons outside the

original range of operation. Furthermore, the ordering of such

measures was taking place entirely within the realm of the

executive and without an assessment of whether interception of

communications was strictly necessary. There were no effective

remedial measures in place, let alone judicial ones. The court

held:

“77. … Rule of law implies, inter alia, that an interference by the executive authorities with an individual right should 76 Eur. Ct. H.R. 2016 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 269 of 567 be subject to an effective control which should normally be assured by the judiciary, at least in the last resort…”

187) Thus, it is evident from various case laws cited above, that data

collection, usage and storage (including biometric data) in Europe

requires adherence to the principles of consent, purpose and

storage limitation, data differentiation, data exception, data

minimization, substantive and procedural fairness and

safeguards, transparency, data protection and security. Only by

such strict observance of the above principles can the State

successfully discharge the burden of proportionality while

affecting the privacy rights of its citizens.

188) The jurisprudence with respect to collection, use and retention of

biometric information in the United States differs from the EU. In

the US context, there is no comprehensive data protection

regime. This is because of the federal system of American

government, there are multiple levels of law

enforcement―federal, state, and local. Different states have

differing standards for informational privacy. Moreover, the U.S.

has a sectoral approach to privacy, i.e. laws and regulations

related to data differ in different sectors such as health sector or

student sector. In most cases, however, the Fourth Amendment

which prohibits “unreasonable searches and seizures” by the Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 270 of 567 government has been read by courts to envisage various levels

data protection.

189) At this juncture, we are not entering the debate as to whether the

jurisprudence developed in United States is to be preferred or

E.U. approach would be more suitable. Fact remains that

importance to data protection in processing the data of the

citizens is an accepted norm.

190) Observance of this fundamental principle is necessary to prevent

a disproportionate infringement of the Fundamental Right of

Privacy of a citizen. The question which now needs to be

addressed is whether the Aadhaar Act and Rules incorporate

these principles of data protection. We have already taken note

of the provisions in the Act, which relate to data protection.

However, a detailed analysis of the provisions of the Act needs to

be undertaken for this purpose having regard to the principles

that have emerged from case law in other jurisdiction and noted

in paragraph 187 above.

Data Minimisation:

191) The petitioners have argued that the Act enables data collection

indiscriminately regarding all aspects of a person (biometrics,

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 271 of 567 demographic details, authentication records, meta-data related to

transaction) even though such data has no nexus to the

purported object of subsidies, thus violating the principle of data

minimization. The data collected is sufficient to indicate religion,

class, social status, income, education and intimate personal

details. Under Section 32 of the Act, authentication records are

stored in the central database in the manner prescribed under the

Regulations. Regulation 26 of the Authentication Regulations

requires UIDAI to store “authentication transaction data”

consisting of: (a) authentication request data received including

PID block; (b) authentication response data sent; (c) meta data

related to the transaction; and (d) any authentication server side

configurations as necessary. The authentication record affords

access to information that can be used and analyzed to

systematically track or profile an individual and her activities.

192) As per the respondents, Aadhaar involves minimal identity

information for effective authentication. Four types of information

collected for providing Aadhaar:

(i) Mandatory demographic information comprising name, date of

birth, address and gender [Section 2(k) read with Regulation 4(1)

of the Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update) Regulations, 2016];

(ii) Optional demographic information [Section 2(k) read with Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 272 of 567 Regulation 4(2) of the Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update)

Regulations, 2016];

(iii) Non-core biometric information comprising photograph;

(iv) Core biometric information comprising finger print and iris

scan.

193) Demographic information, both mandatory and optional, and

photographs does not raise a reasonable expectation of privacy

under Article 21 unless under special circumstances such as

juveniles in conflict of law or a rape victim’s identity. Today, all

global ID cards contain photographs for identification alongwith

address, date of birth, gender etc. The demographic information

is readily provided by individuals globally for disclosing identity

while relating with others and while seeking benefits whether

provided by government or by private entities, be it registration for

citizenship, elections, passports, marriage or enrolment in

educational institutions. Email ids and phone numbers are also

available in public domain, For example in telephone directories.

Aadhaar Act only uses demographic information which are not

sensitive and where no reasonable expectation of privacy exists -

name, date of birth, address, gender, mobile number and e mail

address. Section 2(k) specifically provides that Regulations

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 273 of 567 cannot include race, religion, caste, tribe, ethnicity, language,

records of entitlement, income or medical history. Thus, sensitive

information specifically stand excluded.

194) We find that Section 32 (3) of the Aadhaar Act specifically

prohibits the authority from collecting, storing or maintaining,

either directly or indirectly any information about the purpose of

authentication. The proviso to Regulation 26 of Authentication

Regulations is also to the same effect.

195) Thus, the principle of data minimization is largely followed.

196) With this, we advert to some other provisions, challenge whereof

is based on threat to security of the data. These are Section 2(c),

Section 2(g) and Section 2(h) read with Section 10 of the

Aadhaar Act. Section 2(c) pertains to authentication. It is a

process by which Aadhaar number along with demographic

information or biometric information of an individual is submitted

to the CIDR for its verification. On submission thereof, the CIDR

verifies the correctness or lack of it. CIDR is defined in Section

2(h). Section 10 lays down that the Authority may engage one or

more entities to establish or maintain the CIDR and to perform

any other functions as may be specified by regulations.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 274 of 567

197) Insofar as authentication process is concerned, that has already

been taken note of above. The manner in which it is explained by

the respondent authority, that may not pose much of a problem.

As noted earlier, while seeking authentication, neither the location

of the person whoso identity is to be verified nor the purpose for

which authentication of such identity is needed, comes to the

knowledge of the Authority and, therefore, such data collected by

the Authority. Therefore, the threat to real time surveillance and

profiling may be far-fetched. The respondents have explained

that Section 2(d) defines “authentication record” to mean the

record of the time of authentication, identity of the RE and the

response provided by the authority”, Regulation 26 (a) to (d) does

not go beyond the scope of Section 2(d). None of the four

clauses of Regulation 26 entitle the authority to store data about

the purpose for which authentication is being done. The device

can therefore only tell the authority the identity of the RE, the PID,

the time and nature of response, the code of the device and the

authentication server side configurations. Identity of the RE does

not include details of the organization which is seeking

authentication as an RE provides authentication service to large

number of government organizations who have agreements with

it. Such a mechanism preventing the authority from tracking the

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 275 of 567 nature of activity for which the authentication was required. To

illustrate nic.in is an RE which provides authentication service to

large number of Government organisations who have

agreements with it. The authentication record would only contain

information about the identity about the RE. It will give

information only about the RE (nic.in) and not about the

organisation which is requiring authentication through the RE. In

most cases the authentication is one time. Mr. Dwivedi has also

explained that yet again, there may be organisations, which have

branches in different part of India. Assuming Apollo Hospital

(although in fact it is not an RE) has five branches in India. If

Apollo Hospital seeks authentication as an RE, the authentication

record will merely tell the identity of Apollo Hospital and its device

code, but it will not indicate which branch of Apollo was seeking

authentication and from which part of the country. Further,

assuming that the Indira Gandhi International Airport is an RE

and there is requirement of authentication at the point of entry

and/or exit. All that the record will show that the ANH has entered

the airport at a particular time but it will not show by which plane

he is flying and to what destination. At the time of exit, it will only

show that the person has exited the airport at a particular time. It

will not show from which flight he has arrived and from which

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 276 of 567 destination and at what time he has arrived or with whom he

travelled.

198) However, other apprehension of the petitioners is that storing of

data for a period of seven years as per Regulations 20 and 26/27

of the Aadhaar (Authentication) Regulations, 2016 is too long a

period. We may reproduce Regulations 26 and 27 of the Aadhaar

(Authentication) Regulations, 2016 hereunder:

“26. Storage and Maintenance of Authentication Transaction Data – (1) The Authority shall store and maintain authentication transaction data, which shall contain the following information:-

(a) authentication request data received including PID block;

(b) authentication response data sent;

(c) meta data related to the transaction;

(d) any authentication server side configurations as necessary:

Provided that the Authority shall not, in any case, store the purpose of authentication.

27. Duration of storage – (1) Authentication transaction data shall be retained by the Authority for a period of 6 months, and thereafter archived for a period of five years.

(2) Upon expiry of the period of five years specified in sub- regulation (1), the authentication transaction data shall be deleted except when such authentication transaction data are required to be maintained by a court or in connection with any pending dispute.”

199) It is also submitted that Section 10 which authorises the Authority

to engage one or more entities, which may be private entities, to Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 277 of 567 establish and maintain CIDR is a serious threat to privacy and it

even amounts to compromise on national sovereignty and

security. Insofar as first argument is concerned, there appears to

be some force in that. If authentication is the only purpose, we

fail to understand why this authentication record is needed to be

kept for a period of 2+5 years. No satisfactory explanation in this

behalf was given.

200) Insofar as information regarding metadata is concerned, we may

note that the respondents distinguished between three types of

meta-data :technical, business and process metadata. Process

metadata describes the results of various operations such as logs

key data, start time, end time, CPU seconds used, disk reads,

disk writes, and rows processed. This data is valuable for

purposes of authenticating transaction, troubleshooting , security,

compliance and monitoring and improving performance. They

submit that the metadata contemplated under this Regulation is

Process metadata.

201) However, metadata is not defined in the Aadhaar Act. In common

parlance, it is understood as information about data, example

whereof was given by Mr. Sibal that the text of a message

exchanged between two persons would be the data itself. Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 278 of 567 However, surrounding circumstances like when the message was

sent; from whom and to whom the message was sent; and

location from which the message was sent would include meta

data. As noted above, Mr. Dwivedi had tried to explain it away by

stating that there are three types of meta data, namely, technical,

business and process meta data. According to him, meta data

under the Aadhaar Act refers to only process meta data. In

support, he had referred to Section 2(d) of the Aadhaar Act which

defines ‘authentication record’ to mean the record of the time of

authentication, identity of requesting entity and the response

provided by the Authority. He, thus, submitted that Regulation 26

would not go beyond Section 2(d). However, aforesaid

explanation that meta data refers to process data only does not

find specific mention. There is, thus, need to amend Regulation

26 to restrict it to process meta data, and to exclude other type of

meta data specifically.

Purpose Limitation:

202) As per the petitioners, there is no purpose limitation. Identity

information collected for one purpose under the Act can be

used for any other (new) purpose. Definition of “benefit”

(Section 2(f)) and “service” (Section 2(w)) and “subsidy” (Section

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 279 of 567 2(x)), to which the personal data collected is supposed to be

applied is not identifiable. It is open to the executive to notify that

any advantage, gift, reward, relief, payment, provision, facility,

utility or any other assistance aid, support, grant subvention, or

appropriation may be made conditional on Aadhaar

Authentication. Moreover, under Section 57, the State, a body

corporate or any person can avail authentication facility and

access information under CIDR. This creates an open ended and

unspecified set of laws and contracts for which Aadhaar can be

used and defeats the principle of informed consent at the time of

enrolment and purpose limitation.

203) Respondents controvert the aforesaid submission by arguing that

there is purpose limitation under the Aadhaar Act as purpose of

use of biometric data in the CIDR is limited to authentication for

identification. The Aadhaar holder is made aware of such use of

the Aadhaar card at the time of enrolment. The enrolling agency

is obliged under the Enrolment Regulations to inform the

individual about the manner in which the information shall be

used, the nature of recipients with whom the information is to be

shared during authentication; and the existence of a right to

access information, the procedure for making request for such

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 280 of 567 access and details of the person/ department to whom request

can be made. This information to individual is the basis for his

consent for enrolment.

204) As per the respondents, Section 57 is not an enabling provision

which allows Aadhaar to be used for purposes other than Section

7, but is a limiting provision. It limits its use by State, Body

Corporate or a person by requiring it to be sanctioned by any law

in force or any contract and making the use subject to the proviso

to Section 57. The proviso requires the use of Aadhaar under this

Section to be subject to procedure and obligations under Section

8 and Chapter VI of penalties. Section 8(2)(a) requires

Requesting Entities (RE) (parties authorized to carry out

authentication under Section 57) to obtain the consent of an

individual before collecting her identity information for the

purposes of authentication in such manner as may be specified

by regulations. Section 8(3) enables this consent to be informed

consent by requiring that an individual submitting her identity

information for authentication shall be informed of the nature and

the use of the information that may be shared upon

authentication and the alternatives to submission of identity

information to the requesting entity. This aspect is discussed in

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 281 of 567 detail at a later stage, as it touches upon privacy aspects as well.

Suffice it is to mention here that we have found some portion of

Section 57 as offending and declared that unconstitutional.

Insofar as Sections 2(f), (w) and (x) are concerned, these

provisions are discussed at a later stage 77. We would like to

mention here that we have read down these provisions. The

aforesaid measure would subserve the purpose limitation as well.

Time Period for Data Retention:

205) We have touched upon this aspect hereinabove. According to

petitioners, the data is allowed to be retained for an

unreasonable long period of time. Regulation 27 of the

Authentication Regulations requires the UIDAI to retain the

“authentication transaction data” (which includes the meta data)

for a period of 6 months and to archive the same for a period of 5

years thereafter. Regulation 18(3) and 20(3) allow Requesting

entities (RE) and Authentication Service Agencies to retain the

authentication logs for a period of 2 years and then archive them

for 5 years. It is required to be deleted only after 7 years unless

retained by a court. The right of the citizen to erasure of data or

right to be forgotten is severely affected by such regulation. There

is no provision to delete the biometric information in any

77 See paragraphs 320 to 322 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 282 of 567 eventuality once a person is enrolled.

We do not find any reason for archiving the authentication

transaction data for a period of five years. Retention of this data

for a period of six months is more than sufficient after which it

needs to be deleted except when such authentication transaction

data are required to be maintained by a Court or in connection

with any pending dispute. Regulations 26 and 27 shall, therefore,

be amended accordingly.

Data Protection and Security:

206) Petitioners argued that there are not enough safeguards for data

protection and security in the Act. Section 28 of the Act which

addresses security and confidentiality of information is vague and

fails to lay down any standard of data security or prescribe any

cogent measures which are to be taken to prevent data breaches.

Section 54 empowers UIDAI to make regulations related to

various data management processes, security protocol and other

technology safeguards. The Aadhaar (Data Security)

Regulations, 2016 passed by UIDAI under Section 54, vest in the

authority a discretion to specify “an information security policy”

(Regulation 3). This leads to excessive delegation. Alternatively, it

has not been subject to parliamentary oversight which

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 283 of 567 Regulations under Section 54 require. Further, the CIDR central

database, unlike the ASAs and REs (under Authentication

Regulation 22(1)), are not required to be located in data centres.

The personal data is accessible by private entities such as AUAs

and KUAs and other private entities such as banks, insurance

companies and telecom service providers. There have been

numerous data breaches in the Aadhaar system. These establish

its vulnerability. There are not enough safeguards from data hack

and data leak. The data is being used by private parties to build

comprehensive databases containing information and profiles of

individuals. Thus the project also lacks transparency of data and

its use.

207) The Respondents contend that strong measures for data

protection and security, taken at all stages of data collection,

transfer, storage and use.

After deliberating over respective contentions, we are of the

opinion that the following explanation furnished by the

respondents on various facets ensures data protection and

security to a considerable extent:

(a) CIDR

208) Regulation 3(i) & (j) of Aadhaar (Data Security) Regulation 2016

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 284 of 567 enables partitioning of CIDR network into zones based on risk

and trust and other security measures. CIDR being a computer

resource is notified to be a “Protected System” under Section 70

of the IT Act, 2000 by the Central Government on 11.12.2015.

Anyone trying to unlawfully gain access into this system is liable

to be punished with 10 years imprisonment and fine. The storage

involves end to end encryption, logical partitioning, firewalling and

anonymisation of decrypted biometric data. Breaches of penalty

are made punitive by Chapter VII of the Act. Biometric information

is deemed to be an “electronic record”, and “Sensitive personal

data or information” under the IT Act, 2000. There are further

guards under The Aadhaar ( Data Security )Regulation, 2016.

(b) Requesting Entities (AUA and KUA)

209) Other identity information is shared with Requesting Entity (AUAs

and KUAs) only for the limited purpose of authentication. The

data is transferred from the RE to the ASA (Authentication

Service Agency) to the CIDR in an encrypted manner through a

leased line circuitry using secure Protocols (Regulation 9 of the

Authentication Regulations). The storage of data templates is in

safely located servers with no public internet inlet/outlet, and

offline storage of original encrypted data (PID blocks). There are

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 285 of 567 safety and security provisions such as audit by Information

Systems Auditor. REs are appointed through agreement. REs can

enter into agreement with sub-AUA or sub-KUA with permission

of the of UIDAI. Whatever identity information is obtained by the

requesting entity is based on a specific consent of the Aadhaar

number holder. The e-KYC data shared with the RE can only be

after prior consent of the Aadhaar holder. Such data cannot be

shared and has to be stored in encrypted form. The biometric

information used is not permitted to be stored only the logs of

authentication transactions are maintained for a short period. Full

identity information is never transmitted back to RE. There is a

statutory bar from sharing Biometric information [Section 29(1)(a)/

Section 29(4)]. The Data centres of ASA, REs and CIDR should

be within the territory of India.

(c) Enrolment Agencies and Registrars

210) The enrolment and Authentication processes are strongly

regulated so that data is secure. The Enrolment agency, which

collects the biometric and demographic of the individuals during

enrolment, is appointed either by UIDAI or by a Registrar [Section

2(s)]. The registrar are appointed through MoUs or agreements

for enrolment and are to abide by a code of conduct and

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 286 of 567 processes, policies and guidelines issued by the authority. They

are responsible for the process of enrolment. Categories of

persons eligible for appointment are limited by the Regulations.

The agency employees a certified supervisor, an operator and a

verifier under Enrolment and Update Regulations. Registrars,

enrolling agencies are obliged to use the software provided or

authorized by UIDAI for enrolment purpose. The standard

software has security features as specified by Authority. All

equipment used are as per the specification issued by the

authority. The Registrars are prohibited from using the

information collected for any purpose other than uploading the

information to CIDR. Sub-contracting of enrolment function is not

allowed. The Code of Conduct contains specific directions for

following the confidentiality, privacy and security protocols and

submission of periodic reports of enrolment. Not only there are

directions prohibiting manipulation and fraudulent practices but

the Act contains penal provisions for such violations in Chapter

VII of the Regulations. The enrolment agencies are empanelled

by the authority. They are given an enrolling agency code using

which the Registrar can onboard such agency to the CIDR. The

enrolment data is uploaded to the Central Identities Data

Repository (CIDR) certified equipment and software with a digital

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 287 of 567 signature of the registrar/enrolling agency. The data is encrypted

immediately upon capture. The decryption key is with the UIDAI

solely. Section 2(ze) of the IT Act, which defines ‘secure systems’

and Section 2(w) of the Act, which defines ‘intermediaries’ apply

to the process.

(d) Authentication Service Agency

211) Authentication only becomes available through the Authentication

Service Agency (ASA). They are regulated by the Aadhaar

(Authentication) Regulations, 2016. Their role and responsibilities

are provided by Authentication Regulation 19. They are to use

certified devices, equipment, or software are duly registered with

or approved or certified by the Authority/agency. The systems and

operations are audited by information system auditor. The REs

pass the encrypted data to the CIDR through the ASA and the

response (Yes/No authentication or e-KYC information) also

takes the same route back. The server of the ASA has to perform

basic compliance and completeness checks on the authentication

data packet before forwarding it to the CIDR.

(e) Hacking

212) As far as hacking is concerned, the respondents submit that the

authority has involved adequate firewalling and other safety

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 288 of 567 features. The biometric data stored in the CIDR is stored offline.

Only templates are online. So far there has been no incidence of

hacking. However, the authority is conscious of the hackers and it

constantly updates itself to safe guard the data.

It may, however, be mentioned that of late certain reports

have appeared in newspapers to the effect that some people

could hack the website of CIDR, though it is emphatically denied

by the UIDAI. Since there are only newspapers reports to this

effect which appeared after the conclusion of hearing in these

cases and, therefore, parties could not be heard on this aspect,

we leave this aspect of the matter at that with a hope that CIDR

would find out the ways and means to curb any such tendency.

(f) Biometric Solution Providers

213) With respect to foreign companies owning software, Respondents

submit that UIDAI has entered into licensing agreements with

foreign biometric solution providers (BSP) for software. Even

thought the source code of the software are retained by the BSP

as it constitutes their Intellectual property, the data in the server

rooms is secure as the software operates automatically and the

biometric data is stored offline. There is no opportunity available

to BSP to extract data as they have no access to it.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 289 of 567 Substantive, Procedural or Judicial Safeguards:

214) Another grievance of the petitioners is that the Act lacks any

substantive, procedural or judicial safeguards against misuse of

individual data. Section 23(2)(k) which allows sharing information

of Aadhaar holders, in such manner as may be specified by

regulations. This means individual’s identity information can be

shared with the government. This may include demographic and

core biometric information, include aspects such as DNA profiles,

handwriting, voice-print etc., (in the future). Subsequent linkage

with various state and non-state actors that interact with such

individual may enable UIDAI to share greater information. The

police can easily gain access to all biometric information, bank

accounts of the individual, all mobile phones, and meta data

associated with any associated linkages, information relating to

all mutual funds, policies etc., information relating to travel by air

or by rail by such person and so on.

215) In other cases of collection of information of this kind under other

laws, there are exhaustive legal procedures. For example,

Section 73 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 which allows the

taking of handwriting samples only if necessary “for the purposes

of any (specific ) investigation”, or in order to compare writing or

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 290 of 567 signature that appears in relation to the facts of a particular case.

Section 53 of the CrPC allows medical examination of a person

arrested on a charge of committing an offence if reasonable

grounds exist for believing that an examination of his person will

afford evidence as to the commission of the offence. Similarly

provisions in various other statutes such as of the Foreign

Exchange Regulation Act, 1973 (Sections 34-48); the Prevention

of Money-Laundering Act, 2002 (Sections 17-19); the Narcotic

Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 (Sections 41-42)

and the Customs Act, 1962 (Chapter 13) which allow for search,

seizure or even arrest, and thereby provide access to personal

information also bear a nexus with a particular crime under

investigation.

216) As per the petitioners, the Investigating Agency can presently

access fingerprints, only limited to cases of citizens who were

arrested on the reasonable basis of having committed a crime, or

were convicted of a crime, as per provisions of the Identification

of Prisoners Act. In all such circumstances, not only are there

adequate safeguards- such as permission from the Magistrate

that collection is necessary for the purpose of investigation, but

persons accused of an offence presently can claim protection

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 291 of 567 under Article 20(3), thereby making it incumbent upon the

investigating agency to obtain such information in accordance

with law, as described above. Further, unlike the Aadhaar Act,

present day criminal statutes contain provisions for destruction of

some kinds of core biometric data obtained [Section 7 of the

Identification of Prisoners Act, 1920]. No such safeguards exist

under the Aadhaar Act.

217) It is also argued that Section 33(2), which permits disclosure of

identity information and authentication records under direction of

an officer not below the rank of Jt. Secretary to Central

Government in the interest of national security, has no provision

for judicial review. The Oversight Committee does not have a

judicial member.

218) Respondents submitted that Section 29 of the Aadhaar Act

provides protection against disclosure of core biometric

information. The biometric information cannot shared with anyone

for any reason whatsoever; or used for any purpose other than

generation of Aadhaar numbers and authentication under this Act.

Section 8 ensure that the during authentication, biometric

information of an individual is only used for submission to the

Central Identities Data Repository.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 292 of 567

219) We are of the view that most of the apprehensions of the

petitioners stand assuaged with the treatment which is given by

us to some of the provisions. Some of these are already

discussed above and some provisions are debated in the next

issue. Summary thereof, however, can be given hereunder:

(a) Authentication records are not to be kept beyond a period

of six months, as stipulated in Regulation 27(1) of the

Authentication Regulations. This provision which permits

records to be archived for a period of five years is held to

be bad in law.

(b) Metabase relating to transaction, as provided in Regulation

26 of the aforesaid Regulations in the present form, is held

to be impermissible, which needs suitable amendment.

(c) Section 33 of the Aadhaar Act is read down by clarifying

that an individual, whose information is sought to be

released, shall be afforded an opportunity of hearing.

(d) Insofar as Section 33(2) of the Act in the present form is

concerned, the same is struck down.

(e) That portion of Section 57 of the Aadhaar Act which

enables body corporate and individual to seek

authentication is held to be unconstitutional.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 293 of 567

(f) We have also impressed upon the respondents, as the

discussion hereinafter would reveal, to bring out a robust

data protection regime in the form of an enactment on the

basis of Justice B.N. Srikrishna (Retd.) Committee Report

with necessary modifications thereto as may be deemed

appropriate.

220) With the removal of the aforesaid provisions from the statute and

the Rules, coupled with the statement of the Authority on affidavit

that there is no record of any transactions carried out by the

individuals which is even known (and, therefore, no question of

the same being retained by the Authority), most of the

apprehensions of the petitioners are taken care of. At the same

time, we may remind ourselves of the judgment in G.

Sundarrajan v. Union of India & Ors.78. In that case, the Court

noted the safety and security risk in the setting up of the nuclear

power plant in the backdrop of Fukushima disaster and Bhopal

Gas tragedy. Yet, keeping in view the importance of generation

of nuclear energy, the Court observed that a balance should be

struck between production of nuclear energy which was of

extreme importance for the economic growth, alleviation of

poverty, generation of employment, and the smaller violation to

78 (2013) 6 SCC 620 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 294 of 567 right to life under Article 21. It took note of the opinion of experts

committee and observed that ‘adequate safety measure’ have

been taken. It noted huge expenditure of money running into

crores and observed ‘apprehension however legitimate it may be,

cannot override the justification of the project. Nobody on this

earth can predict what would happen in future and to a larger

extent we have to leave it to the destiny. But once the justification

test is satisfied, the apprehension test is bound to fail.

Apprehension is something we anticipate with anxiety or fear, a

fearful anticipation, which may vary from person to person’. The

Court also held that ‘nuclear power plant is being established not

to negate right to life but to protect the right to life guaranteed

under Article 21 of the Constitution. No doubt, the Court took a

view that this interest of people needed to be respected for their

human dignity which was divinity. However, it was also stressed

that generation of nuclear energy was a nuclear necessity and

the project was for larger public benefit and consequently,

individual interest or smaller public interest must yield. In such a

situation, necessity for ‘adequate care, caution, and monitoring at

every stage’ and ‘constant vigil’ was emphasised. Safety and

security was read into Article 21. Acknowledging that

proportionality of risk may not be ‘zero’, regard being had to the

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 295 of 567 nature’s unpredictability, the Court ruled that all efforts must be

made to avoid disaster by observing the highest degree of

constant alertness. In the directions of the Court, it was observed

that ‘maintaining safety is an ongoing process not only at the

design level but also during the operation’. In the present case

as well, we have come to the conclusion that Aadhaar Act is a

beneficial legislation which is aimed at empowering millions of

people in this country. The justification of this project has been

taken note of in detail, which the subsequent discussion shall

also demonstrate. In such a scenario only on apprehension, the

project cannot be shelved. At the same time, data protection and

data safety is also to be ensured to avoid even the remote

possibility of data profiling or data leakage.

221) Notwithstanding the statutory provision discussed above, we are

of the view that there is a need for a proper legislative

mechanism for data protection. The Government is not unmindful

of this essential requirement. During the arguments it was stated

by Mr. K.K. Venugopal, learned Attorney General, that an expert

committee heading by Justice B.N. Srikrishna (Retd.) was

constituted which was looking into the matter. The said

Committee has since given its report.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 296 of 567

222) In this behalf, it may be worthwhile to mention that one of the first

comprehensive reports on data protection and informational

privacy was prepared by the Group of Experts 79 constituted by

the Planning Commission of India under the Chairmanship of

Retd. Justice A.P. Shah, which submitted a report on 16 October,

2012. The five salient features of this report were expected to

serve as a conceptual foundation for legislation protecting

privacy. The framework suggested by the expert group was

based on five salient features: (i) Technological neutrality and

interoperability with international standards; (ii) Multi-Dimensional

privacy; (iii) Horizontal applicability to state and non-state entities;

(iv) Conformity with privacy principles; and (v) A co-regulatory

enforcement regime.

223) The Union Government, on 31 July 2017, had constituted a

committee chaired by Retd.Justice B N Srikrishna, former Judge

of the Supreme Court of India to review data protection norms in

the country and to make recommendations. The Committee

recently released its report and the first draft of the Personal Data

Protection Bill, 2018 which comprehensively addresses the

processing of personal data where such data has been collected,

79 “Report of the Group of Experts on Privacy” (16 October, 2012), Government of India, available at http://planningcommission.nic.in/reports/genrep/rep_privacy.pdf Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 297 of 567 disclosed, shared or otherwise processed within the territory of

India. The bill has incorporated provisions and principles from the

Europe’s General Data Protection Regulation (EUGDPR).

224) The Draft Bill replaces the traditional concepts of data controller

i.e. the entity which processes data and data subject i.e. the

natural person whose data is being collected, with data ‘fiduciary’

and data ‘principal’. It aims to create a trust-based relationship

between the two.

225) The Bill largely incorporates data protection principles from the

EUGDPR and EU data protection jurisprudence, including fair

and reasonable processing of data, purpose limitation, collection

limitation, lawful processing, storage limitation, data quality and

accountability. The Draft bill and the report cull out rights and

obligations of the data fiduciary and data controller respectively.

These rights include the right to access and correction, the right

to data portability and right to be forgotten – a right to prevent or

restrict disclosure of personal data by a fiduciary. Most

importantly, consent has been given a crucial status in the draft

data protection law. Thus, a primary basis for processing of

personal data must be individual consent. This consent is

required to be free, informed, specific, clear and, in an important

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 298 of 567 addition, capable of being withdrawn. The Authority under the Bill

is obligated and empowered to ensure protection of data from

misuse and compromise.

226) Processing of biometric data, classified as ‘Sensitive Personal

Data’ (SPD), by the data fiduciary mandates additional

safeguards (mentioned under Chapter IV of the Bill). For

example, the data fiduciary is required to undertake Data

Protection Impact Assessment under the provisions of the Bill.

The Draft Bill allows processing of biometric data for the exercise

of any function of the State authorised by law for the provision of

any service or benefit to the data principal. Special provisions to

protect sensitive and personal data of children also exist. For

example, Data fiduciaries shall be barred from profiling, tracking,

or behavioural monitoring of, or targeted advertising directed at,

children and undertaking any other processing of personal data

that can cause significant harm to the child.

227) For security of data and protection of breach, the Draft Bill has

separate provisions which require use of methods such as de-

identification and encryption and other steps necessary to protect

the integrity of personal data and to prevent misuse, unauthorised

access to, modification, disclosure or destruction of personal

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 299 of 567 data. The data fiduciary is required to immediately notify the

Authority of any personal data breach relating to any personal

data processed by the data fiduciary where such breach is likely

to cause harm to any data principal. It also incorporates a

provision for Grievance Redressal.

228) The Draft Bill creates several exceptions and exemptions for

processing data by the State. These are situations where rights

and obligations of data principals and data fiduciaries may not

apply in totality. Such situations include national security,

prevention of crime, allocation of resources for human

development, protection of revenue, etc. The committee asserts

that such exceptions have been envisaged in the Puttaswamy

judgement as legitimate interests of the state and satisfy the

proportionality test.

229) The Srikrishna Committee Report and the Draft Data Protection

Bill are the first articulation of a data protection law in our country.

They have incorporated many of the progressive data protection

principles inspired by the EUGDPR. There may be indeed be

scope for further fine tuning of this law through a consultative

process, however, we are not far away from a comprehensive

data protection regime which entrenches informational and data

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 300 of 567 privacy within our laws and legal system. We hope that there

would be a robust statutory regime in place in near future.

230) The aforesaid discussion leads us to hold that the protection that

there is going to be a surveillance state created by the Aadhaar

project is not well founded, and in any case, taken care of by the

diffluence exercise carried out with the striking down certain

offending provisions in their present form.

Privacy:

Whether Aadhaar Act violates right to privacy and is unconstitutional on this ground?

(This issue is considered in the context of Section 7 and Section 8 of the Act.)

231) The petitioners submit that right to privacy and dignity and

individual autonomy have been established by various cases. In

Gobind v. State of M.P.80, this Court held:

“the significance of man's spiritual nature, of his feelings and of his intellect and that only a part of the pain, pleasure, satisfaction of life can be found in material things and therefore they must be deemed to have conferred upon the individual as against the Government, a sphere where he should be let alone.

xx xx xx

24. Any right to privacy must encompass and protect the personal intimacies of the home, the family, marriage, motherhood, procreation and child rearing. This catalogue approach to the question is obviously not as instructive as it does not give analytical picture of the distinctive characteristics of the right of privacy. Perhaps, the only

80 (1975) 2 SCC 148 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 301 of 567 suggestion that can be offered as unifying principle underlying the concept has been the assertion that a claimed right must be a fundamental right implicit in the concept of ordered liberty.

25. Rights and freedoms of citizens are set forth in the Constitution in order to guarantee that the individual, his personality, and those things stamped with his personality shall be free from official interference except where a reasonable basis for intrusion exists. “Liberty against Government” a phrase coined by Professor Corwin expresses this idea forcefully. In this sense, many of the fundamental rights of citizens can be described as contributing to the right to privacy.

26. As Ely says:

“There is nothing to prevent one from using the word ‘privacy’ to mean the freedom to live one's life without governmental interference. But the Court obviously does not so use the term. Nor could it, for such a right is at stake in every case.”

232) To recapitulate briefly, the judgment of K.S. Puttaswamy has

affirmed the following –

(i) privacy has always been a natural right, and the correct

position has been established by a number of judgments starting

from Gobind. Privacy is a concomitant of the right of the

individual to exercise control over his or her personality. Equally,

privacy is the necessary condition precedent to the enjoyment of

any of the guarantees in Part III. The fundamental right to privacy

would cover at least three aspects—(i) intrusion with an

individual’s physical body, (ii) informational privacy and (iii)

privacy of choice. Further, one aspect of privacy is the right to Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 302 of 567 control the dissemination of personal information. Every individual

should have a right to be able to control exercise over his/her own

life and image as portrayed in the world and to control

commercial use of his/her identity.

(ii) The sanctity of privacy lies in its functional relationship with

dignity. Privacy ensures that a human being can lead a life of

dignity by securing the inner recesses of the human personality

from unwanted intrusions. While the legitimate expectation of

privacy may vary from intimate zone to the private zone and from

the private to the public arena, it is important to underscore that

privacy is not lost or surrendered merely because the individual is

in a public place. Privacy is a postulate of dignity itself. Privacy

concerns arise when the State seeks to intrude into the body and

the mind of the citizen.

(iii) Privacy as intrinsic to freedom, liberty and dignity. The right

to privacy is inherent to the liberties guaranteed by Part-III of the

Constitution and privacy is an element of human dignity. The

fundamental right to privacy derives from Part-III of the

Constitution and recognition of this right does not require a

constitutional amendment. Privacy is more than merely a

derivative constitutional right. It is the necessary basis of rights

guaranteed in the text of the Constitution.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 303 of 567 (iv) Privacy has both positive and negative content. The

negative content restrains the State from committing an intrusion

upon the life and personal liberty of a citizen. Its positive content

imposes an obligation on the State to take all necessary

measures to protect the privacy of the individual.

(v) Informational Privacy is a facet of right to privacy. The old

adage that ‘knowledge is power’ has stark implications for the

position of individual where data is ubiquitous, an all-

encompassing presence. Every transaction of an individual user

leaves electronic tracks, without her knowledge. Individually these

information silos may seem inconsequential. In aggregation,

information provides a picture of the beings. The challenges

which big data poses to privacy emanate from both State and

non-State entities.

(vi) Right to privacy cannot be impinged without a just, fair and

reasonable law. It has to fulfil the test of proportionality i.e. (i)

existence of a law (ii) must serve a legitimate State aim and (iii)

proportionate.

233) We have also remarked, in paragraph 85 above, the taxonomy of

privacy, namely, on the basis of ‘harms’, ‘interest’ and

‘aggregation of rights’. We have also discussed the scope of

right to privacy with reference to the cases at hand and the Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 304 of 567 circumstances in which such a right can be limited. In the

process, we have also taken note of the passage from the

judgment rendered by Nariman, J. in K.S. Puttaswamy stating the

manner in which law has to be tested when it is challenged on the

ground that it violates the fundamental right to privacy. Keeping

in mind all these considerations and parameters, we proceed to

deal with the argument on right to privacy.

234) It is argued that the Aadhaar project, during the pre-Act period

(2009/10 – July, 2016), violated the Right to Privacy with respect

to personal demographic as well as biometric information

collected, stored and shared as there was no law authorizing

these actions. In a digital society an individual has the right to

protect herself by controlling the dissemination of such personal

information. Compelling an individual to establish her identity by

planting her biometric at multiple points of service violates privacy

involving the person. The seeding of Aadhaar in distinct data

bases enables the content of information about an individual that

is stored in different silos to be aggregated. This enables the

State to build complete profiles of individuals violating privacy

through the convergence of data.

235) It is also contended that the citizen’s right to informational privacy

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 305 of 567 is violated by authentication under the Aadhaar Act inasmuch as

the citizen is compelled to ‘report’ her actions to the State. Even

where a person is availing of a subsidy, benefit or service from

the State under Section 7 of the Act, mandatory authentication

through the Aadhaar platform (without an option to the citizen to

use an alternative mode of identification) violates the right to

informational privacy. An individual’s rights and entitlements

cannot be made dependent upon an invasion of his or her bodily

integrity and his or her private information which the individual

may not be willing to share with the State. The bargain underlying

section 7 is an unconscionable, unconstitutional bargain. Section

7 is against the constitutional morality contained in both Part III as

well the Part IV of the Constitution of India.

236) It was also highlighted that today the fastest growing businesses

are network orchestrators, the likes of Facebook and Uber, which

recreate a network of peers in which participants interact and

share value in creation. The most important assets for these

network orchestrators is information. Although, individuals share

information with these entities, such information is scattered, not

concentrated in a single authority or aggregated. If information,

collected in different silos is aggregated and centralized, it can

afford easy access to a person’s complete profile, including her Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 306 of 567 social groups, proclivities, habits, inclinations, tastes etc. The

entity that holds the key to such information would then be in an

extremely powerful position, especially if such entity is the State.

Since informational privacy is a part of Right to Privacy, it had to

be saved. The peittioners pointed out that the significance of

information being aggregated was noted by Hon’ble Court in K.S.

Puttaswamy as follows:

“300 ...Yet every transaction of an individual user and every site that she visits, leaves electronic tracks generally without her knowledge. These electronic tracks contain powerful means of information which provide knowledge of the sort of person that the user is and her interests. Individually, these information silos may seem inconsequential. In aggregation, they disclose the nature of the personality: food habits, language, health, hobbies, sexual preferences, friendships, ways of dress and political affiliation. In aggregation, information provides a picture of the being: of things which matter and those that don't, of things to be disclosed and those best hidden…

xx xx xx

305. Daniel J Solove deals with the problem of "aggregation". Businesses and governments often aggregate a variety of information fragments, including pieces of information which may not be viewed as private in isolation to create a detailed portrait of personalities and behaviour of individuals. Yet, it is now a universally accepted fact that information and data flow are "increasingly central to social and economic ordering".

Individuals are identified with reference to tax records, voting eligibility, and government-provided entitlements. There is what is now described as "'veillant panoptic assemblage', where data gathered through the ordinary citizen's veillance practices finds its way to state surveillance mechanisms, through the corporations that hold that data.”

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 307 of 567

237) It was further argued that test of proportionality was not satisfied

as the extent of information collected is not proportionate to the

‘compelling interest of the State’. Various judgments were citied

where the principle of proportionality has been established by this

court. In Chairman, All India Railway Recruitment Board v. K

Shyam Kumar and others81, this Court held as follows:

“37. ...Proportionality requires the court to judge whether action taken was really needed as well as whether it was within the range of courses of action which could reasonably be followed. Proportionality is more concerned with the aims and intention of the decision-maker and whether the decision-maker has achieved more or less the correct balance or equilibrium. The court entrusted with the task of judicial review has examine whether decision taken by the authority is proportionate i.e. well balanced and harmonious, to this extent the court may indulge in a merit review and if the court finds that the decision is proportionate, it seldom interferes with the decision taken and if it finds that the decision is disproportionate i.e. if the court feels that it is not well balanced or harmonious and does not stand to reason it may tend to interfere.”

238) Attention was also drawn to the judgment in Modern Dental

College & Research Centre, wherein this Court established the

four-limb test of proportionality. It was argued that Aadhaar failed

to meet the test laid down therein.

239) According to the petitioners, there is no compelling state interest

for State to know the details of the location and time of using

Aadhaar authentication. Likewise, there are various other

81 (2010) 6 SCC 614 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 308 of 567 methods available for identification. Submission was that one of

the objects of the Aadhaar project is to ensure targeted delivery in

the disbursement of government subsidies benefits and services

in India. Identification for this purpose can be carried out by

various other identity documents issued by the government of

India, such as passport, voting card, ration card, driving license,

job card issued by NREGA duly signed by an officer of the State

government, employment certificate by a public authority, birth

certificate, school leaving certificate, PAN card, overseas Indian

citizen card/PIO/OCI of Indian origin card. There is no justification

to impose Aadhaar under as the exclusive means of identification

under Section 7, without which a person would be unable to

secure her entitlements. Such mandate would not only infringe

upon the privacy of a person and violate a person’s fundamental

rights, but would also unreasonably deprive a person of her

entitlements on a ground that has little connection with her right

to receive such entitlements.

240) Judgment in the case of Jordan & Ors v. State82 was also cited

wherein Sachs & O’Regan JJ. concurringly held that continuum

of privacy rights start with the inviolable inner self, move to

the home, and end with the public realm; and that

82 (2002) ZACC 22 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 309 of 567 commitment to dignity invests great value in the inviolability

and worth of the body. Decisional privacy allows individuals to

make decisions about their own body, and is an aspect of

right to self determination. It is underscored by personal

autonomy, which prevents the State from using citizens as

puppets and controlling their body and decisions.

Informational privacy deals with a person’s mind and

comprises of (i) anonymity, (ii) secrecy, and (iii) freedom. It

is premised on the assumption that all information about a

person is in a fundamental way her own, for her to

communicate or retain for herself as she sees fit.

241) It was submitted that privacy rights against both the State and

non-State actors. There is a qualitative difference between right

to privacy against the State and against Non-state actors. Subba

Rao. J’s dissent in Kharak Singh, was relied upon wherein it was

stated that the existence of concentrated and centralized State

power, rather than its actual or potential use that creates the

chilling effect and leads to psychological restraint on the ability of

citizens to think freely. Therefore, individuals have a higher

expectation of privacy from the State. In the vein, it was further

submitted that the State was imposing disproportionate and

unreasonable State compulsion. States do not have the power to Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 310 of 567 compel their citizens to do particular acts, except in a

narrow range of defined circumstances. As sentinels on the

qui vive, Courts are duty bound to protect citizens against

State compulsion, whether in the context of forcibly

undergoing narco-analysis/lie detectors tests or forcibly

undergoing sterilization. Compulsion can be used in limited

circumstances such as punishment for law-breaking, compulsion

in the aid of law enforcement, and compulsion to prevent

potential law-breaking. These include fines, imprisonment,

fingerprint collection for criminals and prisoners. Even in medical

jurisprudence, the case of Common Cause v. Union of India83

elaborates on the concepts of dignity, bodily integrity and

decisional autonomy. For DNA tests and blood tests to be

conducted a high standard of evidence is required. Similarly

‘refusal of treatment’ is a constitutionally protected liberty interest

in the United States of America as stated in the case of Cruzan v.

Director, Missouri Dept. of Health84.

242) The petitioners further submitted that although the Aadhaar Act

is ostensibly framed as a voluntary entitlement to establish

one’s identity under section 3 read with Section 4(3) of the

Aadhaar Act, the actions of the Executive and private entities 83 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 215 of 2005 84 497 US 361 (1990) Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 311 of 567 under sections 7 and 57 have made possession of Aadhaar de

facto mandatory. Residents have thus been forced to obtain

an Aadhaar number, for continued access to statutory

entitlements and services. 252 government schemes have

been notified by various Ministries/Departments of the

Central Government under section 7 (as on 30.11.2017)

requiring Aadhaar as a condition precedent for availing

services, subsidies and benefits including for persons with

disabilities, for SC/STs, and for rehabilitation of Manual

Scavengers. It has also been made mandatory for mobile

services, banking and tax payments, registration of students of

CBSE, amongst other things. It thus pervades every aspect of an

individual’s life. Concomitantly, there is no opt out option in the

Aadhaar Act, which makes consent irrevocable and deprives

individuals the ability to make decisions about their life.

243) As per the petitioners, this kind of mandatory nature of Section 7

violates Article 14. They submit that mandatory authentication

has caused, and continues to cause, exclusion of the most

marginalized sections of society. Proof of possession of an

enrolment number or undergoing Aadhaar authentication is a

mandatory pre-requisite for receiving subsidised food grain

under the National Food Security Act. It creates “undue Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 312 of 567 burden” on citizen which is unconstitutional. Successful monthly

authentication is contingent on harmonious working of all

attendant Aadhaar processes and technologies–i.e. correct

Aadhaar-seeding, successful fingerprint recognition, mobile

and wireless connectivity, electricity, functional POS

machines and server capacity–each time. It is also dependant

on age, disability (e.g.leprosy), class of work (e.g. manual

labour), and the inherently probabilistic nature of biometric.

Economic Survey of India 2016 reports that authentication

failures have been as high as 49% in Jharkhand and 37%

in Rajasthan, recognising that “failure to identify genuine

beneficiaries results in exclusion error”.

244) The exclusion is not simply a question of poor

implementation that can be administratively resolved, but

stems from the very design of the Act, i.e. the use of

biometric authentication as the primary method of

identification. Determination of legal entitlements is contingent

on a positive authentication response from the UIDAI.

Biometric technology does not guarantee 100% accuracy and

is fallible, with inevitable false positives and false negatives

that are design flaws of such a probabilistic system,

especially because biometrics also change over time. Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 313 of 567

245) Classification caused by the Act lacks rational nexus. The

entitlement of an individual depends upon status, and not

proof of identity. At the point of use, The Biometric

Authentication divides residents into two classes: those who

have and do not have Aadhaar; and those who authenticate

successfully, and those who do not. Given that the

probability of biometric mismatch is greatest for the aged,

disabled, and individuals engaging in manual labour –

amongst the most vulnerable sections of society–the

decision to use periodic biometric authentications has a

direct and disparate effect of violating fundamental rights of

this class. This division bears no rational nexus with the

question of status for receiving benefits. It leads to under-

inclusion, and is thus arbitrary, causing an Article 14

violation.

246) It is also argued that mandatory nature of Section 7 violates

Article 21 as well. The Aadhaar Act alters the entire design &

institutional structure through which residents were receiving

entitlements. Mandatory imposition of Aadhaar violates their

rights to choose how to identify themselves to the

government in a reasonable and non-intrusive fashion. On

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 314 of 567 making Aadhaar mandatory, instead of the citizen’s right to

food and a correlative duty on the State to take action to

ensure the proper fulfilment of such rights, the State is

exercising its power to convert the constitutional rights of its

citizens into liabilities.

247) As per the petitioners, having established the infringement of

Article 21, the invasion is not justified under the principle of

proportionality. The State’s primary justification of eliminating

welfare leakages and ensuring “better targeting” does not

stand up to judicial scrutiny.

First, it has failed to discharge its burden of showing

that the purported leakages were exclusively caused due to

identity fraud, and that those leakages would not exist if

Aadhaar is implemented. The state has not given any empirical

data. Leakages exist due to eligibility frauds, quantity frauds and

identity frauds. Studies filed in Petitioner’s affidavits show that

eligibility and quantity frauds are the substantial cause for

leakages. Assuming that the Aadhaar Act prevents leakages, the

biometric identification system can, at best, only cure leakages

related to identity fraud. The government’s claims of savings

inter alia of Rs. 14,000 crores in the PDS system, due to the

deletion of 2.33 crore ration cards is incorrect, inflated, and Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 315 of 567 based on wrong assumptions for the following reasons:

(a) it admittedly does not have estimates of leakages in

PDS, nor has any study been done to see if POS machines

are effective in removing PDS irregularities;

(b) it conflates issue of “bogus /ineligible ration cards”

(eligibility fraud) with identity fraud;

(c) the figure of 2.33 crore includes West Bengal, where

ration cards are issued to each person, as opposed to each

household;

(d) a large number of these 2.33 crore cards were deleted

even before Aadhaar-integration and seeding came into

effect;

(e) the savings figure includes even those eligible

beneficiaries who have been removed from the list due to

failure to link Aadhaar properly; and

(f) it does not value the cost of loss of privacy. Most

importantly, the basis for reaching such savings figure has

not been disclosed.

Similarly, incorrect averments have been made in the

context of LPG savings, using Aadhaar-enabled Direct Benefit

Transfer (‘DBT’) scheme known as PAHAL.

Secondly, it has failed to show how the introduction of

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 316 of 567 Aadhaar will stop the losses causes on any of the grounds

above. Aadhaar is susceptible to its own unique forms of mischief

by the vendor.

Thirdly, the State has failed to demonstrate that other,

less invasive ways would be significantly worse at addressing

the problem, especially given recent studies that found a

significant reduction in PDS leakages, due to innovations

devised to work within the PDS system; alternatives such as

food coupons, digitisation of records, doorstep delivery, SMS

alerts, social audits, and toll-free helplines have not been

looked at.

Fourthly, the absence of proportionality is further

established by the fact of systematic exclusion.

248) The respondents refuted, in strongest possible manner, all the

aforesaid submissions in the following manner:

(i) No reasonable expectation of privacy

At the outset it was argued that Right to Privacy exists when

there is a reasonable expectation of privacy. K.S. Puttaswamy

judgment, US case law, UK case laws and the European cases

on Article 8 of ECHR were referred to to determine the contours

of reasonable expectation of privacy. Submission was that the Act

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 317 of 567 operates in the public and relational sphere and not in the core,

private or personal sphere of residents. It involves minimal

identity information for effective authentication. The purpose is

limited to authentication for identification. Section 29 of the

Aadhaar Act, 2016 provides protection against disclosure of

identity information without the prior consent of the ANH

concerned. Sharing is intended only for authentication purposes.

It was also submitted that there is no reasonable expectation of

privacy with respect to identity information collected under the

Aadhaar Act for the purposes of authentication and therefore

Article 21 is not attracted.

249) The respondents point out that four types of information collected

for providing Aadhaar (i). Mandatory demographic information

comprising name, date of birth, address and gender [Section 2(k)

read with Regulation 4(1) of the Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update)

Regulations, 2016]; (ii) Optional demographic information

[Section 2(k) read with Regulation 4(2) of the Aadhaar (Enrolment

and Update) Regulations, 2016]. (iii) Non-core biometric

information comprising photograph. (iv) Core biometric

information comprising finger print and iris scan.

250) Demographic information, both mandatory and optional, and

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 318 of 567 photographs does not raise a reasonable expectation of privacy

under Article 21 unless under special circumstances such as

juveniles in conflict of law or a rape victim’s identity. Today, all

global ID cards contain photographs for identification alongwith

address, date of birth, gender etc. The demographic information

is readily provided by individuals globally for disclosing identity

while relating with others and while seeking benefits whether

provided by government or by private entities, be it registration for

citizenship, elections, passports, marriage or enrolment in

educational institutions. Email ids and phone numbers are also

available in public domain, For example in telephone directories.

Aadhaar Act only uses demographic information which are not

sensitive and where no reasonable expectation of privacy exists -

name, date of birth, address, gender, mobile number and e mail

address. Section 2(k) specifically provides that Regulations

cannot include race, religion, caste, tribe, ethnicity, language,

records of entitlement, income or medical history. Thus, sensitive

information specifically stand excluded.

251) Face Photographs for the purpose of identification are not

covered by a reasonable expectation of privacy. Barring

unpublished intimate photographs and photographs pertaining to

confidential situations there will be no zone of privacy with Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 319 of 567 respect to normal facial photographs meant for identification.

Face-photographs are given by people for driving license,

passport, voter id, school admissions, examination admit cards,

employment cards, enrolment in professions and even for entry in

courts. In our daily lives we recognize each other by face which

stands exposed to all, all the time. The face photograph by itself

reveals no information.

252) There is no reasonable expectation of privacy with respect to

fingerprint and iris scan as they are not dealing with the intimate

or private sphere of the individual but are used solely for

authentication. Iris scan is nothing but a photograph of the eye,

taken in the same manner as a face photograph. Fingerprints and

iris scans are not capable of revealing any personal information

about the individual except for serving the purpose of

identification. Fingerprints are largely used in biometric

attendance, laptops and mobiles. Even when a privacy right

exists on a fingerprint, it will be weak. Finger print and iris scan

have been considered to be the most accurate and non-invasive

mode of identifying an individual. They are taken for passports,

visa and registration by the State and also used in mobile

phones, laptops, lockers etc for private use. Biometrics are being

used for unique identification in e passports by 120 countries. Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 320 of 567

(ii) Least intrusive and strict scrutiny tests do not apply in the

proportionality test.

Learned Attorney General argued that the “least intrusive

test” is not applicable while asserting the test of proportionality.

He relied on various U.S. Supreme Court judgments which

explicitly rejected the test and the case of Modern Dental College

& Research Centre which does not use the least intrusive

measure test while undertaking the proportionality test.

Mr.Dwivedi contends that the least intrusive means of

achieving the state object, while carrying out the proportionality

test, has been rejected by Indian courts in a catena of decisions

as it involves a value judgment or second guessing of the

Legislation. Such a test violates the separation of powers

between the legislature and the judiciary. Even assuming that the

‘least intrusive method’ test applies, the exercise of determining

the least intrusive method of identification is a technical exercise

and cannot be undertaken in the court of law. Moreover, the

Petitioners, who have furnished smartcards as an alternative,

have not established that smartcards are less intrusive than the

Aadhaar card authentication process.

The argument of applying the ‘Strict Scrutiny Test’ to test

the Constitutionality of the Aadhaar Act by the Petitioners was Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 321 of 567 flawed. Strict scrutiny test is a test conceptualised in the United

States, only applied to ‘super suspect legislations’. This

compulsion arises because the scope of reasonable restrictions

not having been specified specifically in the U.S. Constitution.

That leaves the scrutiny of the Legislations by the courts based

on the due process clause in the U.S. Constitution. Such a test

does not have applicability in India. In Ashoka Kumar Thakur

(2008) 6 SCC 1, the court referred to the test of strict scrutiny,

narrow tailoring and compelling interest and observed that these

principles cannot be applied directly to India as affirmative action

is Constitutionally supported.

(iii) Act satisfies Proportionality Test

Ld. Attorney General submitted that the legitimate state

interest that the Aadhaar Act fulfils are prevention of leakages and

dissipation of subsidies and social welfare benefits that are

covered under Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act. He also submits that

the larger public/state interest is to be decided by the State and

cannot be second guessed by the Judiciary. The state had

rejected the idea of ‘smart cards’ and other alternative models

after due deliberations.

The learned Attorney General cited various reports

highlighting leakages, wastage, high costs and inefficiencies in Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 322 of 567 the Public Distribution System, MGNREGA scheme and fuel

subsidy. He cited the Thirteenth Finance Commission Report

2010-2015 which stated that creation of a biometric-based unique

identity for all residents in the country has potential to

address need of the government to ensure that only eligible

persons are provided subsidies and that all eligible persons

are covered. He also cited the Economic Surveys of 2014-15 and

2015-16 both of which dilated upon the benefits of Aadhaar. The

2015-16 Survey says that the use of Aadhaar has significantly

reduced leakages in LPG and MGNREGA with limited

exclusion of the poor by linking households' LPG customer

numbers with Aadhaar numbers to eliminate ‘ghosts’ and

duplicate households from beneficiary rolls. The United

Nations, in its report titled ‘Leaving No One Behind: the

imperative of inclusive development’, praised India’s decision of

launching Aadhaar as it will be a step forward in ensuring

inclusion of all people especially the poorest and the most

marginalized.

This court in the case of PUCL v. Union of India85 has

approved the recommendations of the High-powered committee

headed by Justice D.P Wadhwa, which recommended linking

85 (2011) 14 SCC 331 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 323 of 567 of Aadhaar with PDS and encouraged State Governments to

adopt the same. The court also lauded the efforts of State

government for using biometric identification. He also referred to

the case of Binoy Viswam v. Union of India86 where the economic

rationale for and benefits of Aadhaar was discussed and

validated.

Mr. Dwivedi has argued that 3% of GDP amounting to

trillions of rupees is allocated by Governments towards subsidies,

scholarships, pensions, education, food and other welfare

programmes. But approximately half of if does not reach the

intended beneficiaries. Aadhaar is necessary for fixing this

problem as there is no other identification document which is

widely and commonly possessed by the residents of the country

and most of the identity documents do not enjoy the quality of

portability. Moreover, Aadhaar lends assurance and accuracy on

account of existence of fake, bogus and ghost cards, vide the

process of de-duplication and authentication. De-duplication is

ensured by the three sub systems are :- (i) demographic de-

duplication (ii) multi-ABIS multi-modal biometric de-duplication (iii)

manual adjudication. Biometric system provides high accuracy of

over 99.86 %. The mixed biometric have been adopted only to

86 (2017) 7 SCC 59 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 324 of 567 enhance the accuracy and to reduce the errors which may arise

on account of some residents either not having biometrics or not

having some particular biometric.

(iv) Act empowers various facets of right to life under Article 21

The Ld. Attorney General submitted that Section 7 of the Act

is traceable to Article 21 of the Constitution. Right to life is not a

mere animal existence but the right to live with human dignity

which includes the right to food, the right to shelter, right to

employment, right to medical care, etc. Fulfilling these rights will

justify the minimal invasion of the right to privacy of the citizens.

The counsel for the respondent also referred to the case of

G. Sundarrajan v. Union of India87 in which the petitioner therein

challenged the violation of their Right to the Life due to the risk

posed by the Kudanakulam Nuclear Plant. The court struck a

balance between production of nuclear energy, which was of

extreme importance for the economic growth, alleviation of

poverty, generation of employment , and the violation of right to

life and dignity under Article 21 posed by the threat of a nuclear

disaster. The court observed that adequate safety measure –

both in design and operation - had been taken hence the violation

of right to life was justified.

87 (2013) 6 SCC 670 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 325 of 567

253) The argument of ‘illusory consent’ was refuted with the

submission that Section 7 of the Act which mandatorily requires

Aadhaar for receipt of benefit, service or subsidy linked to the

Consolidated Fund of India, does not violate any Fundamental

Rights. It involves a balancing of two Fundamental Rights: the

Right to Privacy and the positive obligation of the State to ensure

right to food, shelter and employment under Article 21 of the

Constitution. Aadhaar enables furtherance of Article 21 by

eliminating leakages and ensuring that no deserving individual is

denied her/his entitlement. The object of the Act i.e. the

efficient, transparent and targeted delivery of subsidies,

benefits and services to genuine beneficiaries is in,

furtherance of various facets of Article 21 of the poor people

of India and in furtherance of the Directive Principles of

State Policy inter alia Articles 38,39, 41, 43, 47 and 48.

254) It was further argued that Section 7 is not a restriction at all and it

does not require any surrender of Fundamental Rights. It is

merely a regulatory procedure to receipt of subsidy, benefit or

service. Section 7 purports to enliven the Fundamental Right

under Article 21 , and Article 14. To achieve the goal of enlivening

Fundamental Rights of the poor and the deprived and to prevent

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 326 of 567 siphoning off the benefits, service or subsidy, it becomes

necessary to require compliance with the condition of undergoing

authentication.

255) Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act protects right to human dignity

recognized by Article 21 of the Constitution. Aadhaar is used as

means of authentication for availing services, benefits and

subsidies. Welfare schemes funded from the consolidated fund of

India such as PDS, scholarship, mid day meals, LPG subsidies,

free education ensure that the Right to Life and Dignity of citizens

are being enforced, which includes Justice (Social, Political and

Economic). It also eliminates inequality with a view to ameliorate

the poor, Dalits and other downtrodden classes and sections of

the society.

256) In response to the argument that Fundamental Right to Privacy

cannot be waived, the Mr.Dwivedi submits that Section 7 of the

Aadhaar Act does not involve any issue of waiver. When an

individual undergoes any authentication to establish his identity to

receive benefits, services or subsidy, he does so to enliven his

Fundamental Right to life and personal liberty under Article 21.

When an individual makes a choice to enter into a relational

sphere then his choice as to mode of identification would

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 327 of 567 automatically get restricted on account of the autonomy of the

individuals or institution with whom he wishes to relate. This is

more so where the individual seeks employment, service ,

subsidy or benefits. Moreover, Aadhaar is of a Universal nature,

unlike any other identification card which are not portable. They

generally have a localized value and limited purpose.

257) In response to the arguments of the petitioners that Aadhaar

reduces individuals to numbers, it was submitted that the

Aadhaar number is absolutely necessary for authentication and it

is solely used for that purpose. It was argued that the petitioner

have conflated the concepts of identity and identification.

Authentication is merely an identification process and does not

alter the identity of an individual. Further Aadhaar number is a

randomly generated number and bears no relation to the

attributes of individuals. It is similar to an examiner allotting codes

to examinees for administrative convenience.

258) It was also argued that the State has an obligation to enlivening

right to food, right to shelter etc envisaged under Article 21 and

for this purpose they may encroach upon the right of privacy of

the beneficiaries. The state requires to strike a fair balance

between the right of privacy and right to life of beneficiaries. An

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 328 of 567 example furnished by the counsel for this is the Prohibition Of

Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act,

2013, which restricts a scavenger’s right to practice any

profession, occupation, trade or business under Article 19(g) is

order to enliven Article 21 and 17. The counsel also gave the

example of the practice of dwarftossing, which was banned in

France. The law was challenged on ground that it interferes with

the economic right of one practicing it. The challenge was

negatived on the ground that permitting such a practice even

though voluntary will be degrading of human dignity by Human

Right Committee. Certain choices are restricted /prohibited by the

Constitution itself (Articles 17,18, 23 and 24). Article 23 abolishes

forced labour so it prohibits even those choosing to indulge in

forced labour from doing so. The aforesaid actually result in

enhancement of the Fundamental Right. The person is

emancipated from a social condition which is below human

dignity. Similarly Section 7 of the Act involves an identification for

the purpose of enhancing human dignity.

259) In response to the argument of Aadhaar causing exclusion, the

learned Attorney General responded by saying that if

authentication fails, despite more than one attempt, then the

possession of Aadhaar number can be proved otherwise i.e. by Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 329 of 567 producing the Aadhaar card. And those who do not have Aadhaar

number can make an application for enrolment and produce the

enrolment id number).

260) Before we proceed to analyse the respective submissions, it has

also to be kept in mind that all matters pertaining to an individual

do not qualify as being an inherent part of right to privacy. Only

those matters over which there would be a reasonable

expectation of privacy are protected by Article 21. This can be

discerned from the reading of Paras 297 to 307 of the judgment,

relevant portions whereof have already been quoted above.

261) We may also clarify that the arguments of privacy are examined

in the context of Sections 7 and 8 and the provisions related

thereto under the Aadhaar Act. Validity of the other provisions of

the Aadhaar Act, which is questioned in these proceedings, is

dealt with separately. As per Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act in case

an individual wants to avail any subsidy benefit or services, she is

required to produce the Aadhaar number and, therefore, it

virtually becomes compulsory for such a person. To that extent

the petitioners may be right in submitting that even if enrolment in

Aadhaar is voluntary, it assumes the character of compulsory

enrolment for those who want to avail the benefits under Section

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 330 of 567

7. Likewise, authentication, as mentioned in Section 8, also

becomes imperative. The relevant question, therefore, is as to

whether invasion into this privacy meets the triple requirements or

right to privacy.

(i) Requirement of law : The Parliament has now passed

Aadhaar Act, 2016. Therefore, law on the subject in the form of a

statute very much governs the field and, thus, first requirement

stands satisfied. We may point out at this stage that insofar as

period from 2009 (when the Aadhaar scheme was launched with

the creation of Authority vide notification No. A-43011/02/2009-

Admin. I dated January 28, 2009 till the date Aadhaar Act came

into force i.e. March 26, 2016, it is the argument of the petitioners

that insofar as this period is concerned, it is not backed by any

law and, therefore, notification dated January 28, 2009 should be

struck down on this ground itself and all acts done including

enrolment under the Aadhaar scheme from 2009 to 2016 should

be invalidated. This aspect we propose to deal at a later stage.

At this juncture, we are looking into the vires of Aadhaar Act. In

that context, the first requirement stands fulfilled.

(ii) Whether Aadhaar Act serves legitimate State aim?

‘Introduction’ to the said Act gives the reasons for passing

that Act and the ‘Statement of Objects and Reasons’ mentions Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 331 of 567 the objectives sought to be achieved with the enactment of the

Aadhaar Act. ‘Introduction’ reads as under:

“The Unique Identification Authority of India was established by a resolution of the Government of India in 2009. It was meant primarily to lay down policies and to implement the Unique Identification Scheme, by which residents of India were to be provided unique identity number. This number would serve as proof of identity and could be used for identification of beneficiaries for transfer of benefits, subsidies, services and other purposes.

Later on, it was felt that the process of enrolment, authentication, security, confidentiality and use of Aadhaar related information be made statutory so as to facilitate the use of Aadhaar number for delivery of various benefits, subsidies and services, the expenditures of which were incurred from or receipts therefrom formed part of the Consolidated Fund of India.

The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Bill, 2016 inter alia, provides for establishment of Unique Identification Authority of India, issuance of Aadhaar number to individuals, maintenance and updating of information in the Central Identities Data Repository, issues pertaining to security, privacy and confidentiality of information as well as offences and penalties for contravention of relevant statutory provisions.”

In the Statement of Objects and Reasons, it is inter alia

mentioned that though number of social benefits schemes have

been floated by the Government, the failure to establish identity of

an individual has proved to be a major hindrance for successful

implementation of those programmes as it was becoming difficult

to ensure that subsidies, benefits and services reach the Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 332 of 567 unintended beneficiaries in the absence of a credible system to

authenticate identity of beneficiaries. The Statement of Objects

and Reasons also discloses that over a period of time, the use of

Aadhaar number has been increased manifold and, therefore, it is

also necessary to take measures relating to ensuring security of

the information provided by the individuals while enrolling for

Aadhaar card. Having these parameters in mind, Para 5 of the

Statement of Objects and Reasons enumerates the objectives

which the Aadhaar Act seeks to achieve. It reads as under:

“5. The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Bill, 2016 inter alia, seeks to provide for—

(a) issue of Aadhaar numbers to individuals on providing his demographic and biometric information to the Unique Identification Authority of India;

(b) requiring Aadhaar numbers for identifying an individual for delivery of benefits, subsidies, and services the expenditure is incurred from or the receipt therefrom forms part of the Consolidated Fund of India;

(c) authentication of the Aadhaar number of an Aadhaar number holder in relation to his demographic and biometric information;

(d) establishment of the Unique Identification Authority of India consisting of a Chairperson, two Members and a Member-Secretary to perform functions in pursuance of the objectives above;

(e) maintenance and updating the information of individuals in the Central Identities Data Repository in such manner as may be specified by regulations;

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 333 of 567 (f) measures pertaining to security, privacy and confidentiality of information in possession or control of the Authority including information stored in the Central Identities Data Repository; and

(g) offences and penalties for contravention of relevant statutory provisions.”

262) After taking into consideration the Statement of Objects and

Reasons, a two Judge Bench of this Court in Binoy Viswam v.

Union of India & Ors.88, recapitulated the objectives of Aadhaar in

the following manner:

“125. By making use of the technology, a method is sought to be devised, in the form of Aadhaar, whereby identity of a person is ascertained in a flawless manner without giving any leeway to any individual to resort to dubious practices of showing multiple identities or fictitious identities. That is why it is given the nomenclature “unique identity”. It is aimed at securing advantages on different levels some of which are described, in brief, below:

125.1. In the first instance, as a welfare and democratic State, it becomes the duty of any responsible Government to come out with welfare schemes for the upliftment of poverty-stricken and marginalised sections of the society.

This is even the ethos of Indian Constitution which casts a duty on the State, in the form of “directive principles of State policy”, to take adequate and effective steps for betterment of such underprivileged classes. State is bound to take adequate measures to provide education, health care, employment and even cultural opportunities and social standing to these deprived and underprivileged classes. It is not that Government has not taken steps in this direction from time to time. At the same time, however, harsh reality is that benefits of these schemes have not reached those persons for whom that are actually meant.

125.1.1. India has achieved significant economic growth since Independence. In particular, rapid economic growth has been achieved in the last 25 years, after the country

88 (2017) 7 SCC 59 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 334 of 567 adopted the policy of liberalisation and entered the era of, what is known as, globalisation. Economic growth in the last decade has been phenomenal and for many years, the Indian economy grew at highest rate in the world. At the same time, it is also a fact that in spite of significant political and economic success which has proved to be sound and sustainable, the benefits thereof have not percolated down to the poor and the poorest. In fact, such benefits are reaped primarily by rich and upper middle classes, resulting into widening the gap between the rich and the poor.

125.1.2. Jean Dreze and Amartya Sen pithily narrate the position as under [An Uncertain Glory : India and its Contradictions] :

“Since India's recent record of fast economic growth is often celebrated, with good reason, it is extremely important to point to the fact that the societal reach of economic progress in India has been remarkably limited. It is not only that the income distribution has been getting more unequal in recent years (a characteristic that India shares with China), but also that the rapid rise in real wages in China from which the working classes have benefited greatly is not matched at all by India's relatively stagnant real wages. No less importantly, the public revenue generated by rapid economic growth has not been used to expand the social and physical infrastructure in a determined and well-planned way (in this India is left far behind by China). There is also a continued lack of essential social services (from schooling and health care to the provision of safe water and drainage) for a huge part of the population. As we will presently discuss, while India has been overtaking other countries in the progress of its real income, it has been overtaken in terms of social indicators by many of these countries, even within the region of South Asia itself (we go into this question more fully in Chapter 3, ‘India in Comparative Perspective’).

To point to just one contrast, even though India has significantly caught up with China in terms of GDP growth, its progress has been very much slower than China's in indicators such as longevity, literacy, child undernourishment and maternal mortality. In South Asia itself, the much poorer economy of Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 335 of 567 Bangladesh has caught up with and overtaken India in terms of many social indicators (including life expectancy, immunisation of children, infant mortality, child undernourishment and girls' schooling). Even Nepal has been catching up, to the extent that it now has many social indicators similar to India's, in spite of its per capita GDP being just about one third. Whereas twenty years ago India generally had the second best social indicators among the six South Asian countries (India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Nepal and Bhutan), it now looks second worst (ahead only of problem-ridden Pakistan). India has been climbing up the ladder of per capita income while slipping down the slope of social indicators.”

125.1.3. It is in this context that not only sustainable development is needed which takes care of integrating growth and development, thereby ensuring that the benefit of economic growth is reaped by every citizen of this country, it also becomes the duty of the Government in a welfare State to come out with various welfare schemes which not only take care of immediate needs of the deprived class but also ensure that adequate opportunities are provided to such persons to enable them to make their lives better, economically as well as socially. As mentioned above, various welfare schemes are, in fact, devised and floated from time to time by the Government, keeping aside substantial amount of money earmarked for spending on socially and economically backward classes. However, for various reasons including corruption, actual benefit does not reach those who are supposed to receive such benefits. One of the main reasons is failure to identify these persons for lack of means by which identity could be established of such genuine needy class. Resultantly, lots of ghosts and duplicate beneficiaries are able to take undue and impermissible benefits. A former Prime Minister of this country [ Late Shri Rajiv Gandhi] has gone on record to say that out of one rupee spent by the Government for welfare of the downtrodden, only 15 paisa thereof actually reaches those persons for whom it is meant. It cannot be doubted that with UID/Aadhaar much of the malaise in this field can be taken care of.

263) It may be highlighted at this stage that the petitioners are making

their claim on the basis of dignity as a facet of right to privacy. On Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 336 of 567 the other hand, Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act is aimed at offering

subsidies, benefits or services to the marginalised section of the

society for whom such welfare schemes have been formulated

from time to time. That also becomes an aspect of social justice,

which is the obligation of the State stipulated in Para IV of the

Constitution. The rationale behind Section 7 lies in ensuring

targeted delivery of services, benefits and subsidies which are

funded from the Consolidated Fund of India. In discharge of its

solemn Constitutional obligation to enliven the Fundamental

Rights of life and personal liberty (Article 21) to ensure Justice,

Social, Political and Economic and to eliminate inequality (Article

14) with a view to ameliorate the lot of the poor and the Dalits, the

Central Government has launched several welfare schemes.

Some such schemes are PDS, scholarships, mid day meals, LPG

subsidies, etc. These schemes involve 3% percentage of the

GDP and involve a huge amount of public money. Right to

receive these benefits, from the point of view of those who

deserve the same, has now attained the status of fundamental

right based on the same concept of human dignity, which the

petitioners seek to bank upon. The Constitution does not exist for

a few or minority of the people of India, but “We the people”. The

goals set out in the Preamble of the Constitution do not

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 337 of 567 contemplate statism and do not seek to preserve justice, liberty,

equality an fraternity for those who have the means and

opportunity to ensure the exercise of inalienable rights for

themselves. These goals are predominantly or at least equally

geared to “secure to all its citizens”, especially, to the

downtrodden, poor and exploited, justice, liberty, equality and “to

promote” fraternity assuring dignity. Interestingly, the State has

come forward in recognising the rights of deprived section of the

society to receive such benefits on the premise that it is their

fundamental right to claim such benefits. It is acknowledged by

the respondents that there is a paradigm shift in addressing the

problem of security and eradicating extreme poverty and hunger.

The shift is from the welfare approach to a right based approach.

As a consequence, right of everyone to adequate food no more

remains based on Directive Principles of State Policy (Art 47),

though the said principles remain a source of inspiration. This

entitlement has turned into a Constitutional fundamental right.

This Constitutional obligation is reinforced by obligations under

International Convention. The Universal Declaration of Human

Rights (Preamble, Article 22 & 23) and International Covenant on

Economic, Social and Cultural Rights to which India is a

signatory, also casts responsibilities on all State parties to

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 338 of 567 recognize the right of everyone to adequate food. Eradicating

extreme poverty and hunger is one of the goals under the

Millennium Development Goals of the United Nations. The

Parliament enacted the National Security Food Act, 2013 to

address the issue of food security at the household level. The

scheme of the Act designs a targeted public distribution system

for providing food grains to those below BPL. The object is to

ensure to the people adequate food at affordable prices so that

people may live a life with dignity. The reforms contemplated

under Section 12 of the Act include, application of information and

communication technology tools with end to end computerization

to ensure transparency and to prevent diversion, and leveraging

Aadhaar for unique biometric identification of entitled

beneficiaries. The Act imposes obligations on the Central

Government, State Government and local authorities vide

Chapter VIII, IX and X. Section 32 contemplates other welfare

schemes. It provides for nutritional standards in Schedule II and

the undertaking of further steps to progressively realize the

objectives specified in Schedule III.

264) At this juncture, we would also like to mention that historic

judgment of this Court in His Holiness Kesavananda Bharati

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 339 of 567 Sripadagalvaru v. State of Kerala & Anr.89 emphasised on the

attainment of socio-economic rights and its interplay with

fundamental rights. Following passages from the opinion

rendered by Khanna, J. need a specific mention:

“1477. I may also refer to another passage on p. 99 of Grammar of Politics by Harold Laski:

“The state, therefore, which seeks to survive must continually transform itself to the demands of men who have an equal claim upon that common welfare which is its ideal purpose to promote.

We are concerned here, not with the defence of anarchy, but with the conditions of its avoidance. Men must learn to subordinate their self-interest to the common welfare. The privileges of some must give way before the rights of all. Indeed, it may be urged that the interest of the few is in fact the attainment of those rights, since in no other environment is stability to be assured.”

1478. A modern State has to usher in and deal with large schemes having social and economic content. It has to undertake the challenging task of what has been called social engineering, the essential aim of which is the eradication of the poverty, uplift of the downtrodden, the raising of the standards of the vast mass of people and the narrowing of the gulf between the rich and the poor. As occasions arise quite often when the individual rights clash with the larger interests of the society, the State acquires the power to subordinate the individual rights to the larger interests of society as a step towards social justice. As observed by Roscoe Pound on p. 434 of Volume I of Jurisprudence under the heading “Limitations on the Use of Property”:

“Today the law is imposing social limitations — limitations regarded as involved in social life. It is endeavouring to delimit the individual interest better with respect to social interests and to confine the

89 (1973) 4 SCC 225 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 340 of 567 legal right or liberty or privilege to the bounds of the interest so delimited.”

To quote the words of Friedmann in Legal Theory:

“But modern democracy looks upon the right to property as one conditioned by social responsibility by the needs of society, by the ‘balancing of interests’ which looms so large in modern jurisprudence, and not as pre-ordained and untouchable private right.” (Fifth Edition, p. 406).”

265) It would also be worthwhile to mark, in continuity with the

aforesaid thought, what Dwivedi, J. emphasised.

“...The Nation stands to-day at the cross-roads of history and exchanging the time-honoured place of the phrase, may I say that the Directive Principles of State Policy should not be permitted to become “a mere rope of sand”. If the State fails to create conditions in which the fundamental freedoms could be enjoyed by all, the freedom of the few will be at the mercy of the many and then all freedoms will vanish. In order, therefore, to preserve their freedom, the privileged few must part with a portion of it.”

266) By no stretch of imagination, therefore, it can be said that there is

no defined State aim in legislating Aadhaar Act. We may place

on record that even the petitioners did not seriously question the

purpose bona fides of the legislature in enacting this law. In a

welfare State, where measures are taken to ameliorate the

sufferings of the downtrodden, the aim of the Act is to ensure that

these benefits actually reach the populace for whom they are

meant. This is naturally a legitimate State aim.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 341 of 567

(iii) Whether Aadhaar Act meets the test of proportionality?

267) The concept and contours of doctrine of proportionality have

already been discussed in detail. We have also indicated the

approach that we need to adopt while examining the issue of

proportionality. This discussion bring out that following four sub-

components of proportionality need to be satisfied:

(a) A measure restricting a right must have a legitimate goal

(legitimate goal stage).

(b) It must be a suitable means of furthering this goal (suitability

or rationale connection stage).

(c) There must not be any less restrictive but equally effective

alternative (necessity stage).

(d) The measure must not have a disproportionate impact on

the right holder (balancing stage).

268) We now proceed to examine as to whether these components

meet the required parameters in the instant case.

(a) Legitimate Goal Stage: At this stage, the exercise which

needs to be undertaken is to see that the State has legitimate

goal in restricting the right. It is also to be seen that such a goal

is of sufficient importance justifying overriding a constitutional

right of freedom. Further, it impairs freedom as little as possible.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 342 of 567 269) In our preceding discussion, we have already pointed out above

that Aadhaar Act serves the legitimate state aim. That, in fact,

provides answer to this component as well. Some additions to

the said discussion is as follows:

It is a matter of common knowledge that various welfare

schemes for marginalised section of the society have been

floated by the successive governments from time to time in last

few decades. These include giving ration at reasonable cost

through ration shops (keeping in view Right to Food), according

certain benefits to those who are below poverty line with the

issuance of BPL Cards, LPG connections and LPG cylinders at

minimal costs, old age and other kinds of pensions to deserving

persons, scholarships, employment to unemployed under

Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act,

2005 (MGNREGA) Scheme. There is an emergence of socio-

economic rights, not only in India but in many other countries

world-wide. There is, thus, recognisation of civil and political

rights on the one hand and emergence of socio-economic rights

on the other hand. The boundaries between civil and political

rights review as well as socio-economic rights review are rapidly

crumbling. This rights jurisprudence created in India is a telling

example.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 343 of 567 270) This Court has developed a reputation as both a protector of

Human Rights and an engine of economic and social reforms. In

People’s Union for Civil Liberties (PUCL) v. Union of India90, the

Court’s treatment of Right to Food as a fundamental right has

been seen as victory for India’s impoverished population. The

Court had passed orders enforcing the Government to take steps

to ensure the effective implementation of the Food Distribution

Schemes created by the Famine Code. Series of interim orders

were passed aimed at bringing immediate relief to the drought

affected individuals. The benefits of the schemes were converted

into legal entitlements by orders dated November 28, 2001

passed in the said case. Amongst other things, the Court ordered

government to complete the identification of people who fell into

the groups targeted for food distribution, issue cards to allow

these people to collect the grain and distribute the grain to the

relevant centres. The order also provided for governmental

inspections to ensure fair quality grain. In this and subsequent

orders, the court set the requirements on reporting,

accountability, monitoring, transparency and dissemination of

court orders aimed at ensuring that its orders are followed.

271) The purpose behind these orders was to ensure that the 90 (2001) 5 Scale 303 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 344 of 567 deserving beneficiaries of the scheme are correctly identified and

are able to receive the benefits under the said scheme, which is

their entitlement. The orders also aimed at ensuring ‘good

governance’ by bringing accountability and transparency in the

distribution system with the pious aim in mind, namely, benefits

actually reached those who are rural, poor and starving.

272) Again, in People’s Union for Civil Liberties (PUCL) case, orders

dated January 20, 2010 were passed by the Division Bench of

this Court directing the Government of Delhi to respond to the

extreme weather conditions ‘by setting up more shelters and

protecting homeless people from the cold’. The assurance was

extracted from the then Additional Solicitor General on behalf of

the Government that affected people would be provided with

shelter as a matter of priority and that arrangement should be

made for this within a day.

273) In the context of Right to Education, this Court in State of Bihar &

Ors. v. Project Uchcha Vidya, Sikshak Sangh & Ors.91 passed

orders on January 3, 2006 thereby directing that a committee be

appointed to investigate departures from the State of Bihar’s

policy concerning the establishment of ‘Project Schools’ aimed at

improving its poor education record. The Court appointed a 91 Civil Appeal No. 6626-6675 of 2001 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 345 of 567 committee to investigate the matter. The Court’s order included

details as to the composition and functions of the committee,

guidelines as to what would constitute irregularities in the

implementation of the policy and an expectation that the State of

Bihar would take remedial action if the committee found any

irregularities. The Court’s approach to affirmative action in

education is also instructive.

274) In Ashoka Thakur v. Union of India92, the Court upheld the Ninety-

Third Amendment to the Constitution, which allows for certain

educational institutions to put in place special admissions rules in

order to advance India’s ‘socially or educationally backward

classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes or the Scheduled

Tribes’.93 The Court held that people who are wealthier and

better educated (the ‘creamy layer’) should be excluded from the

27 per cent quota for ‘Other Backward Classes’ (OBC). This

step was needed to ensure that benefits reached those people

living in desperate poverty. In addition, the inclusion of particular

groups in the OBC category had to be reviewed every five years.

275) In Paschim Banga Ket Mazdoor Samity v. State of West Bengal94,

the Court found that Article 21 encompasses a right to adequate 92 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 265 of 2006, judgment delivered on April 10, 2008. 93 The challenge made in the case related to ‘Other Backward Classes’ rather than the Scheduled Castes or Tribes.

94 (1996) 4 SCC 37 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 346 of 567 medical facilities or health care. It also interpreted other

fundamental rights in light of directive principles. Likewise, in

Mohini Jain v. State of Kerala & Ors.95, the Court held that the

right to equality before the law in Article 14 includes a right to

education. In the subsequent case, Unnikrishnan v. State of

Andhra Pradesh96, the Court clarified its findings in Mohini Jain,

stating that Article 14 gave rise to a right to primary education.

Following the cases on education, in 1997 the Indian government

proposed a constitutional Amendment recognising education for

children under 14 as a fundamental right. This Amendment was

passed in 2002 as Article 21A. One of the Court’s earliest cases

dealing with the role of the directive principles in constitutional

interpretation is arguably also its most celebrated judgment. Some commentators see the decision in Olga Tellis & Ors. v.

Bombay Municipal Corporation & Ors.97 as a recognition of

enforceable right to shelter.

276) The purpose of citing aforesaid judgments is to highlight that this

Court expanded the scope of Articles 14 and 21 of the

Constitution by recognising various socio-economic rights of the

poor and marginalised section of the society and, in the process,

95 (1992) 3 SCC 666 96 (1993) 1 SCC 645 97 1985 SCR Supl. (2) 51 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 347 of 567 transforming the constitutional jurisprudence by putting a positive

obligation on the State to fulfill its duty as per the Charter of

Directive Principles of the State Policy, contained in Part IV of the

Constitution. It is to be kept in mind that while acknowledging

that economic considerations would play a role in determining the

full content of the right to life, the Court also held that right

included the protection of human dignity and all that is attached to

it, ‘namely, the bare necessities of life such as adequate nutrition,

clothing and shelter and facilities for reading, writing and

expressing oneself in diverse forms’ (See Francis Coralie Mullin

v. The Administrator, Union Territory of Delhi & Ors. 98). It is, thus,

of some significance to remark that it is this Court which has been

repeatedly insisting that benefits to reach the most deserving and

should not get frittered mid-way. We are of the opinion that

purpose of Aadhaar Act, as captured in the Statement of Objects

and Reasons and sought to be implemented by Section 7 of the

Aadhaar Act, is to achieve the stated objectives. This Court is

convinced by its conscience that the Act is aimed at a proper

purpose, which is of sufficient importance.

(b) Suitability or rationale connection stage:

277) We are also of the opinion that the measures which are

98 (1981) 2 SCR 516 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 348 of 567 enumerated and been taken as per the provisions of Section 7

read with Section 5 of the Aadhaar Act are rationally connected

with the fulfillment of the objectives contained in the Aadhaar Act.

It may be mentioned that the scheme for enrolling under the

Aadhaar Act and obtaining the Aadhaar number is optional and

voluntary. It is given the nomenclature of unique identity. A

person with Aadhaar number gets an identity. No doubt, there

are many other modes by which a person can be identified.

However, certain categories of persons, particularly those living in

abject poverty and those who are illiterate will not be in a position

to get other modes of identity like Pan Card, Passport etc. That

apart giving unique identity of each resident of the country is a

special feature of this scheme, more so, when it comes with the

feature stated above, namely, no person can have more than one

Aadhaar number; Aadhaar number given to a particular person

cannot be reassigned again to any individual even if that is

cancelled and there is hardly any possibility to have fake identity.

278) As pointed out above, enrolling for Aadhaar is not the serious

concern of the petitioners. It is only the process of authentication

and other related issues which bothers the petitioners which shall

be considered at the appropriate stage. At this point of time, we

are discussing the issue as to whether the limitation on the rights Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 349 of 567 of the individuals is rationally connected to the fulfillment of the

purpose contained in the Aadhaar Act. Here, Section 5 talks of

special measures for issuance of Aadhaar number to certain

categories of persons. It gives identity to those persons who

otherwise may not have any such identity. In that manner, it

recognises them as residents of this nation and in that form gives

them their ‘dignity’.

279) Section 7, which provides for necessity of authentication for

receipt of certain subsidies, benefits and services has a definite

purpose and this authentication is to achieve the objectives for

which Aadhaar Act is enacted, namely, to ensure that such

subsidies, benefits and services reach only the intended

beneficiaries. We have seen rampant corruption at various levels

in implementation of benevolent and welfare schemes meant for

different classes of persons. It has resulted in depriving the

actual beneficiaries to receive those subsidies, benefits and

services which get frittered away though on papers, it is shown

that they are received by the persons for whom they are meant.

There have been cases of duplicate and bogus ration cards, BPL

cards, LPG connections etc. Some persons with multiple

identities getting those benefits manifold. Aadhaar scheme has

been successful, to a great extent, in curbing the aforesaid Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 350 of 567 malpractices. By providing that the benefits for various welfare

schemes shall be given to those who possess Aadhaar number

and after undergoing the authentication as provided in Section 8

of the Aadhaar Act, the purpose is to ensure that only rightful

persons receive these benefits. Non-action is not costly. It’s the

affirmative action which costs the Government. And that money

comes from exchequer. So, it becomes the duty of the

Government to ensure that it goes to deserving persons.

Therefore, second component also stands fulfilled.

(c) Necessity Stage:

280) Insofar as third component is concerned, most of it stands

answered while in the discussion that has ensued in respect of

component No. 1 and 2. The manner in which malpractices have

been committed in the past leaves us to hold that apart from the

system of unique identity in Aadhaar and authentication of the

real beneficiaries, there is no alternative measure with lesser

degree of limitation which can achieve the same purpose. In fact,

on repeated query by this Court, even the petitioners could not

suggest any such method.

(d) Balancing Stage:

281) With this, we now advert to the most important component of

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 351 of 567 proportionality i.e. balancing between importance of achieving the

proper purpose and the social importance of preventing the

limitation on the constitutional right.

282) Argument of the petitioners is that Aadhaar project creates the

architect of surveillance state and society, which is antithetical to

the principles of democracy. It is premised on the basis that the

Aadhaar project enables the State to profile citizens, track their

movements, assess their habits and silently influence their

behaviour throughout their lives. It may stifle dissent and

influence political decision making. It is also argued that

aggregation, storage and use of such stored information is

violative of fundamental right to privacy, dignity and individual

autonomy. Informational privacy is expected as part of right to

privacy. The Act allows data aggregation as well. Such an Act is

unconstitutional as there is violation of a fundamental rights but

there is absence of procedural safeguards to protect data in the

Act. It is also argued that extent of information collected with the

use of Aadhaar, specially by the methodology of authentication, is

not proportionate to the ‘compelling interest of the State’ and

there are various other methods available for identification. It is,

thus, disproportionate and unreasonable state compulsion.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 352 of 567

283) The respondents, on the other hand, have argued that there

cannot be any reasonable expectation of privacy inasmuch as the

Aadhaar Act operates in the public and relationally sphere and

not in the core, private or personal sphere of the residents.

Moreover, it involves minimal identity information for effective

authentication which stands the test of reasonableness. The Act

is, thus, least intrusive and strict scrutiny test does not apply in

the proportionality test. It is also the case of the respondents that

the Aadhaar Act does not allow aggregation at all and, therefore,

all the apprehension are ill-founded and have no basis. It is also

submitted that the Aadhaar Act is, in fact, the facilitator in

empowering various facets of right to life under Article 21 and

thereby ensures that unprivileged class is also able to live with

human dignity.

284) Before undertaking this exercise of balancing, we would like to

point out that we are not convinced with the argument of the

respondents that there cannot be any reasonable expectation of

privacy. No doubt, the information which is gathered by the

UIDAI (whether biometric or demographic) is parted with by the

individuals to other agencies/body corporates etc. in many other

kinds of transactions as well, as pointed out by the respondents.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 353 of 567 However, the matter is to be looked into from the angle that this

information is collected and stored by the State or instrumentality

of the State. Therefore, it becomes important to find out as to

whether it meets the test of proportionality, and satisfies the

condition that the measure must not have disproportionate impact

on the right-holder (balancing stage). However, at the same time,

the fact that such information about individuals is in public domain

may become a relevant factor in undertaking the exercise of

balancing.

285) We have already traced the objectives with which the Aadhaar

Act has been enacted. No doubt, there is a right to privacy, which

is now entrenched in fundamental rights. On the other hand, we

are also concerned with the rights of those persons whose dignity

is sought to be ensured by giving them the facilities which are

necessary to live as dignified life. Therefore, balancing has to be

done at two levels:

(i) Whether, ‘legitimate state interest’ ensures ‘reasonable

tailoring’? There is a minimal intrusion into the privacy and the

law is narrowly framed to achieve the objective. Here the Act is to

be tested on the ground that whether it is found on a balancing

test that the social or public interest and the reasonableness of

the restrictions outweigh the particular aspect of privacy, as Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 354 of 567 claimed by the petitioners. This is the test we have applied in the

instant case.

(ii) There needs to be balancing of two competing fundamental

rights, right to privacy on the one hand and right to food, shelter

and employment on the other hand. Axiomatically both the rights

are founded on human dignity. At the same time, in the given

context, two facets are in conflict with each other. The question

here would be, when a person seeks to get the benefits of welfare

schemes to which she is entitled to as a part of right to live life

with dignity, whether her sacrifice to the right to privacy, is so

invasive that it creates imbalance?

286) In a way, both the aforesaid questions have some overlapping

inasmuch as even while finding answer to the second question, it

will have to be determined as to whether there is a least intrusion

into the privacy of a person while ensuring that the individual gets

the benefits under the welfare schemes.

287) The respondents seemed to be right when they argue that all

matters pertaining to an individual do not qualify as being an

inherent part of right to privacy. Only those which concern

matters over which there can be a reasonable expectation of

privacy would be protected by Article 21. In this behalf, we may

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 355 of 567 recapitulate the discussion on some significant aspects in

Puttaswamy:

Privacy postulates the reservation of a private space,

described as the right to be let alone. The integrity of the body

and the sanctity of the mind can exist on the foundation of the

individual’s ‘right to preserve a private space in which the human

personality can develop’ and this involves the ability to make

choices. In this sense privacy is a postulate of human dignity

itself. The inviolable nature of the human personality is

manifested in the ability to make decisions on matters intimate to

human life. The autonomy of the individual is associated ‘over

matters which can be kept private. These are concerns over

which there is a legitimate expectation of privacy’. Thoughts and

behavioral patterns which are intimate to an individual are entitled

to a zone of privacy where one is free of social expectations. In

that zone of privacy an individual is not judged by others. The

judgment refers to the expert group report and identifies nine

privacy principles pertaining to notice, choice and consent,

collection limitation, purpose limitation, access and correction,

non disclosure of information, security of data, openness or

proportionality as to the scale, scope and sensitivity to the data

collected, and accountability. At the same time, privacy is a

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 356 of 567 subset of liberty. All liberties may not be exercised in privacy. It

lies across the spectrum of protected freedoms. Further, the

notion of reasonable expectation of privacy has both subjective

and objective elements. At a subjective level it means ‘an

individual desires to be left alone’. On an objective plain privacy

is defined by those Constitutional values which shape the content

of the protected zone where the individual ‘ought to be left alone’.

Further, the notion of reasonable expectation of privacy ensures

that while on the one hand, the individual has a protected zone of

privacy, yet on the other ‘the exercise of individual choices is

subject the right of others to lead orderly lives’. The extent of the

zone of privacy would, therefore, depend upon both the

subjective expectation and the objective principle which defines a

reasonable expectation.

It is pertinent to point out that while dealing with

informational privacy, the judgment notes that privacy concerns

are seriously an issue in the age of information. It also notes the

data mining processes together with knowledge discovery, and

the age of big data. The court finds that data regulation and

individual privacy raises complex issues requiring delicate

balances to be drawn between the legitimate concerns of the

State and individual interest in the protection of privacy, and in Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 357 of 567 this sphere, data protection assumes significance. Data such as

medical information would be a category to which a reasonable

expectation of privacy attaches. There may be other data which

falls outside the reasonable expectation paradigm. Data

protection regimes seek to protect the autonomy of the individual.

This is a complex exercise involving careful balancing. In this

balancing process, following parameters are to be kept in mind:

(i) The judgment also holds that the legitimate expectation of

privacy may vary from the intimate zone to the private zone and

from the private to the public arenas. However, ‘the privacy is not

lost or surrendered merely because the individual is in a public

space’.

(ii) One of the chief concerns is that ‘while the web is a source

of lawful activity – both personal and commercial, concerns of

National security intervene since the seamless structure of the

web can be exploited by terrorist to wreak havoc and destruction

on civilized societies.’ Noting an article of Richard A. Posner,

which says ‘privacy is the terrorist’s best friend..’ It is observed

that this formulation indicates that State has legitimate interest

when it monitors the web to secure the Nation.

(iii) Apart from National security, State may have justifiable

reasons for the collection and storage of data as where it Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 358 of 567 embarks upon programs to provide benefits to impoverished and

marginalized sections of society and for ensuring that scarce

public resources are not dissipated and diverted to non-eligible

recipients. Digital platforms are a vital tool of ensuring good

governance in a social welfare State and technology is a powerful

enabler.

288) In the first instance, therefore, it is to be seen as to whether the

petitioners claim on the information supplied while authentication

to be protected is based on reasonable expectation.

289) ‘Reasonable Expectation’ involves two aspects. First, the

individual or individuals claiming a right to privacy must establish

that their claim involves a concern about some harm likely to be

inflicted upon them on account of the alleged act. This concern

‘should be real and not imaginary or speculative’. Secondly, ‘the

concern should not be flimsy or trivial’. It should be a reasonable

concern. It has to be borne in mind that the concept of

‘reasonable expectation’ has its genesis in the US case laws. UK

judgments adopted the test of reasonable expectation from the

US jurisprudence. The ECHR and ECJ judgments reveal a little

divergence with regard to right of privacy. The ECHR in general

adopts the approach that ‘a person’s reasonable expectation as

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 359 of 567 to privacy may be significant, although, not necessarily

conclusive factor’. This perhaps explains the apparent conflict as

regards finger prints.

290) In the leading case Katz v. US99 Reasonable Expectation was

stated to embrace two distinct questions. The first was whether

the individual, by his conduct has exhibited an actual (subjective

expectation of privacy), and the second, whether the subjective

expectation is one that the society is prepared to recognize as

reasonable. This was also followed in Smith v. Marlyand100.

291) In the judgment of Court of Appeal in R. Wood v.

Commissioner101, the appellant complained against taking and

retention of his photograph in Central London in the context of a

meeting by the police force to enable identification at a later time

in the event of eruption of disorder and commission of offence.

The concept of reasonable expectation was examined after

surveying a series of judgments which sought to consider

violation of Article 8 of the ECHR. The following pertinent

aspects emerge:

(i) Whether information related to private or public matter?

(ii) Whether the material obtained was envisaged for a limited

99 389 U.S. 347 100442 US 735 101(2010) 1 WLR 123 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 360 of 567 use or was likely to be made available to general public?

(iii) Private life was a broad term covering physical and

psychological integrity of a person.

(iv) Storing of data relating to private life of an individual

interferes with Article 8. However, in determining whether

information retained involves any private life aspect would have to

be determined with due regard to the specific context.

(v) Article 8, however protean, should not be so construed

widely that its claims become unreal and unreasonable. Firstly,

the threat to individuals personal autonomy must attain a certain

level of seriousness. Secondly, the claimant must enjoy on the

facts a reasonable expectation of privacy. Thirdly, the breadth of

Article 8(1) may in many instances be greatly curtailed by scope

of justifications available to the State.

(vi) Reasonable expectation of privacy is a broad concept which

takes into account all the circumstances of the case. They

include attributes of the claimants, the nature of the activity in

which the claimant was engaged, the place at which it was

happening, the nature and purpose of the intrusion, the absence

(or presence) of consent, the effect on the claimant and the

purpose for which information is taken.

292) Therefore, when a claim of privacy seeks inclusion in Article 21 of Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 361 of 567 the Constitution of India, the Court needs to apply the reasonable

expectation of privacy test. It should, inter alia, see:

(i) What is the context in which a privacy claim is set up?

(ii) Does the claim relate to private or family life, or a

confidential relationship?

(iii) Is the claim a serious one or is it trivial?

(iv) Is the disclosure likely to result in any serious or significant

injury and the nature and extent of disclosure?

(v) Is disclosure relates to personal and sensitive information of

an identified person?

(vi) Does disclosure relate to information already disclosed

publicly? If so, its implication?

293) Under the Aadhaar Act Architecture, four types of information is to

be given at the time of enrolment:

(i) Mandatory demographic information comprising name, date

of birth, address and gender (Section 2(k) read with Regulation

4(1) of the Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update) Regulations, 2016).

(ii) Optional demographic information (Section 2(k) read with

Regulation 4(2) of the Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update)

Regulations, 2016).

(iii) Non core biometric information comprising photograph.

(iv) Core biometric information comprising finger print and iris Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 362 of 567 scan.

294) Insofar as demographic information is concerned, it is required by

the provisions of many other enactments as well like Companies

Act, Special Marriage Act, Central Motor Vehicle Rules,

Registration of Electoral Rules, The Citizenship Rules, The

Passport Act and even Supreme Court Rules.

295) As regards core biometric information which comprises finger

prints, iris scan, for the purpose of enrolling in Aadhaar scheme,

we have already held earlier that it is minimal information

required for enrolment. This information becomes essential for

authentication use in a public sphere and in relational context.

296) It may also be mentioned that with the advent of science and

technology, finger print and iris scan have been considered to be

the most accurate and non invasive mode of identifying an

individual. It is for this reason that these are taken also for driving

licenses, passports, visa as well as at the time of registration of

documents by the State. These are also used in mobile phones,

laptops, lockers etc. for private use. International Civil Aviation

Organisation (ICAO) has recommended use of biometric

passports. Many civilized countries with robust democratic

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 363 of 567 regime have also introduced biometric based identity cards.

Therefore, collection of information in the four different categories

mentioned above may not be unreasonable. However, as stated

earlier as well, the issue is not of taking the aforesaid information

for the purpose of enrolling in Aadhaar and for authentication. It

is the storage and retention of this data, whenever authentication

takes place, about which the concerns are raised by the

petitioners. The fears expressed by the petitioners are that with

the storage and retention of such data, profile of the persons can

be created which is susceptible to misuse.

297) This aspect has already been dealt with earlier and apprehension

of the petitioners are taken care of. To recapitulate, at the time of

enrolment, the data collected is minimal and there is no data

collection in respect of religion, caste, tribe, language of records

of entitlement income or medical history of the applicant at the

time of Aadhaar enrolment. Full care is taken that even the

minimal data collected at the time of enrolment does not remain

with the enrolment agency and immediately gets transmitted to

CIDR. Even at the time of authentication, the only exercise which

is undertaken by the Authority is to see that the finger prints

and/or iris scan of the concerned person sent for authentication

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 364 of 567 match with the one which is in the system of Authority.

298) Let us advert to the second facet of balancing, namely, balancing

of two fundamental rights. As already pointed out above, the

Aadhaar Act truly seeks to secure to the poor and deprived

persons an opportunity to live their life and exercise their liberty.

By ensuring targeted delivery through digital identification, it not

only provides them a nationally recognized identity but also

attempts to ensure the delivery of benefits, service and subsidies

with the aid of public exchequer/Consolidated Fund of India.

National Security Food Act, 2013 passed by the Parliament seeks

to address the issue of food, security at the household level. The

scheme of that Act is aimed at providing food grains to those

belonging to BPL categories. Like the MGNREGA Act, 2005

takes care of employment. The MGNREGA Act has been

enacted for the enhancement, livelihood, security of the

households in rural areas of the country. It guarantees at least

100 days of wage employment in every financial year to at least

one able member of every household in the rural area on assets

creating public work programme. Sections 3 and 4 of the

MGNREGA Act contain this guarantee. The minimum facilities to

be provided are set out by Section 5 read with Schedule II.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 365 of 567 Section 22 provides for funding pattern and Section 23 provides

for transparency and accountability. This Act is another instance

of a rights based approach and it enlivens the Fundamental Right

to life and personal liberty of Below Poverty Line people in rural

areas.

299) We may mention here that Mr. Dwivedi had pointed out not only

India but several other countries including western nations which

have read socio-economic rights into human dignity and right to

life. Hungary and South Africa have gone to the extent of making

express provisions in their Constitutions.

The Federal Constitution Court of Germany in a decision

dated February 09, 2010 while deciding the question whether the

amount of standard benefit aid is compatible with the Basic Law

held that:

“The Fundamental Right to the guarantee of a subsistence minimum is in line with human dignity emerges from Article 1.1 of the Basic Law in conjunction with Article 20.1 of the Basic Law… Article 1.1 of the Basic Law established this claim. The principle of the social welfare State contained in Article 20.1 of the Basic Law, in turn grants to the Legislature the mandate to ensure a subsistence minimum for all that is in line with human dignity”.

It is further held that:

“if a person does not have the material means to guarantee an existence that is in line with human dignity because he or she is unable to obtain it either out of his or her gainful employment, or from own property or by benefits from third parties, the State is obliged within its mandate to protect Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 366 of 567 human dignity and to ensure, in the implementation of its social welfare state mandate, that the material prerequisites for this are at the disposal of the person in need of assistance.”

Similarly, in a latter judgment dated July 18, 2012 while

deciding whether the amount of the cash benefit provided for in

the Asylum Seekers Benefits Act was constitutional it reiterated

that:

“the direct constitutional benefit claim to the guarantee of a dignified minimum existence does only cover those means that are absolutely necessary to maintain a dignified life. It guarantees the entire minimum existence as a comprehensive fundamental rights guarantee, that encompasses both humans’ physical existence, that is food, clothing, household items, housing, heating, hygiene, and health, and guarantees the possibility maintain interpersonal relationships and a minimal degree of participation in social, cultural and political life, since a human as a person necessarily exists in a social context..”

300) The Constitutional Court of South Africa in Government of the

Republic of South Africa & Ors. v. Grootboom102 held that:

“...these rights need to be considered in the context of the socio-economic rights enshrined in the Constitution. They entrench the right to access to land, to adequate housing and to health care, food, water and social security..”

301) In 1995, Hungary’s Constitutional Court ruled that the right to

social security as contained in Article 70/E of the Constitution

obligated the State to secure a minimum livelihood through all of

the welfare benefits necessary for the realization of the right to 102(2000) ZACC 19 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 367 of 567 human dignity.

302) Even in Italy, the Courts have emphasized on the right to social

security.

303) In Budina v. Russia103, the European Court of Human Rights has

recognized, in principle, that inadequate benefits could fall under

Article 3 of the European Convention on Human Rights (ECHR)

on the right to be free from inhuman and degrading treatment.

304) In 1996, the Swiss Federal Court ruled that three Czechs illegally

residing in Switzerland are entitled to social benefit in order to

have a minimal level of subsistence for a life in dignity to prevent

a situation where people “are reduced to beggars, a condition

unworthy of being called human. It held:

“...The federal constitution does not (though the 1995 draft new constitution is now different) explicitly provide for a fundamental right to a subsistence guarantee. One can however also derive unwritten constitutional right from it. A guarantee of freedoms not mentioned in the constitution by unwritten constitutional law was assumed by the exercise of other freedoms (mentioned in the constitution), or otherwise evidently indispensable components of the democratic constitutional order of the Federation...”

“...The guaranteeing of elementary human needs like food, clothing and shelter is the condition for human existence and development as such. It is at the same time an indispensable component of a constitutional, democratic polity.”

103 App. No. 45603/05 decided on 18.06.2009 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 368 of 567

305) Nelson Mandela in his speech at Trafalgar Square in London in

2005 said:

“...Massive poverty and obscene inequality are such terrible scourges of our times – times in which the world boasts breathtaking advances in science, technology, industry and wealth accumulation – that they have to rank alongside slavery and apartheid as social evils...And overcoming poverty is not a gesture of charity. It is an act of justice. It is the protection of a fundamental human right, the right to dignity and a decent life. While poverty persists, there is no true freedom.”

306) Following passages by James Griffin in his book on “Human

Rights” are worth noting :

“10.1 THE HISTORICAL GROWTH OF RIGHTS:

Contrary to widespread belief, welfare rights are not a twentieth-century innovation, but are among the first human rights ever to be claimed. When in the twelfth and thirteenth centuries our modern conception of a right first appeared, one of the earliest examples offered was the right of those in dire need to receive aid from those in surplus. This right was used to articulate the attractive view of property prevalent in the medieval Church. God has given all things to us in common, but as goods will not be cared for and usefully developed unless assigned to particular individuals, we creatures have instituted systems of property. In these systems, however, an owner is no more than a custodian. We all thus have a right, if we should fall into great need, to receive necessary goods or, failing that, to take them from those in surplus.

One finds, every occasionally, what seem to be human rights to welfare asserted in the Enlightenment, for example, by John Locke, Tom Paine, and William Cobbett. Following the Enlightenment, right to welfare have often appeared in national constitutions; for example, the French constitutions of the 1790s, the Prussian Civil Code (1794), the Constitutions of Sweden (1809), Norway (1814), The Netherlands (1814), Denmark (1849), and, skipping to the twentieth century, the Soviet Union (1936)-though it is not Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 369 of 567 always clear that the drafters of these various documents thought of these fundamental civil rights as also human rights. By the end of the nineteenth century, political theorists were beginning to make a case that welfare rights are basic in much the sense that Civil and political rights are. But it was Franklin Roosevelt who did most to bring welfare rights into public life. The Atlantic Charter (1941), signed by Roosevelt and Churchill but in this respect primarily Roosevelt’s initiative, declared that in addition to the classical civil and political freedoms here were also freedoms from want and fear. In his State of the Union message of 1944, Roosevelt averred :

We have come to a clear realization of the fact that true individual freedom cannot exist without economic security and independence. ‘Necessitous men are not free men’…

In our day these economic truths have become accepted as self evident. We have accepted, so to speak, a second Bill of Rights… Among these are : The right to a useful and remunerative job…. The right to earn enough to provide adequate food and clothing and recreation… The United Nations committee charged with drafting the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948), chaired by Eleanor Roosevelt, included most of the now standard welfare rights; rights to social security, to work, to rest and leisure, to medical care, to education, and ‘to enjoy the arts and to share in scientific advancements and its benefits’. The Universal Declaration is a good example of how extensive-some would say lavish-proposed welfare rights have become.

...If human rights are protections of a form of life that is autonomous and free, they should protect life as well as that form of it. But if they protect life, must they not also ensure the wherewithal to keep body and soul together- that is, some minimum material provision? And as mere subsistence-that is, keeping body and soul together-is too meager to ensure normative agency, must not human rights guarantee also whatever leisure and education and access to the thought of others that are also necessary to being a normative agent?

That is the heart of the case. It appeals to our picture of human agency and argues that both life and certain supporting goods are integral to it. Life and certain Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 370 of 567 supporting goods are necessary conditions of being autonomous and free. Many philosophers employ this necessary – condition argument to establish a human right to welfare-or, at least, to establish the right’s being as basic as any other rights.

I too want to invoke the necessary-conditions arguments; I should only want to strengthen it. It is now common to say that liberty rights and welfare rights are ‘indivisible’. But that, also, is too weak. It asserts that one cannot enjoy the benefits of liberty rights without enjoying the benefits of welfare rights, and vice versa. But something stronger still may be said. There are forms of welfare that are empirically necessary conditions of a person’s being autonomous and free, but there are also forms that are logically necessary-part of what we mean in saying that a person has these rights. The value in which human rights are grounded is the value attaching to normative agency. The norm arising from this value, of course, prohibits persons from attacking another’s autonomy and liberty. But it prohibits more. The value concerned is being a normative agent, a self-creator, made in god’s image…. The value resides not simply in one’s having the undeveloped, unused capacities for autonomy and liberty but also in exercising them-not just in being able to be autonomous but also in actually being so. The norm associated with this more complex value would address other ways of failing to be an agent. It would require protecting another person from losing agency, at least if one can do this without great cost to oneself; it would require helping to restore another’s agency if it has already been lost, say through giving mobility to the crippled or guidance to the blind, again with the same proviso. All of this is involved simply in having a right to autonomy or to liberty. Welfare claims are already part of the content of these rights. What, then, should we think of the common division of basic rights into ‘classical’ liberty rights and welfare rights? Into which of these two classes does the right to autonomy or to liberty go? Into which of the two classes do the difficult, apparently borderline cases go, such as rights to life, to property, to the pursuit of happiness, to security of person, and to privacy? The sensible response would be to drop the distinction. What is more, a right to welfare is a human right.

36. Amartya Sen in his book “Development as Freedom” says:

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 371 of 567 Development requires the removal of major sources of unfreedom: poverty as well as tyranny, poor economic opportunities as well as systematic social deprivation, neglect of public facilities as well as intolerance or overactivity of repressive states. Despite unprecedented increases in overall opulence, the contemporary world denies elementary freedoms to vast numbers-perhaps even the majority-of people. Sometimes the lack of substantive freedoms relates directly to economic poverty, which robs people of the freedom to satisfy hunger, or to achieve sufficient nutrition, or to obtain remedies for treatable illnesses, or the opportunity to be adequately clothed or sheltered, or to enjoy clean water or sanitary facilities. In other cases, the unfreedom links closely to the lack of public facilities and social care, such as the absence of epidemiological programs, or of organized arrangements for health care or educational facilities, or of effective institutions for the maintenance of local peace and order. In still other cases, the violation of freedom results directly from a denial of political and civil liberties by authoritarian regimes and from imposed restrictions on the freedom to participate in the social, political and economic life of the community.”

307) In the aforesaid backdrop, this Court is called upon to find out

whether Aadhaar Act strikes a fair balance between the two

rights. In this context, we have to examine the importance of

achieving the proper purpose and the social importance of

preventing the limitation on the constitutional rights. Insofar as

importance of achieving the proper purpose is concerned, that

has already been highlighted above. To reiterate some of the

important features, it is to be borne in mind that the State is using

Aadhaar as an enabler for providing deserving section of the

society their right to food, right to livelihood, right to receive

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 372 of 567 pension and other social assistance benefits like scholarships

etc. thereby bringing their right to life to fruition. This necessity of

Aadhaar has arisen in order to ensure that such benefits are

given to only genuine beneficiaries. The Act aims at efficient,

transparent and targeted delivery of subsidies, benefits and

services. In the process, it wants to achieve the objective of

checking the corrupt practices at various levels of distribution

system which deprive genuine persons from receiving these

benefits. There have been reports relating to leakages in PDS as

well as in fuel subsidies and also in working of MGNREGA

scheme. Mr. Venugopal, learned Attorney General has given the

following details about these reports:

(I) Reports relating to leakages in PDS

Several studies initiated by the Government as well as the World Bank and Planning Commission revealed that food grains did not reach the intended beneficiaries and that there was large scale leakages due to the failure to establish identity:

(a) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India in its Audit Report No. 3 of 2000 in its overview for the Audit Report observed that the Public Distribution Scheme suffered from serious targeting problems. 1.93 Crore bogus ration cards were found to be in circulation in 13 States and a significant portion of the subsidized food-

grains and other essential commodities did not reach the beneficiaries due to their diversion in the open market.

(b) A Report titled “Budget Briefs: Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), GOI 2011-2012” prepared by Avani Kapur and Anirvan Chowdhury and published by the Accountability Initiative observed that there were large Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 373 of 567 number of fake ration cards which were causing inefficiencies in targeting. Between July 2006 and July 2010, in Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Orissa, total of 37 lakh ineligible/fake ration cards for households have been eliminated. Additionally, in Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh, 29 lakh and 25 lakh ineligible ration cards were discovered and cancelled.

(c) World Bank published a Discussion Paper No. 380 titled “India’s Public Distribution System: A National and International Perspective” dated November, 1997 co- authored by R. Radhakrishna and K. Subbarao, in which it was found that in the year in 1986-87 for every one rupee (Re. 1) transferred under the PDS, the expenditure incurred by the central government was Rs. 4.27.

(d) The Planning Commission of India in its Performance Evaluation Report titled “Performance Evaluation Report of Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS)” dated March, 2005 found as follows:

(i) State-wise figure of excess Ration Cards in various states and the existence of over 1.52 Crore excess Ration Cards issued.

(ii) Existence of fictitious households and identification errors leading to exclusion of genuine beneficiaries.

(iii) Leakage through ghost BPL Ration Cards found to be prevalent in almost all the states under study.

(iv) The Leakage of food grains through ghost cards has been tabulated and the percentage of such leakage on an All India basis has been estimated at 16.67%.

(v) It is concluded that a large part of the subsidized food-grains were not reaching the target group.

(II) Report relating to Fuel subsidies

13. With respect of Kerosene subsidies:

(a) A Report titled “Budgetary Subsidies in India – Subsidizing Social and Economic Services” prepared by the National Institute of Public Finance and Policy dated March, found that the key to lowering volume of subsidies was better targeting without which, there was significant Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 374 of 567 leakage to unintended beneficiaries, with only 70% of the kerosene reaching the poorer section of society.

(b) The Economic Survey 2014-15 at Chapter 3 titled “Wiping Every Tear from every Eye: The JAM Number Trinity Solution” dated February, 2015 noted that only 59 percent of subsidized kerosene allocated via the PDS is actually consumed by households, with the remainder lost to leakage and only 46 percent of total consumption is by poor households.

14. With respect to the MGNREGA Scheme the following reports have found large scale leakages in the scheme:

(a) Report prepared by the V.V. Giri National Labour Institute and sponsored by the Department of Rural Development, Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India as “The study of Schedule of Rates for National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme” observes that there was great fraud in making fake job cards and it was found that in many cases, it was found that workers performed one day’s job, but their attendance was put for 33 days. The workers got money for one day while wages for 32 days were misappropriated by the people associated with the functioning of NREGS.

(b) The National Institute of Public Finance and Policy’s report titled as “A Cost-benefit analysis of Aadhaar” dated 09.11.2012 estimated that a leakage of approximately 12 percent is being caused to the government on account of ghost workers and manipulated muster rolls and assumed that 5 percent of the leakages can be plugged through wage disbursement using Aadhaar-enabled bank accounts and 7 percent through automation of muster rolls.

(III) It was also pointed out that the Thirteenth Finance Commission Report for 2010-2015 dated December, 2009 at page 218 in “Chapter 12 – Grants in Aid” states that the creation of a biometric-based unique identity for all residents in the country has the potential to address need of the government to ensure that only eligible persons are provided subsidies and benefits and that all eligible persons are covered.

The relevant findings of the above Report are as follows:

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 375 of 567

(i) Government of India’s expenditure on subsidies is expected to be about Rs.1,11,000 Crore in 2009-10, or nearly 18 per cent of the non-plan revenue expenditure.

(ii) The data base of eligible persons presently maintained has both Type I (exclusion) and Type II (inclusion) errors. The first error arises from the difficulty faced by the poor in establishing their identity in order to be eligible for government subsidies and social safety net programmes. The second error arises because of the inability to cross-verify lists of eligible persons across district-level and state-level data bases to eliminate duplicate and ghost entries. We need to ensure that only eligible persons are provided subsidies and benefits and that all eligible persons are covered.

(iii) Creation of a biometric-based unique identity for all residents in the country has the potential to address both these dimensions simultaneously. It will provide the basis for focusing subsidies to target groups. Possession of such an identity will also enable the poor and underprivileged to leverage other resources like bank accounts, cell phones, which can empower them and catalyse their income growth. These benefits cannot be accessed by them presently due to their inability to provide acceptable identification. The initiative to provide unique IDs has the potential to significantly improve the governance and delivery framework of public services while substantially reducing transaction costs, leakages and frauds.

308) As against the above larger public interest, the invasion into the

privacy rights of these beneficiaries is minimal. By no means it

can be said that it has disproportionate effect on the right holder.

309) Intensity of review depends upon the particular context of

question in a given case. There is yet another significant angle in

these matters, which has to be emphasised at this stage viz.

dignity in the form of autonomy (informational privacy) and dignity Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 376 of 567 in the form of assuring better living standards, of the same

individual. In the instant case, a holistic view of the matter,

having regard to the detailed discussion hereinabove, would

amply demonstrate that enrolment in Aadhaar of the unprivileged

and marginalised section of the society, in order to avail the fruits

of welfare schemes of the Government, actually amounts to

empowering these persons. On the one hand, it gives such

individuals their unique identity and, on the other hand, it also

enables such individuals to avail the fruits of welfare schemes of

the Government which are floated as socio-economic welfare

measures to uplift such classes. In that sense, the scheme

ensures dignity to such individuals. This facet of dignity cannot

be lost sight of and needs to be acknowledged. We are, by no

means, accepting that when dignity in the form of economic

welfare is given, the State is entitled to rob that person of his

liberty. That can never be allowed. We are concerned with the

balancing of the two facets of dignity. Here we find that the

inroads into the privacy rights where these individuals are made

to part with their biometric information, is minimal. It is coupled

with the fact that there is no data collection on the movements of

such individuals, when they avail benefits under Section 7 of the

Act thereby ruling out the possibility of creating their profiles. In

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 377 of 567 fact, this technology becomes a vital tool of ensuring good

governance in a social welfare state. We, therefore, are of the

opinion that the Aadhaar Act meets the test of balancing as well.

310) We may profitably refer to the judgment of this Court in People’s

Union for Civil Liberties (PUCL) & Anr. v. Union of India & Anr.104

which dealt with the issue of right to privacy vis-a-vis in public

interest and leaned in favour of public interest which can be seen

from the following discussion:

“121. It has been contended with much force that the right to information made available to the voters/citizens by judicial interpretation has to be balanced with the right of privacy of the spouse of the contesting candidate and any insistence on the disclosure of assets and liabilities of the spouse invades his/her right to privacy which is implied in Article 21. After giving anxious consideration to this argument, I am unable to uphold the same. In this context, I would like to recall the apt words of Mathew, J., in Gobind v. State of M.P. [1969 UJ (SC) 616] While analysing the right to privacy as an ingredient of Article 21, it was observed: (SCC p. 155, para 22)

“22. There can be no doubt that privacy-dignity claims deserve to be examined with care and to be denied only when an important countervailing interest is shown to be superior.” (emphasis supplied)

It was then said succinctly: (SCC pp. 155-56, para

22)

“If the court does find that a claimed right is entitled to protection as a fundamental privacy right, a law infringing it must satisfy the compelling State-interest test. Then the question would be whether a State

104(2003) 4 SCC 399 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 378 of 567 interest is of such paramount importance as would justify an infringement of the right.”

It was further explained: (SCC p. 156, para 23)

“[P]rivacy primarily concerns the individual. It therefore relates to and overlaps with the concept of liberty. The most serious advocate of privacy must confess that there are serious problems of defining the essence and scope of the right. Privacy interest in autonomy must also be placed in the context of other rights and values.”

By calling upon the contesting candidate to disclose the assets and liabilities of his/her spouse, the fundamental right to information of a voter/citizen is thereby promoted. When there is a competition between the right to privacy of an individual and the right to information of the citizens, the former right has to be subordinated to the latter right as it serves the larger public interest. The right to know about the candidate who intends to become a public figure and a representative of the people would not be effective and real if only truncated information of the assets and liabilities is given. It cannot be denied that the family relationship and social order in our country is such that the husband and wife look to the properties held by them as belonging to the family for all practical purposes, though in the eye of law the properties may distinctly belong to each of them. By and large, there exists a sort of unity of interest in the properties held by spouses. The property being kept in the name of the spouse benami is not unknown in our country. In this situation, it could be said that a countervailing or paramount interest is involved in requiring a candidate who chooses to subject himself/herself to public gaze and scrutiny to furnish the details of assets and liabilities of the spouse as well. That is one way of looking at the problem. More important, it is to be noted that Parliament itself accepted in principle that not only the assets of the elected candidates but also his or her spouse and dependent children should be disclosed to the constitutional authority and the right of privacy should not come in the way of such disclosure;...”

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 379 of 567

311) In Vernonia School District 47J v. Acton et ux., Guardians Ad

Litem for Acton105, the Supreme Court of United States, while

repelling the Fourth Amendment challenge wherein the petitioner

had adopted a Drug Policy which authorised random urinalysis

drug testing of students participating in athletics programs,

remarked as under:

“Taking into account all the factors we have considered above- the decreased expectation of privacy, the relative unobtrusiveness of the search, and the severity of the need met by the search-we conclude Vernonia’s Policy is reasonable and hence constitutional.”

312) This very exercise of balancing of two fundamental rights was

also carried out in Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India,

Ministry of Law & Ors.106 where the Court dealt with the matter in

the following manner:

“122. In State of Madras v. V.G. Row [State of Madras v. V.G. Row, AIR 1952 SC 196 : 1952 Cri LJ 966], the Court has ruled that the test of reasonableness, wherever prescribed, should be applied to each individual statute impugned and no abstract standard, or general pattern of reasonableness can be laid down as applicable to all cases. The nature of the right alleged to have been infringed, the underlying purpose of the restrictions imposed, the extent and urgency of the evil sought to be remedied thereby, the disproportion of the imposition, the prevailing conditions at the time, should all enter into the judicial verdict.

xx xx xx

105515 US 646 (1995) 106(2016) 7 SCC 221 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 380 of 567

130. The principles as regards reasonable restriction as has been stated by this Court from time to time are that the restriction should not be excessive and in public interest.

The legislation should not invade the rights and should not smack of arbitrariness. The test of reasonableness cannot be determined by laying down any abstract standard or general pattern. It would depend upon the nature of the right which has been infringed or sought to be infringed. The ultimate “impact”, that is, effect on the right has to be determined. The “impact doctrine” or the principle of “inevitable effect” or “inevitable consequence” stands in contradistinction to abuse or misuse of a legislation or a statutory provision depending upon the circumstances of the case. The prevailing conditions of the time and the principles of proportionality of restraint are to be kept in mind by the court while adjudging the constitutionality of a provision regard being had to the nature of the right. The nature of social control which includes public interest has a role. The conception of social interest has to be borne in mind while considering reasonableness of the restriction imposed on a right. The social interest principle would include the felt needs of the society.

xx xx xx

Balancing of fundamental rights

136. To appreciate what we have posed hereinabove, it is necessary to dwell upon balancing the fundamental rights. It has been argued by the learned counsel for the petitioners that the right conferred under Article 19(1)(a) has to be kept at a different pedestal than the individual reputation which has been recognised as an aspect of Article 21 of the Constitution. In fact the submission is that right to freedom of speech and expression which includes freedom of press should be given higher status and the individual's right to have his/her reputation should yield to the said right. In this regard a passage from Sakal Papers (P) Ltd. [Sakal Papers (P) Ltd. v. Union of India, (1962) 3 SCR 842 : AIR 1962 SC 305] has been commended to us. It says: (AIR pp. 313-14, para 36)

“36. … Freedom of speech can be restricted only in the interests of the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign State, public order, decency or morality or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence. It cannot, like Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 381 of 567 the freedom to carry on business, be curtailed in the interest of the general public. If a law directly affecting it is challenged, it is no answer that the restrictions enacted by it are justifiable under clauses (3) to (6). For, the scheme of Article 19 is to enumerate different freedoms separately and then to specify the extent of restrictions to which they may be subjected and the objects for securing which this could be done. A citizen is entitled to enjoy each and every one of the freedoms together and clause (1) does not prefer one freedom to another. That is the plain meaning of this clause. It follows from this that the State cannot make a law which directly restricts one freedom even for securing the better enjoyment of another freedom.” (emphasis supplied)

137. Having bestowed our anxious consideration on the said passage, we are disposed to think that the above passage is of no assistance to the petitioners, for the issue herein is sustenance and balancing of the separate rights, one under Article 19(1)(a) and the other, under Article 21. Hence, the concept of equipoise and counterweighing fundamental rights of one with other person. It is not a case of mere better enjoyment of another freedom. In Acharya Maharajshri Narendra Prasadji Anandprasadji Maharaj v. State of Gujarat [Acharya Maharajshri Narendra Prasadji Anandprasadji Maharaj v. State of Gujarat, (1975) 1 SCC 11], it has been observed that a particular fundamental right cannot exist in isolation in a watertight compartment. One fundamental right of a person may have to coexist in harmony with the exercise of another fundamental right by others and also with reasonable and valid exercise of power by the State in the light of the directive principles in the interests of social welfare as a whole. The Court's duty is to strike a balance between competing claims of different interests…

xx xx xx

194. Needless to emphasise that when a law limits a constitutional right which many laws do, such limitation is constitutional if it is proportional. The law imposing restriction is proportional if it is meant to achieve a proper purpose, and if the measures taken to achieve such a purpose are rationally connected to the purpose, and such measures are necessary. Such limitations should not be arbitrary or of an excessive nature beyond what is required Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 382 of 567 in the interest of the public. Reasonableness is judged with reference to the objective which the legislation seeks to achieve, and must not be in excess of that objective (see P.P. Enterprises v. Union of India [P.P. Enterprises v. Union of India, (1982) 2 SCC 33 : 1982 SCC (Cri) 341]). Further, the reasonableness is examined in an objective manner from the standpoint of the interest of the general public and not from the point of view of the person upon whom the restrictions are imposed or abstract considerations (see Mohd. Hanif Quareshi v. State of Bihar [Mohd. Hanif Quareshi v. State of Bihar, AIR 1958 SC 731]).”

313) Thus, even when two aspects of the fundamental rights of the

same individual, which appear to be in conflict with each other, is

done, we find that the Aadhaar Act has struck a fair balance

between the right of privacy of the individual with right to life of

the same individual as a beneficiary.

In the face of the all pervading prescript for accomplished

socio-economic rights, that need to be given to the deprived and

marginalised section of the society, as the constitutional

imperative embodied in these provisions of the Act, it is entitled to

receive judicial imprimatur.

Re : Argument on Exclusion:

314) Some incidental aspects, however, remain to be discussed. It

was argued by the petitioners that the entire authentication

process is probabilistic in nature inasmuch as case of a genuine

person for authentication can result in rejection as biometric

technology does not guarantee 100% accuracy. It may happen Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 383 of 567 for various reasons, namely, advance age, damage to fingerprints

due to accident, etc. Even in case of children the fingerprints

may change when they grow up. The emphasis was that there

was a possibility of failure in authentication for various reasons

and when it happens it would result in the exclusion rather than

inclusion. In such eventuality an individual would not only be

denied the benefits of welfare schemes, it may threaten his very

identity and existence as well and it would be violative of Articles

14 and 21 of the Constitution. The Authority has claimed that

biometric accuracy is 99.76%. It was, however, submitted that

where more than 110 crores of persons have enrolled

themselves, even 0.232% failure would be a phenomenal figure,

which comes to 27.60 lakh people. Therefore, the rate of

exclusion is alarming and this would result in depriving needy

persons to enjoy their fundamental rights, which is the so-called

laudable objective trumpeted by the respondents.

TO DICTATE FURTHER

Re. : Studies on exclusion

Re. : Finger prints of disabled, old persons etc. See other

mode of identity

315) The aforesaid apprehensions are sought to be assuaged by the

respondents by submitting that Section 7 of the Act nowhere says

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 384 of 567 that if authentication fails, the concerned person would be

deprived of subsidies, benefits or services. It is only an enabling

provision. It also provides that in case of such a failure, such an

individual would be permitted to establish her identity by any

other means so that genuine persons are not deprived of their

benefits which are mentioned in Section 7 as the entire Act is to

facilitate delivery of those benefits to such persons. Learned

Attorney General also referred to the Circular dated October 24,

2017 in this behalf which is issued by the Authority. That,

according to us, takes care of the problem.

316) We understand and appreciate that execution of the Aadhaar

scheme, which has otherwise a laudable objective, is a ‘work in

progress’. There have been substantial improvements in the

system over a period of time from the date of its launch. It was

stated by the learned Attorney General as well as Mr. Rakesh

Dwivedi, at the Bar, that whenever difficulties in implementation

are brought to the notice of the respondents, remedial measures

are taken with promptness. Cases of denial of services are

specifically looked into which is very much needed in a welfare

State and there can be a genuine hope that with the fine tuning of

technology, i.e. the mode of advancement at rapid pace, such

problems and concerns shall also be completely taken care of.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 385 of 567

317) In fairness to the petitioners, it is worth mentioning that they have

referred to the research carried out by some individuals and even

NGOs which have been relied upon to demonstrate that there are

number of instances leading to the exclusion i.e. the benefits are

allegedly denied on the ground of failure of authentication. The

respondents have refuted such studies. These become disputed

question of facts. It will be difficult to invalidate provisions of

Parliamentary legislations on the basis of such material, more

particularly, when their credence has not been tested.

318) That apart, there is another significant and more important aspect

which needs to be highlighted. The objective of the Act is to plug

the leakages and ensure that fruits of welfare schemes reach the

targeted population, for whom such schemes are actually meant.

This is the larger purpose, and very important public purpose,

which the Act is supposed to subserve. We have already held

that it fulfills legitimate aim and there is a rational connection

between the provisions of the Act and the goals which it seeks to

attain. The Act passes the muster of necessity stage as well

when we do not find any less restrictive measure which could be

equally effective in achieving the aim. In a situation like this

where the Act is aimed at achieving the aforesaid public purpose,

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 386 of 567 striving to benefit millions of deserving people, can it be

invalidated only on the ground that there is a possibility of

exclusion of some of the seekers of these welfare schemes?

Answer has to be in the negative. We may hasten to add that by

no means, we are accepting that if such an exclusion takes place,

it is justified. We are only highlighting the fact that the

Government seems to be sincere in its efforts to ensure that no

such exclusion takes place and in those cases where an

individual who is rightfully entitled to benefits under the scheme is

not denied such a benefit merely because of failure of

authentication. In this scenario, the entire Aadhaar project cannot

be shelved. If that is done, it would cause much more harm to the

society.

319) We are also conscious of the situation where the formation of

fingerprints may undergo change for various reasons. It may

happen in the case of a child after she grows up; it may happen

in the case of an individual who gets old; it may also happen

because of damage to the fingers as a result of accident or some

disease etc. or because of suffering of some kind of disability for

whatever reason. Even iris test can fail due to certain reasons

including blindness of a person. We again emphasise that no

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 387 of 567 person rightfully entitled to the benefits shall be denied the same

on such grounds. It would be appropriate if a suitable provision

be made in the concerned regulations for establishing an identity

by alternate means, in such situations. Furthermore, if there is a

0.232% failure in authentication, it also cannot be said that all

these failures were only in those cases where authentication was

for the purpose of utilising for the benefit of the welfare schemes,

i.e. with reference to Section 7 of the Act. It could have

happened in other cases as well. Be as it may, there is yet

another angle which has to be kept in mind and cannot be

ignored. We have already highlighted above as to how the

Aadhaar project is aimed at serving a much larger public interest.

The Authority has claimed that biometric accuracy is 99.76% and

the petitioners have also proceeded on that basis. In this

scenario, if the Aadhaar project is shelved, 99.76% beneficiaries

are going to suffer. Would it not lead to their exclusion? It will

amount to throwing the baby out of hot water along with the

water. In the name of 0.232% failure (which can in any case be

remedied) should be revert to the pre-Aadhaar stage with a

system of leakages, pilferages and corruption in the

implementation of welfare schemes meant for marginalised

section of the society, the full fruits thereof were not reaching to

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 388 of 567 such people? The Aadhaar programme was conceived and

conceptualised by Mr. Nandan Nilekani under the leadership of

then Prime Minister, a great economist himself. It went through

rigorous process of testing about its effectiveness before it is

launched. This has been stated in the beginning. The entire aim

behind launching this programme is the ‘inclusion’ of the

deserving persons who need to get such benefits. When it is

serving much larger purpose by reaching hundreds of millions of

deserving persons, it cannot be crucified on the unproven plea of

exclusion of some. We again repeat that the Court is not

trivialising the problem of exclusion if it is there. However, what

we are emphasising is that remedy is to plug the loopholes rather

than axe a project, aimed for the welfare of large section of the

society. Obviously, in order to address the failures of

authentication, the remedy is to adopt alternate methods for

identifying such persons, after finding the causes of failure in their

cases. We have chosen this path which leads to better

equilibrium and have given necessary directions also in this

behalf.

320) Another facet which needs examination at this stage is the

meaning that is to be assigned to the expression ‘benefits’

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 389 of 567 occurring in Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act, along with ‘subsidies’

and ‘services’. It was argued that the expression ‘benefits’ is very

lose and wide and the respondents may attempt to bring within its

sweep any and every kind of governmental activity in the name of

welfare of communities, which would result in making the

requirement of Aadhaar virtually mandatory. It was pointed out

that by issuing various circulars the Government has already

brought within the sweep of Section 7, almost 139 such

subsidies, services and benefits.

321) No doubt, the Government cannot take umbrage under the

aforesaid provision to enlarge the scope of subsidies, services

and benefits. ‘Benefits’ should be such which are in the nature of

welfare schemes for which resources are to be drawn from the

Consolidated Fund of India.

Therefore actions by CBSE, NEET, JEE and UGC requirements

for scholarship shall not be covered under Section 7, unless it is

demonstrated that the expenditure is incurred from Consolidated

Fund of India. Further, the expression ‘benefit’ has to be read

ejusdem generis with the preceding word ‘subsidies’.

322) We also make it clear that a benefit which is earned by an

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 390 of 567 individual (e.g. pension by a government employee) cannot be

covered under Section 7 of the Act, as it is the right of the

individual to receive such benefit.

At the same time, we have gone through the list of notifications

which are issued under Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act. We find

that most of these notifications pertain to various welfare

schemes under which benefits, subsidies or services are provided

to the intending recipients. Moreover, in order to avail the

benefits, only one time verification is required except for few

services where annual verification is needed. It is only in respect

of fertilizer subsidy where authentication is required every time

the fertilizer is disbursed. However, it is clarified that fertilizer is

also given on the basis of other documents such as Kisan Credit

Card, etc. At the same time, we hope that the respondents shall

not unduly expand the scope of ‘subsidies, services and benefits’

thereby widening the net of Aadhaar, where it is not permitted

otherwise. Insofar as notifications relating to children are

concerned, we have already dealt with the same separately. We,

thus, conclude this aspect as under:

(a) ‘benefits’ and ‘services’ as mentioned in Section 7 should be

those which have the colour of some kind of subsidies etc.,

namely, welfare schemes of the Government whereby

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 391 of 567 Government is doling out such benefits which are targeted at a

particular deprived class.

(b) The expenditure thereof has to be drawn from the

Consolidated Fund of India.

(c) On that basis, CBSE, NEET, JEE, UGC etc. cannot make

the requirement of Aadhaar mandatory as they are outside the

purview of Section 7 and are not backed by any law.

Children:

323) Though, we have upheld, in general, the validity of Section 7 of

the Aadhaar Act, one specific aspect thereof is yet to be

considered. Section 7 mandates requirement of Aadhaar for the

purposes of receiving certain subsidies, benefits and services.

Thus, any individual who wants to seek any of these subsidies,

benefits and services is compulsorily required to have an

Aadhaar number. This will include children as well. Some of the

petitioners as well as some other applicants who have intervened

in these petitions have expressed their concern about the

mandatory requirement of Aadhaar for children and subsequent

linking for realising their basic rights including education. They

have referred to various circulars and notifications issued through

various functionaries, schools, The Ministry of Human Resource

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 392 of 567 Development (MHRD) which have mandated production of

Aadhaar card details for the children seeking admission to

schools and to link the Aadhaar of the students already enrolled.

We have held that Aadhaar is a voluntary scheme and, therefore,

the Aadhaar number is to be alloted to an individual on his

‘consent’. No doubt, for the purposes of utilising any of the

benefits under Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act, it becomes

necessary to have Aadhaar number. However, the question is as

to whether it can be extended to children? It is more so when

they are not under legal capacity to provide any ‘consent’ under

the law.

324) Article 21A of the Constitution guarantees right to education and

makes it fundamental right of the children between 6 years and

14 years of age. Such a right cannot be taken away by imposing

requirement of holding Aadhaar card, upon the children.

325) In view thereof, admission of a child in his school cannot be

covered under Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act as it is neither

subsidy nor service. No doubt, the expression ‘benefit’ occurring

in Section 7 is very wide. At the same time, it has to be given

restrictive meaning and the admission of children in the schools,

when they have fundamental right to education, would not be

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 393 of 567 covered by Section 7, in our considered view. The respondents

made an attempt to justify the linkage of Aadhaar with child

information and records by arguing that there have been several

instances of either impersonations at examinations or bogus

admissions which have the potential to pilfer away various

scholarship schemes which the Government provides for weaker

sections from time to time. If this is the objective, then also

requirement of Aadhaar cannot insisted at the time of admission

but only at the stage of application for Government scholarships.

Insofar as impersonation at examination is concerned, that can

be easily checked and contained by other means with effective

checks and balances. When there are alternative means,

insistence on Aadhaar would not satisfy the test or proportionality.

This would violate the privacy right of the children importance

whereto is given by the Constitution Bench in K.S. Puttaswamy in

the following words:

“633. Children around the world create perpetual digital footprints on social network websites on a 24/7 basis as they learn their ‘ABCs’: Apple, Bluetooth, and Chat followed by Download, E-Mail, Facebook, Google, Hotmail, and Instagram. They should not be subjected to the consequences of their childish mistakes and naivety, their entire life. Privacy of children will require special protection not just in the context of the virtual world, but also the real world.”

326) It is also important to note herein that the Juvenile Justice Act, Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 394 of 567 2015 while addressing children in need of care and protection

and children in conflict with law enunciates that the records of the

children are confidential and will not be parted with unless

requested by the Children’s Court. In contrast, the submission of

the Union justifying linking of Aadhaar with student records on

malpractice in examinations and potential bogus admissions with

no safeguards whatsoever.

327) It has to be kept in mind that when the children are incapable of

giving consent, foisting compulsion of having Aadhaar card upon

them would be totally disproportionate and would fail to meet the

proportionality test. As the law exists today, a child can hold

property, operate a bank account, be eligible to be a nominee in

an insurance policy or a bank account or have any financial

transaction only through a legal guardian who has to be a major

of sound mind. In cases where a child is in conflict with the law,

the child is given a special criminal trial under the Juvenile Justice

(Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 and there is a

mandatory requirement for the records to be kept confidential and

destroyed so that the criminal record of the child is not

maintained. This is the position in law contained in Section 11 of

the Indian Contract Act, 1872, Section 45ZA of the Banking

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 395 of 567 Regulation Act, 1949, Section 39 of the Insurance Act, 1938,

Section 90 of the Indian Penal Code (which provides that consent

of the child who is under 12 years of age shall not be regarded as

consent) etc. Thus, when a child is not competent to contract;

not in a position to consent; barred from transferring property;

prohibited from taking employment; and not allowed to

open/operate bank accounts and, as a consequence, not in a

position to negotiate her rights, thirsting upon compulsory

requirement of holding Aadhaar would be an inviable inroad into

their fundamental rights under Article 21. The restriction imposed

on such a right in the form of an Aadhaar cannot be treated as

constitutionally justified. We may also mention here that State is

supposed to keep in mind the best interest of the children which

is regarded as primary consideration in our Constitution (See

R.D. Upadhyay v. State of Andhra Pradesh & Ors.107). The

convention on the Rights of Child 108 reiterates that the best

interests of the child will be the basic concern of the parents or

legal guardians of the child. The Constitution affirms acting in the

best interest of the children and confers the responsibility on the

State to not only safeguard the best interests of children but also

act in furtherance of it. Therefore, we are of the opinion that the 107(2007) 15 SCC 49 108India acceded to the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child in December 1992 to reiterate its commitment to the cause of the children.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 396 of 567 State is constitutionally bound to facilitate and enable the parents

and guardians of the children to assert their rights and act in their

best interest and this has to be done without having any

mandatory directives to it. The onus of overseeing and lawfully

safeguarding the rights and immunities, to which children are

entitled to, rests on the State and the authorities under it. Giving

proper education to children and ensuring that they become

valuable citizens of this nation subserves public interest. This is

the mandate of Convention on the Rights of Child (CRC) as well.

We may reproduce Article 27 of the CRC:

“States Parties recognize the right of every child to a standard of living adequate for the child’s physical, mental, spiritual, moral and social development.

2. The parent(s) or others responsible for the child have the primary responsibility to secure, within their abilities and financial capacities, the conditions of living necessary for the child’s development.

3. States Parties, in accordance with national conditions and within their means, shall take appropriate measures to assist parents and others responsible for the child to implement this right and shall in case of need provide material assistance and support programmes, particularly with regard to nutrition, clothing and housing.”

328) Article 8 of the CRC provides that:

“(2) For the purpose of guaranteeing and promoting the rights set forth in the present Convention, States Parties shall render appropriate assistance to parents and legal guardians in the performance of their child-rearing responsibilities and shall ensure the development of institutions, facilities and services for the care of children.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 397 of 567 (3) States Parties shall take all appropriate measures to ensure that children of working parents have the right to benefit from child-care services and facilities for which they are eligible.”

329) Further, Article 16 of the Convention on the Rights of Child, 1989

bars children from being subject to arbitrary or unlawful

interference in their privacy, family, home, or correspondence.

One of the principles espousing the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 is

the principle of confidentiality. Section 24 of the Act, dealing with

children in conflict with law, further emphasizes:

“(2) The Board shall make an order directing the Police, or by the Children’s court to its own registry that the relevant records of such conviction shall be destroyed after the expiry of the period of appeal or, as the case may be, a reasonable period as may be prescribed.”

330) Section 3 of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 expounds the

principles underlying the process in dealing with children under

the Statute. The principle of right to privacy and confidentiality

emphasizes, “Every child shall have a right to protection of his

privacy and confidentiality, by all means and throughout the

judicial process.”

331) We would like to reproduce the following observations of English

quote in Murray v. Big Pictures (UK) Ltd.109 where greatest

109(2008) 3 WLR 1360 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 398 of 567 significance is attached to the privacy right when it comes to

children. That was a case where photographer had taken a series

of photographs of a writer’s infant son, which were later published

in a newspaper. The issue was whether there was misuse of

private information by taking photographs. It was held that:

“The question of whether there is a reasonable expectation of privacy is a broad one, which takes account of all the circumstances of the case. They include the attributes of the claimant, the nature of the activity in which the claimant was engaged, the place at which it was happening, the nature and purpose of the intrusion, the absence of consent and whether it was known or could be inferred, the effect on the claimant and the circumstances in which and the purposes for which the information came into the hands of the publisher...It is at least arguable that David had a reasonable expectation of privacy. The fact that he is a child is in our view of greater significance than the judge thought.”

We may also record at this stage that various circulars,

orders and notifications are issued by different Ministries and

Departments under Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act which pertain to

children. Some of these are:

(1) National Child Labour Project (NCLP).

(2) Scholarship schemes which are given to school students,

like National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Scheme;

National Scheme of Incentive to Girls for Secondary

Education; Benefit to 6 to 14 years children under Sarva

Shiksha Abhiyan; Inclusive Education of the Disabled at

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 399 of 567 Secondary State; and Mid-day Meal for Children.

(3) Assistance/Scholarship given by the Department of

Empowerment to the Persons with Disabilities, which

include Scholarship Schemes for education of students

with disabilities.

(4) Following Schemes floated by the Ministry of Women and

Child Development, some of which relate to children:

(a) Supplementary Nutrition Programme under ICDS

Scheme.

(b) Payment of honorarium to AWWs & AWHs under

ICDS Scheme.

(c) Supplementary Nutrition for children offered at Creche

Centres.

(d) Honorarium paid towards the Creche Workers and

Creche Helpers.

(e) Maternity Benefit Programme (MBP).

(f) Scheme for Adolescent Girls.

(g) National Mission for Empowerment of Women.

(h) ICDS Training Programme.

(i) Ujjawala Scheme.

(j) Swadhar Scheme.

(k) Integrated Child Protection Scheme.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 400 of 567 (l) STEP programme.

(m) Rashtriya Mahila Kosh.

(n) Pradhan Mantri Matru Vanana Yojana.

(5) Painting and Essay competitions for school children under

IEC component of Human Resource Development and

Capacity Building.

332) After considering the matter in depth and having regard to the

discussion aforesaid, we hold as under:

(a) For the enrolment of children under the Aadhaar Act, it

would be essential to have the consent of their parents/guardian.

(b) On attaining the age of majority, such children who are

enrolled under Aadhaar with the consent of their parents, shall be

given the right to exit from Aadhaar, if they so choose.

(c) Insofar as the school admissions of children are concerned,

requirement of Aadhaar would not be compulsory as it is neither a

service nor subsidy. Further, having regard to the fact that a child

between the age of 6 to 14 years has the fundamental right to

education under Article 21A of the Constitution, school admission

cannot be treated as ‘benefit’ as well.

(d) Benefits to children between 6 to 14 years under Sarva

Shiksha Abhiyan, likewise, shall not require mandatory Aadhaar

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 401 of 567 enrolment.

(e) For availing the benefits of other welfare schemes which are

covered by Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act, though enrolment

number can be insisted, it would be subject to the consent of the

parents, as mentioned in (a) above.

(f) We also clarify that no child shall be denied benefit of any of

these schemes if, for some reasons, she is not able to produce

the Aadhaar number and the benefit shall be given by verifying

the identity on the basis of any other documents. We may record

that a statement to this effect was also made by Mr. K.K.

Venugopal, learned Attorney General for India, at the Bar.

Challenge to the other provisions of the Aadhaar Act:

333) The petitioners have challenged the constitutionality of certain

other provisions of Aadhaar Act as well. They have submitted

their reasons on the basis of which they are seeking the

declaration to the effect these provisions are unconstitutional. We

reproduce the provisions of Aadhaar Act as well as reasons given

by the petitioners in tabulated form, as under:

S.No. Provisions of the Reason for being unconstitutional Aadhaar Act

1. Section 2(c) and 2(d) - ‘Authentication Record’ includes the time of authentication and authentication and the identity of the authentication record, requesting entity. The UIDAI and the read with Section 32 Authentication Service Agency (ASA) is

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 402 of 567 permitted to store this authentication record for 2+5 years (as per Regulations 20 and 26/27 of the Authentication Regulations).

By definition it provides for real-time surveillance and profiling. The record stores both the time and the identity of the requesting entity.

2. Section 2(h) read with The notion of CIDR is by itself an Section 10 of CIDR unconstitutional database. The statute cannot operate without a CIDR. The notion of a CIDR where every individual’s biometric as well as demographic information is centrally stored is an authoritarian or police state construct and has no place in a democracy that guarantees individual freedom. A CIDR from where data can be backed, and which is operated not by the respondents but by foreign entities, is conceptually and constitutionally an impermissible compromise on national sovereignty and security.

Notably, Section 10 empowers UIDAI to appoint one or more entity to establish and maintain the CIDR.

3. Section 2(l) read with The notion of an enrolling agency as Regulation 23 of the defined in Section 2(l) is also Aadhaar (Enrolment unconstitutional inasmuch as the agency, and Updates) as defined, need not be a Government Regulation - ‘enrolling entity but could be a private entity. The agency’ collection of sensitive personal biometric and demographic data and information for the purposes of storage must be conducted by a Government agency alone since this is a bare minimum procedural safeguard against the misuse and commercial exploitation of private personal information. The State, acting as a trustee and fiduciary, cannot delegate or require private enrolling agencies to discharge this non-delegable function. Moreover, an enrolling agency that is operated privately cannot be entrusted with the crucial tasks of explaining the voluntary nature of Aadhaar Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 403 of 567 enrolments and securing informed consent.

4. Section 2(v) - ‘resident’ The expression ‘Resident’ defined in Section 2(v) is arbitrary and unconstitutional inasmuch as the Act creates no credible machinery for evaluating a claim that a person has been residing in India for a period of 182 days or more, in the 12 months immediately preceding the date of application for enrolment. The forms being used by the respondents as also proof of identification and proof of address requirement being used by the respondents until enactment of the statute nowhere require any proof relating to residence for 182 days. The impugned Act purports to validate all these enrolments. The forms being used by the respondents do not even contain a declaration regarding the enrolee being resident for 182 days. Further, there is no requirement in the definition of ‘Resident’ that the person has to be legally resident and the expression would wrongly take in illegal immigrants as well.

5. Section 3 – Aadhaar It is an ‘entitlement’. It cannot be Number understood to be mandatory. The information provided under Section 3(2) is of no relevance if obtaining Aadhaar is made mandatory. By design, Aadhaar was never meant to be mandatory.

6. Section 5 – Special Section 5 of the Aadhaar Act, inasmuch as treatment to children it extends to children and persons with disabilities, implies that the State is securing biometric and demographic data even before the age of consent insofar as children are concerned. The Act in its coercive reach and application to children who have not attained the age of consent is per se unconstitutional and violate of the fundamental rights of the children.

7. Section 6 – Update of Section 6 of the Act is unconstitutional information inasmuch as it enables the respondents to continually compel residents to periodically furnish demographic and biometric information. This provision is coercive in Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 404 of 567 operation and effect and not only undermines the so-called ‘voluntary’ nature of the programme (as falsely claimed by the respondents) but also undermines the false claim with respect to the ‘reliability of biometrics’.

8. Section 8 Section 8 is unconstitutional inasmuch as it enables tracking, tagging and profiling of individuals through the authentication process. It is a charter for surveillance in real time and with a degree of specificity that enables persons’ physical movements to be traced in real time. The authentication mandate in terms of Section 8 is not being worked by the respondents through any proprietary technology and is outsourced to foreign entities or entities under the ownership and control of foreign companies and corporations. The entire framework and working of the authentication procedure in terms of Section 8 is an impermissible, permanent and irreversible compromise of national sovereignty and national security.

9. Section 9 Section 9 of the Aadhaar Act is also unconstitutional inasmuch as the Aadhaar number is de facto serving as proof of citizenship and domicile. This is seen from various media reports where even in the absence of any rigorous verification process, Aadhaar numbers are being issued. The petitioners submit that equally subversive of national security and national integrity is the practice of passports being issued based upon an Aadhaar card. In other words, persons who may not be entitled to passports are having Aadhaar numbers issued and thereafter securing passports in violation of the citizenship provisions.

10. Chapter IV – Sections The petitioners submit that the whole of 11 to 23 Chapter IV of the Act comprising Sections 11 to 23 is ultra vires and unconstitutional. The Constitution does not permit the establishment of an authority that in turn

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 405 of 567 through an invasive programme can chain every Indian citizen/resident to a central data bank and maintain lifelong records and logs of that individual. The Constitution of India when read as a whole is designed for a nation of free individuals who enjoy a full range of rights and who are entitled under the Constitution to lead their lives without any monitoring or scrutiny or continuous oversight by the State or any of its organs. The high value of personal freedom runs throughout the fabric of the Indian Constitution and any authority created for the purpose of ‘cradle to grave’ scrutiny is directly violative of the personal freedom charter built into the Indian Constitution. The Constitution of India does not contemplate a ‘nanny state’ where the State oversees every individual’s conduct and maintains a record of individual interactions. The UIDAI by design and function is created for an absolutely unconstitutional objective of invading privacy, electronically overseeing individuals and tethering them to a central data repository that will maintain lifelong records. The notion of individual freedom must entail the right to be alone; the right of an individual to be free from any monitoring so long as that individual does not breach or transgress any criminal law. Here, the establishment of the second respondent is for an unconstitutional purpose of overseeing and monitoring individual conduct even where the person does not remotely fall foul of any law. The second respondent is a State organ designed to invade individual freedom and whose purpose is to constrict individual freedom.

11. Sections 23 and 54 – Section 23, read with Section 54 of the excessive delegation Aadhaar Act, is unconstitutional on the ground of excessive delegation.

A perusal of the sub-clauses in Section 23(2) and Section 54(2) indicate that on every crucial aspect pertaining to biometric Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 406 of 567 data, demographic information, the operation and working of the CIDR, generating and assigning Aadhaar numbers, authentication of Aadhaar numbers, omitting and deactivating Aadhaar numbers, commercial exploitation of information collected by the Government, etc. are all left entirely to the UIDAI without any sufficient defined legislative policy indicating the limits within which the UIDAI may legitimately operate.

Having regard to the invasive nature of the Aadhaar programme, its deep and pervasive impact on civil liberties and the fiduciary/trusteeship principle based on which data and information is being collected, it was incumbent upon the legislature to set out detailed and adequate limits to restrict the discretion conferred on the UIDAI. The impugned provisions virtually give an unlimited charter to the UIDAI to ride rough shod over fundamental rights by framing regulations as it pleases.

12. Section 23(2)(g) read This empowers the UIDAI alone to omit and with Chapter VI & VII – deactivate an Aadhaar number with almost Regulations 27 to 32 of no redressal to the individual Aadhaar the Aadhaar (Enrolment number holder. Regulation 27(2) provides and Update) that upon cancellation of an Aadhaar Regulations, 2016 number, all services provided by the authority shall be permanently disabled.

Regulation 28(2) provides that upon deactivation of an Aadhaar number, all numbers shall be temporarily suspended till such time that the Aadhaar number holder updates or rectifies the alleged error.

Notably, as per Regulation 30, there shall be a post facto communication of omission or deactivation of the Aadhaar number shall be informed to the Aadhaar number holder.

The only redressal mechanism provided under the Aadhaar Act is under Regulation 32 wherein a grievance redressal call centre shall be provided by the UIDAI. This provision provides unbridled power to the Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 407 of 567 UIDAI to switch of the life of an individual.

There is absolutely no redressal mechanism for the individual. He is not even provided with an opportunity of hearing prior to deactivation, which violates principles of natural justice.

13. Section 29 This Section is liable to be struck down inasmuch as it pertains sharing of identity information. The provisions suffer from the vice of permitting the spread and dissemination of sensitive personal information through a network of entities and individuals for commercial gain or otherwise and allows for the sharing of information beyond the ostensible object of targeted deliveries.

Both the biometric as well as the demographic information are entitled to the highest degree of protection and the impugned provision, inasmuch as it draws a distinction between core biometric information and other information, creates an artificial distinction into two classes of information which in law are both entitled to equal protection against sharing or dissemination.

Sub-section (4) permits UIDAI by regulation to permit ‘core biometric information’ to be displayed publicly.

14. Section 33 Section 33 is unconstitutional inasmuch as it provides for the use of the Aadhaar database for police investigation pursuant to an order of a competent court. Section 3 violates the protection against self-

incrimination as enshrined under Article 20(3) of the Constitution of India.

Furthermore, Section 33 does not afford an opportunity of hearing to the concerned individual whose information is sought to be released by the UIDAI pursuant to the Court’s order. This is contrary to the principles of natural justice.

Section 33(2) provides for disclosure of Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 408 of 567 information in the interest of national security pursuant to a direction of a competent officer. The said provision is also hit by the principles of protection against self-incrimination, as enshrined under Article 20(3) of the Constitution.

Further, the impugned Act does not define ‘interest of national security’ or otherwise limit the circumstances where the said provision can be invoked. This makes the impugned provision unconstitutional as it suffers from the vice of vagueness and arbitrariness.

15. Section 47 Section 47 of the impugned Act is unconstitutional inasmuch as it does not allow an individual citizen who finds that there is a violation of the impugned Act to initiate the criminal process. There could be several circumstances where UIDAI itself or some third party is guilty of having committed offences under the Act. By restricting the initiation of the criminal process, the Aadhaar Act renders the penal machinery ineffective and sterile. The said section creates a bar on a court to take cognizance of any offence under the impugned Act, save on a complaint made by the UIDAI or an officer authorized by it.

In effect there is a bar of cognizance of a complaint made by an individual for breach of his biometric or demographic information which has been collected by the respondent. Such bar is unconstitutional as it forecloses legal remedy to affected individuals.

16. Section 48 – Power of This Section is vague and arbitrary Central Government to inasmuch as it permits the Central supersede UIDAI Government to take over the UIDAI. The Act does not define a ‘pubic emergency’.

This Section empowers the Central Government in an ‘emergency’ situation to be in a position to completely control the life of every citizen who is enrolled with the UIDAI.

17. Section 57 Section 57 is patently unconstitutional

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 409 of 567 inasmuch as it allows an unrestricted extension of the Aadhaar platform to users who may be Government agencies or private sector operators. This provision clearly shows that the impugned Act has a much wider scope than what may legitimately be considered as a Money Bill.

Moreover, this provision enables the seeding of the Aadhaar number across service providers and other gateways and thereby enables the establishment of a surveillance state. The impugned provision enables the spread of applications and Aadhaar dependent delivery systems that are provided not from Consolidated Fund of India resources but through any other means.

It is submitted that Section 57 also enables commercial exploitation of an individual’s biometrics and demographic information by the respondents as well as private entities. It ensures that creation of a surveillance society, where every entity assists the State to snoop upon an Aadhaar holder.

18. Section 59 Section 59 of the impugned Act is unconstitutional inasmuch as it seeks to validate all action undertaken by the Central Government pursuant to the Notification dated January 28, 2009. It is submitted that there was no consent, let alone informed consent obtained from individuals at the time of enrolment under the said notification.

Such enrolment which has been conducted without obtaining adequate consent is unconstitutional as it amounts to wrongful deprivation of the most intimate personal information of an individual. Indeed, taking of an individual’s biometric information without informed consent is a physical invasion of his or her bodily integrity. The collection of demographic information through private entities and without proper counselling or written informed consent is Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 410 of 567 illegal and incapable of being retrospectively ratified. All these records which have been illegally obtained and created without necessary consent out to be destroyed and cannot be said to be validated by the impugned provision. The Parliament cannot create a legal fiction of ‘consent’ where there was none.

The executive under the Constitution of India cannot take away someone’s fundamental right to privacy and then support its action on the proposition of law that ‘retrospectively’ deems consent must have been given.

The said provision seeks to validate any action taken by the Central Government alone. The action of private enrolers is not even sought to be protected. Therefore, all collections made by private entities under the said notification should also stand invalidated and all data collected by private entities should be destroyed forthwith.

334) We have already dealt with the issue of validity of some of the

provisions. We would now advert to the remaining provisions,

validity whereof is questioned.

Keeping in view the preceding discussion, challenge to

most of these provisions would fail. Insofar as Section 2(l) read

with Regulation 23 of the Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update)

Regulations is concerned which deals with ‘enrolling agency’,

main challenge is on the ground that the work of an enrolment

could not have been given to a private entity as private entity

cannot be entrusted with the crucial task of explaining the nature Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 411 of 567 of Aadhaar enrolment and securing informed consent. Further,

the task of collection of sensitive personal biometric and

demographic data and information for the purpose of storage

cannot be given to private hands. However, having regard to the

nature of process that has been explained by the Authority, which

ensures that immediately on enrolment, the concerned data

collected by the private entity is beyond its control; it gets

encrypted; and stands transmitted to CIDR, we do not find any

basis of the apprehension expressed by the petitioners.

335) Insofar as Section 2(v) is concerned which defines resident, there

is nothing wrong with the definition. The grievance of the

petitioners is that the Aadhaar Act creates no credible machinery

for availing a claim that a person has been residing in India for

182 days or more. Apprehension is expressed that this

expression may also facilitate the entry of illegal immigrants.

These aspects can be taken care of by the respondents by

providing appropriate mechanism. We direct the respondents to

do the needful in this behalf. However, that would not render the

definition unconstitutional.

336) Section 3, by the very language thereof, mentions that it is an

enabling provision which ‘entitles’ every resident to obtain

Aadhaar number. Therefore, it is voluntary in nature. This is so Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 412 of 567 held by Division Bench of this Court in Binoy Viswam in the

following words:

“93. Before proceeding to discuss this argument, one aspect of the matter needs clarification. There was a debate as to whether the Aadhaar Act is voluntary or even that Act makes enrolment under Aadhaar mandatory.

94. First thing that is to be kept in mind is that the Aadhaar Act is enacted to enable the Government to identify individuals for delivery of benefits, subsidies and services under various welfare schemes. This is so mentioned in Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act which states that proof of Aadhaar number is necessary for receipt of such subsidies, benefits and services. At the same time, it cannot be disputed that once a person enrols himself and obtains Aadhaar number as mentioned in Section 3 of the Aadhaar Act, such Aadhaar number can be used for many other purposes. In fact, this Aadhaar number becomes the Unique Identity (UID) of that person. Having said that, it is clear that there is no provision in the Aadhaar Act which makes enrolment compulsory. May be for the purpose of obtaining benefits, proof of Aadhaar card is necessary as per Section 7 of the Act. The proviso to Section 7 stipulates that if an Aadhaar number is not assigned to enable an individual, he shall be offered alternate and viable means of identification for delivery of the subsidy, benefit or service. According to the petitioners, this proviso, which acknowledges alternate and viable means of identification, and therefore makes Aadhaar optional and voluntary and the enrolment is not necessary even for the purpose of receiving subsidies, benefits and services under various schemes of the Government. The respondents, however, interpret the proviso differently and their plea is that the words “if an Aadhaar number is not assigned to an individual” deal with only that situation where application for Aadhaar has been made but for certain reasons Aadhaar number has not been assigned as it may take some time to give Aadhaar card. Therefore, this proviso is only by way of an interim measure till Aadhaar number is assigned, which is otherwise compulsory for obtaining certain benefits as stated in Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act.

Fact remains that as per the Government and UIDAI itself, the requirement of obtaining Aadhaar number is voluntary.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 413 of 567 It has been so claimed by UIDAI on its website and clarification to this effect has also been issued by UIDAI.

95. Thus, enrolment under Aadhaar is voluntary. However, it is a moot question as to whether for obtaining benefits as prescribed under Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act, it is mandatory to give Aadhaar number or not is a debatable issue which we are not addressing as this very issue is squarely raised which is the subject-matter of other writ petition filed and pending in this Court.”

Therefore, the apprehension of the petitioners that Section

3 is mandatory stands assuaged.

337) Section 5 is a special measure for issuance of Aadhaar number

to certain category of persons which attempts to take care of

certain disabilities with which certain individuals may be suffering.

Therefore, this provision is for the benefit of the categories of

persons mentioned in Section 5. No doubt, it mentions children

and persons with disabilities as well, that is an aspect is already

dealt with separately.

338) Section 6 deals only with the updation of demographic and

biometric information. This may become necessary under certain

circumstances. That by itself does not take away the voluntary

nature of the programme.

339) Insofar Section 9 is concerned, validity thereof is challenged

primarily on the ground that it serves as a proof of citizenship and

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 414 of 567 domicile as well and some apprehensions are expressed on that

basis. Such apprehensions have already been taken care of

while discussing the issue no. 1 pertaining to surveillance.

340) We have already discussed in detail the purpose of constituting

the Authority. In fact, the Act cannot operate without such an

Authority and, therefore, it’s constitution is imperative. Challenge

to validity of Sections 11 to 23 is predicated on the arguments of

surveillance etc. fails, having regard to our detailed discussion on

the said aspect.

341) Section 23 read with Section 54 give power to the Authority to

make certain Regulations. We do not find that this provision

gives excessive delegation to the Authority. These aspects have

already been discussed while determining the issue pertaining to

surveillance.

342) Apprehension expressed qua Section 29 are equally unfounded.

This Section rather imposes restrictions on sharing information.

No doubt, sub-section (2) states that the identity information (and

specifically excludes core biometric information) can be shared

only in accordance with the provisions of the Act and in such a

manner as may be specified by Regulations. That would not

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 415 of 567 make the provision unconstitutional when it is with the consent of

the individual. In case, any regulation is made which permits

sharing of information that may contain undesirable

circumstance/reason for sharing information, such a regulation

can always be struck down. Insofar as sub-section (4) is

concerned, it is generally in favour of the residents/individuals

inasmuch as it states that information collected or created under

this Act shall not be published, displayed or posted publicly. The

is grievance, however, is that this provision enables the Authority

to publish or display etc. such an information ‘for the purposes as

may be specified by regulations’. The apprehension is that under

this provision, the Government can always make regulations

permitting publication of such information under certain

circumstances. At present, regulations which are in force are the

Aadhaar (Sharing of Information) Regulations, 2016. Chapter II

thereof is titled ‘restriction on sharing of identity information’.

Regulation 3(1) which falls under this chapter puts a categorical

ban on sharing of core biometric information collected by the

Authority under the Act, by mandating that it shall not be sharing

with anyone for any reason whatsoever. Sub-regulation (2) of

Regulation 3 permits sharing of demographic information and

photograph of an individual collected by the Authority under the

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 416 of 567 Act, only with the consent of the Aadhaar number holder, that too

for authentication process in accordance with Authentication

Regulations. As already held by us, insofar as utilisation of

subsidies, benefits and services are concerned, the

authentication would be needed by the provider of such services

which would be the requesting entity and this provision has

already been upheld. Sub-regulation (3) permits sharing of

authentication records of Aadhaar number holder with him in

accordance with Regulation 28 of the Authentication Regulations.

This provision facilitates obtaining the information from the

Authority by the Aadhaar number holder herself. We are, thus, of

the opinion that Section 29 and the sharing regulations are the

provisions enacted to protect the interest of Aadhaar card holders

as they put restrictions on the sharing of information, which may

be described as provisions pertaining to data protection and

surveying legitimate state aim/interest as well. No doubt, Section

29 gives power to the delegatee to make regulations. However,

as already clarified above, as and when a regulation is made,

which impinges upon the privacy right of the Aadhaar card

holders, that can always be challenged. As of now, sharing

regulations do not contain any such provision.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 417 of 567

343) Section 33 provides for disclosure of information in certain cases.

The challenge to this provision is predicated on the ground that it

provides for the use of Aadhaar database for police verification,

which is against the ethos of Article 20(3) of the Constitution of

India, which is a rule against self-incrimination. In order to

appreciate this argument, we would like to reproduce Section 33

in its entirety:

“33. (1) Nothing contained in sub-section (2) or sub-section (5) of section 28 or sub-section (2) of section 29 shall apply in respect of any disclosure of information, including identity information or authentication records, made pursuant to an order of a court not inferior to that of a District Judge:

Provided that no order by the court under this sub- section shall be made without giving an opportunity of hearing to the Authority.

(2) Nothing contained in sub-section (2) or sub-section (5) of section 28 and clause (b) of sub-section (1), sub-section (2) or sub-section (3) of section 29 shall apply in respect of any disclosure of information, including identity information or authentication records, made in the interest of national security in pursuance of a direction of an officer not below the rank of Joint Secretary to the Government of India specially authorised in this behalf by an order of the Central Government:

Provided that every direction issued under this sub- section, shall be reviewed by an Oversight Committee consisting of the Cabinet Secretary and the Secretaries to the Government of India in the Department of Legal Affairs and the Department of Electronics and Information Technology, before it takes effect:

Provided further that any direction issued under this sub-section shall be valid for a period of three months from the date of its issue, which may be extended for a further

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 418 of 567 period of three months after the review by the Oversight Committee.”

344) A close look at sub-section (1) of Section 33 would demonstrate

that the sub-section (1) is an exception to Section 28(2), Section

28(5) and Section 29(2) of the Act. Those provisions put a bar on

the disclosure of an information thereby protecting the information

available with the UIDAI in respect of any person. However, as

per sub-section (1), such information can be disclosed if there is

an order of a court which order is not inferior to that of a District

Judge. This provision, therefore, only states that in suitable

cases, if court passes an order directing an Authority to disclose

such an information, then the Authority would be obliged to do so.

Thus, an embargo contained in Sections 28 and 29 is partially

lifted only in the eventuality on passing an order by the court not

inferior to that of District Judge. This itself is a reasonable

safeguard. Obviously, in any proceedings where the Court feels

such an information is necessary for the determination of

controversy that is before the Court, before passing such an

order, it would hear the concerned parties which will include the

person in respect of whom the disclosure of information is sought.

We, therefore, clarify that provisions of sub-section (1) of Section

33 by reading into the provisions that an individual whose

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 419 of 567 information is sought to be released shall be afforded an

opportunity of hearing. There is a reasonable presumption that

the said court shall take into consideration relevant law including

Article 20(3) of the Constitution as well as privacy rights or other

rights of that person before passing such an order. Moreover, a

person in respect of whom order is passed shall also be heard

and will have right to challenge the order in a higher forum. Not

only this, proviso to Section 33(1) puts an additional safeguard by

providing that even UIDAI shall be heard before an order is

passed to this effect by the Court. In that sense, the Authority is

to act as trustee and it may object to passing of the order by the

court. Such a happening is actually taken place. We have

already noticed that against the order of the High Court of

Bombay in some criminal proceedings, order was passed

directing the Authority to give biometric information of a person,

the Authority had filed Special Leave Petition (Criminal) No. 2524

of 2014 challenging the said order on the ground that giving of

such biometric information was contrary to the provisions of the

Aadhaar Act as the information was confidential. This Court

stays the operation of the said order which depicts that there are

sufficient safeguards provided in sub-section (1) of Section 33

itself.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 420 of 567

345) Adverting to sub-section (2) of Section 33, it can be seen that this

provision enables disclosure of information including identity

information records in the interest of national security. This

provision further states that the Authority is obliged to disclose

such information in pursuance of a direction of an officer not

below the rank of Joint Secretary to the Government of India

specially authorised in this behalf by an order of the Central

Government. Proviso thereto sub-section (2) puts an additional

safeguard by prescribing that every direction issued under this

sub-section shall be reviewed by an Oversight Committee

consisting of the Cabinet Secretary and the Secretaries to the

Government of India in the Department of Legal Affairs and the

Department of Electronics and Information Technology before it

takes effect. Further, such a direction is valid only for a period of

three months from the date of its issue which can be extended by

another three months.

346) Main contention of the petitioners in challenging the provisions of

sub-section (2) of Section 33 are that no definition of national

security is provided and, therefore, it is a loose ended provision

susceptible to misuse. It is also argued that there is no

independent oversight disclosure of such data on the ground of

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 421 of 567 security and also that the provision is unreasonable and

disproportionate and, therefore, unconstitutional.

347) We may point out that this Court has held in Ex-Armymen’s

Protection Services Private Limited v. Union of India & Ors.110 that

what is in the interest of national security is not a question of law

but it is a matter of policy. We would like to reproduce following

discussion therefrom:

“16. What is in the interest of national security is not a question of law. It is a matter of policy. It is not for the court to decide whether something is in the interest of the State or not. It should be left to the executive. To quote Lord Hoffman in Secy. of State for Home Deptt. v. Rehman [(2003) 1 AC 153 : (2001) 3 WLR 877 : (2002) 1 All ER 122 (HL)] : (AC p. 192C)

“… [in the matter] of national security is not a question of law. It is a matter of judgment and policy.

Under the Constitution of the United Kingdom and most other countries, decisions as to whether something is or is not in the interests of national security are not a matter for judicial decision. They are entrusted to the executive.”

17. Thus, in a situation of national security, a party cannot insist for the strict observance of the principles of natural justice. In such cases, it is the duty of the court to read into and provide for statutory exclusion, if not expressly provided in the rules governing the field. Depending on the facts of the particular case, it will however be open to the court to satisfy itself whether there were justifiable facts, and in that regard, the court is entitled to call for the files and see whether it is a case where the interest of national security is involved. Once the State is of the stand that the issue involves national security, the court shall not disclose the reasons to the affected party.”

110 (2014) 5 SCC 409 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 422 of 567

348) Even in K.S. Puttaswamy, this Court has recognised data

retention by the Government which may be necessitated in the

public interest and in the interest of national security. We may

also usefully refer to the judgment of People’s Union for Civil

Liberties (PUCL) v. Union of India & Anr.111. In that case, action

of telephone tapping was challenged as serious invasion of

individual’s privacy. The Court found that Section 5(2) of the

Telegraph Act, 1885 permits the interception of messages in

circumstances mentioned therein i.e. ‘occurrence of any public

emergency’ or ‘in the interest of public safety’. The Court

explained these expressions in the following manner:

“28. Section 5(2) of the Act permits the interception of messages in accordance with the provisions of the said section. “Occurrence of any public emergency” or “in the interest of public safety” are the sine qua non for the application of the provisions of Section 5(2) of the Act. Unless a public emergency has occurred or the interest of public safety demands, the authorities have no jurisdiction to exercise the powers under the said section. Public emergency would mean the prevailing of a sudden condition or state of affairs affecting the people at large calling for immediate action. The expression “public safety” means the state or condition of freedom from danger or risk for the people at large. When either of these two conditions are not in existence, the Central Government or a State Government or the authorised officer cannot resort to telephone-tapping even though there is satisfaction that it is necessary or expedient so to do in the interests of sovereignty and integrity of India etc. In other words, even if the Central Government is satisfied that it is necessary or expedient so to do in the interest of the sovereignty and integrity of India or the security of the State or friendly relations with sovereign States or public order or for

111 (1997) 1 SCC 301 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 423 of 567 preventing incitement to the commission of an offence, it cannot intercept the messages or resort to telephone- tapping unless a public emergency has occurred or the interest of public safety or the existence of the interest of public safety requires. Neither the occurrence of public emergency nor the interest of public safety are secretive conditions or situations. Either of the situations would be apparent to a reasonable person.”

349) Having regard to the aforesaid legal position, disclosure of

information in the interest of national security cannot be faulted

with. However, we are of the opinion that giving of such

important power in the hands of Joint Secretary may not be

appropriate. There has to be a higher ranking officer along with,

preferably, a Judicial Officer. The provisions contained in Section

33(2) of the Act to the extent it gives power to Joint Secretary is,

therefore, struck down giving liberty to the respondents to suitably

enact a provision on the aforesaid lines, which would adequately

protect the interest of individuals.

350) We now advert to the challenge laid to Section 47 of the Aadhaar

Act, which is captioned as ‘cognizance of offences’, it reads as

under:

“47. (1) No court shall take cognizance of any offence punishable under this Act, save on a complaint made by the Authority or any officer or person authorised by it.

(2) No court inferior to that of a Chief Metropolitan Magistrate or a Chief Judicial Magistrate shall try any offence punishable under this Act.”

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 424 of 567

351) Certain acts in Chapter VII are treated as offences and penalties

are also provided, from Section 34 to Section 43.

352) Section 44 clarifies that this Act would apply for offence or

contravention committed even outside India. Insofar as

investigation of these offences is concerned, Section 45 provides

that a police officer not below the rank of Inspector of Police shall

investigate any offence under this Act. Section 46, thereafter,

clarifies that penalties imposed under this Act shall not prevent

the imposition of any other penalty or punishment under any

other law for the time being in force. This scheme of Chapter VII

makes very strict provisions in respect of enforcement of the Act

which includes data protection as well. Last provision in Chapter

VII is Section 47 which provides that the cognizance would be

taken only on a complaint made by the Authority or any officer or

person authorised by it. Petitioners feel aggrieved by this

provision as it does not permit an individual citizen whose rights

are violated, to initiate the criminal process. Apprehensions are

expressed by submitting that there may be a possibility where the

Authority itself or some Governmental Authority may be guilty of

committing the offences under the Act and, in such a situation,

the Authority or any officer or person authorised by it may choose

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 425 of 567 not to file any complaint.

353) According to the respondents, the rationale behind Section 47 is

to maintain purity and integrity of CIDR and the entire enrolment

storage in the CIDR and authentication exercise can be handled

only by the Authority. For this reason, it is the Authority which is

empowered to lodge the complaint. It is also pointed out that

similar provisions akin to Section 47 of the Aadhaar Act are

contained in many other statutes. Reference is made to Section

22 of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act,

1957, Section 34 of the Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 1986,

Section 34 of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997,

Section 47 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, Section 26(1) of

the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992, Section 19

of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, Section 43 of the Air

(Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 and Section 57(1)

of the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006.

The respondents have also submitted that validity of such

provisions have been tested and affirmed by this Court.

Reference is made to the judgment in Raj Kumar Gupta v. Lt.

Governor, Delhi & Ors.112. The respondents have also taken

support of the decision of this Court in State (NCT of Delhi) v.

112(1997) 1 SCC 556 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 426 of 567 Sanjay113 wherein Section 22 of the Mines and Minerals

(Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 was tested. Insofar as

grievance and apprehension of the petitioners is concerned, it

can be taken care on interpreting the provisions by holding that

the Authority can lodge a complaint of its own motion or at the

request of the individual whose rights are affected thereby.

Notwithstanding the above, we are of the opinion that it

would be in the fitness of things if Section 47 is amended by

allowing individual/victim whose right is violated, to file a

complaint and initiate the proceedings. We hope that this aspect

shall be addressed at the appropriate level and if considered fit,

Section 47 would be suitably amended.

354) Section 48 cannot be treated as vague or arbitrary. ‘Public

Emergency’ is the expression which has been used in several

other enactments and held to be constitutional. It can always be

subject to scrutiny of the Courts.

355) With this, now we come to a provision which was highly debated.

At the time of arguments, the petitioners had taken strong

exception to some of its aspects. We may first take note of the

exact language of this provision:

113(2014) 9 SCC 772 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 427 of 567 “57. Nothing contained in this Act shall prevent the use of Aadhaar number for establishing the identity of an individual for any purpose, whether by the State or any body corporate or person, pursuant to any law, for the time being in force, or any contract to this effect: Provided that the use of Aadhaar number under this section shall be subject to the procedure and obligations under section 8 and Chapter VI.”

356) In first blush, the provision appears to be innocuous. It enables

Aadhaar holder to establish her identity for any purpose as well.

In that sense, it may amount to empowering the Aadhaar number

holder, when she is carrying unique identity. It is her identity card

which she is able to use not only for the purposes mentioned in

the Aadhaar Act but also for any other purpose.

357) The petitioners, however, have pricked the provision with the

submission that it may be susceptible to making deep in-roads in

the privacy of individuals and is utterly disproportionate. The taint

in the provision, as projected by the petitioners, is that it brings in

private parties as well, apart from the State within the fold of

Aadhaar network giving untrammeled opportunity to them to

invade the privacy of such user. The offending portion of the

provision, according to them, is that:

(a) It allows ‘any body corporate or person’ (thereby

encompassing private bodies/persons as well) to make use of

authentication process, once an individual offers Aadhaar number Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 428 of 567 for establishing her identity.

(b) The expression ‘for any purpose’ is wide enough, which

may be susceptible to misuse.

(c) This is permitted not only pursuant to any law for time being

in force but also pursuant to ‘any contract to this effect’ which

would mean that individuals may be forced to give their consent

in the form of contract for a purpose that may be justified or not

thereby permitting the private parties to collect biometric

information about the said individual.

358) It is argued that there are no procedural safeguards governing

the actions of the private entities. Equally no remedy is provided

in case such body corporate or person fails or denies services. In

this hue, it is also argued that it is an excessive piece of

legislation inasmuch as taking the umbrage of ‘any law’, the

regulations etc. can be framed by including within its fold much

more than what is provided by Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act. It,

therefore, according to the petitioners, does not meet the test of

proportionality. Mr. Divan submits that Section 57 is also patently

unconstitutional inasmuch as it allows an unrestricted extension

of the Aadhaar platform to users who may be government

agencies or private sector operators. Moreover, this provision

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 429 of 567 enables the seeding of the Aadhaar number across service

providers and other gateways and thereby enables the

establishment of a surveillance state. The impugned provision

enables the spread of applications and Aadhaar dependent

delivery systems that are provided not from Consolidated Fund of

India resources but through any other means. He also submits

that section 57 also enables commercial exploitation of an

individual’s biometrics and demographic information by the

Respondents as well as private entities.

359) As mentioned above, the respondents contend that it is only an

enabling provision which gives further facilities to Aadhaar card

holder, as per her choice and is, thus, enacted for the benefit of

such individuals.

360) We have already discussed in detail the principles on which

doctrine of proportionality is built upon and the test which need to

be satisfied. To put in nutshell, the proportionality principles seek

to safeguard citizens from excessive Government measures. The

inquiry, in such cases, is that a particular measure must not be

disproportionate in two distinctive utilitarian senses:

(i) The cost or burdens of the measure must not clearly exceed

the likely benefits, which can be described as ‘ends’ or ‘ends-

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 430 of 567 benefits’ proportionality.

(ii) The measure must not be clearly more costly or more

burdensome than equally alternative measures, which is also

described by some jurists as a concept of necessity and narrow

tailoring and can be referred to as ‘means’ or ‘alternative-means’

proportionality.

361) We have also discussed in detail the principle of proportionality

that is developed in certain foreign legal regimes, particularly

Germany and Canada. The Supreme Court of Canada in R. v.

Oakes114 developed a two-tier constitutional control test. Once

the claimant has proved a violation of a right guaranteed in the

charter, the government must satisfy two criteria to establish that

the limit on individual rights “can be demonstrably justified in a

free and democratic society.”

362) First, measures limiting a constitutionally protected right must

serve an important objective that “relate[s] to concerns which are

pressing and substantial in a free and democratic society.”

Legislation limiting the rights of English-speaking parents in

Quebec to educate their children in English-speaking schools 115

has been found lacking an important public objective. Likewise,

114(1986) 1 SCR 103 115Quebec Ass’n of Protestant Sch. Bds. v. Quebec (A.G.), (1984) 2 SCR 66 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 431 of 567 the Supreme Court of Canada was unable to find any legitimate

public objective that justified denying protection to gays and

lesbians under Alberta’s human rights law in Vriend v. Alberta116.

In R. v. Zundel117, it also prohibited an intrusive use of a law that

was unrelated to the objectives originally contemplated by the

Parliament when that law was enacted.

363) Secondly, once an important public objective or end has been

established, the selected means to attain it must be “reasonable

and demonstrably justified.” The Court said in R. v. Big M Drug

Mart Ltd.118 that this determination involves “a form of

proportionality test”. Although, it varies depending on the facts of

the case, the test involves the balancing of public and individual

interests based on three principles, which are as follows:

(i) the means must be rationally related to the objective. The

court has infrequently struck down legislation for lack of any

rational relation to the objective pursued. It employs a rather

deferential and contextual approach to determine the rational

relation of a provision to the desired end.

(ii) The means should “impair ‘as little as possible’ the right or

freedom in question.” This is believe to be the decisive element

116(1998) 1 SCR 493 117(1992) 2 SCR 731 118 (1985) 1 SCR 295 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 432 of 567 of proportionality review. It requires that the legislature adopt the

least intrusive measure capable of attaining the desired objective.

(iii) The public objective and actual effects of the means

adopted for its attainment must be proportionate to an important

public end or objective. The court noted that even if the means

satisfies the first two criteria, it may be declared unconstitutional

in view of its disproportionate harmful effects on an individual.

364) Insofar as development of law in Germany is concerned, as

already discussed in detail, proportionality is defined “as an

expression of general right of the citizen towards the State that

his freedom should be limited by the public authorities only to the

extent indispensable for the protection of the public interest.” 119

The principle of proportionality in German law incorporates three

important subprinciples: suitability, necessity, and proportionality

in the narrower sense. According to the High Court of Germany,

any government interference with basic rights must be suitable

and necessary for reaching the ends sought. Its disadvantages to

individuals “are generally only permissible if the protection of

others or of the public interest requires them, after having due

regard to the principle of proportionality.”

119 See Nicholas Emiliou, The Principle of Proportionality in European Law: A comparative Study 5 (Kluwer Law Int’l. 1996).

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 433 of 567

365) The European Union has, by and large, adopted the German

system. We have also taken note of the development of doctrine

of proportionality in India through various judgments120.

366) We may mention here that insofar as U.S. Supreme Court is

concerned, it has refused to apply the least intrusive test 121

Though there was a debate at the bar as to whether this Court

should adopt European approach of applying least intrusive test

or go by American approach which repeatedly refused to apply

this test. Without going into this debate, even when we apply the

accepted norms laid down by this Court in Modern Dental

College and Research Centre and K.S. Puttaswamy cases, we

are of the view that a part of Section 57 does not pass the muster

of proportionality doctrine.

367) The respondents may be right in their explanation that it is only

an enabling provision which entitles Aadhaar number holder to

take the help of Aadhaar for the purpose of establishing his/her

identity. If such a person voluntary wants to offer Aadhaar card

as a proof of his/her identity, there may not be a problem.

120 Om Kumar & Ors. v. Union of India, (2001) 2 SCC 386 where R. v. Oakes was referred to and relied upon; Teri Oat Estates (P) Ltd. v. U.T., Chandigarh & Ors., (2004) 2 SCC 130 where the Court stressed upon maintaining a proper balance between adverse effect which the legislation or the administrative order may have on the rights, liberties or interests of persons keeping in mind the purpose which they were intended to serve; Modern Dental College and Research Centre and K.S. Puttaswamy amongst others.

121 Vernonia School District v. Wayne Acton, 515 US 646, 132 L.Ed. 2D 564, Board of Education of Independent School District v. Lindsay Earls, 536 US 822=153 L.Ed.2d. 735. Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 434 of 567

368) Section 59, which is the last provision in the Act is aimed at

validating actions taken by the Central Government pursuant to

notification dated January 28, 2009 till the passing of the Act. It

reads as under:

“59. Anything done or any action taken by the Central Government under the Resolution of the Government of India, Planning Commission bearing notification number A- 43011/02/2009-Admin. I, dated the 28th January, 2009, or by the Department of Electronics and Information Technology under the Cabinet Secretariat Notification bearing notification number S.O. 2492(E), dated the 12th September, 2015, as the case may be, shall be deemed to have been validly done or taken under this Act.”

369) The challenge to this provision is on the premise that in the

regime which prevailed prior to the passing of the Act and the

enrolments into Aadhaar scheme were done, that happened

without the consent of the persons who sought enrolment and,

therefore, those enrolments cannot be validated by making such

a provision. It was argued that even the Act makes provisions for

informed consent which is to be obtained from individuals at the

time of enrolment and absence of such consent makes the very

enrolment as impermissible thereby violating the right to privacy

and such acts cannot be validated.

370) The contention of the respondents, on the other hand, is that by

the very nature of the provision, it is intended to be prospective in Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 435 of 567 nature with a clear purport in mind, namely, to validate the

notification dated August 21, 2009 vide which the Authority was

created and the Aadhaar scheme was launched by

administrative fiat. The purpose is to give it a statutory backing.

371) We find that Section 59 uses the expression ‘anything done or

any action under the resolution’. According to us, this

terminology used in the provision by the legislature is clearly to

cover all actions of the Authority including enrolment of

individuals into Aadhaar scheme. The words ‘shall be deemed to

have been validly done or taken under this Act’ at the end of the

Section put the things beyond any pale of doubt. The legislative

intent is clear, namely, to make the provision retrospective so as

to cover the actions of the Authority from the date of its

establishment. Reading the provision in the manner the

petitioners suggest would have the effect of annulling Section 59

itself. Such an interpretation cannot be countenanced. We are of

the opinion that case is squarely covered by the Constitution

Bench judgment of this Court in West Ramnad Electric

Distribution Co., Ltd. v. State of Madras & Anr.122as well as

Bishambhar Nath Kohli & Ors. v. State of Uttar Pradesh & Ors.123.

122 (1963) 2 SCR 747 123 (1966) 2 SCR 158 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 436 of 567

372) We would also like to point out that the submission of the

petitioners that a particular action or a provision or statute which

is hit by Article 14 cannot be allowed to be validated is repelled by

this Court in State of Mysore & Anr. v. D. Achiah Chetty, Etc.124.

The legislature is, thus, empowered to incorporate deeming

provisions in a statute. This proposition has also been repeatedly

affirmed by this Court. We may refer in this behalf the decision in

State of Karnataka v. State of Tamil Nadu & Ors. 125 will be of

relevance wherein the Court held as under:

“72. The second limb of submission of Mr Rohatgi as regards the maintainability pertains to the language employed under Section 6(2) of the 1956 Act, which reads as follows:

“6. (2) The decision of the Tribunal, after its publication in the Official Gazette by the Central Government under sub-section (1), shall have the same force as an order or decree of the Supreme Court.”

73. Relying on Section 6(2), which was introduced by way of the Amendment Act, 2002 (Act 14 of 2002) that came into force from 6-8-2002, it is submitted by Mr Rohatgi that the jurisdiction of this Court is ousted as it cannot sit over in appeal on its own decree. The said submission is seriously resisted by Mr Nariman and Mr Naphade, learned Senior Counsel contending that the said provision, if it is to be interpreted to exclude the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India, it has to be supported by a constitutional amendment adding at the end of Article 136(2) the words “or to any determination of any tribunal constituted under the law made by Parliament under Article 262(2)” and, in such a situation, in all possibility such an amendment to the Constitution may be ultra vires affecting the power of

124(1969) 1 SCC 248 125(2017) 3 SCC 362 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 437 of 567 judicial review which is a part of basic feature of the Constitution. The learned Senior Counsel for the respondent has drawn a distinction between the conferment and the exclusion of the power of the Supreme Court of India by the original Constitution and any exclusion by the constitutional amendment. Be that as it may, the said aspect need not be adverted to, as we are only required to interpret Section 6(2) as it exists today on the statute book. The said provision has been inserted to provide teeth to the decision of the Tribunal after its publication in the Official Gazette by the Central Government and this has been done keeping in view the Sarkaria Commission's Report on Centre-State Relations (1980). The relevant extract of the Sarkaria Commission's Report reads as follows:

“17.4.19. The Act was amended in 1980 and Section 6-A was inserted. This section provides for framing a scheme for giving effect to a Tribunal's award. The scheme, inter alia provides for the establishment of the authority, its term of office and other conditions of service, etc. But the mere creation of such an agency will not be able to ensure implementation of a Tribunal's award. Any agency set up under Section 6- A cannot really function without the cooperation of the States concerned. Further, to make a Tribunal's award binding and effectively enforceable, it should have the same force and sanction behind it as an order or decree of the Supreme Court. We recommend that the Act should be suitably amended for this purpose.

***

17.6.05. The Inter-State Water Disputes Act, 1956 should be amended so that a Tribunal's award has the same force and sanction behind it as an order or decree of the Supreme Court to make a Tribunal's award really binding.”

74. The Report of the Commission as the language would suggest, was to make the final decision of the Tribunal binding on both the States and once it is treated as a decree of this Court, then it has the binding effect. It was suggested to make the award effectively enforceable. The language employed in Section 6(2) suggests that the decision of the Tribunal shall have the same force as the

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 438 of 567 order or decree of this Court. There is a distinction between having the same force as an order or decree of this Court and passing of a decree by this Court after due adjudication. Parliament has intentionally used the words from which it can be construed that a legal fiction is meant to serve the purpose for which the fiction has been created and not intended to travel beyond it. The purpose is to have the binding effect of the Tribunal's award and the effectiveness of enforceability. Thus, it has to be narrowly construed regard being had to the purpose it is meant to serve.

75. In this context, we may usefully refer to the Principles of Statutory Interpretation, 14th Edn. by G.P. Singh. The learned author has expressed thus:

“In interpreting a provision creating a legal fiction, the court is to ascertain for what purpose the fiction is created [State of Travancore-Cochin v. Shanmugha Vilas Cashewnut Factory, AIR 1953 SC 333; State of Bombay v. Pandurang Vinayak, AIR 1953 SC 244 : 1953 Cri LJ 1094] , and after ascertaining this, the Court is to assume all those facts and consequences which are incidental or inevitable corollaries to the giving effect to the fiction. [East End Dwellings Co. Ltd.v. Finsbury Borough Council, 1952 AC 109 : (1951) 2 All ER 587 (HL); CIT v. S. Teja Singh, AIR 1959 SC 352] But in so construing the fiction it is not to be extended beyond the purpose for which it is created [Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. v. State of Bihar, AIR 1955 SC 661; CIT v. Amarchand N. Shroff, AIR 1963 SC 1448], or beyond the language of the section by which it is created. [CIT v. Shakuntala, AIR 1966 SC 719; Mancheri Puthusseri Ahmed v.

Kuthiravattam Estate Receiver, (1996) 6 SCC 185 :

AIR 1997 SC 208] It cannot also be extended by importing another fiction. [CIT v. Moon Mills Ltd., AIR 1966 SC 870] The principles stated above are ‘well- settled’. [State of W.B. v. Sadan K. Bormal, (2004) 6 SCC 59 : 2004 SCC (Cri) 1739 : AIR 2004 SC 3666] A legal fiction may also be interpreted narrowly to make the statute workable. [Nandkishore Ganesh Joshi v. Commr., Municipal Corpn. of Kalyan and Dombivali, (2004) 11 SCC 417 : AIR 2005 SC 34] ”

76. In Aneeta Hada v. Godfather Travels and Tours [Aneeta Hada v. Godfather Travels and Tours, (2012) 5 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 439 of 567 SCC 661 : (2012) 3 SCC (Civ) 350 : (2012) 3 SCC (Cri) 241] , a three-Judge Bench has ruled thus: (SCC p. 681, paras 37-38)

“37. In State of T.N. v. Arooran Sugars Ltd. [State of T.N. v. Arooran Sugars Ltd., (1997) 1 SCC 326] the Constitution Bench, while dealing with the deeming provision in a statute, ruled that the role of a provision in a statute creating legal fiction is well settled.

Reference was made to Chief Inspector of Mines v. Karam Chand Thapar [Chief Inspector of Mines v. Karam Chand Thapar, AIR 1961 SC 838 : (1961) 2 Cri LJ 1], J.K. Cotton Spg. and Wvg. Mills Ltd. v. Union of India[J.K. Cotton Spg. and Wvg. Mills Ltd. v. Union of India, 1987 Supp SCC 350 : 1988 SCC (Tax) 26], M. Venugopal v. LIC [M. Venugopal v. LIC, (1994) 2 SCC 323 : 1994 SCC (L&S) 664] and Harish Tandon v. ADM, Allahabad [Harish Tandon v. ADM, Allahabad, (1995) 1 SCC 537] and eventually, it was held that when a statute creates a legal fiction saying that something shall be deemed to have been done which in fact and truth has not been done, the Court has to examine and ascertain as to for what purpose and between which persons such a statutory fiction is to be resorted to and thereafter, the courts have to give full effect to such a statutory fiction and it has to be carried to its logical conclusion.

38. From the aforesaid pronouncements, the principle that can be culled out is that it is the bounden duty of the court to ascertain for what purpose the legal fiction has been created. It is also the duty of the court to imagine the fiction with all real consequences and instances unless prohibited from doing so. That apart, the use of the term “deemed” has to be read in its context and further, the fullest logical purpose and import are to be understood. It is because in modern legislation, the term “deemed” has been used for manifold purposes. The object of the legislature has to be kept in mind.”

77. In Hari Ram [State of U.P. v. Hari Ram, (2013) 4 SCC 280 : (2013) 2 SCC (Civ) 583] , the Court has held that (SCC p. 293, para 18) in interpreting the provision creating a legal fiction, the court is to ascertain for what purpose the fiction is created and after ascertaining the same, the court is to assume all those facts and consequences which are Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 440 of 567 incidental or inevitable corollaries for giving effect to the fiction.”

373) There is yet another angle from which the matter can be looked

into. In any case, when the Aadhaar scheme/project under the

Act has been saved from the challenge to its constitutionality, we

see no reason to invalidate the enrolments which were made

prior to the passing of this Act as it would lead to unnecessary

burden and exercise of enrolling these persons all over again.

Instead the problem can be solved by eliciting ‘consent’ of all

those persons who were enrolled prior to the passing of the Act.

Since, we have held that enrolment is voluntary in nature, those

who specifically refuse to give the consent, they would be allowed

to exit from Aadhaar scheme. After all, by getting Aadhaar card,

an individual so enrolled is getting a form of identity card. It

would still be open to such an individual to make use of the said

Aadhaar number or not. Those persons who need to avail any

subsidy, benefit or service would need Aadhaar in any case. It

would not be proper to cancel their Aadhaar cards. If direction is

given to invalidate all those enrolments which were made prior to

2016 then such persons will have to undergo the rigours of

getting themselves enrolled all over again. On the other hand,

those who do not get any benefit of the nature prescribed under

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 441 of 567 Section 7 of the Act, it would always be open for them not to

make use of Aadhaar card or to make use of this card in a limited

sense, namely, showing it as a proof of their identity, without

undergoing any authentication process. Therefore, to a large

extent, it does not harm this later category as well.

We, thus, uphold the validity of Section 59. As a corollary,

Aadhaar for the period from 2009 to 2016 also stands validated.

LIMITED GOVERNMENT, GOOD GOVERNANCE, CONSTITUTIONAL TRUST AND CONSTITUTIONALISM

374) Mr. Shyam Divan and Mr. Gopal Subramanium, learned senior

counsel, submit that a fundamental feature of the Constitution is

the sovereignty of the people with limited government authority.

The Constitution limits governmental authority in various ways,

amongst them Fundamental Rights, the distribution of powers

amongst organs of the state and the ultimate check by way of

judicial review. Article 245 of the Constitution of India is an

express embodiment of the principle of limited government to the

legislature inasmuch as it subjects laws to the Constitution:

“(1) Subject to the provisions of this Constitution, Parliament may make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India, and the Legislature of a State may make laws for the whole or any part of the State.”

375) The concept of limited government is the underlying difference

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 442 of 567 between a ‘Constitution’ and ‘Constitutionalism’. Mr. Shyam Divan

refers to the introductory chapter of his book Indian Constitutional

Law, Prof. M.P. Jain writes:

“Modern political thought draws a distinction between ‘Constitutionalism’ and ‘Constitution’. A country may have the ‘Constitution’ but not necessary ‘Constitutionalism’. For example, a country with a dictatorship, where the dictator’s word is law, can be said to have a ‘Constitution’ but not ‘Constitutionalism’.

The underlying difference between the two concepts is that a Constitution ought not merely to confer powers on the various organs of the government, but also seek to restrain those powers. Constitutionalism recognises the need for government but insists upon limitations being placed upon governmental powers. Constitutionalism envisages checks and balances and putting the powers of the legislature and the executive under some restraints and not making them uncontrolled and arbitrary. Unlimited powers jeopardise freedom of the people ... If the Constitution confers unrestrained power on either the legislature or the executive, it might lead to an authoritarian, oppressive government... to preserve the basic freedoms of the individual, and to maintain his dignity and personality, the Constitution should be permeated with ‘Constitutionalism’: it should have some in-built restrictions on the powers conferred by it on governmental organs.

‘Constitutionalism’ connotes in essence limited government or a limitation on government. Constitutionalism is the antithesis of arbitrary powers…

... As PROFESSOR VILE has remarked: “Western institutional theorists have concerned themselves with the problems of ensuring that the exercise of governmental power...should be controlled in order that it should not itself be destructive of the values it was intended to promote.”

376) Mr. Divan then cited various paragraphs from the cases of State

of M.P. v. Thakur Bharat Singh126, (1967) 2 SCR 454, Gobind v.

126(1967) 2 SCR 454 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 443 of 567 State of M.P.127, S.P. Sampath Kumar v. Union of India128, Sub-

Committee on Judicial Accountability v. Union of India129, I.R.

Coelho v. State of T.N.130, Nandini Sundar v. State of

Chhattisgarh131, which have reiterated and upheld the principle of

limited governments and constitutionalism as a fundamental

principle of our constitutional scheme.

377) He submitted that limited government is also enshrined within our

Preamble, which is the essence of the Constitution of India, and

entitles every individual citizen and the citizenry collectively to

live, work, and enjoy their varied lives without being under the

continuous gaze of the State. He cites Chelameswar, J. in K.S.

Puttaswamy wherein he observed:

“The Constitution of any country reflects the aspirations and goals of the people of that country (…) The Constitution cannot be seen as a document written in ink to replace one legal regime by another. It is a testament created for securing the goals professed in the Preamble. Part-III of the Constitution is incorporated to ensure achievement of the objects contained in the Preamble. ‘We the People’ of this country are the intended beneficiaries of the Constitution. Man is not a creature of the State. Life and liberty are not granted by the Constitution. Constitution only stipulates the limitations on the power of the State to interfere with our life and liberty. Law is essential to enjoy the fruits of liberty; it is not the source of liberty and emphatically not the exclusive source.”

127(1975) 2 SCC 148 128(1987) 1 SCC 124 129(1991) 4 SCC 699 130(2007) 2 SCC 1 131 (2011) 7 SCC 547 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 444 of 567

378) The Directive Principles of State Policy also envisage a limited

government. Violation of fundamental rights cannot be justified by

the State on grounds of administrative convenience in meeting its

obligations under the Directive Principles of State Policy.

Protection of fundamental rights is essential for public welfare

contemplated under the Directive Principles of State Policy. This

has been upheld in various cases such as Minerva Mills Ltd. v.

Union of India132, where Y.V. Chandrachud, C.J observed:

“57. (…) just as the rights conferred by Part III would be without a radar and a compass if they were not geared to an ideal, in the same manner the attainment of the ideals set out in Part IV would become a pretence for tyranny if the price to be paid for achieving that ideal is human freedoms.”

379) Similarly, in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala133, S.M. Sikri,

C.J., inter alia, held:

“209. ...In my view that meaning would be appropriate which would enable the country to achieve a social and economic revolution without destroying the democratic structure of the Constitution and the basic inalienable rights guaranteed in Part III and without going outside the contours delineated in the Preamble.

xx xx xx

299. I am unable to hold that these provisions show that some rights are not natural or inalienable rights. As a matter of fact, India was a party to the Universal Declaration of Rights which I have already referred to and that Declaration describes some fundamental rights as

132 (1980) 3 SCC 625 133 (1973) 4 SCC 225 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 445 of 567 inalienable. Various decisions of this Court describe fundamental rights as ‘natural rights’ or ‘human rights’ ...”

380) Mr. Divan quotes Seervai in his book Constitutional Law of

India134: A Critical Commentary where he writes:

“17.14... In India “Public Welfare” and “Welfare State” became in the language of the Chaldean Oracle, “God- given names of unexplained power”, which absolved judges from a critical examination of the nature of fundamental rights, and why they were made legally enforceable and the nature of directive principles and why they were made legally unenforceable

xx xx xx

17.20...it is simply not true that persons entrusted with the duty of implementing the directives will strive in good faith to implement them according to the expectations of the community.

xx xx xx

The question then arises: What is the agency for bringing about social and economic changes which would enable a welfare state to be created? The answer is, legislative and executive power controlled by constitutional limitations including fundamental rights …

xx xx xx

17.30 ... the conferment of legally enforceable fundamental rights by our Constitution on persons, citizens and groups of persons was the most effective way of securing public welfare...Anything which enables those objectives to be realised as fully as is practicable must, broadly speaking, subserve public welfare...However, the Preamble, and to a large extent, Fundamental Rights, enable us to say that our Constitution has rejected a totalitarian form of government in favour of a liberal democracy. The emphasis of the Preamble is on securing the dignity of the individual … 134 H.M. Seervai, Constitutional Law of India: A Critical Commentary (N.M. Tripathi Private Limited, Bombay, 4th Ed., Vol. 2, 1993) at pages 1928-1937.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 446 of 567 xx xx xx

17.34 But can fundamental rights acting as limitations on legislative and executive power secure public welfare as the framers of our Constitution intended? The answer is “Yes”. For, when during the Emergency of 1975-77, almost all the fetters on legislative power became unenforceable, the public welfare suffered gravely and our free democratic constitution was twisted out of shape and came near to a dictatorship or a Police State ...”

381) The principles of constitutional trust, constitutional morality and

good governance are also deeply intertwined with the principle of

minimum government. In Manoj Narula v. Union of India135, the

Court, inter alia, held:

“1. … Democracy, which has been best defined as the government of the people, by the people and for the people, expects prevalence of genuine orderliness, positive propriety, dedicated discipline and sanguine sanctity by constant affirmance of constitutional morality which is the pillar stone of good governance.

xx xx xx

75. The principle of constitutional morality basically means to bow down to the norms of the Constitution and not to act in a manner which would become violative of the rule of law or reflectible of action in an arbitrary manner. It actually works at the fulcrum and guides as a laser beam in institution building. The traditions and conventions have to grow to sustain the value of such a morality. The democratic values survive and become successful where the people at large and the persons in charge of the institution are strictly guided by the constitutional parameters without paving the path of deviancy and reflecting in action the primary concern to maintain institutional integrity and the requisite constitutional restraints. Commitment to the Constitution is a facet of constitutional morality.”

135 (2014) 9 SCC 1 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 447 of 567 xx xx xx

82. In a democracy, the citizens legitimately expect that the Government of the day would treat the public interest as the primary one and any other interest secondary. The maxim salus populi suprema lex, has not only to be kept in view but also has to be revered. The faith of the people is embedded in the root of the idea of good governance which means reverence for citizenry rights, respect for fundamental rights and statutory rights in any governmental action, deference for unwritten constitutional values, veneration for institutional integrity, and inculcation of accountability to the collective at large. It also conveys that the decisions are taken by the decision-making authority with solemn sincerity and policies are framed keeping in view the welfare of the people, and including all in a homogeneous compartment. The concept of good governance is not a Utopian conception or an abstraction.

It has been the demand of the polity wherever democracy is nourished. The growth of democracy is dependent upon good governance in reality and the aspiration of the people basically is that the administration is carried out by people with responsibility with service orientation.

83. … The issue of constitutional trust arises in the context of the debate in the Constituent Assembly that had taken place pertaining to the recommendation for appointment of a Minister to the Council of Ministers. Responding to the proposal for the amendment suggested by Prof. K.T. Shah with regard to the introduction of a disqualification of a convicted person becoming a Minister, Dr B.R. Ambedkar had replied: (CAD Vol. VII, p. 1160)

“His last proposition is that no person who is convicted may be appointed a Minister of the State. Well, so far as his intention is concerned, it is no doubt very laudable and I do not think any Member of this House would like to differ from him on that proposition. But the whole question is this: whether we should introduce all these qualifications and disqualifications in the Constitution itself. Is it not desirable, is it not sufficient that we should trust the Prime Minister, the legislature and the public at large watching the actions of the Ministers and the actions of the legislature to see that no such infamous thing is done by either of them?I think this is a case which Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 448 of 567 may eminently be left to the good sense of the Prime Minister and to the good sense of the legislature with the general public holding a watching brief upon them. I therefore say that these amendments are unnecessary.”

382) It is submitted by Mr. Divan that the Aadhaar project is destructive

of limited government, constitutionalism and constitutional trust.

The Constitution is not about the power of the State, but about

the limits on the power of the State. Post Aadhaar, the State will

completely dominate the citizen and alter the relationship

between citizen and State. The features of a Totalitarian State is

seen from:

(a) A person cannot conduct routine activities such as operating

a bank account, holding an investment in mutual funds, receiving

government pension, receiving scholarship, receiving food

rations, operating a mobile phone without the State knowing

about these activities.(Sections 7, 32 and 57 of the Aadhaar Act).

(b) The State can build a profile of the individual based on the

trail of authentication from which the nature of the citizen’s activity

can be determined. (Sections 2(d) and 32 of the Aadhaar Act and

Regulation 20, 26 and 27 of the Aadhaar (Authentication)

Regulation, 2016.

(c) By disabling Aadhaar the State can cause the civil death of

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 449 of 567 the person.(Sections 23(2)(g) of the Aadhaar Act and Regulation

27 and 28 of the Aadhaar (Enrolment and Updates) Act, 2016).

(d) By making Aadhaar compulsory for other activities such as

air travel, rail travel, directorship in companies, services and

benefits extended by State governments and municipal

corporations etc. there will be virtually no zone of activity left

where the citizen is not under the gaze of the State. This will have

a chilling effect on the citizen.

(e) In such a society, there is little or no personal autonomy.

The State is pervasive, and dignity of the individual stands

extinguished.

(f) This is an inversion of the accountability in the Right to

Information age: instead of the State being transparent to the

citizen, it is the citizen who is rendered transparent to the State.

383) Mr. Sibal also added that accountability of governments and the

state is a phenomenon which is accepted across the world. In

furtherance of the Right to information Act, 2005 was passed

intended to ensure transparency and state accountability.

Through Aadhaar, on the other hand, the state seeks

transparency and accountability of an individual’s multifarious

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 450 of 567 activities in the course of his everyday life. This fundamentally

alters the relationship between the citizen and the State and

skews the balance of power in favour of the State, which is

anathema to the Constitution.

384) There is no dispute about the exposition of the principles of

limited government and good governance, etc., as highlighted by

the learned counsel for the petitioners and noted above.

We may add that we are the Republic and it becomes the

duty of the Court to keep it. That can be achieved by asking the

stakeholders to follow the Constitution, which we have. There are

six key constitutional notions, a brilliant exposition whereof has

been provided in the case of Manoj Narula v. Union of India136.

The idea of constitutional renaissance was first sounded in the

said judgment. It is further elaborated in the case of Government

of NCT of Delhi v. Union of India137 in the opinion penned down by

one of us138. It stands severally described now as “a constant

awakening as regards the text, context, perspective, purpose,

and the rule of law”, an awakening that makes space for a

“resurgent constitutionalism” and “allows no room for absolutism”

nor any “space for anarchy”. It is held, therein the term “rational

136 (2014) 9 SCC 1 137 (2018) SCC Online SC 661 138 Dipak Misra, CJI Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 451 of 567 anarchism” has “no entry in the field of constitutional governance

or the rule of law” and by the same token constitutional text and

context resolutely repudiate the lineages of absolutism or the

itineraries of dictatorship. One may then say that

“constitutionalism” is the space between “absolutism” and

“anarchy” and its constant repair and renewal is the prime

function of adjudication.

385) In an illuminating Article titled ‘A Constitutional Renaissance’ on

the aforesaid verdict authored by Prof. Upendra Baxi 139, the

learned Professor has made following pertinent comments:

“Awakening is a constant process; renaissance has a beginning but knows no end because everyday fidelity to the vision, spirit and letter of the Constitution is the supreme obligation of all constitutional beings. One ought to witness in daily decisions an “acceptance of constitutional obligations” not just within the text of the Constitution but also its “silences”. To thus reawaken is to be “obeisant to the constitutional conscience with a sense of constitutional vision”. Second, courts should adopt that approach to interpretation which “glorifies the democratic spirit of the Constitution”. “Reverence” for the Constitution (or constitutionalism) is the essential first step towards constitutional renaissance. Third, people are the true sovereigns, never to be reduced to the servile status of being a subject; rather as beings with rights, they are the source of trust in governance and founts of legitimacy. The relatively autonomous legislative, executive, administrative and adjudicatory powers are legitimate only when placed at the service of constitutional ends. All forms of public power are held in trust. And political power is not an end but a means to constitutional governance.”

139 Published in The Indian Express on July 16, 2018 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 452 of 567

386) Since the arguments on limited government advanced by Mr.

Shyam Divan were the same as advanced by him during the

hearing of Binoy Viswam, our purpose would be served by

reproducing the following discussion from the said judgment:

“85. There cannot be any dispute about the manner in which Mr Shyam Divan explained the concept of “limited Government” in his submissions. Undoubtedly, the Constitution of India, as an instrument of governance of the State, delineates the functions and powers of each wing of the State, namely, the Legislature, the Judiciary and the Executive. It also enshrines the principle of separation of powers which mandates that each wing of the State has to function within its own domain and no wing of the State is entitled to trample over the function assigned to the other wing of the State. This fundamental document of governance also contains principle of federalism wherein the Union is assigned certain powers and likewise powers of the State are also prescribed. In this context, the Union Legislature i.e. Parliament, as well as the State Legislatures are given specific areas in respect of which they have power to legislate. That is so stipulated in Schedule VII to the Constitution wherein List I enumerates the subjects over which Parliament has the dominion, List II spells out those areas where the State Legislatures have the power to make laws while List III is the Concurrent List which is accessible both to the Union as well as the State Governments. The scheme pertaining to making laws by Parliament as well as by the legislatures of the State is primarily contained in Articles 245 to 254 of the Constitution. Therefore, it cannot be disputed that each wing of the State has to act within the sphere delineated for it under the Constitution. It is correct that crossing these limits would render the action of the State ultra vires the Constitution. When it comes to power of taxation, undoubtedly, power to tax is treated as sovereign power of any State. However, there are constitutional limitations briefly described above.

86. In a nine Judge Bench decision of this Court in Jindal Stainless Ltd. & Anr. v. State of Haryana & Ors. discussion on these constitutional limitations are as follows:

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 453 of 567 “20. Exercise of sovereign power is, however, subject to Constitutional limitations especially in a federal system like ours where the States also to the extent permissible exercise the power to make laws including laws that levy taxes, duties and fees. That the power to levy taxes is subject to constitutional limitations is no longer res-integra. A Constitution Bench of this Court has in Synthetics and Chemicals Ltd. v. State of U.P. (1990) 1 SCC 109 recognised that in India the Centre and the States both enjoy the exercise of sovereign power, to the extent the Constitution confers upon them that power. This Court declared:

“56 … We would not like, however, to embark upon any theory of police power because the Indian Constitution does not recognise police power as such. But we must recognise the exercise of Sovereign power which gives the State sufficient authority to enact any law subject to the limitations of the Constitution to discharge its functions. Hence, the Indian Constitution as a sovereign State has power to legislate on all branches except to the limitation as to the division of powers between the Centre and the States and also subject to the fundamental rights guaranteed under the Constitution. The Indian States, between the Centre and the States, has sovereign power. The sovereign power is plenary and inherent in every sovereign State to do all things which promote the health, peace, morals, education and good order of the people.

Sovereignty is difficult to define. This power of sovereignty is, however, subject to constitutional limitations.”This power, according to some constitutional authorities, is to the public what necessity is to the individual. Right to tax or levy impost must be in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.”

21. What then are the Constitutional limitations on the power of the State legislatures to levy taxes or for that matter enact legislations in the field reserved for them under the relevant entries of List II and III of the Seventh Schedule. The first and the foremost of these Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 454 of 567 limitations appears in Article 13 of the Constitution of India which declares that all laws in force in the territory of India immediately before the commencement of the Constitution are void to the extent they are inconsistent with the provisions of Part III dealing with the fundamental rights guaranteed to the citizens. It forbids the States from making any law which takes away or abridges, any provision of Part III.

Any law made in contravention of the said rights shall to the extent of contravention be void. There is no gain saying that the power to enact laws has been conferred upon the Parliament subject to the above Constitutional limitation. So also in terms of Article 248, the residuary power to impose a tax not otherwise mentioned in the Concurrent List or the State List has been vested in the Parliament to the exclusion of the State legislatures, and the States' power to levy taxes limited to what is specifically reserved in their favour and no more.

22. Article 249 similarly empowers the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List for national interest provided the Council of States has declared by a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in national interest to do so. The power is available till such time any resolution remains in force in terms of Article 249(2) and the proviso thereunder.

23. Article 250 is yet another provision which empowers the Parliament to legislate with respect to any matter in the State List when there is a proclamation of emergency. In the event of an inconsistency between laws made by Parliament under Articles 249 and 250, and laws made by legislature of the States, the law made by Parliament shall, to the extent of the inconsistency, prevail over the law made by the State in terms of Article 251.

24. The power of Parliament to legislate for two or more States by consent, in regard to matters not otherwise within the power of the Parliament is regulated by Article 252, while Article 253 starting with a non-obstante clause empowers Parliament to make any law for the whole country or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any other country Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 455 of 567 or countries or any decision made at any international conference, association or other body.”

87. Mr. Divan, however, made an earnest endeavour to further broaden this concept of ‘limited Government’ by giving an altogether different slant. He submitted that there are certain things that the States simply cannot do because the action fundamentally alters the relationship between the citizens and the State. In this hue, he submitted that it was impermissible for the State to undertake the exercise of collection of bio-metric data, including fingerprints and storing at a central depository as it puts the State in an extremely dominant position in relation to the individual citizens. He also submitted that it will put the State in a position to target an individual and engage in surveillance thereby depriving or withholding the enjoyment of his rights and entitlements, which is totally impermissible in a country where governance of the State of founded on the concept of ‘limited Government’. Again, this concept of limited government is woven around Article 21 of the Constitution.

88. Undoubtedly, we are in the era of liberalised democracy. In a democratic society governed by the Constitution, there is a strong trend towards the constitutionalisation of democratic politics, where the actions of democratically elected Government are judged in the light of the Constitution. In this context, judiciary assumes the role of protector of the Constitution and democracy, being the ultimate arbiter in all matters involving the interpretation of the Constitution.”

387) We may observe that the matter is examined keeping in view the

fundamental principles of constitutionalism in mind, and more

particularly the principle that the concept of ‘limited government’

is applicable having regard to the fact that the three limbs of the

State are to act within the framework of a written Constitution

which assigns specific powers to each of the wing of the State

and this presupposes that the sovereign power of the Parliament

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 456 of 567 is circumscribed by the provisions of the Constitution and the

legislature is supposed to Act within the boundaries delineated by

the Constitution. The constitutionalism, which is the bedrock of

rule of law, is to be necessarily adhered to by the Parliament.

Further, the power of judicial review which is accorded to the

courts can be exercised to strike down any legislation or

executive action if it is unconstitutional.

388) When we examine this issue in the context of discussion on

various issues already dealt with, it is difficult to agree with the

sweeping proposition advanced by the petitioners that the

Aadhaar project is destructive of limited government and

constitutional trust. These submissions are premised on the

architecture of the Aadhaar being constitutionally intrusive which

threatens the autonomy of individuals and has a tendency of

creating a surveillance state. In support, the petitioners have

referred to certain provisions of the Aadhaar Act. Some

provisions which we found offending are struck down, some

others have been read down and some are tweaked with. We

feel that the statutory regime that would now govern the citizenry,

wards off such a danger, if any.

MONEY BILL

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 457 of 567 Is the Aadhaar Act a validly enacted law having been passed as a Money Bill?

389) Mr. Chidambaram and Mr. Datar had laid attack on the Act on the

ground that the Bill it could not have been introduced and passed

by the Parliament as Money Bill. It was argued that the Aadhaar

(Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and

Services) Bill, 2016 (for short the ‘Bill’) was wrongly certified as

Money Bill under Article 110 of the Constitution of India by the

Hon’ble Speaker of the Lok Sabha, thereby, virtually excluding

the Rajya Sabha from the legislative process and depriving the

Hon’ble President of his power of return. This, according to them,

is illegal and grossly violates the constitutional provisions.

390) It was submitted that Bills are of three kinds:

(i) Ordinary Bills (Article 107);

(ii) Financial Bills viz. subset of Ordinary Bills (Article 117);

(iii) Money Bill viz. subset of Financial Bills (Article 110).

391) Article 110 reads as under:

“Article 110 - Definition of "Money Bills".-

(1) For the purposes of this Chapter, a Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters, namely:--

(a) the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 458 of 567 (b) the regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India, or the amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the Government of India;

(c) the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of moneys from any such Fund;

(d) the appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India;

(e) the declaring of any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or the increasing of the amount of any such expenditure;

(f) the receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or the custody or issue of such money or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a State; or

(g) any matter incidental to any of the matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to (f).

(2) A Bill shall not be deemed to be a Money Bill by reason only that it provides for the imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties, or for the demand or payment of fees for licenses or fees for services rendered, or by reason that it provides for the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax by any local authority or body for local purposes.

(3) If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People thereon shall be final.

(4) There shall be endorsed on every Money Bill when it is transmit led to the Council of States under article 109, and when it is presented to the President for assent under article 111, the certificate of the Speaker of the House of the People signed by him that it is a Money Bill.”

392) It was submitted that a Money Bill may provide for matters

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 459 of 567 enumerated in Clause (a) to (f) of Article 110. Clause (g) has

been added because it may be necessary to include provisions

that are only “incidental” to any of matters specified in (a) to (f).

The learned counsel pointed out the distinguishing features of a

Money Bill are as below:

(i) It shall be introduced only on the recommendation of

President (Article 117(1)).

(ii) It shall be introduced only in the House of the People

(Article 117(1), 109(1)).

(iii) A Money Bill is transmitted by the Lok Sabha to the Rajya

Sabha. Rajya Sabha thereafter may only make recommendations

and return the Bill and not make amendments. The

recommendations may or may not be accepted by the Lok

Sabha. If the Money Bill is not returned within 14 days, it is

deemed to have been passed by both the Houses. (Article 109(2)

to Article 109(5)).

(iv) Upon submission of a Money Bill to the President for his

assent, the President cannot return the Money Bill with the

message requesting that the Houses will reconsider the Bill

(proviso to Article 111).

Hence, it is manifest that a Money Bill that a Money Bill is a

special kind of Bill that has the effect of denuding the power of the

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 460 of 567 Rajya Sabha of its power to amend the Bill and depriving the

President of his power to return the bill for reconsideration. On

that premise, it was argued that the provisions of a Money Bill

must be construed very strictly and narrowly and only if a Bill falls

strictly under definition of a Money Bill (Article 110), it can be

passed as a Money Bill. If the provisions of the Bill fall outside

the strict definition of Money Bill, the said Bill cannot be passed

as a Money Bill.

393) Great emphasis was laid on the word ‘only’ appearing in Article

110 which signified that to qualify as a Money Bill, it has to strictly

fall within one or more of the clauses of Article 110. For the

interpretation of the word ‘only’, reference was made to the

judgment in the case of Hari Ram & Ors. v. Babu Gokul

Prasad140:

“3. Section 166 of M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1954 reads as under:

“166. Any person who holds land for agricultural purposes from a tenure holder and who is not an occupancy tenant under Section 169 or a protected lessee under the Berar Regulation of Agricultural Leases Act, 1951, shall be ordinary tenant of such land.

Explanation.— For the purposes of this section —

140(1991) Supp. 2 SCC 608 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 461 of 567

(i) any person who pays lease money in respect of any land in the form of crop share shall be deemed to hold such land;

(ii) any person who cultivates land in partnership with the tenure holder shall not be deemed to hold such land;

(iii) any person to whom only the right to cut grass or to graze cattle or to grow singhara (Trapa bispinosa) or to propagate or collect lac is granted in any land shall not be deemed to hold such land for agricultural purposes.”

A bare perusal of the section indicates that any tenant other than occupancy tenant if he held the land for agricultural purposes from a tenure holder, then he became ordinary tenant by operation of law. Doubt if any stood removed by the explanation which clarifies the class of persons who could be deemed to be covered under a tenant other than occupancy tenant. Since it has been found that the land was let out to appellant not only for the right to cut grass, he could not be held to be a person who was not holding the land for agricultural purposes. The word ‘only’ in Explanation (iii) is significant. It postulates that entire land should have been used for the purposes enumerated. If part of the land was used for cultivation, then the land could not be deemed to have been granted for cutting grass only. It has been found that out of 5 and odd acres of land, the land under cultivation was 2 acres.

Therefore, the negative clause in Explanation (iii) did not apply and the appellant became ordinary tenant under Section 166. In 1959, M.P. Land Revenue Code was enacted and Section 185 provided for the persons who could be deemed to be occupancy tenants. Its relevant part is extracted below:

“185. Occupancy tenants.— (1) Every person who at the coming into force of this Code holds—

(i) in the Mahakoshal Region—

(a) ***

(b) ***

(c) any land as an ordinary tenant as defined in the Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code, 1954 (2 of 1955);”

394) The learned counsel also referred to M/s. Saru Smelting (P) Ltd.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 462 of 567 v. Commissioner of Sales Tax, Lucknow141:

“3. The contention of the respondent is that Phosphorous Bronze is an alloy containing not only the metals mentioned in the aforesaid entry but Phosphorous also and as such it is not covered under the aforesaid entry. The words “other alloy containing any of these metals only” mean that the alloy made of these metals i.e. copper, tin, nickel or zinc only and that alone is covered under the said entry. It was submitted that if any other metal or substance is included in such an alloy, the same would not be covered under the aforesaid entry.

xx xx xx

5. We were referred to various dictionary meanings of the words ‘Phosphorous Bronze’ which have been noticed by the learned Judge dealing with the case in the High Court.

We are really concerned with the interpretation of the entry. The emphasis in the entry is — either it should be pure copper, tin, nickel or zinc and if it is an alloy containing two or more metals, it must be an alloy containing these metals only. The expression “only” is very material for understanding the meaning of the entry. Since the alloy in dispute contains Phosphorous, may be in a very small quantity, it cannot fall within Entry 2(a) of the aforesaid Notification. The appeal consequently fails and is dismissed with costs.”

395) In order to demonstrate as to what would be the nature and

scope of the Money Bill, reference was made to the following

literature:

“RELEVANT EXCERPTS FROM ERSKINE MAY’S “PARLIAMENTARY PRACTICE”

Definition of Money Bill –

Section 1(2) of the Act defines a ‘Money Bill’ as a public bill which in the opinion of the Speaker of the House of Commons contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following subjects, namely, the imposition, repeal, remission, alteration, or regulation of taxation; the imposition for the payment of debt or other financial 141(1993) Supp. 3 SCC 97 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 463 of 567 purposes of charges on the Consolidated Fund or the national Loans Fund, or on money provided by Parliament or the variation or repeal of any such charges; Supply; the appropriation, receipt, custody, issue or audit of accounts of public money; the raising or guarantee of any loan or the repayment thereof; or subordinate matters incidental to those subjects or any of them. For the purposes of this definition the expressions ‘taxation’, ‘public money’, and ‘loan’ respectively do not include any taxation, money, or loan raised by local authorities or bodies for local purposes, matters which, on the other hand, are included within the scope of Commons financial privilege.

PROCEDURE IN PASSING MONEY BILL

A ‘Money Bill’ which has been passed by the House of Commons and sent up to the House of Lords at least one month before the end of the session, but is not passed by the House of Lords without amendment within one month after it is so sent up, is, unless the House of Commons direct to the contrary, to be presented for the Royal Assent and becomes an Act of Parliament on the Royal Assent being signified to it. A ‘Money Bil’, when it is sent up to the House of Lords and when it is presented to Her Majesty, must be endorsed with the Speaker’s certificate that it is such a bill. Before giving this certificate the Speaker is directed to consult, if practicable, those two members of the Panel of Chairs who are appointed for the purpose at the beginning of each session by the Committee of Selection.

When the Speaker has certified a bill to be a ‘Money Bill’ this is recorded in the Journal; and Section 3 of the Parliament Act 1911 stipulates that such certificate is conclusive for all purposes and may not be questioned in a court of law.

No serious practical difficulty normally arises in deciding whether a particular bill is or is not a ‘Money Bill’; and criticism has seldom been voiced of the Speaker’s action in giving or withholding a certificate. A bill which contains any of the enumerated matters and nothing besides is indisputably a ‘Money bill’. If it contains any other matters, then, unless these are ‘subordinate matters incidental to’ any of the enumerated matters so contained in the bill, the bill is not a ‘Money bill’. Furthermore, even if the main object of a bill is to create a new charge on the Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 464 of 567 Consolidated Fund or on money provided by Parliament, the bill will not be certified if it is apparent that the primary purpose of the new charge is not purely financial.”

THE PARLIAMENTARY ACT, 1911

Chapter 13 of the Parliament Act, 1911 wherein Money Bill is defined as under:

“(1) …

(2) A Money Bill means a Public Bill which in the opinion of the Speaker of the House of Commons contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following subjects, namely, the imposition, repeal, remission, alteration, or regulation of taxation; the imposition for the payment of debt or other financial purposes of charges on the Consolidated Fund, or on money provided by Parliament, or the variation or repeal of any such charges; supply; the appropriation, receipt, custody, issue or audit of accounts of public money; the raising or guarantee of any loan or the repayment thereof; or subordinate matters incidental to those subjects or any of them. In this subsection the expressions “taxation”, “public money”, and “loan” respectively do not include any taxation, money, or loan raised by local authorities or bodies for local purposes.

(3) There shall be endorsed on every Money Bill when it is sent up to the House of Lords and when it is presented to His Majesty for assent the certificate of the Speaker of the House of Commons signed by him that it is a Money Bill.

Before giving his certificate, the Speaker shall consult, if practicable, two members to be appointed from the Chairmen’s Panel at the beginning of each Session by the Committee of Selection.”

RELEVANT EXCERPTS FROM THE CONSTITUTION OF IRELAND

(1) A Money Bill means a Bill which contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters, namely, the imposition, repeal, remission, alteration or regulation of taxation; the imposition for the payment of debt or other financial purposes of charges on public moneys or the variation or repeal of any such charges; supply, the appropriation, receipt, custody, issue or audit of accounts of public money; the raising or guarantee of any Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 465 of 567 loan or the repayment thereof; matters subordinate and incidental to these matters or any of them.

(2) In this definition the expressions “taxation”, “public money” and “loan” respectively do not include any taxation, money or loan raised by local authorities or bodies for local purposes.

RELEVANT EXCERPTS FROM KAUL & SHAKDER’S “PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE OF PARLIAMENT”, LOK SABHA SECRETARIAT AT INDIA

Speaker Mavalankar observed as follows:

“Prima facie, it appears to me that the words of article 110 (imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, regulation of any tax) are sufficiently wide to make the Consolidated Bill a Money Bill. A question may arise as to what is the exact significance or scope of the word ‘only’ and whether and how far that word goes to modify or control the wide and general words ‘imposition, abolition, remission, etc.’.

I think, prima facie, that the word ‘only’ is not restrictive of the scope of the general terms. If a Bill substantially deals with the imposition, abolition, etc., of a tax, then the mere fact of the inclusion in the Bill of other provisions which may be necessary for the administration of that tax or, I may say, necessary for the achievement of the objective of the particular Bill, cannot take away the Bill from the category of Money Bills. One has to look to the objective of the bill. Therefore, if the substantial provisions of the Bill aim at imposition, abolition, etc., of any tax then the other provisions would be incidental and their inclusion cannot be said to take it away from the category of a Money Bill. Unless one construes the word ‘only’ in this way it might lead to make article 110 a nullity. No tax can be imposed without making provisions for its assessment, collection, administration, reference to courts or tribunals, etc, one can visualise only one section in a Bill imposing the main tax and there may be fifty other sections which may deal with the scope, method, manner, etc., of that imposition.

Further, we have also to consider the provisions of sub-clause (2) of article 110; and these provisions may be

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 466 of 567 helpful to clarify the scope of the word ‘only’, not directly but indirectly.”

396) It was further submitted that though clause (3) of Article 110

stipulates that decision of the Speaker on whether a Bill is a

Money Bill or not is final, that did not mean that it was not subject

to the judicial scrutiny and, therefore, in a given case, the Court

was empowered to decide as to whether decision of the Speaker

was constitutionally correct. In respect of Bill in question, it was

argued that though Section 7 states that subsidies, benefits and

services shall be provided from Consolidated Fund of India which

was an attempt to give it a colour of Money Bill, some of the other

provisions, namely, clauses 23(2)(h), 54(2)(m) and 57 of the Bill

(which corresponds to Sections 23(2)(h), 54(2)(m) and 57 of the

Aadhaar Act) do not fall under any of the clauses of Article 110 of

the Constitution. Therefore, some provisions which were other

than those covered by Money Bill and, therefore, introduction of

the Bill as Money Bill was clearly inappropriate. It was also

argued that, in this scenario, entire Act was bound to fail as there

is no provision for severing clauses in Indian Constitution, unlike

Section 55 of the Australian Constitution. Insofar as justiciability

of the Speaker’s decision is concerned, following judgments were

referred to:

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 467 of 567 (i) Sub-Committee on Judicial Accountability v. Union of

India & Ors.142

(ii) S.R. Bommai & Ors. v. Union of India & Ors.143

(iii) Raja Ram Pal v. Hon’ble Speaker, Lok Sabha & Ors.144

(iv) Ramdas Athawale v. Union of India & Ors.145

(v) Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu & Ors.146

397) It was emphasised that the creation and composition of the Rajya

Sabha (Upper House) is an indicator of, and is essential to,

constitutional federalism. It is a part of basic structure of the

Constitution as held in Kuldip Nayar & Ors. v. Union of India &

Ors.147. Therefore, Rajya Sabha could not have been by-passed

while passing the legislation in question and doing away with this

process and also right of the President to return the Bill has

rendered the statute unconstitutional.

398) The learned Attorney General as well as Mr. Dwivedi and some

other counsel appearing for respondents refuted the aforesaid

submissions in a strongest manner possible. It was argued that

the Bill was rightly characterised as a Money Bill and introduced

under Article 110 of the Constitution. According to them, the 142(1991) 4 SCC 699 143(1994) 3 SCC 1 144(2007) 3 SCC 184 145(2010) 4 SCC 1 146(1992) Supp. 2 SCC 651 147(2006) 7 SCC 1 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 468 of 567 heart of the Aadhaar Act is Section 7. It is not the creation of

Aadhaar number per se which is the core of the Act, rather, that is

only a means to identify the correct beneficiary and ensure

“targeted delivery of subsidies, benefits and services”, the

expenditure for which is incurred from the Consolidated Fund of

India. A conjoint reading of the preamble to the Act along with

Section 7 clearly discloses the legislative intent and the object of

the Act, which is to ensure that subsidy, benefit or service for

which expenditure is incurred from or the receipt therefrom forms

part of, the Consolidated Fund of India should be targeted to

reach the intended beneficiary. It was argued, without prejudice

to the above, that the decision of the Speaker incorporated into a

certificate sent to the President is final and cannot be the subject

matter of judicial review. To support the aforesaid proposition,

reference was made to the judgment in the case of Mohd. Saeed

Siddiqui v. State of Uttar Pradesh & Anr.148 wherein the Court held

as under:

“7. Leave granted in the special leave petition. This appeal is directed against the order dated 27-8-2012 passed by the Division Bench of the High Court of Judicature of Allahabad in Mukul Upadhyay v. N.K. Mehrotra [Civil Misc. Writ Petition No. 24905 of 2012 (Writ-C 24905 of 2012), order dated 27-8-2012 (All)] whereby the High Court, while allowing the amendment application to the writ petition and holding the writ petition to be maintainable, directed to list the petition on 27-9-2012 for hearing on merits. By way of

148(2014) 11 SCC 415 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 469 of 567 the said amendment application, the writ petitioner sought to add two grounds in the writ petition viz. the Amendment Act is violative of the provisions of the Constitution of India and the same was wrongly introduced as a Money Bill in clear disregard to the provisions of Article 199 of the Constitution of India. Accordingly, it was prayed to issue a writ, order or direction in the nature of mandamus declaring the Amendment Act as ultra vires the provisions of the Constitution of India.

xx xx xx

12. It was further submitted by Mr Venugopal that the Amendment Act was not even passed by the State Legislature in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution of India and is, thus, a mere scrap of paper in the eye of the law. The Bill in question was presented as a Money Bill when, on the face of it, it could never be called as a Money Bill as defined in Articles 199(1) and 199(2) of the Constitution of India. Since the procedure for an ordinary Bill was not followed and the assent of the Governor was obtained to an inchoate and incomplete Bill which had not even gone through the mandatory requirements under the Constitution of India, the entire action was unconstitutional and violative of Article 200 of the Constitution of India.

xx xx xx

31. The main apprehension of the petitioner is that the Bill that led to the enactment of the Amendment Act was passed as a Money Bill in violation of Articles 197 and 198 of the Constitution of India which should have been passed by both the Houses viz. U.P. Legislative Assembly and U.P. Legislative Council and was wrongly passed only by the U.P. Legislative Assembly. During the course of hearing, Mr Desai, learned Senior Counsel appearing for the State of U.P., placed the original records pertaining to the proceedings of the Legislative Assembly, decision of the Speaker as well as the Governor, which we are going to discuss in the latter part of our judgment.

xx xx xx

34. The above provisions make it clear that the finality of the decision of the Speaker and the proceedings of the State Legislature being important privilege of the State Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 470 of 567 Legislature viz. freedom of speech, debate and proceedings are not to be inquired by the courts. The “proceeding of the legislature” includes everything said or done in either House in the transaction of the parliamentary business, which in the present case is enactment of the Amendment Act. Further, Article 212 precludes the courts from interfering with the presentation of a Bill for assent to the Governor on the ground of non-compliance with the procedure for passing Bills, or from otherwise questioning the Bills passed by the House. To put it clear, proceedings inside the legislature cannot be called into question on the ground that they have not been carried on in accordance with the Rules of Business. This is also evident from Article 194 which speaks about the powers, privileges of the Houses of the Legislature and of the members and committees thereof.

35. We have already quoted Article 199. In terms of Article 199(3), the decision of the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly that the Bill in question was a Money Bill is final and the said decision cannot be disputed nor can the procedure of the State Legislature be questioned by virtue of Article 212. We are conscious of the fact that in the decision of this Court in Raja Ram Pal v. Lok Sabha [(2007) 3 SCC 184] , it has been held that the proceedings which may be tainted on account of substantive or gross irregularity or unconstitutionality are not protected from judicial scrutiny.

36. Even if it is established that there was some infirmity in the procedure in the enactment of the Amendment Act, in terms of Article 255 of the Constitution the matters of procedure do not render invalid an Act to which assent has been given by the President or the Governor, as the case may be.

xx xx xx

43. As discussed above, the decision of the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly that the Bill in question was a Money Bill is final and the said decision cannot be disputed nor can the procedure of the State Legislature be questioned by virtue of Article 212. Further, as noted earlier, Article 252 also shows that under the Constitution the matters of procedure do not render invalid an Act to which assent has been given by the President or the Governor, as the case may be. Inasmuch as the Bill in question was a Money Bill, Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 471 of 567 the contrary contention by the petitioner against the passing of the said Bill by the Legislative Assembly alone is unacceptable.”

399) It was submitted that the challenge on identical grounds was,

thus, repelled in the aforesaid case wherein validity of legislative

enactment of a State in question, on the same ground, namely, it

could not called Money Bill as defined in Article 199 of the

Constitution, which was pari materia with Article 110 of the

Constitution qua the Parliament. Judgment in the case of

Yogendra Kumar Jaiswal & Ors. v. State of Bihar & Ors.149 was

also referred to wherein the Court was concerned with Orissa

Special Courts Act, 2006 which was also passed as Money Bill

and was challenged as violative of Article 199 of the Constitution.

It was argued that the Court held in this case that decision of the

Speaker that the Bill in question is a Money Bill is final and such a

decision cannot be disputed nor can the procedure of the state

legislature can be questioned by virtue of Article 212 of the

Constitution. The learned Attorney General specifically read out

the following portion from the said judgment:

“42. In this regard, we may profitably refer to the authority in Mohd. Saeed Siddiqui v. State of U.P. [Mohd. Saeed Siddiqui v. State of U.P., (2014) 11 SCC 415], wherein a three-Judge Bench while dealing with such a challenge, held that Article 212 precludes the courts from interfering with the presentation of a Bill for assent to the Governor on

149(2016) 3 SCC 183 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 472 of 567 the ground of non-compliance with the procedure for passing Bills, or from otherwise questioning the Bills passed by the House, for proceedings inside the legislature cannot be called into question on the ground that they have not been carried on in accordance with the Rules of Business. Thereafter, the Court referring to Article 199(3) ruled that the decision of the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly that the Bill in question was a Money Bill is final and the said decision cannot be disputed nor can the procedure of the State Legislature be questioned by virtue of Article 212. The Court took note of the decision in Raja Ram Pal [Raja Ram Pal v. Lok Sabha, (2007) 3 SCC 184] wherein it has been held that the proceedings which may be tainted on account of substantive or gross irregularity or unconstitutionality are not protected from judicial scrutiny. Eventually, the Court repelled the challenge.

43. In our considered opinion, the authorities cited by the learned counsel for the appellants do not render much assistance, for the introduction of a Bill, as has been held in Mohd. Saeed Siddiqui [Mohd. Saeed Siddiqui v. State of U.P., (2014) 11 SCC 415] , comes within the concept of “irregularity” and it does come within the realm of substantiality. What has been held in Special Reference No. 1 of 1964 [Powers, Privileges and Immunities of State Legislatures, In re, Special Reference No. 1 of 1964, AIR 1965 SC 745] has to be appositely understood. The factual matrix therein was totally different than the case at hand as we find that the present controversy is wholly covered by the pronouncement in Mohd. Saeed Siddiqui [Mohd.

Saeed Siddiqui v. State of U.P., (2014) 11 SCC 415] and hence, we unhesitatingly hold that there is no merit in the submission so assiduously urged by the learned counsel for the appellants.”

400) Reliance was also placed on three judgments of Constitution

Bench of this Court150. The learned Attorney General also

submitted that even if it is presumed that there is illegality of

procedure in the conduct of business in the Parliament, such

150Mangalore Ganesh Beedi Works v. State of Mysore & Anr., 1963 Supp (1) SCR 275; Ramdas Athawale v. Union of India & Ors., (2010) 4 SCC 1, and; M.S.M. Sharma v. Dr. Shree Krishna Sinha & Ors., AIR 1960 SC 1186 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 473 of 567 parliamentary proceedings were immune from challenge.

Attention of the Court was also drawn to Article 122, which

prohibits any proceedings of Parliament being called in question

on the ground of “any alleged irregularity of procedure”. It was

submitted that the decision and certification of the Speaker being

a matter of procedure is included in the Chapter under the heads

“Legislative Procedure” being Articles 107 to 111, “Procedure in

Financial Matters” being Articles 112 to 117 and “Procedure

Generally” being Article 118 to 122 placing beyond doubt that

separation of powers is embedded in these provisions clearly

excluding judicial review in matters of procedure. Submission

was that if this is clearly a Money Bill, being placed beyond

challenge in a Court of Law, then to term it as a Financial Bill as

contended by the petitioners would be wholly unjustified. Dilating

the aforesaid proposition, it was pointed out that in the Draft

Constitution prepared by the drafting committee, Article 101

provided for immunity of Parliamentary proceedings from judicial

intervention on ‘alleged irregularity of procedure’. This article

finally got renumbered as Article 122 in the Constitution of India.

During the Constituent Assembly debates, Shri H.V. Kamath

suggested an amendment to draft Article 101 to clarify that the

validity of any Parliamentary proceedings shall not be called in

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 474 of 567 question in any court. Accordingly, he suggested that the words

‘called in question’ be replaced with ‘called in question in any

court’. Refuting this suggested amendment, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

categorically stated:

“Sir, with regard to the amendment of Mr. Kamath, I do not think it is necessary, because where can the proceedings of Parliament be questioned in a legal manner except in a court? Therefore the only place where the proceedings of Parliament can be questioned in a le-gal manner and legal sanction obtained is the Court. Therefore it is unnecessary to mention the words which Mr. Kamath wants in his amendment. For the reason I have explained, the only forum there the proceedings can be questioned in a legal manner and legal relief obtained either against the President or the Speaker or any officer or Member, being the Court, it is unnecessary to specify the forum. Mr. Kamath will see that the marginal note makes it clear.”

401) Support of the judgment rendered by Patna High Court in Patna

Zilla Truck Owners Association & Ors. v. State of Bihar & Ors.151

was also taken, which has been approved by the Constitution

Bench judgment of this Court in State of Punjab v. Sat Pal Dang

& Ors.152. It was also argued that the legal position was similar in

other Parliamentary democracies like Australia and Canada.

402) In any case, argued the learned Attorney General and Mr.

Dwivedi, the Bill was rightly introduced as Money Bill as it merited

such a description in law as well. To buttress this submission,

doctrine of pith and substance was invoked as a guiding test. It 151AIR 1963 Pat 16 152(1969) 1 SCR 478 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 475 of 567 was argued that Section 7 which was the heart and soul of the

Aadhaar Act fulfilled this requirement as the subsidies, benefits

and services, the expenditure of which is incurred from the

Consolidated Fund of India. Therefore, conditions laid down in Article 110 were fully satisfied. Following judgments 153 explaining

the doctrine of pith and substance were pressed into substance.

It was submitted that undoubtedly in pith and substance, the

object of the Aadhaar Act is to identify the correct beneficiaries

and ensure the “targeted delivery of subsidies, benefits and

services”, the expenditure for which is incurred from the

Consolidated Fund of India. The creation of the Aadhaar number

and authentication facility are in furtherance of the object of the

Aadhaar Act, which is permissible under Article 110(g). It was

also argued that Section 57, which has been attacked as being

untraceable to any of the sub-clauses of (a) to (f) of Article 110

cannot be looked at in isolation. This Bill in its pith and substance

should pass the test of being a Money Bill and not isolated

provisions. On the contrary, Section 57 of the Act is also

incidental to the object of the Act and creates a limitation upon

use of Aadhaar by private parties wherein even though nothing

prevents them from using Aadhaar for other purposes, the same 153A.S. Krishna v. State of Madras, (1957) SCR 399; Union of India & Ors. v. Shah Goverdhan L. Kabra Teachers’ College, (2002) 8 SCC 228, and; P.N. Krishna Lal & Ors. v. Government of Kerala & Anr., 1995 Supp (2) SCC 187 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 476 of 567 has been subjected to the procedure and obligations of Section

8, which requires, inter alia, informed consent of the Aadhaar

number holder, purpose limitation, i.e. the identity information will

be used only for submission to CIDR for authentication and the

private entity must provide alternatives to submission of such

identity information, which, in other words, means that private

parties cannot insist upon Aadhaar and make Aadhaar

mandatory, unless required by law. Therefore, Section 57 is a

limitation imposed under the Aadhaar Act on the use of Aadhaar

number by private parties which is purely incidental to the object

of the Act and would squarely fall within Article 110(g) of the

Constitution.

403) At the outset, we would like to recognise the importance of Rajya

Sabha (Upper House) in a bicameral system of the Parliament.

The significance and relevance of the Upper House has been

succinctly exemplified by this Court in Kuldip Nayar’s case in the

following words:

“74. The growth of “bicameralism” in parliamentary forms of Government has been functionally associated with the need for effective federal structures. This nexus between the role of “Second Chambers” or Upper Houses of Parliament and better coordination between the Central Government and those of the constituent units, was perhaps first laid down in definite terms with the Constitution of the United States of America, which was ratified by the thirteen original States of the Union in the

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 477 of 567 year 1787. The Upper House of the Congress of USA, known as the Senate, was theoretically modelled on the House of Lords in the British Parliament, but was totally different from the latter with respect to its composition and powers.

75. Since then, many nations have adopted a bicameral form of Central Legislature, even though some of them are not federations. On account of colonial rule, these British institutions of parliamentary governance were also embodied in the British North America Act, 1867 by which the Dominion of Canada came into existence and the Constitution of India, 1950. In Canada, Parliament consists of the House of Commons and the Senate (the Upper House). Likewise, the Parliament of the Union of India consists of the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and the Rajya Sabha (Council of States, which is the Upper House). In terms of their functions as agencies of representative democracies, the Lower Houses in the legislatures of India, USA and Canada, namely, the Lok Sabha, the House of Representatives and the House of Commons broadly follow the same system of composition.

As of now, Members of the Lower Houses are elected from pre-designated constituencies through universal adult suffrage. The demarcation of these constituencies is in accordance with distribution of population, so as to accord equity in the value of each vote throughout the territory of the country. However, with the existence of constituent States of varying areas and populations, the representation accorded to these States in the Lower House becomes highly unequal. Hence, the composition of the Upper House has become an indicator of federalism, so as to more adequately reflect the interests of the constituent States and ensure a mechanism of checks and balances against the exercise of power by Central authorities that might affect the interests of the constituent States.

xx xx xx

79. The genesis of the Indian Rajya Sabha on the other hand benefited from the constitutional history of several nations which allowed the Constituent Assembly to examine the federal functions of an Upper House. However, “bicameralism” had been introduced to the provincial legislatures under the British rule in 1921. The Government of India Act, 1935 also created an Upper House in the federal legislature, whose members were to Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 478 of 567 be elected by the members of provincial legislatures and in case of Princely States to be nominated by the rulers of such territories. However, on account of the realities faced by the young Indian Union, a Council of States (the Rajya Sabha) in the Union Parliament was seen as an essential requirement for a federal order. Besides the former British provinces, there were vast areas of Princely States that had to be administered under the Union. Furthermore, the diversity in economic and cultural factors between regions also posed a challenge for the newly-independent country. Hence, the Upper House was instituted by the Constitution- framers which would substantially consist of members elected by the State Legislatures and have a fixed number of nominated members representing non-political fields. However, the distribution of representation between the States in the Rajya Sabha is neither equal nor entirely based on population distribution. A basic formula is used to assign relatively more weightage to smaller States but larger States are accorded weightage regressively for additional population. Hence the Rajya Sabha incorporates unequal representation for States but with proportionally more representation given to smaller States. The theory behind such allocation of seats is to safeguard the interests of the smaller States but at the same time giving adequate representation to the larger States so that the will of the representatives of a minority of the electorate does not prevail over that of a majority.

80. In India, Article 80 of the Constitution of India prescribes the composition of the Rajya Sabha. The maximum strength of the House is 250 members, out of which up to 238 members are the elected representatives of the States and the Union Territories [Article 80(1)(b)], and 12 members are nominated by the President as representatives of non-political fields like literature, science, art and social services [Articles 80(1)(a) and 80(3)]. The members from the States are elected by the elected members of the respective State Legislative Assemblies as per the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote [Article 80(4)]. The manner of election for representatives from the Union Territories has been left to prescription by Parliament [Article 80(5)]. The allocation of seats for the various States and Union Territories of the Indian Union is enumerated in the Fourth Schedule to the Constitution, which is read with Articles 4(1) and 80(2). This allocation

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 479 of 567 has obviously varied with the admission and reorganisation of States.”

404) The Rajya Sabha, therefore, becomes an important institution

signifying constitutional fedaralism. It is precisely for this reason

that to enact any statute, the Bill has to be passed by both the

Houses, namely, Lok Sabha as well as Rajya Sabha. It is the

constitutional mandate. The only exception to the aforesaid

Parliamentary norm is Article 110 of the Constitution of India.

Having regard to this overall scheme of bicameralism enshrined

in our Constitution, strict interpretation has to be accorded to

Article 110. Keeping in view these principles, we have

considered the arguments advanced by both the sides.

405) We would also like to observe at this stage that insofar as

submission of the respondents about the justiciability of the

decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is concerned, we are

unable to subscribe to such a contention. Judicial review would

be admissible under certain circumstances having regard to the

law laid down by this Court in various judgments which have

been cited by Mr. P. Chidambaran, learned senior counsel

appearing for the petitioners, and taken note of in paragraph 396.

406) From the submissions of the learned counsel for the parties as

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 480 of 567 taken note of above, it is clear that the petitioners accept that

Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act has the elements of ‘Money Bill’.

The attack is on the premise that some other provisions, namely,

clauses 23(2)(h), 54(2)(m) and 57 of the Bill (which corresponds

to Sections 23(2)(h), 54(2)(m) and 57 of the Aadhaar Act) do not

fall under any of the clauses of Article 110 of the Constitution and,

therefore, Bill was not limited to only those subjects mentioned in

Article 110. Insofar as Section 7 is concerned, it makes receipt of

subsidy, benefit or service subject to establishing identity by the

process of authentication under Aadhaar or furnish proof of

Aadhaar etc. It is also very clearly declared in this provision that

the expenditure incurred in respect of such a subsidy, benefit or

service would be from the Consolidated Fund of India. It is also

accepted by the petitioners that Section 7 is the main provision of

the Act. In fact, Introduction to the Act as well as the Statement

of Objects and Reasons very categorically record that the main

purpose of Aadhaar Act is to ensure that such subsidies, benefits

and services reach those categories of persons, for whom they

are actually meant. Sections 2(f), (w) and (x) of the Aadhaar Act

define benefit, service and subsidy respectively. These

provisions read as under:

“2(f) “benefit” means any advantage, gift, reward, relief, or payment, in cash or kind, provided to an individual or a Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 481 of 567 group of individuals and includes such other benefits as may be notified by the Central Government;

2(w) “service” means any provision, facility, utility or any other assistance provided in any form to an individual or a group of individuals and includes such other services as may be notified by the Central Government;

2(x) “subsidy” means any form of aid, support, grant, subvention, or appropriation, in cash or kind, to an individual or a group of individuals and includes such other subsidies as may be notified by the Central Government.”

407) As all these three kinds of welfare measures are sought to be

extended to the marginalised section of society, a collective

reading thereof would show that the purpose is to expand the

coverage of all kinds of aid, support, grant, advantage, relief

provisions, facility, utility or assistance which may be extended

with the support of the Consolidated Fund of India with the

objective of targeted delivery. It is also clear that various

schemes which can be contemplated by the aforesaid provisions,

relate to vulnerable and weaker section of the society. Whether

the social justice scheme would involve a subsidy or a benefit or

a service is merely a matter of the nature and extent of

assistance and would depend upon the economic capacity of the

State. Even where the state subsidizes in part, whether in cash

or kind, the objective of emancipation of the poor remains the

goal.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 482 of 567 408) The respondents are right in their submission that the expression

subsidy, benefit or service ought to be understood in the context

of targeted delivery to poorer and weaker sections of society. Its

connotation ought not to be determined in the abstract. For as an

abstraction one can visualize a subsidy being extended by

Parliament to the King; by Government to the Corporations or

Banks; etc. The nature of subsidy or benefit would not be the

same when extended to the poor and downtrodden for producing

those conditions without which they cannot live a life with dignity.

That is the main function behind the Aadhaar Act and for this

purpose, enrolment for Aadhaar number is prescribed in Chapter

II which covers Sections 3 to 6. Residents are, thus, held entitled

to obtain Aadhaar number. We may record here that such an

enrolment is of voluntary nature. However, it becomes

compulsory for those who seeks to receive any subsidy, benefit

or service under the welfare scheme of the Government

expenditure whereof is to be met from the Consolidated Fund of

India. It follows that authentication under Section 7 would be

required as a condition for receipt of a subsidy, benefit or service

only when such a subsidy, benefit or service is taken care of by

Consolidated Fund of India. Therefore, Section 7 is the core

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 483 of 567 provision of the Aadhaar Act and this provision satisfies the

conditions of Article 110 of the Constitution. Upto this stage,

there is no quarrel between the parties.

409) In this context, let us examine provisions of Sections 23(2)(h),

54(2)(m) and 57 of the Aadhaar Act. Insofar as Section 23 is

concerned, it deals with powers and functions of the Authority.

Sub-section (1) thereof says that the Authority shall develop the

policy, procedure and systems for issuing Aadhaar numbers to

individuals and perform authentication thereof under this Act. As

mentioned above, under Section 3 of the Aadhaar Act, Aadhaar

number is to be issued and authentication is performed under

Section 8 of the Aadhaar Act. Sub-section (2) stipulates certain

specified powers and functions which the Authority may perform

and sub-section (h) thereof reads as under:

“23(2)(h) specifying the manner of use of Aadhaar numbers for the purposes of providing or availing of various subsidies, benefits, services and other purposes for which Aadhaar numbers may be used.”

410) This provision, thus, enables the Authority to specify the manner

of use of Aadhaar with specific purpose in mind, namely, for

providing or availing of various subsidies, benefits and services.

These are relatable to Section 7. However, it uses the

expression ‘other purposes’ as well. The expression ‘other Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 484 of 567 purposes’ can be read ejusdem generis which would have its

relation to subsidies, benefits and services as mentioned in

Section 7 and it can be confined only to that purpose i.e. scheme

of targeted delivery for giving any grant, relief etc. when it is

chargeable to Consolidated Fund of India. Therefore, this

provision, according to us, can be read as incidental to the main

provision and would be covered by Article 110(g) of the

Constitution. Section 54 confers power upon the Authority to

make regulations consistent with the Act and rules made

thereunder, for carrying out the provisions of the Act. Clause (m)

of sub-section (2) of Section 54 relates to Section 23(2)(h) as can

be seen from its language.

“54(2)(m) the manner of use of Aadhaar numbers for the purposes of providing or availing of various subsidies, benefits, services and other purposes for which Aadhaar numbers may be used under clause (h) of sub-section (2) of section 23.”

411) The interpretation which we have given to Section 23(2)(h) would

apply here as well and, therefore, we do not find any problem

with this provision also. Coming to Section 57 of the Aadhaar

Act, it mentions that Aadhaar Act would not prevent use of

Aadhaar number for other purposes under the law. It is only an

enabling provision as it permits the use of Aadhaar number for

other purposes as well. This provision is to be viewed in the Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 485 of 567 backdrop that Section 7 is the core provision. We have already

held that it has substantial nexus with the appropriation of funds

from the Consolidated Fund of India and is directly connected

with Article 110 of the Constitution. To facilitate this, UIDAI is

established as Authority under the Act which performs various

functions including that of a regulator needing funds for staff

salary and it’s own expenses. Respondents have rights

remarked that the Authority is the performer in chief, the

predominant dramatis personae. It appoints Registrars, enrollers,

REs and ASAs; it lays down device and software specifications,

and develops softwares too; it enrols; it de-duplicates; it

establishes CIDR and manages it; it authenticates; it inspects; it

prosecutes; it imposes disincentives; etc. And all this it does

based on funds obtained by appropriations from Consolidated

Fund of India (Section 24).

412) When we examine the provision of Section 57 in the aforesaid

backdrop, as stated above, it only enables holder of Aadhaar

number to use the said number for other purposes as well. That

would not take away or dilute the sheen of clause 7 (now Section

7) for which purposes the Bill was introduced as Money Bill. In

any case, a part of Section 57 has already declared

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 486 of 567 unconstitutional whereby even a body corporate in private sector

or person may seek authentication from the Authority for

establishing the identity of an individual.

For all the aforesaid reasons, we are of the opinion that Bill

was rightly introduced as Money Bill. Accordingly, it is not

necessary for us to deal with other contentions of the petitioners,

namely, whether certification by the Speaker about the Bill being

Money Bill is subject to judicial review or not, whether a provision

which does not relate to Money Bill is severable or not. We

reiterate that main provision is a part of Money Bill and other are

only incidental and, therefore, covered by clause (g) of Article 110

of the Constitution.

Section 139AA of the Income Tax Act, 1961:

413) The Division Bench of this Court in Binoy Viswam has already

upheld the validity of Section 139AA of the Income Tax Act, 1961

by repelling the contention predicated on Articles 14 and 19 of the

Constitution of India. No doubt, in the said judgment, the Court

held that insofar as scope of judicial review of legislative act is

concerned, it is available on two grounds, namely:

(i) The Act is not within the competence of the legislature

which passed the law, and/or

(ii) It is in contravention of any fundamental rights stipulated in Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 487 of 567 Part III of the Constitution or any other rights/provisions of the

Constitution.

414) We have already acknowledged the existence of third ground as

pointed out in Shayara Bano case, namely, ‘manifest

arbitrariness’. An Act which is manifestly arbitrary would be

unreasonable and contrary to rule of law and, therefore, violative

of Article 14 of the Constitution. Even when we consider the

provisions of Section 139AA of the Income Tax Act, 1961 from

this point of view, it cannot be said that the provision suffers from

the vice of manifest arbitrariness. On the contrary, in Binoy

Viswam itself, the benevolent purpose for inserting such a

provision as a bona fide move has been highlighted. Therefore,

the provision needs this test as well. In this behalf, the Court

observed:

“101. The varying needs of different classes or sections of people require differential and separate treatment. The legislature is required to deal with diverse problems arising out of an infinite variety of human relations. It must, therefore, necessarily have the power of making laws to attain particular objects and, for that purpose, of distinguishing, selecting and classifying persons and things upon which its laws are to operate. The principle of equality of law, thus, means not that the same law should apply to everyone but that a law should deal alike with all in one class; that there should be an equality of treatment under equal circumstances. It means that equals should not be treated unlike and unlikes should not be treated alike. Likes should be treated alike.”

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 488 of 567

415) Since the issue as to whether right to privacy is a facet of

fundamental rights or not was pending before the Constitution

Bench, the challenge to Section 139AA was not examined in the

context of privacy rights, specifically Article 21 of the Constitution

though this aspect was argued. The Division Bench observed in

this behalf, as under:

“136. Subject to the aforesaid, these writ petitions are disposed of in the following manner:

136.1. We hold that Parliament was fully competent to enact Section 139-AA of the Act and its authority to make this law was not diluted by the orders of this Court.

136.2. We do not find any conflict between the provisions of the Aadhaar Act and Section 139-AA of the Income Tax Act inasmuch as when interpreted harmoniously, they operate in distinct fields.

136.3. Section 139-AA of the Act is not discriminatory nor it offends equality clause enshrined in Article 14 of the Constitution.

136.4. Section 139-AA is also not violative of Article 19(1)

(g) of the Constitution insofar as it mandates giving of Aadhaar enrolment number for applying for PAN cards, in the income tax returns or notified Aadhaar enrolment number to the designated authorities. Further, the proviso to sub-section (2) thereof has to be read down to mean that it would operate only prospectively.

136.5. The validity of the provision upheld in the aforesaid manner is subject to passing the muster of Article 21 of the Constitution, which is the issue before the Constitution Bench in Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 and other connected matters. Till then, there shall remain a partial stay on the operation of the proviso to sub-section (2) of Section 139-AA of the Act, as described above. No costs.”

416) The nine Judge Bench has already, since then, answered the Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 489 of 567 reference by holding that right to privacy is a fundamental right.

Having regard to that, validity of Section 139AA of the Act needs

to be tested on this ground.

417) As already explained above, the Constitution Bench has held that

in K.S. Puttaswamy though privacy is a fundamental right inter

alia traceable to the right to liberty enshrined in Article 21 of the

Constitution, it is not an absolute right but subject to limitations.

The Court also laid down the triple test which need to be satisfied

for judging the permissible limits for invasion of privacy while

testing the validity of any legislation. These are:

(a) The existence of a law.

(b) A “legitimate State interest”; and

(c) Such law should pass the “test of proportionality”.

418) In the present case, there is no dispute that first requirement

stands satisfied as Section 139AA is a statutory provision and,

therefore, there is a backing of law. Mr. Tushar Mehta, learned

ASG had argued that not only other two requirements are also

satisfied, rather these have been specifically dealt with by the

Division Bench in Binoy Viswam inasmuch as these aspects were

eluded to, consider, examined and the Court recorded its findings

on these aspects. We find force in this submission of Mr. Mehta.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 490 of 567 Insofar as requirement of ‘legitimate State interest’ is concerned,

he pointed out that though Nariman, J. provided for a lenient test,

namely, ‘larger public interest’ as against ‘legitimate State

interest’, the provision satisfies both the tests. We agree with his

submission, as Section 139AA of the Income Tax Act, 1961 seeks

to safeguard the following interest:

“To prevent income tax evasion by requiring, through an amendment to the Income Tax Act, that the Aadhaar number be linked with the PAN.”

419) The mandatory requirement of quoting/producing PAN number is

given in Rule 114 and the Form 49A. While mandating that

“every person”, (the term “person” as defined under Section 2(31)

of the Act), shall apply for and get a PAN, the legislature also

provided for the requirement so as to how such number will be

given to every “person” in Rule 114 of the Income Tax Rules, the

relevant part of which is Rule 114(1). While complying with the

mandatory requirement (which have been in existence since

1989) and that for all “persons”, many facts were required to be

disclosed and such disclosure was/is in public interest including

demographic details and biometrics i.e. left thumb

impression/signature.

420) The Parliament, considering the “legitimate State interest” as well

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 491 of 567 as the “larger public interest” has now introduced Section 139AA

which is only an extension of Section 139A which requires linking

of PAN number with Aadhaar number which is issued under the

Act for the purpose of eliminating duplicate PANs from the system

with the help of a robust technology solution. Therefore, those

who have PAN number and have already provided the

information required to get PAN number cannot claim to have any

legitimate expectation of withholding any data required for

Aadhaar under the ground of “privacy”.

421) The respondents have demonstrated with empirical data, in the

common additional affidavit of respondent Nos. 1 and 3 the

existence of the “legitimate State interest” and “larger public

interest”. Being a unique identifier, the problem of bogus or

duplicate PANs can be dealt with in a more systematic and full-

proof manner (though, in the context of Articles 14 and 19 of the

Constitution, but at the same time, relevant from the perspective

of legitimate State interest also). Discussion on this aspect, in

Binoy Viswam, proceeds as under:

“60.2. PAN is the key or identifier of all computerised records relating to the taxpayer. The requirement for obtaining of PAN is mandated through Section 139-A of the Act. The procedure for application for PAN is prescribed in Rule 114 of the Rules. The forms prescribed for PAN application are Forms 49-A and 49-AA for Indian and foreign citizens/entities. Quoting of PAN has been Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 492 of 567 mandated for certain transactions above specified threshold value in Rule 114-B of the Rules.

60.3. For achieving the objective of one PAN to one assessee, it is required to maintain uniqueness of PAN.

The uniqueness of PAN is achieved by conducting a de- duplication check on all already existing allotted PAN against the data furnished by new applicant. Under the existing system of PAN only demographic data is captured. De-duplication process is carried out using a phonetic algorithm whereby a Phonetic PAN (PPAN) is created in respect of each applicant using the data of applicant's name, father's name, date of birth, gender and status. By comparison of newly generated PPAN with existing set of PPANs of all assessees duplicate check is carried out and it is ensured that same person does not acquire multiple PANs or one PAN is not allotted to multiple persons. Due to prevalence of common names and large number of PAN holders, the demographic way of de-duplication is not foolproof. Many instances are found where multiple PANs have been allotted to one person or one PAN has been allotted to multiple persons despite the application of abovementioned de-duplication process. While allotment of multiple PANs to one person has the risk of diversion of income of person into several PANs resulting in evasion of tax, the allotment of same PAN to multiple persons results in wrong aggregation and assessment of incomes of several persons as one taxable entity represented by single PAN.

60.4. Presently verification of original documents in only 0.2% cases (200 out of 1,00,000 PAN applications) is done on a random basis which is quite less. In the case of Aadhaar, 100% verification is possible due to availability of online Aadhaar authentication service provided by the UIDAI. Aadhaar seeding in PAN database will make PAN allotment process more robust.

60.5. Seeding of Aadhaar number into PAN database will allow a robust way of de-duplication as Aadhaar number is de-duplicated using biometric attributes of fingerprints and iris images. The instance of a duplicate Aadhaar is almost non-existent. Further seeding of Aadhaar will allow the Income Tax Department to weed out any undetected duplicate PANs. It will also facilitate resolution of cases of one PAN allotted to multiple persons.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 493 of 567

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104. Insofar as the impugned provision is concerned, Mr Datar had conceded that first test that of reasonable classification had been satisfied as he conceded that individual assessees form a separate class and the impugned provision which targeted only individual assessees would not be discriminatory on this ground. His whole emphasis was that Section 139-AA of the Act did not satisfy the second limb of the twin tests of classification as, according to him, this provision had no rational nexus with the object sought to be achieved. In this behalf, his submission was that if the purpose of the provision was to curb circulation of black money, such an object was not achievable by seeding PAN with Aadhaar inasmuch as Aadhaar is only for individuals. His submission was that it is only the individuals who are responsible for generating black money or money laundering. This was the basis for Mr Datar's submission. We find it somewhat difficult to accept such a submission.

105. Unearthing black money or checking money laundering is to be achieved to whatever extent possible. Various measures can be taken in this behalf. If one of the measures is introduction of Aadhaar into the tax regime, it cannot be denounced only because of the reason that the purpose would not be achieved fully. Such kind of menace, which is deep-rooted, needs to be tackled by taking multiple actions and those actions may be initiated at the same time. It is the combined effect of these actions which may yield results and each individual action considered in isolation may not be sufficient. Therefore, rationality of a particular measure cannot be challenged on the ground that it has no nexus with the objective to be achieved. Of course, there is a definite objective. For this purpose alone, individual measure cannot be ridiculed. We have already taken note of the recommendations of SIT on black money headed by Justice M.B. Shah. We have also reproduced the measures suggested by the Committee headed by Chairman, CBDT on “Measures to Tackle Black Money in India and Abroad”. They have, in no uncertain terms, suggested that one singular proof of identity of a person for entering into finance/business transactions, etc. may go a long way in curbing this foul practice. That apart, even if solitary purpose of de-duplication of PAN cards is taken into consideration, that may be sufficient to meet the second test of Article 14. It has come on record that 11.35 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 494 of 567 lakh cases of duplicate PAN or fraudulent PAN cards have already been detected and out of this 10.52 lakh cases pertain to individual assessees. Seeding of Aadhaar with PAN has certain benefits which have already been enumerated. Furthermore, even when we address the issue of shell companies, fact remains that companies are after all floated by individuals and these individuals have to produce documents to show their identity. It was sought to be argued that persons found with duplicate/bogus PAN cards are hardly 0.4% and, therefore, there was no need to have such a provision. We cannot go by percentage figures. The absolute number of such cases is 10.52 lakhs, which figure, by no means, can be termed as miniscule, to harm the economy and create adverse effect on the nation. The respondents have argued that Aadhaar will ensure that there is no duplication of identity as biometrics will not allow that and, therefore, it may check the growth of shell companies as well.

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127. It would be apposite to quote the following discussion by the Comptroller and Auditor General in his report for the year 2011:

“Widening of Tax Base

The assessee base grew over the last five years from 297.9 lakh taxpayers in 2005-06 to 340.9 lakh taxpayers in 2009-10 at the rate of 14.4 per cent.

The Department has different mechanisms available to enhance the assessee base which include inspection and survey, information sharing with other tax departments and third-party information available in annual information returns. Automation also facilitates greater crosslinking. Most of these mechanisms are available at the level of assessing officers. The Department needs to holistically harness these mechanisms at macro level to analyse the gaps in the assessee base. Permanent Account Numbers (PANs) issued up to March 2009 and March 2010 were 807.9 lakhs and 958 lakhs respectively. The returns filled in 2008-09 and 2009-10 were 326.5 lakhs and 340.9 lakhs respectively. The gap between PANs and the number of returns filed was 617.1 lakhs in 2009-10. The Board needs to identify the reasons Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 495 of 567 for the gap and use this information for appropriately enhancing the assessee base. The gap may be due to issuance of duplicate PAN cards and death of some PAN card holders. The Department needs to put in place appropriate controls to weed out the duplicate PANs and also update the position in respect of deceased assessee. It is significant to note that the number of PAN card holders has increased by 117.7 per cent between 2005-06 to 2009-10 whereas the number of returns filed in the same period has increased by 14.4 per cent only.

The total direct tax collection has increased by 128.8 per cent during the period 2005-06 to 2009-10. The increase in the tax collection was around nine times as compared to increase in the assessee base. It should be the constant endeavour of the Department to ensure that the entire assessee base, once correctly identified is duly meeting the entire tax liability. However, no assurance could be obtained that the tax liability on the assessee is being assessed and collected properly. This comment is corroborated in Para 2.4.1 of Chapter 2 of this report where we have mentioned about our detection of undercharge of tax amounting to Rs 12,842.7 crores in 19,230 cases audited during 2008-09. However, given the fact that ours is a test audit, the Department needs to take firm steps towards strengthening the controls available on the existing statutes towards deriving an assurance on the tax collections.” (emphasis supplied)

128. Likewise, the Finance Minister in his Budget speech in February 2013 described the extent of tax evasion and offering lesser income tax than what is actually due thereby labelling India as tax non-compliant, with the following figures:

“India's tax to GDP ratio is very low, and the proportion of direct tax to indirect tax is not optional from the viewpoint of social justice. I place before you certain data to indicate that our direct tax collection is not commensurate with the income and consumption pattern of Indian economy. As against estimated 4.2 crore persons engaged in organised sector employment, the number of individuals filing return for salary income are only 1.74 crores. As against 5.6 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 496 of 567 crore informal sector individual enterprises and firms doing small business in India, the number of returns filed by this category are only 1.81 crores. Out of the 13.94 lakh companies registered in India up to 31-3-

2014, 5.97 lakh companies have filed their returns for Assessment Year 2016-17. Of the 5.97 lakh companies which have filed their returns for Assessment Year 2016-17 so far, as many as 2.76 lakh companies have shown losses or zero income. 2.85 lakh companies have shown profit before tax of less than Rs 1 crore. 28,667 companies have shown profit between Rs 1 crore to Rs 10 crores, and only 7781 companies have profit before tax of more than Rs 10 crores. Among 3.7 crore individuals who filed the tax returns in 2015-16, 99 lakhs show income below the exemption limit of Rs 2.5 lakh p.a. 1.95 crores show income between Rs 2.5 to Rs 5 lakhs, 52 lakhs show income between Rs 5 to Rs 10 lakhs and only 24 lakh people show income above Rs 10 lakhs. Of the 76 lakh individual assessees who declare income above Rs 5 lakhs, 56 lakhs are in the salaried class. The number of people showing income more than 50 lakhs in the entire country is only 1.72 lakhs. We can contrast this with the fact that in the last five years, more than 1.25 crore cars have been sold, and number of Indian citizens who flew abroad, either for business or tourism, is 2 crores in the year 2015. From all these figures we can conclude that we are largely a tax non-compliant society. The predominance of the cash in the economy makes it possible for the people to evade their taxes. When too many people evade the taxes, the burden of their share falls on those who are honest and compliant.”

129. The respondents have also claimed that linking of Aadhaar with PAN is consistent with India's international obligations and goals. In this behalf, it is pointed out that India has signed the Inter-Governmental Agreement (IGA) with USA on 9-7-2015, for Improving International Tax Compliance and implementing the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA). India has also signed a multilateral agreement on 3-6-2015, to automatically exchange information based on Article 6 of the Convention on Mutual Administrative Assistance in Tax Matters under the Common Reporting Scheme (CRS), formally referred to as the Standard for Automatic Exchange of Financial Account Information (AEoI). As part of India's commitment Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 497 of 567 under FATCA and CRS, financial sector entities capture the details about the customers using the PAN. In case the PAN or submitted details are found to be incorrect or fictitious, it will create major embarrassment for the country. Under Non-filers Monitoring System (NMS), the Income Tax Department identifies non-filers with potential tax liabilities. Data analysis is carried out to identify non-filers about whom specific information was available in AIR, CIB data and TDS/TCS returns. Email/SMS and letters are sent to the identified non-filers communicating the information summary and seeking to know the submission details of income tax return. In a large number of cases (more than 10 lakh PANs every year) it is seen that the PAN holder neither submits the response and in many cases the letters are return unserved. Field verification by field formations have found that in a large number of cases, the PAN holder is untraceable. In many cases, the PAN holder mentions that the transaction does not relate to them. There is a need to strengthen PAN by linking it with Aadhaar/biometric information to prevent use of wrong PAN for high value transactions.”

422) Adverting to the aspect of proportionality, here again there was a

specific discussion in Binoy Viswam as this argument was raised,

though in the context of Article 19 of the Constitution. The Court

after explaining the doctrine of proportionality specifically held

that proportionality test stood applied with. Following discussion

in the said judgment would amply demonstrate this proposition:

“65. While monitoring the PILs relating to night shelters for the homeless and the right to food through the public distribution system, this Court has lauded and complimented the efforts of the State Governments for inter alia carrying out biometric identification of the head of family of each household to eliminate fictitious, bogus and ineligible BPL/AAY household cards.

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Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 498 of 567 125.2. Menace of corruption and black money has reached alarming proportion in this country. It is eating into the economic progress which the country is otherwise achieving. It is not necessary to go into the various reasons for this menace. However, it would be pertinent to comment that even as per the observations of the Special Investigation Team (SIT) on black money headed by Justice M.B. Shah, one of the reasons is that persons have the option to quote their PAN or UID or passport number or driving licence or any other proof of identity while entering into financial/business transactions. Because of this multiple methods of giving proofs of identity, there is no mechanism/system at present to collect the data available with each of the independent proofs of ID. For this reason, even SIT suggested that these databases be interconnected. To the same effect is the recommendation of the Committee headed by Chairman, CBDT on measures to tackle black money in India and abroad which also discusses the problem of money laundering being done to evade taxes under the garb of shell companies by the persons who hold multiple bogus PAN numbers under different names or variations of their names. That can be possible if one uniform proof of identity, namely, UID is adopted. It may go a long way to check and minimise the said malaise.

125.3. Thirdly, Aadhaar or UID, which has come to be known as the most advanced and sophisticated infrastructure, may facilitate law-enforcement agencies to take care of problem of terrorism to some extent and may also be helpful in checking the crime and also help investigating agencies in cracking the crimes. No doubt, going by the aforesaid, and may be some other similarly valid considerations, it is the intention of the Government to give fillip to Aadhaar movement and encourage the people of this country to enrol themselves under the Aadhaar Scheme.

126. Whether such a scheme should remain voluntary or it can be made mandatory imposing compulsiveness on the people to be covered by Aadhaar is a different question which shall be addressed at the appropriate stage. At this juncture, it is only emphasised that mala fides cannot be attributed to this scheme. In any case, we are concerned with the vires of Section 139-AA of the Income Tax Act, 1961 which is a statutory provision. This Court is, thus, dealing with the aspect of judicial review of legislation.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 499 of 567 Insofar as this provision is concerned, the explanation of the respondents in the counter-affidavit, which has already been reproduced above, is that the primary purpose of introducing this provision was to take care of the problem of multiple PAN cards obtained in fictitious names. Such multiple cards in fictitious names are obtained with the motive of indulging into money laundering, tax evasion, creation and channelising of black money. It is mentioned that in de-duplication exercises, 11.35 lakh cases of duplicate PANs/fraudulent PANs have been detected. Out of these, around 10.52 lakhs pertain to the individual assessees. Parliament in its wisdom thought that one PAN to one person can be ensured by adopting Aadhaar for allotment of PAN to individuals. As of today, that is the only method available i.e. by seeding of existing PAN with Aadhaar. It is perceived as the best method, and the only robust method of de-duplication of PAN database. It is claimed by the respondents that the instance of duplicate Aadhaar is almost non-existent. It is also claimed that seeding of PAN with Aadhaar may contribute to widening of the tax case as well, by checking the tax evasions and bringing into tax hold those persons who are liable to pay tax but deliberately avoid doing so.”

423) It has been stated by the respondents, on affidavit, that analysis

of Form 61/60 data using PAN Aadhaar linkage shows that a

large number of PAN holders do not quote their PAN in the

prescribed transactions to prevent linking of the transactions to

the PAN. The analysis was performed by matching the Aadhaar

number and person name reported in Form 61 (which was

possible only due to linking of financial transactions/accounts with

Aadhaar) with the Aadhaar and name of the entity available in the

ITD PAN database (possible due to linking of PAN with Aadhaar).

This analysis identified 1.65 crore non-PAN transactions reported

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 500 of 567 through Form 61 (relating to FY 2016-17 and FY 2017-18) where

PAN of the transacting party was present in the PAN database

and was not mentioned filing a wrong form deliberately. These

transactions totalled to around Rs. 33,000 crore (based on

transaction amount reported). This is the amount of undisclosed

high value transaction which would have gone undetected had it

not been for Aadhaar linkage. Similar matching has also helped

populating PAN in 1.12 lakh non-PAN transactions reported under

Statement of Financial Transactions (SFT). Majority of the non-

PAN transactions reported are around Deposit in Cash,

Investment in time deposit, Sale of immovable property, Purchase

of immovable property and Opening an account (other than

savings and time deposit). Thus, linking of PAN with Aadhaar will

significantly enhance legitimate collection of country’s revenue.

424) Taking into account the aforesaid consideration as well as other

factors mentioned above, we feel that there is a justifiable reason

with the State for collection and storage of data in the form of

Aadhaar and linking it with PAN insofar as Section 139AA of the

Income Tax Act is concerned. We would like to reproduce para

311 of K.S. Puttaswamy judgment, which reads as under:

“311. Apart from national security, the State may have justifiable reasons for the collection and storage of data. In a social welfare State, the Government embarks upon Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 501 of 567 programmes which provide benefits to impoverished and marginalised sections of society. There is a vital State interest in ensuring that scarce public resources are not dissipated by the diversion of resources to persons who do not qualify as recipients. Allocation of resources for human development is coupled with a legitimate concern that the utilisation of resources should not be siphoned away for extraneous purposes. Data mining with the object of ensuring that resources are properly deployed to legitimate beneficiaries is a valid ground for the State to insist on the collection of authentic data. But, the data which the State has collected has to be utilised for legitimate purposes of the State and ought not to be utilised unauthorisedly for extraneous purposes. This will ensure that the legitimate concerns of the State are duly safeguarded while, at the same time, protecting privacy concerns. Prevention and investigation of crime and protection of the revenue are among the legitimate aims of the State. Digital platforms are a vital tool of ensuring good governance in a social welfare State. Information technology—legitimately deployed is a powerful enabler in the spread of innovation and knowledge.”

425) Following passages from Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India,

Ministry of Law & Ors.154 may also be relevant in this behalf and

the same are reproduced below:

“122. In State of Madras v. V.G. Row, the Court has ruled that the test of reasonableness, wherever prescribed, should be applied to each individual statute impugned and no abstract standard, or general pattern of reasonableness can be laid down as applicable to all cases. The nature of the right alleged to have been infringed, the underlying purpose of the restrictions imposed, the extent and urgency of the evil sought to be remedied thereby, the disproportion of the imposition, the prevailing conditions at the time, should all enter into the judicial verdict.

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130. The principles as regards reasonable restriction as has been stated by this Court from time to time are that the

154(2016) 7 SCC 221 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 502 of 567 restriction should not be excessive and in public interest.

The legislation should not invade the rights and should not smack of arbitrariness. The test of reasonableness cannot be determined by laying down any abstract standard or general pattern. It would depend upon the nature of the right which has been infringed or sought to be infringed. The ultimate “impact”, that is, effect on the right has to be determined. The “impact doctrine” or the principle of “inevitable effect” or “inevitable consequence” stands in contradistinction to abuse or misuse of a legislation or a statutory provision depending upon the circumstances of the case. The prevailing conditions of the time and the principles of proportionality of restraint are to be kept in mind by the court while adjudging the constitutionality of a provision regard being had to the nature of the right. The nature of social control which includes public interest has a role. The conception of social interest has to be borne in mind while considering reasonableness of the restriction imposed on a right. The social interest principle would include the felt needs of the society.

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194. Needless to emphasise that when a law limits a constitutional right which many laws do, such limitation is constitutional if it is proportional. The law imposing restriction is proportional if it is meant to achieve a proper purpose, and if the measures taken to achieve such a purpose are rationally connected to the purpose, and such measures are necessary. Such limitations should not be arbitrary or of an excessive nature beyond what is required in the interest of the public. Reasonableness is judged with reference to the objective which the legislation seeks to achieve, and must not be in excess of that objective (see P.P. Enterprisesv. Union of India). Further, the reasonableness is examined in an objective manner from the standpoint of the interest of the general public and not from the point of view of the person upon whom the restrictions are imposed or abstract considerations (see Mohd. Hanif Quareshi v. State of Bihar)

On independent examination of the matter, the aforesaid

exercise undertaken in the Binoy Viswam is hereby affirmed as

we are in agreement therewith. We, thus, hold that the provisions

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 503 of 567 of Section 139AA of the Income Tax Act, 1961 meet the triple test

of right to privacy, contained in K.S. Puttaswamy.

Prevention of Money Laundering Rules:

426) The petitioners have challenged amendment to Rule 9 of the

Prevention of Money Laundering (Maintenance of Records)

Rules, 2005, (Rules, 2005) which was amended by Prevention of

Money Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Seventh

Amendment Rules, 2017. Rule 9 of the aforesaid Rules is

amended by Second Amendment Rules, 2017 whereby following

additions are made. The amendment reads as under:

“(b) in rule 9, for sub-rule (4) to sub-rule (9), the following sub-rules shall be substituted, namely:-

(4) Where the client is an individual, who is eligible to be enrolled for an Aadhaar number, he shall for the purpose of sub-rule (1) submit to the reporting entity,-

(a) the Aadhaar number issued by the Unique Identification Authority of India; and

(b) the Permanent Account Number or Form No. 60 as defined in Income Tax Rules, 1962,

and such other documents including in respect of the nature of business and financial status of the client as may be required by the reporting entity:

Provided that where an Aadhaar number has not been assigned to a client, the client shall furnish proof of application of enrolment for Aadhaar and in case the Permanent Account Number is not submitted, one certified copy of an ‘officially valid document’ shall be submitted.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 504 of 567 Provided further that photograph need not be submitted by a client falling under clause (b) of sub-rule (1).

(4A) Where the client is an individual, who is not eligible to be enrolled for an Aadhaar number, he shall for the purpose of sub-rule (1), submit to the reporting entity, the Permanent Account Number or Form No. 60 as defined in the Income Tax Rules, 1962:

Provided that if the client does not submit the Permanent Account Number, he shall submit one certified copy of an ‘officially valid document’ containing details of his identity and address, one recent photograph and such other documents including in respect of the nature or business and financial status of the client as may be required by the reporting entity.

(5) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-rules (4) and (4A), an individual who desires to open a small account in a banking company may be allowed to open such an account on production of a self-attested photograph and affixation of signature or thumb print, as the case may be, on the form for opening the account:

Provided that-

(i) the designated officer of the banking company, while opening the small account, certifies under his signature that the person opening the account has affixed his signature or thumb print, as the case may be, in his presence;

(ii) the small account shall be opened only at Core Banking Solution linked banking company branches or in a branch where it is possible to manually monitor and ensure that foreign remittances are not credited to a small account and that the stipulated limits on monthly and annual aggregate of transactions and balance in such accounts are not breached, before a transaction is allowed to take place;

(iii) the small account shall remain operational initially for a period of twelve months, and thereafter for a further period of twelve months if the holder of such an account provides evidence before the banking company of having applied for any of the officially valid documents within twelve months of the opening of the said account, with the Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 505 of 567 entire relaxation provisions to be reviewed in respect of the said account after twenty-four months;

(iv) the small account shall be monitored and when there is suspicion of money laundering or financing of terrorism or other high risk scenarios, the identity of client shall be established through the production of officially valid documents, as referred to in sub-rule (4) and the Aadhaar number of the client or where an Aadhaar number has not been assigned to the client, through the production of proof of application towards enrolment for Aadhaar along with an officially valid document;

Provided further that if the client is not eligible to be enrolled for an Aadhaar number, the identity of client shall be established through the production of an officially valid document;

(v) the foreign remittance shall not be allowed to be credited into the small account unless the identity of the client is fully established through the production of officially valid documents, as referred to in sub-rule (4) and the Aadhaar number of the client or where an Aadhaar number has not been assigned to the client, through the production of proof of application towards enrolment for Aadhaar along with an officially valid document:

Provided that if the client is not eligible to be enrolled for the Aadhaar number, the identity of client shall be established through the production of an officially valid document.

(6) Where the client is a company, it shall for the purposes of sub-rule (1), submit to the reporting entity the certified copies of the following documents:-

(i) Certificate of incorporation;

(ii) Memorandum and Articles of Association;

(iii) A resolution from the Board of Directors and power of attorney granted to its managers, officers or employees to transact on its behalf;

(iv) (a) Aadhaar numbers; and

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 506 of 567

(b) Permanent Account Numbers or Form 60 as defined in the Income Tax Rules, 1962,

issued to managers, officers or employees holding an attorney to transact on the company’s behalf or where an Aadhaar number has not been assigned, proof of application towards enrolment for Aadhaar and in case Permanent Account Number is not submitted an officially valid document shall be submitted:

Provided that for the purpose of this clause if the managers, officers or employees holding an attorney to transact on the company’s behalf are not eligible to be enrolled for Aadhaar number and do not submit the Permanent Account Number, certified copy of an officially valid document shall be submitted.

(7) Where the client is a partnership firm, it shall, for the purposes of sub-rule (1), submit to the reporting entity the certified copies of the following documents:-

(i) registration certificate;

(ii) partnership deed; and

(iii) (a) Aadhaar number; and

(b) Permanent Account Number or Form 60 as defined in the Income Tax Rules, 1962,

issued to the person holding an attorney to transact on its behalf or where an Aadhaar number has not been assigned, proof of application towards enrolment for Aadhaar and in case Permanent Account Number is not submitted an officially valid document shall be submitted:

Provided that for the purpose of this clause, if the person holding an attorney to transact on the company’s behalf is not eligible to be enrolled for Aadhaar number and does not submit the Permanent Account Number, certified copy of an officially valid document shall be submitted.

(8) Where the client is a trust, it shall, for the purposes of sub-rule (1) submit to the reporting entity the certified copies of the following documents:-

(i) registration certificate; Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 507 of 567 (ii) trust deed; and

(iii) (a) Aadhaar number; and

(b) Permanent Account Number or Form 60 as defined in the Income Tax Rules, 1962,

issued to the person holding an attorney to transact on its behalf or where Aadhaar number has not been assigned, proof of application towards enrolment for Aadhaar and in case Permanent Account Number is not submitted an officially valid document shall be submitted:

Provided that for the purpose of this clause if the person holding an attorney to transact on the company’s behalf is not eligible to be enrolled for Aadhaar number and does not submit the Permanent Account Number, certified copy of an officially valid document shall be submitted.

(9) Where the client is an unincorporated association or a body of individuals, it shall submit to the reporting entity the certified copies of the following documents:-

(i) resolution of the managing body of such association or body of individuals;

(ii) power of attorney granted to him to transact on its behalf;

(iii) (a) the Aadhaar number; and

(b) Permanent Account Number or Form 60 as defined in the Income Tax Rules, 1962,

issued to the person holding an attorney to transact on its behalf or where Aadhaar number has not been assigned, proof of application towards enrolment for Aadhaar and in case the Permanent Account Number is not submitted an officially valid document shall be submitted; and

(iv) such information as may be required by the reporting entity to collectively establish the legal existence of such an association or body of individuals:

Provided that for the purpose of this clause if the person holding an attorney to transact on the company’s Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 508 of 567 behalf is not eligible to be enrolled for Aadhaar number and does not submit the Permanent Account Number, certified copy of an officially valid document shall be submitted.”

(c) after sub-rule (14), the following sub-rules shall be inserted, namely,-

(15) Any reporting entity, at the time of receipt of the Aadhaar number under provisions of this rule, shall carry out authentication using either e-KYC authentication facility or Yes/No authentication facility provided by Unique Identification Authority of India.

(16) In case the client referred to in sub-rules (4) to (9) of rule 9 is not a resident or is a resident in the States of Jammu and Kashmir, Assam or Meghalaya and does not submit the Permanent Account Number, the client shall submit to the reporting entity one certified copy of officially valid document containing details of his identity and address, one recent photograph and such other document including in respect of the nature of business and financial status of the client as may be required by the reporting entity.

(17) (a) In case the client, eligible to be enrolled for Aadhaar and obtain a Permanent Account Number, referred to in sub-rules (4) to (9) of rule 9 does not submit the Aadhaar number or the Permanent Account Number at the time of commencement of an account based relationship with a reporting entity, the client shall submit the same within a period of six months from the date of the commencement of the account based relationship:

Provided that the clients, eligible to be enrolled for Aadhaar and obtain the Permanent Account Number, already having an account based relationship with reporting entities prior to date of this notification, the client shall submit the Aadhaar number and Permanent Account Number by 31st December, 2017.

(b) As per regulation 12 of the Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update) Regulations, 2016, the local authorities in the State Governments or Union-territory Administrations have become or are in the process of becoming UIDAI Registrars for Aadhaar enrolment and are organising special Aadhaar enrolment camps at convenient locations for providing enrolment facilities in consultation with UIDAI Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 509 of 567 and any individual desirous of commencing an account based relationship as provided in this rule, who does not possess the Aadhaar number or has not yet enrolled for Aadhaar, may also visit such special Aadhaar enrolment camps for Aadhaar enrolment or any of the Aadhaar enrolment centres in the vicinity with existing registrars of UIDAI.

(c) In case the client fails to submit the Aadhaar number and Permanent Account Number within the aforesaid six months period, the said account shall cease to be operational till the time the Aadhaar number and Permanent Account Number is submitted by the client:

Provided that in case client already having an account based relationship with reporting entities prior to date of this notification fails to submit the Aadhaar number and Permanent Account Number by 31st December, 2017, the said account shall cease to be operational till the time the Aadhaar number and Permanent Account Number is submitted by the client.

(18) In case the identity information relating to the Aadhaar number or Permanent Account Number submitted by the client referred to in sub-rules (4) to (9) of rule 9 does not have current address of the client, the client shall submit an officially valid documents to the reporting entity.”

As can be seen from the above, linking of Aadhaar with the

bank account is now mandatory. It applies not only to those bank

accounts which would be opened after the bringing into force the

amendment but even the existing accounts as well.

427) Linking of a banking account to Aadhaar is challenged as

violative of Articles 14, 19(1)(g) and 21 of the Constitution and

also of Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. Elaborate

submissions were made by Mr. Arvind Datar on the aforesaid

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 510 of 567 aspects. It was argued that those persons who do not choose to

enrol for Aadhaar number would not be in a position to open the

bank account or even operate the existing bank account and

there is no valid explanation as to why all bank accounts had to

be authenticated. It was also argued that provisions of the Rule

referred to companies, firms, trust etc. as well, though the

Aadhaar Act is meant for establishing identity of individuals only.

It was further submitted that in case a person fails to link Aadhaar

with the bank account, such person would be rendered ineligible

to operate the bank account, which would amount to forfeiting her

money lying in the account which belongs to her. This amounts

to depriving the person from her property and is, therefore,

violative of Article 300A of the Constitution as such a deprivation

can take place only by primary legislation and not by subordinate

legislation in the form of Rules. Much emphasis was also laid on

the argument that the amended Rule does not pass the

proportionality test.

428) Mr. Tushar Mehta, learned Additional Solicitor General, refuted

the aforesaid submissions. He pointed out the objective with

which the Prevention of Money Laundering Act was enacted,

namely, to curb money laundering and black money, which is

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 511 of 567 becoming a menace. Therefore, the amendment to Rules serves

a legitimate State aim. He argued that the Rules are not arbitrary

and satisfies the proportionality test also, having regard to the

laudable objective which it seeks to serve.

429) After giving our thoughtful consideration to the various aspects,

we feel that it is not even necessary to deal with each and every

contention raised by the petitioners. Our considered opinion is

that it does not meet the test of proportionality and is also

violative of right to privacy of a person which extends to banking

details.

430) This Court has held in Ram Jethmalani & Ors. v. Union of India &

Ors.155 that revelation of bank details without prima facie ground

of wrong doing would be violative of right to privacy. The said

decision has been approved in K.S. Puttaswamy. Under the garb

of prevention of money laundering or black money, there cannot

be such a sweeping provision which targets every resident of the

country as a suspicious person. Presumption of criminality is

treated as disproportionate and arbitrary.

431) Nobody would keep black money in the bank account. We

accept the possibility of opening an account in an assumed name

155(2011) 8 SCC 1 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 512 of 567 and keeping black money therein which can be laundered as

well. However, the persons doing such an Act, if at all, would be

very few. More importantly, those having bank accounts with

modest balance and routine transactions can be safely ruled out.

Therefore, the provision in the present form does not meet the

test of proportionality. Therefore, for checking this possible

malice, there cannot be a mandatory provision for linking of every

bank account.

432) In Lal Babu Hussein v. Electoral Registration Officer and

Others156, this Court had struck down the order of the Electoral

Officer asking the residents of a particular en masse to prove

their identity as unconstitutional. The Court held that the

Electoral officer asking residents of a particular area en masse to

prove their identity was unconstitutional. In the case, the EO

went on the assumption that all inhabitants of a particular area

were foreigners, notwithstanding their name appearing in earlier

electoral rolls. The court held the following:

(a) Right to vote cannot be disallowed by insisting only on 4

proofs of identity-voters can rely on any other proof of identity and

obtain right to vote.

(b) Notices were quashed because they failed to distinguish

156(1995) 3 SCC 100 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 513 of 567 between existing voters who had voted several times and new

voters.

(c) Large-scale presumption of illegality impermissible.

433) This linking is made compulsory not only for opening a new bank

account but even for existing bank accounts with a stipulation that

if the same is not done then the account would be deactivated,

with the result that the holder of the account would not be entitled

to operate the bank account till the time seeding of the bank

account with Aadhaar is done. This amounts to depriving a

person of his property. We find that this move of mandatory

linking of Aadhaar with bank account does not satisfy the test of

proportionality. To recapitulate, the test of proportionality requires

that a limitation of the fundamental rights must satisfy the

following to be proportionate: (i) it is designated for a proper

purpose; (ii) measures are undertaken to effectuate the limitation

are rationally connected to the fulfilment of the purpose; (iii) there

are no alternative less invasive measures; and (iv) there is a

proper relation between the importance of achieving the aim and

the importance of limiting the right.

434) The Rules are disproportionate for the following reasons:

(a) a mere ritualistic incantation of “money laundering”, “black

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 514 of 567 money” does not satisfy the first test;

(b) no explanations have been given as to how mandatory

linking of every bank account will eradicate/reduce the problems

of “money laundering” and “black money”;

(c) there are alternative methods of KYC which the banks are

already undertaking, the state has not discharged its burden as to

why linking of Aadhaar is imperative. We may point out that RBI’s

own Master Direction (KYC Direction, 2016) No. DBR.AML.BC.

No. 81/14.01.001/2015-16 allows using alternatives to Aadhaar to

open bank accounts.

435) There may be legitimate State aim for such a move as it aims at

prevention of money laundering and black money. However,

there has not been a serious thinking while making such a

provision applicable for every bank account. Maintaining back

account in today’s world has almost become a necessity. The

Government itself has propagated the advantages thereof and is

encouraging people to open the bank account making it possible

to have one even with Zero Balance under the Pradhan Mantri

Jan Dhan Yojana. The Government has taken various measures

to give a boost to digital economy. Under these schemes,

millions of persons, who are otherwise poor, are opening their

bank accounts. They are also becoming habitual to the good Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 515 of 567 practice of entering into transactions through their banks and

even by using digital modes for operation of the bank accounts.

Making the requirement of Aadhaar compulsory for all such and

other persons in the name of checking money laundering or black

money is grossly disproportionate. There should have been a

proper study about the methods adopted by persons who indulge

in money laundering, kinds of bank accounts which such persons

maintain and target those bank accounts for the purpose of

Aadhaar. It has not been done.

436) We, thus, hold the amendment to Rule 9, by the Seventh

Amendment Rules, 2017, in the present form, to be

unconstitutional.

Linking of Mobile Number with Aadhaar

437) By a Circular dated March 23, 2017, the Department of

Telecommunications has directed that all licensees shall reverify

the existing mobile subscribers (pre-paid and post-paid) through

Aadhaar based e-KYC process. In fine, it amounts to mandatory

linking of mobile connections with Aadhaar, which requirement is

not only in respect of those individuals who would be becoming

mobile subscribers, but applies to existing subscribers as well.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 516 of 567

438) It was the submission of the petitioners that such a linking of the

SIM card with Aadhaar number violates their right to privacy. It is

argued that since it is a fundamental right, the restrictions/curb

thereupon in the form of said linking does not satisfy the tests laid

down in K.S. Puttaswamy inasmuch as it is neither backed by any

law nor it serves any legitimate state aim nor does it meet the

requirement of proportionality test.

439) At the outset, it may be mentioned that the respondents have not

been able to show any statutory provision which permits the

respondents to issue such a circular. It is administrative in

nature. The respondents have, however, tried to justify the same

on the ground that there have been numerous instances where

non-verification of SIM cards have posed serious security threats.

Having regard to the same, this Court had given direction in

Lokniti Foundation v. Union of India & Anr.157 for the linking of SIM

card with Aadhaar and it is pursuant to those directions that the

Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) recommended this

step. Therefore, as per the respondents, Circular dated March

23, 2017 is the outcome of the aforesaid directions and

recommendations which should be treated as backing of law.

According to them, direction of this Court is a law under Article

157 (2017) 7 SCC 155 Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 517 of 567 141 of the Constitution. In addition, it is also argued that since

Section 4 of the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 empowers the

Central Government to issue licenses for establishing,

maintaining and working telegraphs, it is within the power of the

Central Government to grant such licenses with condition and,

therefore, Circular dated March 23, 2017 may be read as

condition for grant of licenses. On this premise, attempt is to

show that the Circular is issued in exercise of the powers

contained in Section 4 of the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 which is

the force of law.

440) In order to appreciate the respondents’ contentions, we

reproduce the relevant portion of Circular dated March 23, 2017,

which reads as under:

“Hon’ble Supreme Court, in its order dated 06.02.2017 passed in Writ Petition (C) No. 607/2016 filed by Lokniti Foundation v/s Union of India, while taking into cognizance of “Aadhaar based e-KYC process for issuing new telephone connection” issued by the Department, has inter- alia observed that “an effective process has been evolved to ensure identity verification, as well as, the addresses of all mobile phone subscribers for new subscribers. In the near future, and more particularly, within one year from today, a similar verification will be completed, in case of existing subscribers.” This amounts to a direction which is to be completed within a time frame of one year.

2. A meeting was held on 13.02.2017 in the Department with the telecom industry wherein UIDAI, TRAI and PMO representatives also participated to discuss the way forward to implement the directions of Hon’ble Supreme Court. Detailed discussions and deliberations were held in Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 518 of 567 the meeting. The suggestions received from the industry have been examined in the Department.

3. Accordingly, after taking into consideration the discussions held in the meeting and suggestions received from telecom industry, the undersigned is directed to convey the approval of competent authority that all Licensees shall re-verify all existing mobile subscribers (prepaid and postpaid) through Aadhaar based e-KYC process as mentioned in this office letter No. 800-29/2010-

VAS dated 16.08.2016. The instructions mentioned in subsequent paragraphs shall be strictly followed while carrying out the re-verification exercise.”

441) In the first instance, it may be noticed that reference is made to

the judgment of this Court in Lokniti Foundation which has

prompted the Ministry of Communications to issue this circular.

Paragraph 1 of the Circular itself states that the observations of

the Court in Lokniti Foundation amount to a direction. Thus, the

Circular is not issued in exercise of powers under Section 4 of the

Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 (though that itself would be debatable

as to whether Section 4 gives such a power at all). Insofar as

observations of this Court in that case are concerned, it is clear

that in the said brief order, this Court did not go into the issue as

to whether linking of SIM card with Aadhaar would be violate of

privacy rights of the citizens. In that petition filed as a Public

Interest Litigation, a prayer was made to the effect that identity of

each subscriber and also the numbers should be verified so that

unidentified and unverified subscribers are not allowed to misuse

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 519 of 567 mobile numbers. In response, the Union of India had filed the

counter affidavit bringing to the notice of the Court that the

Department had launched Aadhaar based e-KYC for issuing

mobile connections. Based on this statement, orders were

passed by this Court. Lis, which is the subject matter of instant

petitions, was not raised in the said case. Obviously, the Court

did not deliberate on the aspects of necessity of such a provision

in the light of right to privacy. It was a case where both the sides

were at ad idem. In the absence of any such issue or discussion

thereupon, such a case cannot be treated as precedent and as a

corollary it cannot be termed as ‘law’ within the meaning of Article

13 or Article 141 of the Constitution. Moreover, we are unable to

read the order in Lokniti Foundation as a direction of the Court. It

simply disposed of the petition after recording the submission of

the Union of India to the effect that the grievance of the petitioner

therein stood redressed by evolving the procedure of linking. On

that the Court simply observed that undertaking given to this

Court will be seriously taken and given effect to. No doubt, the

Central Government, as a licensor, can impose conditions while

granting licenses under Section 4 of the Indian Telegraph Act,

1885. However, such directions/conditions have to be legally

valid. When it affects the rights of the third parties (like the

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 520 of 567 petitioners herein who are not party to the licenses granted by the

Government to the Telecom Service Providers) they have a right

to challenge such directions. Here, the case made out by the

petitioners is that it infringes their right to privacy.

442) We are of the opinion that not only such a circular lacks backing

of a law, it fails to meet the requirement of proportionality as well.

It does not meet ‘necessity stage’ and ‘balancing stage’ tests to

check the primary menace which is in the mind of the respondent

authorities. There can be other appropriate laws and less

intrusive alternatives. For the misuse of such SIM cards by a

handful of persons, the entire population cannot be subjected to

intrusion into their private lives. It also impinges upon the

voluntary nature of the Aadhaar scheme. We find it to be

disproportionate and unreasonable state compulsion. It is to be

borne in mind that every individual/resident subscribing to a SIM

card does not enjoy the subsidy benefit or services mentioned in

Section 7 of the Act.

We, therefore, have no hesitation in declaring the Circular

dated March 23, 2017 as unconstitutional.

Violation of the orders passed by this Court:

Whether certain actions of the respondents are in contravention of the interim orders passed by the Court, if so, the effect Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 521 of 567 thereof?

443) It was vehemently argued that this Court had passed number of

interim orders (which have already been taken note of in the

beginning of this judgment) categorically stating that the Aadhaar

enrolment is voluntary; that no person would be forced to enrol

under the scheme; that a person would be told about the

voluntary nature of the scheme; and that enrolment shall not be

given to any illegal migrant. As per the petitioners,

notwithstanding these orders, the Central Government as well as

the State Governments have issued various notifications

requiring Aadhaar authentication for benefits, subsidies and

schemes mandatory. In this manner, according to the petitioners,

the respondents have violated the orders of this Court and it is

the majesty of the Court which is at stake.

444) It is not in dispute that the aforesaid orders were passed when

the Aadhaar Act had not come into force. After the enactment,

Section 7 had altered the position statutorily. The notifications

and circulars etc. are issued under this provision. Therefore,

technically speaking, it cannot be held that these circulars are

issued in contravention of the orders passed by this Court.

445) We feel that it would have been better had a clarification been

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 522 of 567 obtained from the Court after the passing of the Aadhaar Act

before issuing such circulars and orders under Section 7. When

the matter is sub judice in the Court and certain orders operating,

the respondents should have shown some fairness by taking that

route, which expectation would be high where the respondent is

the State. However, it would be difficult to hold the respondents

in contempt of the orders passed by this Court. We may note

that similar argument was advanced in Binoy Viswam, namely,

insertion of Section 139AA in the Income Tax Act was in breach of

interim orders passed by this Court. This argument was repelled

in the following manner:

“99. Main emphasis, however, is on the plea that Parliament or any State Legislature cannot pass a law that overrules a judgment thereby nullifying the said decision, that too without removing the basis of the decision. This argument appears to be attractive inasmuch as few orders are passed by this Court in pending writ petitions which are to the effect that the enrolment of Aadhaar would be voluntary. However, it needs to be kept in mind that the orders have been passed in the petitions where Aadhaar Scheme floated as an executive/administrative measure has been challenged. In those cases, the said orders are not passed in a case where the Court was dealing with a statute passed by Parliament. Further, these are interim orders as the Court was of the opinion that till the matter is decided finally in the context of right to privacy issue, the implementation of the said Aadhaar Scheme would remain voluntary. In fact, the main issue as to whether Aadhaar card scheme whereby biometric data of an individual is collected violates right to privacy and, therefore, is offensive of Article 21 of the Constitution or not is yet to be decided. In the process, the Constitution Bench is also called upon to decide as to whether right to privacy is a part of Article 21 of the Constitution at all. Therefore, no Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 523 of 567 final decision has been taken. In a situation like this, it cannot be said that Parliament is precluded from or it is rendered incompetent to pass such a law. That apart, the argument of the petitioners is that the basis on which the aforesaid orders are passed has to be removed, which is not done. According to the petitioners, it could be done only by making the Aadhaar Act compulsory. It is difficult to accept this contention for two reasons: first, when the orders passed by this Court which are relied upon by the petitioners were passed when the Aadhaar Act was not even enacted. Secondly, as already discussed in detail above, the Aadhaar Act and the law contained in Section 139-AA of the Income Tax Act deal with two different situations and operate in different fields. This argument of legislative incompetence also, therefore, fails.”

Summary and Conclusions:

446) (a) The architecture and structure of the Aadhaar Act reveals

that the UIDAI is established as a statutory body which is given

the task of developing the policy, procedure and system for

issuing Aadhaar numbers to individuals and also to perform

authentication thereof as per the provisions of the Act. For the

purpose of enrolment and assigning Aadhaar numbers, enrolling

agencies are recruited by the Authority. All the residents in India

are eligible to obtain an Aadhaar number. To enable a resident to

get Aadhaar number, he is required to submit demographic as

well as biometric information i.e., apart from giving information

relating to name, date of birth and address, biometric information

in the form of photograph, fingerprint, iris scan is also to be

provided. Aadhaar number given to a particular person is treated Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 524 of 567 as unique number as it cannot be reassigned to any other

individual.

(b) Insofar as subsidies, benefits or services to be given by the

Central Government or the State Government, as the case may

be, is concerned, these Governments can mandate that receipt of

these subsidies, benefits and services would be given only on

furnishing proof of possession of Aadhaar number (or proof of

making an application for enrolment, where Aadhaar number is

not assigned). An added requirement is that such individual

would undergo authentication at the time of receiving such

benefits etc. A particular institution/body from which the aforesaid

subsidy, benefit or service is to be claimed by such an individual,

the intended recipient would submit his Aadhaar number and is

also required to give her biometric information to that agency. On

receiving this information and for the purpose of its

authentication, the said agency, known as Requesting Entity

(RE), would send the request to the Authority which shall perform

the job of authentication of Aadhaar number. On confirming the

identity of a person, the individual is entitled to receive subsidy,

benefit or service. Aadhaar number is permitted to be used by

the holder for other purposes as well.

(c) In this whole process, any resident seeking to obtain an

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 525 of 567 Aadhaar number is, in the first instance, required to submit her

demographic information and biometric information at the time of

enrolment. She, thus, parts with her photograph, fingerprint and

iris scan at that stage by giving the same to the enrolling agency,

which may be a private body/person. Likewise, every time when

such Aadhaar holder intends to receive a subsidy, benefit or

service and goes to specified/designated agency or person for

that purpose, she would be giving her biometric information to

that RE, which, in turn, shall get the same authenticated from the

Authority before providing a subsidy, benefit or service.

(d) Attack of the petitioners to the Aadhaar programme and its

formation/structure under the Aadhaar Act is founded on the

arguments that it is a grave risk to the rights and liberties of the

citizens of this country which are secured by the Constitution of

India. It militates against the constitutional abiding values and its

foundational morality and has the potential to enable an intrusive

state to become a surveillance state on the basis of information

that is collected in respect of each individual by creation of a joint

electronic mesh. In this manner, the Act strikes at the very

privacy of each individual thereby offending the right to privacy

which is elevated and given the status of fundamental right by

tracing it to Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Constitution of India by a

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 526 of 567 nine Judge Bench judgment of this Court in K.S. Puttaswamy.

(e) The respondents, on the other hand, have attempted to

shake the very foundation of the aforesaid structure of the

petitioners’ case. They argue that in the first instance, minimal

biometric information of the applicant, who intends to have

Aadhaar number, is obtained which is also stored in CIDR for the

purpose of authentication. Secondly, no other information is

stored. It is emphasised that there is no data collection in respect

of religion, caste, tribe, language records of entitlement, income

or medical history of the applicant at the time of Aadhaar

enrolment. Thirdly, the Authority also claimed that the entire

Aadhaar enrolment eco-system is foolproof inasmuch as within

few seconds of the biometrics having been collected by the

enrolling agency, the said information gets transmitted the

Authorities/CIDR, that too in an encrypted form, and goes out of

the reach of the enrolling agency. Same is the situation at the

time of authentication as biometric information does not remain

with the requesting agency. Fourthly, while undertaking the

authentication process, the Authority simply matches the

biometrics and no other information is received or stored in

respect of purpose, location or nature or transaction etc.

Therefore, the question of profiling does not arise at all.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 527 of 567 (f) In the aforesaid scenario, it is necessary, in the first

instance, to find out the extent of core information, biometric as

well as demographic, that is collected and stored by the Authority

at the time of enrolment as well as at the time of authentication.

This exercise becomes necessary in order to consider the

argument of the petitioners about the profiling of the Aadhaar

holders. On going through this aspect, on the basis of the

powerpoint presentation given by Dr. Ajay Bhushan Pandey, CEO

of UIDAI, and the arguments of both the sides, including the

questions which were put by the petitioners to Dr. Pandey and the

answers thereupon, the Court has come to the conclusion that

minimal possible data, demographic and biometric, is obtained

from the Aadhaar holders.

(g) The Court also noticed that the whole architecture of Aadhaar

is devised to give unique identity to the citizens of this country.

No doubt, a person can have various documents on the basis of

which that individual can establish her identify. It may be in the

form of a passport, PAN card, ration card and so on. For the

purpose of enrolment itself number of documents are prescribed

which an individual can produce on the basis of which Aadhaar

card can be issued. Thus, such documents, in a way, are also

proof of identity. However, there is a fundamental difference

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 528 of 567 between the Aadhaar card as a mean of identity and other

documents through which identity can be established. Enrolment

for Aadhaar card also requires giving of demographic information

as well as biometric information which is in the form of iris and

fingerprints. This process eliminates any chance of duplication.

It is emphasised that an individual can manipulate the system by

having more than one or even number of PAN cards, passports,

ration cards etc. When it comes to obtaining Aadhaar card, there

is no possibility of obtaining duplicate card. Once the biometric

information is stored and on that basis Aadhaar card is issued, it

remains in the system with the Authority. Wherever there would

be a second attempt for enrolling for Aadhaar and for this

purpose same person gives his biometric information, it would be

immediately get matched with the same biometric information

already in the system and the second request would stand

rejected. It is for this reason the Aadhaar card is known as

Unique Identification (UID). Such an identity is unparalleled.

(h) There is, then, another purpose for having such a system of

issuing unique identification cards in the form of Aadhaar card. A

glimpse thereof is captured under the heading ‘Introduction’

above, while mentioning how and under what circumstances the

whole project was conceptualised. To put it tersely, in addition to

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 529 of 567 enabling any resident to obtain such unique identification proof, it

is also to empower marginalised section of the society,

particularly those who are illiterate and living in abject poverty or

without any shelter etc. It gives identity to such persons also.

Moreover, with the aid of Aadhaar card, they can claim various

privileges and benefits etc. which are actually meant for these

people.

(i) Identity of a person has a significance for every individual in

his/her life. In a civilised society every individual, on taking birth,

is given a name. Her place of birth and parentage also becomes

important as she is known in the society and these demographic

particulars also become important attribute of her personality.

Throughout their lives, individuals are supposed to provide such

information: be it admission in a school or college or at the time of

taking job or engaging in any profession or business activity, etc.

When all this information is available in one place, in the form of

Aadhaar card, it not only becomes unique, it would also qualify as

a document of empowerment. Added with this feature, when an

individual knows that no other person can clone her, it assumes

greater significance.

(j) Thus, the scheme by itself can be treated as laudable when

it comes to enabling an individual to seek Aadhaar number, more

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 530 of 567 so, when it is voluntary in nature. Howsoever benevolent the

scheme may be, it has to pass the muster of constitutionality.

According to the petitioners, the very architecture of Aadhaar is

unconstitutional on various grounds.

(k) The Court has taken note of the heads of challenge of the

Act, Scheme and certain Rules etc. and clarified that the matter is

examined with objective examination of the issues on the

touchstone of the constitutional provisions, keeping in mind the

ethos of constitutional democracy, rule of law, human rights and

other basic features of the Constitution.

Discussing the scope of judicial review, the Court has

accepted that apart from two grounds noticed in Binoy Viswam,

on which legislative Act can be invalidated [(a) the Legislature

does not have competence to make the law; and b) law made is

in violation of fundamental rights or any other constitutional

provision], another ground, namely, manifest arbitrariness, can

also be the basis on which an Act can be invalidated. The issues

are examined having regard to the aforesaid scope of judicial

review.

(l) From the arguments raised by the petitioners and the

grounds of challenge, it becomes clear that the main plank of

challenge is that the Aadhaar project and the Aadhaar Act

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 531 of 567 infringes right to privacy. Inbuilt in this right to privacy is the right

to live with dignity, which is a postulate of right to privacy. In the

process, discussion leads to the issue of proportionality, viz.

whether measures taken under the Aadhaar Act satisfy the

doctrine of proportionality.

(m) In view of the above, the Court discussed the contours of

right to privacy, as laid down in K.S. Puttaswamy, principle of

human dignity and doctrine of proportionality. After taking note of

the discussion contained in different opinions of six Hon’ble

Judges, it stands established, without any pale of doubt, that

privacy has now been treated as part of fundamental right. The

Court has held that, in no uncertain terms, that privacy has

always been a natural right which given an individual freedom to

exercise control over his or her personality. The judgment further

affirms three aspects of the fundamental right to privacy, namely:

(i) intrusion with an individual’s physical body,

(ii) informational privacy and

(iii) privacy of choice.

(n) As succinctly put by Nariman, J., first aspect involves the

person himself/herself and guards a person’s rights relatable to

his physical body thereby controlling the uncalled invasion by the

State. Insofar as second aspect, namely, informational privacy is

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 532 of 567 concerned, it does not deal with a person’s body but deals with a

person’s mind. In this manner, it protects a person by giving her

control over the dissemination of material that is personal to her

and disallowing unauthorised use of such information by the

State. Third aspect of privacy relates to individual’s autonomy by

protecting her fundamental personal choices. These aspects

have functional connection and relationship with dignity. In this

sense, privacy is a postulate of human dignity itself. Human

dignity has a constitutional value and its significance is

acknowledged by the Preamble. Further, by catena of judgments,

human dignity is treated as fundamental right as a facet not only

of Article 21, but that of right to equality (Article 14) and also part

of bouquet of freedoms stipulated in Article 19. Therefore, privacy

as a right is intrinsic of freedom, liberty and dignity. Viewed in this

manner, one can trace positive and negative contents of privacy.

The negative content restricts the State from committing an

intrusion upon the life and personal liberty of a citizen. Its positive

content imposes an obligation on the State to take all necessary

measures to protect the privacy of the individual.

(o) In developing the aforesaid concepts, the Court has been

receptive to the principles in international law and international

instruments. It is a recognition of the fact that certain human

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 533 of 567 rights cannot be confined within the bounds of geographical

location of a nation but have universal application. In the

process, the Court accepts the concept of universalisation of

human rights, including the right to privacy as a human right and

the good practices in developing and understanding such rights in

other countries have been welcomed. In this hue, it can also be

remarked that comparative law has played a very significant role

in shaping the aforesaid judgment on privacy in Indian context,

notwithstanding the fact that such comparative law has only

persuasive value.

The whole process of reasoning contained in different

opinions of the Hon’ble Judges would, thus, reflect that the

argument that it is difficult to precisely define the common

denominator of privacy, was rejected. While doing so, the Court

referred to various approaches to formulating privacy

(p) We have also remarked above, the taxonomy of privacy,

namely, on the basis of ‘harms’, ‘interest’ and ‘aggregation of

rights’. We have also discussed the scope of right to privacy with

reference to the cases at hand and the circumstances in which

such a right can be limited. In the process, we have also taken

note of the passage from the judgment rendered by Nariman, J.

in K.S. Puttaswamy stating the manner in which law has to be

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 534 of 567 tested when it is challenged on the ground that it violates the

fundamental right to privacy.

(q) One important comment which needs to be made at this

stage relates to the standard of judicial review while examining

the validity of a particular law that allegedly infringes right to

privacy. The question is as to whether the Court is to apply ‘strict

scrutiny’ standard or the ‘just, fair and reasonableness’ standard.

In the privacy judgment, different observations are made by the

different Hon’ble Judges and the aforesaid aspect is not

determined authoritatively, may be for the reason that the Bench

was deciding the reference on the issue as to whether right to

privacy is a fundamental right or not and, in the process, it was

called upon to decide the specific questions referred to it. This

Court preferred to adopt a ‘just, fair and reasonableness’

standard which is in tune with the view expressed by majority of

Judges in their opinion. Even otherwise, this is in consonance

with the judicial approach adopted by this Court while construing

‘reasonable restrictions’ that the State can impose in public

interest, as provided in Article 19 of the Constitution. Insofar as

principles of human dignity are concerned, the Court, after taking

note of various judgments where this principle is adopted and

elaborated, summed up the essential ingredients of dignity

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 535 of 567 jurisprudence by noticing that the basic principle of dignity and

freedom of the individual is an attribute of natural law which

becomes the right of all individuals in a constitutional democracy.

Dignity has a central normative role as well as constitutional

value. This normative role is performed in three ways:

First, it becomes basis for constitutional rights;

Second, it serves as an interpretative principle for

determining the scope of constitutional rights; and,

Third, it determines the proportionality of a statute limiting a

constitutional right. Thus, if an enactment puts limitation on a

constitutional right and such limitation is disproportionate, such a

statute can be held to be unconstitutional by applying the doctrine

of proportionality.

(r) As per Dworkin, there are two principles about the concept

of human dignity, First principle regards an ‘intrinsic value’ of

every person, namely, every person has a special objective value

which value is not only important to that person alone but success

or failure of the lives of every person is important to all of us. It

can also be described as self respect which represents the free

will of the person, her capacity to think for herself and to control

her own life. The second principle is that of ‘personal

responsibility’, which means every person has the responsibility

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 536 of 567 for success in her own life and, therefore, she must use her

discretion regarding the way of life that will be successful from her

point of view.

(s) Sum total of this exposition can be defined by explaining

that as per the aforesaid view dignity is to be treated as

‘empowerment’ which makes a triple demand in the name of

‘respect’ for human dignity, namely:

(i) respect for one's capacity as an agent to make one's own

free choices;

(ii) respect for the choices so made; and

(iii) respect for one's need to have a context and conditions

in which one can operate as a source of free and informed

choice.

(t) In the entire formulation of dignity right, ‘respect’ for an

individual is the fulcrum, which is based on the principle of

freedom and capacity to make choices and a good or just social

order is one which respects dignity via assuring ‘contexts’ and

‘conditions’ as the ‘source of free and informed choice’. The

aforesaid discourse on the concept of human dignity is from an

individual point of view. That is the emphasis of the petitioners as

well. That would be one side of the coin. A very important

feature which the present case has brought into focus is another

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 537 of 567 dimension of human dignity, namely, in the form of ‘common

good’ or ‘public good’. Thus, our endeavour here is to give richer

and more nuanced understanding to the concept of human

dignity.

(u) We, therefore, have to keep in mind humanistic concept of

Human Dignity which is to be accorded to a particular segment of

the society and, in fact, a large segment. Their human dignity is

based on the socio-economic rights that are read in to the

Fundamental Rights as already discussed above.

When we read socio-economic rights into human dignity,

the community approach also assumes importance along with

individualistic approach to human dignity. It has now been well

recognised that at its core, human dignity contains three

elements, namely, Intrinsic Value, Autonomy and Community

Value. These are known as core values of human dignity. These

three elements can assist in structuring legal reasoning and

justifying judicial choices in ‘hard cases’.

(v) When it comes to dignity as a community value, it

emphasises the role of the community in establishing collective

goals and restrictions on individual freedoms and rights on behalf

of a certain idea of good life. The relevant question here is in

what circumstances and to what degree should these actions be

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 538 of 567 regarded as legitimate in a constitutional democracy? The liberal

predicament that the state must be neutral with regard to different

conceptions of the good in a plural society is not incompatible, of

course, with limitation resulting from the necessary coexistence of

different views and potentially conflicting rights. Such

interferences, however, must be justified on grounds of a

legitimate idea of justice, an “overlapping consensus” 158 that can

be shared by most individuals and groups. Whenever such

tension arises, the task of balancing is to be achieved by the

Courts.

We would like to highlight one more significant feature

which the issues involved in the present case bring about. It is

the balancing of two facets of dignity of the same individual.

Whereas, on the one hand, right of personal autonomy is a part of

dignity (and right to privacy), another part of dignity of the same

individual is to lead a dignified life as well (which is again a facet

of Article 21 of the Constitution). Therefore, in a scenario where

the State is coming out with welfare schemes, which strive at

giving dignified life in harmony with human dignity and in the

process some aspect of autonomy is sacrificed, the balancing of

the two becomes an important task which is to be achieved by the 158“Overlapping consensus” is a term coined by John Rawls that identifies basic ideas of justice that can be shared by supporters of different religious, political, and moral comprehensive doctrines.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 539 of 567 Courts. For, there cannot be undue intrusion into the autonomy

on the pretext of conferment of economic benefits.

(w) In this way, the concept of human dignity has been widened

to deal with the issues at hand. As far as doctrine of

proportionality is concerned, after discussing the approaches that

are adopted by the German Supreme Court and the Canadian

Supreme Court, which are somewhat different from each other,

this Court has applied the tests as laid down in Modern Dental

College & Research Centre, which are approved in K.S.

Puttaswamy as well. However, at the same time, a modification

is done by focusing on the parameters set down of Bilchitz which

are aimed at achieving a more ideal approach.

447) After stating the aforesaid manner in which different issues that

arose are specified and discussed, these questions and

conclusions thereupon are summarised below:

(1) Whether the Aadhaar Project creates or has tendency to create surveillance state and is, thus, unconstitutional on this ground?

Incidental Issues:

(a) What is the magnitude of protection that need to be accorded to collection, storage and usage of biometric data?

(b) Whether the Aadhaar Act and Rules provide such protection, including in respect of data minimisation, purpose limitation, time period for data retention and

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 540 of 567 data protection and security?

Answer:

(a) The architecture of Aadhaar as well as the provisions of the

Aadhaar Act do not tend to create a surveillance state. This is

ensured by the manner in which the Aadhaar project operates.

(b) We have recorded in detail the powerpoint presentation that

was given by Dr. Ajay Bhushan Pandey, CEO of the Authority,

which brings out the following salient features:

(i) During the enrolment process, minimal biometric data in the

form of iris and fingerprints is collected. The Authority does not

collect purpose, location or details of transaction. Thus, it is

purpose blind. The information collected, as aforesaid, remains

in silos. Merging of silos is prohibited. The requesting agency is

provided answer only in ‘Yes’ or ‘No’ about the authentication of

the person concerned. The authentication process is not

exposed to the Internet world. Security measures, as per the

provisions of Section 29(3) read with Section 38(g) as well as

Regulation 17(1)(d) of the Authentication Regulations, are strictly

followed and adhered to.

(ii) There are sufficient authentication security measures taken

as well, as demonstrated in Slides 14, 28 and 29 of the

presentation.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 541 of 567 (iii) The Authority has sufficient defence mechanism, as

explained in Slide 30. It has even taken appropriate protection

measures as demonstrated in Slide 31.

(iv) There is an oversight by Technology and Architecture

Review Board (TARB) and Security Review Committee.

(v) During authentication no information about the nature of

transaction etc. is obtained.

(vi) The Authority has mandated use of Registered Devices

(RD) for all authentication requests. With these, biometric data is

signed within the device/RD service using the provider key to

ensure it is indeed captured live. The device provider RD service

encrypts the PID block before returning to the host application.

This RD service encapsulates the biometric capture, signing and

encryption of biometrics all within it. Therefore, introduction of

RD in Aadhaar authentication system rules out any possibility of

use of stored biometric and replay of biometrics captured from

other source. Requesting entities are not legally allowed to store

biometrics captured for Aadhaar authentication under Regulation

17(1)(a) of the Authentication Regulations.

(vii) The Authority gets the AUA code, ASA code, unique device

code, registered device code used for authentication. It does not

get any information related to the IP address or the GPS location

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 542 of 567 from where authentication is performed as these parameters are

not part of authentication (v2.0) and e-KYC (v2.1) API. The

Authority would only know from which device the authentication

has happened, through which AUA/ASA etc. It does not receive

any information about at what location the authentication device

is deployed, its IP address and its operator and the purpose of

authentication. Further, the authority or any entity under its

control is statutorily barred from collecting, keeping or maintaining

any information about the purpose of authentication under

Section 32(3) of the Aadhaar Act.

(c) After going through the Aadhaar structure, as demonstrated

by the respondents in the powerpoint presentation from the

provisions of the Aadhaar Act and the machinery which the

Authority has created for data protection, we are of the view that it

is very difficult to create profile of a person simply on the basis of

biometric and demographic information stored in CIDR. Insofar as

authentication is concerned, the respondents rightly pointed out

that there are sufficient safeguard mechanisms. To recapitulate, it

was specifically submitted that there was security technologies in

place (slide 28 of Dr. Pandey’s presentation), 24/7 security

monitoring, data leak prevention, vulnerability management

programme and independent audits (slide 29) as well as the

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 543 of 567 Authority’s defence mechanism (slide 30). It was further pointed

out that the Authority has taken appropriate pro-active protection

measures, which included disaster recovery plan, data backup

and availability and media response plan (slide 31). The

respondents also pointed out that all security principles are

followed inasmuch as: (a) there is PKI-2048 encryption from the

time of capture, meaning thereby, as soon as data is given at the

time of enrolment, there is an end to end encryption thereof and it

is transmitted to the Authority in encrypted form. The said

encryption is almost foolproof and it is virtually impossible to

decipher the same; (b) adoption of best-in-class security

standards and practices; and (c) strong audit and traceability as

well as fraud detection. Above all, there is an oversight of

Technology and Architecture Review Board (TARB) and Security

Review Committee. This Board and Committee consists of very

high profiled officers. Therefore, the Act has endeavoured to

provide safeguards.

(d) Insofar as use and protection of data is concerned, having

regard to the principles enshrined in various cases, Indian and

foreign, the matter is examined from the stand point of data

minimisation, purpose limitation, time period for data retention,

data protection and security (qua CIDR, requisite entities,

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 544 of 567 enrolment agencies and Registrars, authentication service

agency, hacking, biometric solution providers, substantive

procedural or judicial safeguards). After discussing the aforesaid

aspect with reference to certain provisions of the Aadhaar Act, we

are of the view that apprehensions of the petitioners stand

assuaged with the striking down or reading down or clarification

of some of the provisions, namely:

(i) Authentication records are not to be kept beyond a period

of six months, as stipulated in Regulation 27(1) of the

Authentication Regulations. This provision which permits

records to be archived for a period of five years is held to

be bad in law.

(ii) Metabase relating to transaction, as provided in Regulation

26 of the aforesaid Regulations in the present form, is held

to be impermissible, which needs suitable amendment.

(iii) Section 33(1) of the Aadhaar Act is read down by clarifying

that an individual, whose information is sought to be

released, shall be afforded an opportunity of hearing.

(iv) Insofar as Section 33(2) of the Act in the present form is

concerned, the same is struck down.

(v) That portion of Section 57 of the Aadhaar Act which

enables body corporate and individual to seek

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 545 of 567 authentication is held to be unconstitutional.

(vi) We have also impressed upon the respondents, to bring

out a robust data protection regime in the form of an

enactment on the basis of Justice B.N. Srikrishna (Retd.)

Committee Report with necessary modifications thereto as

may be deemed appropriate.

(2) Whether the Aadhaar Act violates right to privacy and is unconstitutional on this ground?

Answer:

(a) After detailed discussion, it is held that all matters pertaining

to an individual do not qualify as being an inherent part of right to

privacy. Only those matters over which there would be a

reasonable expectation of privacy are protected by Article 21.

This can be discerned from the reading of Paras 297 to 307 of the

judgment.

(b) The Court is also of the opinion that the triple test laid down

in order to adjudge the reasonableness of the invasion to privacy

has been made. The Aadhaar scheme is backed by the statute,

i.e. the Aadhaar Act. It also serves legitimate State aim, which

can be discerned from the Introduction to the Act as well as the

Statement of Objects and Reasons which reflect that the aim in

passing the Act was to ensure that social benefit schemes reach

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 546 of 567 the deserving community. The Court noted that the failure to

establish identity of an individual has proved to be a major

hindrance for successful implementation of those programmes as

it was becoming difficult to ensure that subsidies, benefits and

services reach the unintended beneficiaries in the absence of a

credible system to authenticate identity of beneficiaries. The

Statement of Objects and Reasons also discloses that over a

period of time, the use of Aadhaar number has been increased

manifold and, therefore, it is also necessary to take measures

relating to ensuring security of the information provided by the

individuals while enrolling for Aadhaar card.

(c) It may be highlighted that the petitioners are making their

claim on the basis of dignity as a facet of right to privacy. On the

other hand, Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act is aimed at offering

subsidies, benefits or services to the marginalised section of the

society for whom such welfare schemes have been formulated

from time to time. That also becomes an aspect of social justice,

which is the obligation of the State stipulated in Para IV of the

Constitution. The rationale behind Section 7 lies in ensuring

targeted delivery of services, benefits and subsidies which are

funded from the Consolidated Fund of India. In discharge of its

solemn Constitutional obligation to enliven the Fundamental

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 547 of 567 Rights of life and personal liberty (Article 21) to ensure Justice,

Social, Political and Economic and to eliminate inequality (Article

14) with a view to ameliorate the lot of the poor and the Dalits, the

Central Government has launched several welfare schemes.

Some such schemes are PDS, scholarships, mid day meals, LPG

subsidies, etc. These schemes involve 3% percentage of the

GDP and involve a huge amount of public money. Right to

receive these benefits, from the point of view of those who

deserve the same, has now attained the status of fundamental

right based on the same concept of human dignity, which the

petitioners seek to bank upon. The Constitution does not exist for

a few or minority of the people of India, but “We the people”. The

goals set out in the Preamble of the Constitution do not

contemplate statism and do not seek to preserve justice, liberty,

equality an fraternity for those who have the means and

opportunity to ensure the exercise of inalienable rights for

themselves. These goals are predominantly or at least equally

geared to “secure to all its citizens”, especially, to the

downtrodden, poor and exploited, justice, liberty, equality and “to

promote” fraternity assuring dignity. Interestingly, the State has

come forward in recognising the rights of deprived section of the

society to receive such benefits on the premise that it is their

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 548 of 567 fundamental right to claim such benefits. It is acknowledged by

the respondents that there is a paradigm shift in addressing the

problem of security and eradicating extreme poverty and hunger.

The shift is from the welfare approach to a right based approach.

As a consequence, right of everyone to adequate food no more

remains based on Directive Principles of State Policy (Art 47),

though the said principles remain a source of inspiration. This

entitlement has turned into a Constitutional fundamental right.

This Constitutional obligation is reinforced by obligations under

International Convention.

(d) Even the petitioners did not seriously question the purpose

and bona fides of the Legislature enacting the law.

(e) The Court also finds that the Aadhaar Act meets the test of

proportionality as the following components of proportionality

stand satisfied:

(i) A measure restricting a right must have a legitimate goal (legitimate goal stage).

(ii) It must be a suitable means of furthering this goal (suitability or rationale connection stage).

(iii) There must not be any less restrictive but equally effective alternative (necessity stage).

(iv) The measure must not have a disproportionate impact on the right holder (balancing stage).

(f) In the process, the Court has taken note of various

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 549 of 567 judgments pronounced by this Court pertaining to right to food,

issuance of BPL Cards, LPG connections and LPG cylinders at

minimal cost, old age and other kind of pensions to deserving

persons, scholarships and implementation of MGNREGA

scheme.

(g) The purpose behind these orders was to ensure that the

deserving beneficiaries of the scheme are correctly identified and

are able to receive the benefits under the said scheme, which is

their entitlement. The orders also aimed at ensuring ‘good

governance’ by bringing accountability and transparency in the

distribution system with the pious aim in mind, namely, benefits

actually reached those who are rural, poor and starving.

(h) All this satisfies the necessity stage test, particularly in the

absence of any less restrictive but equally effective alternative.

(i) Insofar as balancing is concerned, the matter is examined

at two levels:

(i) Whether, ‘legitimate state interest’ ensures ‘reasonable

tailoring’? There is a minimal intrusion into the privacy and the

law is narrowly framed to achieve the objective. Here the Act

is to be tested on the ground that whether it is found on a

balancing test that the social or public interest and the

reasonableness of the restrictions outweigh the particular

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 550 of 567 aspect of privacy, as claimed by the petitioners. This is the

test we have applied in the instant case.

(ii) There needs to be balancing of two competing

fundamental rights, right to privacy on the one hand and right

to food, shelter and employment on the other hand.

Axiomatically both the rights are founded on human dignity. At

the same time, in the given context, two facets are in conflict

with each other. The question here would be, when a person

seeks to get the benefits of welfare schemes to which she is

entitled to as a part of right to live life with dignity, whether her

sacrifice to the right to privacy, is so invasive that it creates

imbalance?

(j) In the process, sanctity of privacy in its functional

relationship with dignity is kept in mind where it says that

legitimate expectation of privacy may vary from intimate zone to

the private zone and from the private to public arena.

Reasonable expectation of privacy is also taken into

consideration. The Court finds that as the information collected at

the time of enrolment as well as authentication is minimal,

balancing at the first level is met. Insofar as second level,

namely, balancing of two competing fundamental rights is

concerned, namely, dignity in the form of autonomy (informational

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 551 of 567 privacy) and dignity in the form of assuring better living standards

of the same individual, the Court has arrived at the conclusion

that balancing at the second level is also met. The detailed

discussion in this behalf amply demonstrates that enrolment in

Aadhaar of the unprivileged and marginalised section of the

society, in order to avail the fruits of welfare schemes of the

Government, actually amounts to empowering these persons. On

the one hand, it gives such individuals their unique identity and,

on the other hand, it also enables such individuals to avail the

fruits of welfare schemes of the Government which are floated as

socio-economic welfare measures to uplift such classes. In that

sense, the scheme ensures dignity to such individuals. This facet

of dignity cannot be lost sight of and needs to be acknowledged.

We are, by no means, accepting that when dignity in the form of

economic welfare is given, the State is entitled to rob that person

of his liberty. That can never be allowed. We are concerned with

the balancing of the two facets of dignity. Here we find that the

inroads into the privacy rights where these individuals are made

to part with their biometric information, is minimal. It is coupled

with the fact that there is no data collection on the movements of

such individuals, when they avail benefits under Section 7 of the

Act thereby ruling out the possibility of creating their profiles. In

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 552 of 567 fact, this technology becomes a vital tool of ensuring good

governance in a social welfare state. We, therefore, are of the

opinion that the Aadhaar Act meets the test of balancing as well.

(k) Insofar as the argument based on probabilistic system of

Aadhaar, leading to ‘exclusion’ is concerned, the Authority has

claimed that biometric accuracy is 99.76% and the petitioners

have also proceeded on that basis. In this scenario, if the

Aadhaar project is shelved, 99.76% beneficiaries are going to

suffer. Would it not lead to their exclusion? It will amount to

throwing the baby out of hot water along with the water. In the

name of 0.232% failure (which can in any case be remedied)

should be revert to the pre-Aadhaar stage with a system of

leakages, pilferages and corruption in the implementation of

welfare schemes meant for marginalised section of the society,

the full fruits thereof were not reaching to such people?

(l) The entire aim behind launching this programme is the

‘inclusion’ of the deserving persons who need to get such

benefits. When it is serving much larger purpose by reaching

hundreds of millions of deserving persons, it cannot be crucified

on the unproven plea of exclusion of some. It is clarified that the

Court is not trivialising the problem of exclusion if it is there.

However, what we are emphasising is that remedy is to plug the

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 553 of 567 loopholes rather than axe a project, aimed for the welfare of large

section of the society. Obviously, in order to address the failures

of authentication, the remedy is to adopt alternate methods for

identifying such persons, after finding the causes of failure in their

cases. We have chosen this path which leads to better

equilibrium and have given necessary directions also in this

behalf, viz:

(i) We have taken on record the statement of the learned

Attorney General that no deserving person would be denied

the benefit of a scheme on the failure of authentication.

(ii) We are also conscious of the situation where the

formation of fingerprints may undergo change for various

reasons. It may happen in the case of a child after she grows

up; it may happen in the case of an individual who gets old; it

may also happen because of damage to the fingers as a result

of accident or some disease etc. or because of suffering of

some kind of disability for whatever reason. Even iris test can

fail due to certain reasons including blindness of a person.

We again emphasise that no person rightfully entitled to the

benefits shall be denied the same on such grounds. It would

be appropriate if a suitable provision be made in the

concerned regulations for establishing an identity by alternate

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 554 of 567 means, in such situations.

(m) As far as subsidies, services and benefits are concerned,

their scope is not to be unduly expanded thereby widening the net

of Aadhaar, where it is not permitted otherwise. In this respect, it

is held as under:

(i) ‘Benefits’ and ‘services’ as mentioned in Section 7

should be those which have the colour of some kind of

subsidies etc., namely, welfare schemes of the Government

whereby Government is doling out such benefits which are

targeted at a particular deprived class.

(ii) It would cover only those ‘benefits’ etc. the

expenditure thereof has to be drawn from the Consolidated

Fund of India.

(iii) On that basis, CBSE, NEET, JEE, UGC etc. cannot

make the requirement of Aadhaar mandatory as they are

outside the purview of Section 7 and are not backed by any

law.

(3) Whether children can be brought within the sweep of Sections 7 and 8 of the Aadhaar Act?

Answer:

(a) For the enrolment of children under the Aadhaar Act, it

would be essential to have the consent of their parents/guardian.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 555 of 567 (b) On attaining the age of majority, such children who are

enrolled under Aadhaar with the consent of their parents, shall be

given the option to exit from the Aadhaar project if they so choose

in case they do not intend to avail the benefits of the scheme.

(c) Insofar as the school admission of children is concerned,

requirement of Aadhaar would not be compulsory as it is neither a

service nor subsidy. Further, having regard to the fact that a child

between the age of 6 to 14 years has the fundamental right to

education under Article 21A of the Constitution, school admission

cannot be treated as ‘benefit’ as well.

(d) Benefits to children between 6 to 14 years under Sarv

Shiksha Abhiyan, likewise, shall not require mandatory Aadhaar

enrolment.

(e) For availing the benefits of other welfare schemes which are

covered by Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act, though enrolment

number can be insisted, it would be subject to the consent of the

parents, as mentioned in (a) above.

(f) We also clarify that no child shall be denied benefit of any of

these schemes if, for some reasons, she is not able to produce

the Aadhaar number and the benefit shall be given by verifying

the identity on the basis of any other documents. This we say

having regard to the statement which was made by Mr. K.K.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 556 of 567 Venugopal, learned Attorney General for India, at the Bar.

(4) Whether the following provisions of the Aadhaar Act and Regulations suffer from the vice of unconstitutionality:

(i) Sections 2(c) and 2(d) read with Section 32 (ii) Section 2(h) read with Section 10 of CIDR (iii) Section 2(l) read with Regulation 23 (iv) Section 2(v) (v) Section 3 (vi) Section 5 (vii) Section 6 (viii) Section 8 (ix) Section 9 (x) Sections 11 to 23 (xi) Sections 23 and 54

(xii) Section 23(2)(g) read with Chapter VI & VII – Regulations 27 to 32

(xiii) Section 29

(xiv) Section 33

(xv) Section 47 (xvi) Section 48 (xvii) Section 57 (xviii) Section 59

Answer:

(a) Section 2(d) which pertains to authentication records, such

records would not include metadata as mentioned in Regulation

26(c) of the Aadhaar (Authentication) Regulations, 2016.

Therefore, this provision in the present form is struck down.

Liberty, however, is given to reframe the regulation, keeping in

view the parameters stated by the Court.

(b) Insofar as Section 2(b) is concerned, which defines

‘resident’, the apprehension expressed by the petitioners was that

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 557 of 567 it should not lead to giving Aadhaar card to illegal immigrants.

We direct the respondent to take suitable measures to ensure

that illegal immigrants are not able to take such benefits.

(c) Retention of data beyond the period of six months is

impermissible. Therefore, Regulation 27 of Aadhaar

(Authentication) Regulations, 2016 which provides archiving a

data for a period of five years is struck down.

(d) Section 29 in fact imposes a restriction on sharing

information and is, therefore, valid as it protects the interests of

Aadhaar number holders. However, apprehension of the

petitioners is that this provision entitles Government to share the

information ‘for the purposes of as may be specified by

regulations’. The Aadhaar (Sharing of Information) Regulations,

2016, as of now, do not contain any such provision. If a provision

is made in the regulations which impinges upon the privacy rights

of the Aadhaar card holders that can always be challenged.

(e) Section 33(1) of the Act prohibits disclosure of information,

including identity information or authentication records, except

when it is by an order of a court not inferior to that of a District

Judge. We have held that this provision is to be read down with

the clarification that an individual, whose information is sought to

be released, shall be afforded an opportunity of hearing. If such

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 558 of 567 an order is passed, in that eventuality, he shall also have right to

challenge such an order passed by approaching the higher court.

During the hearing before the concerned court, the said individual

can always object to the disclosure of information on accepted

grounds in law, including Article 20(3) of the Constitution or the

privacy rights etc.

(f) Insofar as Section 33(2) is concerned, it is held that

disclosure of information in the interest of national security cannot

be faulted with. However, for determination of such an

eventuality, an officer higher than the rank of a Joint Secretary

should be given such a power. Further, in order to avoid any

possible misuse, a Judicial Officer (preferably a sitting High Court

Judge) should also be associated with. We may point out that

such provisions of application of judicial mind for arriving at the

conclusion that disclosure of information is in the interest of

national security, are prevalent in some jurisdictions. In view

thereof, Section 33(2) of the Act in the present form is struck

down with liberty to enact a suitable provision on the lines

suggested above.

(g) Insofar as Section 47 of the Act which provides for the

cognizance of offence only on a complaint made by the Authority

or any officer or person authorised by it is concerned, it needs a

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 559 of 567 suitable amendment to include the provision for filing of such a

complaint by an individual/victim as well whose right is violated.

(h) Insofar as Section 57 in the present form is concerned, it is

susceptible to misuse inasmuch as: (a) It can be used for

establishing the identity of an individual ‘for any purpose’. We

read down this provision to mean that such a purpose has to be

backed by law. Further, whenever any such “law” is made, it

would be subject to judicial scrutiny. (b) Such purpose is not

limited pursuant to any law alone but can be done pursuant to

‘any contract to this effect’ as well. This is clearly impermissible

as a contractual provision is not backed by a law and, therefore,

first requirement of proportionality test is not met. (c) Apart from

authorising the State, even ‘any body corporate or person’ is

authorised to avail authentication services which can be on the

basis of purported agreement between an individual and such

body corporate or person. Even if we presume that legislature

did not intend so, the impact of the aforesaid features would be to

enable commercial exploitation of an individual biometric and

demographic information by the private entities. Thus, this part of

the provision which enables body corporate and individuals also

to seek authentication, that too on the basis of a contract between

the individual and such body corporate or person, would impinge

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 560 of 567 upon the right to privacy of such individuals. This part of the

section, thus, is declared unconstitutional.

(i) Other provisions of Aadhaar Act are held to be valid,

including Section 59 of the Act which, according to us, saves the

pre-enactment period of Aadhaar project, i.e. from 2009-2016.

(5) Whether the Aadhaar Act defies the concept of Limited Government, Good Governance and Constitutional Trust?

Answer:

Aadhaar Act meets the concept of Limited Government,

Good Governance and Constitutional Trust.

(6) Whether the Aadhaar Act could be passed as ‘Money Bill’ within the meaning of Article 110 of the Constitution?

Answer:

(a) We do recognise the importance of Rajya Sabha (Upper

House) in a bicameral system of the Parliament. The significance

and relevance of the Upper House has been succinctly

exemplified by this Court in Kuldip Nayar’s case. The Rajya

Sabha, therefore, becomes an important institution signifying

constitutional fedaralism. It is precisely for this reason that to

enact any statute, the Bill has to be passed by both the Houses,

namely, Lok Sabha as well as Rajya Sabha. It is the

constitutional mandate. The only exception to the aforesaid

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 561 of 567 Parliamentary norm is Article 110 of the Constitution of India.

Having regard to this overall scheme of bicameralism enshrined

in our Constitution, strict interpretation has to be accorded to

Article 110. Keeping in view these principles, we have

considered the arguments advanced by both the sides.

(b) The petitioners accept that Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act has

the elements of ‘Money Bill’. The attack is on the premise that

some other provisions, namely, clauses 23(2)(h), 54(2)(m) and 57

of the Bill (which corresponds to Sections 23(2)(h), 54(2)(m) and

57 of the Aadhaar Act) do not fall under any of the clauses of

Article 110 of the Constitution and, therefore, Bill was not limited

to only those subjects mentioned in Article 110. Insofar as

Section 7 is concerned, it makes receipt of subsidy, benefit or

service subject to establishing identity by the process of

authentication under Aadhaar or furnish proof of Aadhaar etc. It

is also very clearly declared in this provision that the expenditure

incurred in respect of such a subsidy, benefit or service would be

from the Consolidated Fund of India. It is also accepted by the

petitioners that Section 7 is the main provision of the Act. In fact,

introduction to the Act as well as Statement of Objects and

Reasons very categorically record that the main purpose of

Aadhaar Act is to ensure that such subsidies, benefits and

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 562 of 567 services reach those categories of persons, for whom they are

actually meant.

(c) As all these three kinds of welfare measures are sought to

be extended to the marginalised section of society, a collective

reading thereof would show that the purpose is to expand the

coverage of all kinds of aid, support, grant, advantage, relief

provisions, facility, utility or assistance which may be extended

with the support of the Consolidated Fund of India with the

objective of targeted delivery. It is also clear that various

schemes which can be contemplated by the aforesaid provisions,

relate to vulnerable and weaker section of the society. Whether

the social justice scheme would involve a subsidy or a benefit or

a service is merely a matter of the nature and extent of

assistance and would depend upon the economic capacity of the

State. Even where the state subsidizes in part, whether in cash

or kind, the objective of emancipation of the poor remains the

goal.

(d) The respondents are right in their submission that the

expression subsidy, benefit or service ought to be understood in

the context of targeted delivery to poorer and weaker sections of

society. Its connotation ought not to be determined in the

abstract. For as an abstraction one can visualize a subsidy being

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 563 of 567 extended by Parliament to the King; by Government to the

Corporations or Banks; etc. The nature of subsidy or benefit

would not be the same when extended to the poor and

downtrodden for producing those conditions without which they

cannot live a life with dignity. That is the main function behind

the Aadhaar Act and for this purpose, enrolment for Aadhaar

number is prescribed in Chapter II which covers Sections 3 to

6. Residents are, thus, held entitled to obtain Aadhaar number.

We may record here that such an enrolment is of voluntary

nature. However, it becomes compulsory for those who seeks to

receive any subsidy, benefit or service under the welfare scheme

of the Government expenditure whereof is to be met from the

Consolidated Fund of India. It follows that authentication under

Section 7 would be required as a condition for receipt of a

subsidy, benefit or service only when such a subsidy, benefit or

service is taken care of by Consolidated Fund of India.

Therefore, Section 7 is the core provision of the Aadhaar Act and

this provision satisfies the conditions of Article 110 of the

Constitution. Upto this stage, there is no quarrel between the

parties.

(e) On examining of the other provisions pointed out by the

petitioners in an attempt to take it out of the purview of Money

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 564 of 567 Bill, we are of the view that those provisions are incidental in

nature which have been made in the proper working of the Act.

In any case, a part of Section 57 has already been declared

unconstitutional. We, thus, hold that the Aadhaar Act is validly

passed as a ‘Money Bill’.

(7) Whether Section 139AA of the Income Tax Act, 1961 is violative of right to privacy and is, therefore, unconstitutional?

Answer:

Validity of this provision was upheld in the case of Binoy

Viswam by repelling the contentions based on Articles 14 and 19

of the Constitution. The question of privacy which, at that time,

was traced to Article 21, was left open. The matter is reexamined

on the touchstone of principles laid down in K.S. Puttaswamy.

The matter has also been examined keeping in view that manifest

arbitrariness is also a ground of challenge to the legislative

enactment. Even after judging the matter in the context of

permissible limits for invasion of privacy, namely: (i) the existence

of a law; (ii) a ‘legitimate State interest’; and (iii) such law should

pass the ‘test of proportionality’, we come to the conclusion that

all these tests are satisfied. In fact, there is specific discussion

on these aspects in Binoy Viswam’s case as well.

(8) Whether Rule 9 of the Prevention of Money Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules, 2005 and the notifications Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 565 of 567 issued thereunder which mandates linking of Aadhaar with bank accounts is unconstitutional?

Answer:

(a) We hold that the provision in the present form does not

meet the test of proportionality and, therefore, violates the right to

privacy of a person which extends to banking details.

(b) This linking is made compulsory not only for opening a new

bank account but even for existing bank accounts with a

stipulation that if the same is not done then the account would be

deactivated, with the result that the holder of the account would

not be entitled to operate the bank account till the time seeding of

the bank account with Aadhaar is done. This amounts to

depriving a person of his property. We find that this move of

mandatory linking of Aadhaar with bank account does not satisfy

the test of proportionality. To recapitulate, the test of

proportionality requires that a limitation of the fundamental rights

must satisfy the following to be proportionate: (i) it is designated

for a proper purpose; (ii) measures are undertaken to effectuate

the limitation are rationally connected to the fulfilment of the

purpose; (iii) there are no alternative less invasive measures; and

(iv) there is a proper relation between the importance of achieving

the aim and the importance of limiting the right.

(c) The Rules are held to be disproportionate for the reasons

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 566 of 567 stated in the main body of this Judgment.

(9) Whether Circular dated March 23, 2017 issued by the Department of Telecommunications mandating linking of mobile number with Aadhaar is illegal and unconstitutional?

Answer:

Circular dated March 23, 2017 mandating linking of mobile

number with Aadhaar is held to be illegal and unconstitutional as

it is not backed by any law and is hereby quashed.

(10) Whether certain actions of the respondents are in contravention of the interim orders passed by the Court, if so, the effect thereof?

Answer:

This question is answered in the negative.

448) In view of the aforesaid discussion and observations, the writ

petitions, transferred cases, special leave petition, contempt

petitions and all the pending applications stand disposed of.

.............................................CJI.

(DIPAK MISRA)

.............................................J. (A.K. SIKRI)

.............................................J. (A.M. KHANWILKAR) NEW DELHI;

SEPTEMBER 26, 2018.

Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 & connected matters Page 567 of 567 REPORTABLE

IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA CIVIL ORIGINAL JURISDICTION

WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO 494 OF 2012

JUSTICE K S PUTTASWAMY (RETD) & ANR ...PETITIONERS

Versus

UNION OF INDIA & ORS ...RESPONDENTS

WITH

T C (C) NO 151 OF 2013

T C (C) NO 152 OF 2013

W P (C) NO 833 OF 2013

W P (C) NO 829 OF 2013

T P (C) NO 1797 OF 2013

W P (C) NO 932 OF 2013

1 T P (C) NO 1796 OF 2013

CONMT. PET. (C) NO 144 OF 2014

T P (C) NO 313 OF 2014

T P (C) NO 312 OF 2014

SLP (CRL) NO 2524 OF 2014

W P (C) NO 37 OF 2015

W P (C) NO 220 OF 2015

CONMT. PET. (C) NO 674 OF 2015 in W P (C) NO 829 OF 2013

T P (C) NO 921 OF 2015

CONMT. PET. (C) NO 470 OF 2015

W P (C) NO 231 OF 2016

CONMT. PET. (C) NO 444 OF 2016

CONMT. PET. (C) NO 608 OF 2016

W P (C) NO 797 OF 2016

CONMT. PET. (C) NO 844 OF 2017

2 W P (C) NO 342 OF 2017

W P (C) NO 372 OF 2017

W P (C) NO 841 OF 2017

W P (C) NO 1058 OF 2017

W P (C) NO 966 OF 2017

W P (C) NO 1014 OF 2017

W P (C) NO 1002 OF 2017

W P (C) NO 1056 OF 2017

AND

WITH

CONMT. PET. (C) NO 34 OF 2018 in W P (C) NO 1014 OF 2017

3 JUDGMENT

INDEX

A Introduction: technology, governance and freedom

B The Puttaswamy1 principles

B.I Origins: privacy as a natural right B.2 Privacy as a constitutionally protected right : liberty and dignity B.3 Contours of privacy B.4 Informational privacy B.5 Restricting the right to privacy B.6 Legitimate state interests

C Submissions

C.I Petitioners’ submissions C.2 Respondents’ submissions

D Architecture of Aadhaar: analysis of the legal framework

E Passage of Aadhaar Act as a Money Bill

E.I Judicial Review of the Speaker’s Decision E.2 Aadhaar Act as a Money Bill

F Biometrics, Privacy and Aadhaar

F.I Increased use of biometric technology F.2 Consent in the collection of biometric data F.3 Position before the Aadhaar legislation

1 (2017) 10 SCC 1

4 F.4 Privacy Concerns in the Aadhaar Act

1. Consent during enrolment and authentication & the right to access information under the Aadhaar Act

2. Extent of information disclosed during authentication & sharing of core biometric information

3. Expansive scope of biometric information

4. Other concerns regarding the Aadhaar Act: Misconceptions regarding the efficacy of biometric information

5. No access to biometric records in database

6. Biometric locking

7. Key takeaways

G Legitimate state aim

G.I Directive Principles G.2 Development and freedom G.3 Identity and Identification

H Proportionality

H.I Harmonising conflicting rights H.2 Proportionality standard in Indian jurisprudence H.3 Comparative jurisprudence H.4 Aadhaar: The proportionality analysis H.5 Dignity and financial exclusion H.6 Constitutional validity of Section 139AA of the Income Tax Act 1961 H.7 Linking of SIM cards and Aadhaar numbers

I Money laundering rules

J Savings in Section 59

K Rule of law and violation of interim orders

L Conclusion

5 PART A

Dr Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud, J

A Introduction: technology, governance and freedom

1 Technology and biometrics are recent entrants to litigation. Individually,

each presents specific claims: of technology as the great enabler; and of

biometrics as the unique identifier. As recombinant elements, they create as it

were, new genetic material. Combined together, they present unforeseen

challenges for governance in a digital age. Part of the reason for these

challenges is that our law evolved in a radically different age and time. The

law evolved instruments of governance in incremental stages. They were

suited to the social, political and economic context of the time. The forms of

expression which the law codified were developed when paper was

ubiquitous. The limits of paper allowed for a certain freedom: the freedom of

individuality and the liberty of being obscure. Governance with paper could

lapse into governance on paper. Technology has become a universal

language which straddles culture and language. It confronts institutions of

governance with new problems. Many of them have no ready answers.

2 Technology questions the assumptions which underlie our processes of

reasoning. It reshapes the dialogue between citizens and the state. Above all,

it tests the limits of the doctrines which democracies have evolved as a shield

which preserves the sanctity of the individual.

6 PART A

3 In understanding the interface between governance, technology and

freedom, this case will set the course for the future. Our decision must

address the dialogue between technology and power. The decision will

analyse the extent to which technology has reconfigured the role of the state

and has the potential to reset the lines which mark off no-fly zones: areas

where the sanctity of the individual is inviolable. Our path will define our

commitment to limited government. Technology confronts the future of

freedom itself.

4 Granville Austin, the eminent scholar of the Indian Constitution had

prescient comments on the philosophy of the Indian Constitution. He found it

in three strands:

“The Constitution…may be summarized as having three strands: protecting and enhancing national unity and integrity; establishing the institutions and spirit of democracy; and fostering a social revolution to better the mass of Indians...the three strands are mutually dependent and inextricably intertwined. Social revolution could not be sought or gained at the expense of democracy. Nor could India be truly democratic unless the social revolution had to establish a just society. Without national unity, democracy would be endangered and there would be little progress toward social and economic reform. And without democracy and reform, the nation would not hold together. With these three strands, the framers had spun a seamless web. Undue strain on, or slackness in any one strand would distort the web and risk its destruction and, with it, the destruction of the nation. Maintaining harmony between the strands predictably would present those who later work the Constitution with great difficulties…”2

2 Granville Austin, Working a Democratic Constitution: A History of the Indian Experience, Oxford University Press (2003) at page 6

7 PART A

These three strands are much like the polycentric web of which Lon Fuller has

spoken.3 A pull on one strand shakes the balance between the others. The

equilibrium between them preserves the equilibrium of the Constitution.

5 This Court has been tasked with adjudicating on the constitutional

validity of the Aadhaar project. The difficulties that Granville Austin had

predicted would arise in harmonising the strands of the “seamless web” are

manifested in the present case. This case speaks to the need to harmonise

the commitment to social welfare while safeguarding the fundamental values

of a liberal constitutional democracy.

6 To usher in a social revolution, India espoused the framework of a

welfare state. The Directive Principles are its allies. The state is mandated to

promote the welfare of its citizens by securing and protecting as effectively as

possible a social order in which there is social, economic and political justice.

Government plays a vital role in the social and economic upliftment of the

nation’s citizenry by espousing equitable distribution of resources and creating

equal opportunities. These are ideals that are meant to guide and govern

State action. The State’s commitment to improve welfare is manifested

through the measures and programmes which it pursues.

3 Lon L. Fuller and Kenneth I. Winston, The Forms and Limits of Adjudication, Harvard Law Review, Vol. 92, (1978), at pages 353-409

8 PART A

7 The Constitution of India incorporated a charter of human freedoms in

Part III and a vision of transformative governance in Part IV. Through its rights

jurisprudence, this Court has attempted to safeguard the rights in Part III and

to impart enforceability to at least some of the Part IV rights by reading them

into the former, as intrinsic to a constitutionally protected right to dignity. The

Directive Principles are a reminder of the positive duties which the state has to

its citizens. While social welfare is a foundational value, the Constitution is the

protector of fundamental human rights. In subserving both those ideals, it has

weaved a liberal political order where individual rights and freedoms are at the

heart of a democratic society. The Constitution seeks to fulfil its liberal values

by protecting equality, dignity, privacy, autonomy, expression and other

freedoms.

8 Two recent books have explored the complexities of human identity. In

“The Lies That Bind: Rethinking Identity”4, Kwame Anthony Appiah states that

a liberal constitutional democracy is not a fate but a project. He draws

inspiration from the Roman playwright Terence who observes: “I am human. I

think nothing human alien to me.” Francis Fukuyama, on the other hand has a

distinct nuance about identity. In “Identity: The Demand for Dignity and the

Politics of Enlightenment5, he writes about how nations can facilitate

“integrative national identities” based on liberal democratic values. Reviewing

the books, Anand Giridharadas noted that Fukuyama’s sense of identity is

4 Kwame Anthony Appiah, The Lies That Bind: Rethinking Identity, Liveright Publishing (2018). 5 Francis Fukuyama, Identity: The Demand for Dignity and the Politics of Enlightenment, Farrar, Straus and Giroux (2018).

9 PART A

“large enough to be inclusive but small enough to give people a real sense of

agency over their society.”6. Appiah and Fukuyama present two variants – for

Appiah it has a cosmopolitan and global nature while it is more integrated with

a nation state, for Fukuyama, though firmly rooted in a liberal constitutional

order.

9 India has participated in and benefited from the reconfiguring of

technology by the global community. We live in an age of information and are

witness to a technological revolution that pervades almost every aspect of our

lives. Redundancies and obsolescence are as ubiquitous as technology itself.

Technology is a great enabler. Technology can be harnessed by the State in

furthering access to justice and fostering good governance.

10 In an age symbolised by an information revolution, society is witnessing

a shift to a knowledge economy7. In a knowledge economy, growth is

dependent on the ‘quantity, quality, and accessibility’8 of information. The

quest for digital India must nonetheless be cognisant of the digital divide.

Access confronts serious impediments. Large swathes of the population have

little or no access to the internet or to the resources required for access to

information. With the growth of the knowledge economy, our constitutional

jurisprudence has expanded privacy rights. A digital nation must not submerge

6 Anand Giridharadas, ‘What is Identity?’, The New York Times, 27 August, 2018. 7 Peter F Drucker, The Age of Discontinuity: Guidelines to Our Changing Society, Harper & Row (1969). Drucker’s book popularized the term ‘Knowledge Economy’. 8 ‘What is Knowledge Economy?’, IGI Global: Disseminator of Knowledge, available at:

https://www.igi-global.com/dictionary/indigenous-knowledges-and-knowledge-codification-in-the-knowledge- economy/16327

10 PART A

the identities of a digitised citizen. While data is the new oil, it still eludes the

life of the average citizen. If access to welfare entitlements is tagged to unique

data sets, skewed access to informational resources should not lead to

perpetuating the pre-existing inequalities of access to public resources. An

identification project that involves the collection of the biometric and

demographic information of 1.3 billion people9, creating the largest biometric

identity project in the world, must be scrutinized carefully to assess its

compliance with human rights.

11 Empowered by the technology that accompanied the advent of the

information age, the Aadhaar project was envisioned and born. The project is

a centralised nation-wide identification system based on biometric technology.

It aims to be a game changer in the delivery of welfare benefits through the

use of technology. The project seeks to facilitate de-duplication, prevent

revenue leakages and ensure a more cost and time efficient procedure for

identification. Conceptualised on the use of biometrics and authentication, the

Aadhaar identity card was originally introduced as a matter of voluntary

choice. It was made a requirement for state subsidies and benefits for which,

expenses are incurred from the Consolidated Fund of India. It was later

expanded to become necessary to avail of a host of other services. The

project is multifaceted and expansive. Perhaps no similar national identity

program exists in the world. The Aadhaar project has multifarious aspects, all

9 Krishnadas Rajagopal, ‘Aadhaar in numbers: key figures from UIDAI CEO’s presentation to the Supreme Court’, The Hindu, (March 22, 2018). Aadhaar enrollment as of March 2018 stood at over 1 billion.

11 PART A

of which have been the subject of a detailed challenge by the Petitioners.

They have been met with an equally strong defence from the government,

which has argued that the programme is indispensable to curb corruption,

fraud and black money.

12 The Aadhaar project raises two crucial questions: First, are there

competing interests between human rights and ‘welfare furthering technology’

in democratic societies? Can technologies which are held out to bring

opportunities for growth, also violate fundamental human freedoms? Second,

if the answer to the first is in the affirmative, how should the balance be struck

between these competing interests?

13 Efficiency is a significant facet of institutional governance. But

efficiencies can compromise dignity. When efficiency becomes a universal

mantra to steam-roll fundamental freedoms, there is a danger of a society

crossing the line which divides democracy from authoritarian cultures. At the

heart of the grounds on which the Aadhaar project has been challenged, lies

the issue of power. Our Constitution is a transformative document in many

ways. One of them is in defining and limiting the State’s powers, while

expanding the ambit of individual rights and liberties. It protects citizens from

totalitarian excesses and establishes order between the organs of the State,

between the State and citizens and between citizens. Most importantly, it

reaffirms the position of the individual as the core defining element of the

12 PART A

polity. That is the justification to restrain power by empowering all citizens to

be authors of their destiny. According to the Petitioners, the technological

potential as well as the actual implementation of the Aadhaar project alters the

balance between the state and its citizens in this relational sphere and has the

potential to permanently redistribute power within the constitutional

framework.

14 As far as citizen-state relations are concerned, the Constitution was

framed to balance the rights of the individual against legitimate State interests.

Being transformative, it has to be interpreted to meet the needs of a changing

society. As the interpreter of the Constitution, it is the duty of this Court to be

vigilant against State action that threatens to upset the fine balance between

the power of the state and rights of citizens and to safeguard the liberties that

inhere in our citizens.

15 The present case involves issues that travel to the heart of our

constitutional structure as a democracy governed by the rule of law. Among

them is the scope of this Court’s power of judicial review. The Aadhaar

legislation was passed as a money bill in the Lok Sabha. Whether it was

permissible, in constitutional terms, to by-pass the Rajya Sabha, is the

question. The role of the Rajya Sabha in a bicameral legislative structure, the

limits of executive power when it affects fundamental rights and the duty of the

13 PART A

state to abide by interim orders of this Court are matters which will fall for

analysis in the case.

16 The case is hence as much about the rule of law and institutional

governance. Accountability is a key facet of the rule of law. Professor

Upendra Baxi has remarked:

“The problem of human rights, in situations of mass poverty, is thus one of redistribution, access and needs. In other words, it is a problem of “development”, a process of planned social change through continuing exercise of public power. As there is no assurance that public power will always, or even in most cases, be exercised in favour of the deprived and dispossessed, an important conception of development itself is accountability, by the wielders of public power, to the people affected by it and people at large. Accountability is the medium through which we can strike and maintain a balance between the governors and the governed.”10

These are some of the unique challenges of this case. They must be analysed

in the context of our constitutional framework. The all-encompassing nature of

the Aadhaar project, its magnitude and the resultant impact on citizens’

fundamental rights, make it imperative to closely scrutinize the structure and

effect of the project. For this will determine the future of freedom.

10 Upendra Baxi, The Right To Be Human: Some Heresies, India International Centre Quarterly, Vol. 13, (1986).

14 PART B

B The Puttaswamy11 principles

17 A unanimous verdict by a nine judge Bench declared privacy to be

constitutionally protected, as a facet of liberty, dignity and individual

autonomy. In a voluminous judgment, the Court traced the origins of privacy

and its content. The decision lays down the test of proportionality to evaluate

the constitutional validity of restrictions on the right to privacy.

18 The protection of privacy emerges both from its status as a natural right

inhering in every individual as well as its position as “a constitutionally

protected right”. As a constitutional protection, privacy traces itself to the

guarantee of life and personal liberty in Article 21 of the Constitution as well as

to other facets of freedom and dignity recognized and guaranteed by the

fundamental rights contained in Part III.

B.I Origins: privacy as a natural right

19 Puttaswamy holds that the right to privacy inheres in every individual

as a natural right. It is inalienable and attaches to every individual as a pre-

condition for being able to exercise their freedom. The judgment of four judges

(with which Justice Sanjay Kishan Kaul concurred) held :

“42. Privacy is a concomitant of the right of the individual to exercise control over his or her personality. It finds an origin

11 Justice K S Puttaswamy (Retd) v Union of India (“Puttaswamy”), (2017) 10 SCC 1

15 PART B

in the notion that there are certain rights which are natural to or inherent in a human being. Natural rights are inalienable because they are inseparable from the human personality.”12 (Emphasis supplied)

“319. Life and personal liberty are not creations of the Constitution. These rights are recognised by the Constitution as inhering in each individual as an intrinsic and inseparable part of the human element which dwells within.”13 (Emphasis supplied)

In his concurring opinion, S A Bobde, J. opined:

“392…Privacy, with which we are here concerned, eminently qualifies as an inalienable natural right, intimately connected to two values whose protection is a matter of universal moral agreement: the innate dignity and autonomy of man.”14 (Emphasis supplied)

Similarly, in his concurring opinion, Nariman, J. opined:

“532…It was, therefore, argued before us that given the international conventions referred to hereinabove and the fact that this right inheres in every individual by virtue of his being a human being, such right is not conferred by the Constitution but is only recognized and given the status of being fundamental. There is no doubt that the petitioners are correct in this submission.”15 (Emphasis supplied)

In his concurring opinion, Abhay Manohar Sapre, J. opined:

“557. In my considered opinion, “right to privacy of any individual” is essentially a natural right, which inheres in every human being by birth…It is indeed inseparable and inalienable from human being.”16 (Emphasis supplied)

12 Ibid, at page 365 13 Ibid, at page 508 14 Ibid, at pages 536-537 15 Ibid, at page 605 16 Ibid, at page 614

16 PART B

The judgment authoritatively settles the position. While privacy is recognized

and protected by the Constitution as an intrinsic and inseparable part of life,

liberty and dignity, it inheres in every individual as a natural right.

B.2 Privacy as a constitutionally protected right : liberty and dignity

20 The judgment placed the individual at the centre of the constitutional

rights regime. The individual lies at the core of constitutional focus. The ideals

of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity animate the vision of securing a

dignified existence to the individual. The Court held that privacy attaches to

the person and not the place where it is associated. Holding that privacy

protects the autonomy of the individual and the right to make choices, the

judgment of four judges held:

“108….The individual is the focal point of the Constitution because it is in the realisation of individual rights that the collective well being of the community is determined. Human dignity is an integral part of the Constitution.17

“266. Our Constitution places the individual at the forefront of its focus, guaranteeing civil and political rights in Part III and embodying an aspiration for achieving socio-economic rights in Part IV.” (Emphasis supplied)

It was held that privacy rests in every individual “irrespective of social class or

economic status” and that every person is entitled to the intimacy and

autonomy that privacy protects:

17 Ibid, at page 403

17 PART B

“271...It is privacy as an intrinsic and core feature of life and personal liberty which enables an individual to stand up against a programme of forced sterilization. Then again, it is privacy which is a powerful guarantee if the State were to introduce compulsory drug trials of non-consenting men or women. The sanctity of marriage, the liberty of procreation, the choice of a family life and the dignity of being are matters which concern every individual irrespective of social strata or economic well being. The pursuit of happiness is founded upon autonomy and dignity. Both are essential attributes of privacy which makes no distinction between the birth marks of individuals.”18 (Emphasis supplied)

21 Recognizing that civil-political rights are not subservient to socio-

economic rights, the Court held that “conditions necessary for realizing or

fulfilling socio-economic rights do not postulate the subversion of political

freedom.”

“266...The refrain that the poor need no civil and political rights and are concerned only with economic well-being has been utilised through history to wreak the most egregious violations of human rights. Above all, it must be realised that it is the right to question, the right to scrutinize and the right to dissent which enables an informed citizenry to scrutinize the actions of government. Those who are governed are entitled to question those who govern, about the discharge of their constitutional duties including in the provision of socio- economic welfare benefits. The power to scrutinize and to reason enables the citizens of a democratic polity to make informed decisions on basic issues which govern their rights.19

267... Conditions of freedom and a vibrant assertion of civil and political rights promote a constant review of the justness of socio-economic programmes and of their effectiveness in addressing deprivation and want. Scrutiny of public affairs is founded upon the existence of freedom. Hence civil and political rights and socio-economic rights are complementary and not mutually exclusive.”20

18 Ibid, at page 484 19 Ibid, at pages 481-482 20 Ibid, at page 482

18 PART B

Significantly, the Court rejected the submission that there is a conflict between

civil-political rights and socio-economic rights. Both in the view of the Court

are an integral part of the constitutional vision of justice.

22 Privacy, it was held, reflects the right of the individual to exercise control

over his or her personality. This makes privacy the heart of human dignity and

liberty. Liberty and dignity are complementary constitutional entities. Privacy

was held to be integral to liberty. Privacy facilitates the realization of

constitutional freedoms. This Court held thus:

“119. To live is to live with dignity. The draftsmen of the Constitution defined their vision of the society in which constitutional values would be attained by emphasising, among other freedoms, liberty and dignity. So fundamental is dignity that it permeates the core of the rights guaranteed to the individual by Part III. Dignity is the core which unites the fundamental rights because the fundamental rights seek to achieve for each individual the dignity of existence. Privacy with its attendant values assures dignity to the individual and it is only when life can be enjoyed with dignity can liberty be of true substance. Privacy ensures the fulfilment of dignity and is a core value which the protection of life and liberty is intended to achieve.”21

127...The right to privacy is an element of human dignity. The sanctity of privacy lies in its functional relationship with dignity. Privacy ensures that a human being can lead a life of dignity by securing the inner recesses of the human personality from unwanted intrusion. Privacy recognises the autonomy of the individual and the right of every person to make essential choices which affect the course of life. In doing so privacy recognises that living a life of dignity is essential for a human being to fulfil the liberties and freedoms which are the cornerstone of the Constitution.”22

21 Ibid, at pages 406-407 22 Ibid, at page 413

19 PART B

23 The assurance of human dignity enhances the quality of life. The

“functional relationship” between privacy and dignity secures the “inner

recesses of the human personality from unwanted intrusion”. Privacy by

recognizing the autonomy of an individual, protects the right to make choices

essential to a dignified life. It thus enables the realization of constitutional

liberties and freedoms. It was held in the judgment:

“322. Privacy is the constitutional core of human dignity. Privacy has both a normative and descriptive function. At a normative level privacy sub-serves those eternal values upon which the guarantees of life, liberty and freedom are founded. At a descriptive level, privacy postulates a bundle of entitlements and interests which lie at the foundation of ordered liberty.23

298…Dignity cannot exist without privacy. Both reside within the inalienable values of life, liberty and freedom which the Constitution has recognised. Privacy is the ultimate expression of the sanctity of the individual. It is a constitutional value which straddles across the spectrum of fundamental rights and protects for the individual a zone of choice and self-determination.”24

24 Privacy is founded on the autonomy of the individual. The ability to

make choices is at the core of the human personality. Its inviolable nature is

manifested in the ability to make intimate decisions about oneself with a

legitimate expectation of privacy. Privacy guarantees constitutional protection

to all aspects of personhood. Privacy was held to be an “essential condition”

for the exercise of most freedoms. As such, given that privacy and liberty are

intertwined, privacy is necessary for the exercise of liberty. Bobde J, in his

separate opinion held that:

23 Ibid, at page 508 24 Ibid, at page 499

20 PART B

“409...Liberty and privacy are integrally connected in a way that privacy is often the basic condition necessary for exercise of the right of personal liberty. There are innumerable activities which are virtually incapable of being performed at all and in many cases with dignity unless an individual is left alone or is otherwise empowered to ensure his or her privacy.25

411... Both dignity and privacy are intimately intertwined and are natural conditions for the birth and death of individuals, and for many significant events in life between these events. Necessarily, then, the right of privacy is an integral part of both ‘life’ and ‘personal liberty’ under Article 21, and is intended to enable the rights bearer to develop her potential to the fullest extent made possible only in consonance with the constitutional values expressed in the Preamble as well as across Part III.”26

25 Apart from being a natural law right, the right to privacy was held to be a

constitutionally protected right flowing from Article 21. Privacy is an

indispensable element of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21

and as a constitutional value which is embodied in the fundamental freedoms

embedded in Part III of the Constitution. Tracing out the course of precedent

in Indian jurisprudence over the last four decades, the view of four judges

holds:

“103. The right to privacy has been traced in the decisions which have been rendered over more than four decades to the guarantee of life and personal liberty in Article 21 and the freedoms set out in Article 19.”27

“320. Privacy is a constitutionally protected right which emerges primarily from the guarantee of life and personal liberty in Article 21 of the Constitution…”28

25 Ibid, at page 543 26 Ibid, at page 544 27 Ibid, at page 401 28 Ibid, at page 508

21 PART B

In a similar vein, Chelameswar J. while concurring with the view of four judges

held:

“375. The right to privacy is certainly one of the core freedoms which is to be defended. It is part of liberty within the meaning of that expression in Article 21.”29

26 Being indispensable to dignity and liberty, and essential to the exercise

of freedoms aimed at the self-realization of every individual, privacy was held

to be a common theme running across the freedoms and rights guaranteed

not just by Article 21, but all of Part III of the Constitution. Bobde J. in his

separate opinion held that:

“406. It is not possible to truncate or isolate the basic freedom to do an activity in seclusion from the freedom to do the activity itself. The right to claim a basic condition like privacy in which guaranteed fundamental rights can be exercised must itself be regarded as a fundamental right. Privacy, thus, constitutes the basic, irreducible condition necessary for the exercise of ‘personal liberty’ and freedoms guaranteed by the Constitution. It is the inarticulate major premise in Part III of the Constitution.30

415. Privacy is the necessary condition precedent to the enjoyment of any of the guarantees in Part III. As a result, when it is claimed by rights bearers before constitutional courts, a right to privacy may be situated not only in Article 21, but also simultaneously in any of the other guarantees in Part III. In the current state of things, Articles 19(1), 20(3), 25, 28 and 29 are all rights helped up and made meaningful by the exercise of privacy.” (Emphasis supplied)

29 Ibid, at page 531 30 Ibid, at pages 541-542

22 PART B

B.3 Contours of privacy

27 Privacy has been held to have distinct connotations including (i) spatial

control; (ii) decisional autonomy; and (iii) informational control. The judgment

of four judges held that:

“248. Spatial control denotes the creation of private spaces. Decisional autonomy comprehends intimate personal choices such as those governing reproduction as well as choices expressed in public such as faith or modes of dress. Informational control empowers the individual to use privacy as a shield to retain personal control over information pertaining to the person.”

Similarly, Nariman J. in his separate opinion held:

“521. In the Indian context, a fundamental right to privacy would cover at least the following three aspects: • Privacy that involves the person i.e. when there is some invasion by the State of a person’s rights relatable to his physical body, such as the right to move freely; • Informational privacy which does not deal with a person’s body but deals with a person’s mind, and therefore recognizes that an individual may have control over the dissemination of material that is personal to him. Unauthorised use of such information may, therefore lead to infringement of this right; and • The privacy of choice, which protects an individual’s autonomy over fundamental personal choices.”31

28 However, it was held that this is not an exhaustive formulation of

entitlements. In recording its conclusions, the opinion of four judges held:

“324. This Court has not embarked upon an exhaustive enumeration or a catalogue of entitlements or interests comprised in the right to privacy. The Constitution must evolve with the felt necessities of time to meet the challenges thrown up in a democratic order governed by the rule of law. The meaning of the Constitution cannot be

31 Ibid, at page 598

23 PART B

frozen on the perspectives present when it was adopted.

Technological change has given rise to concerns which were not present seven decades ago and the rapid growth of technology may render obsolescent many notions of the present. Hence the interpretation of the Constitution must be resilient and flexible to allow future generations to adapt its content bearing in mind its basic or essential features.”32 (Emphasis supplied)

Additionally, Bobde J., in his separate opinion held that the right to privacy

may also inhere in other parts of the Constitution beyond those specified in

the judgment:

“415. Therefore, privacy is the necessary condition precedent to the enjoyment of any of the guarantees in Part III. As a result, when it is claimed by rights bearers before constitutional courts, a right to privacy may be situated not only in Article 21, but also simultaneously in any of the other guarantees in Part III. In the current state of things, Articles 19(1), 20(3), 25, 28 and 29 are all rights helped up and made meaningful by the exercise of privacy. This is not an exhaustive list. Future developments in technology and social ordering may well reveal that there are yet more constitutional sites in which a privacy right inheres that are not at present evident to us.”33 (Emphasis supplied)

B.4 Informational privacy

29 Puttaswamy held that informational privacy is an essential aspect of

the fundamental right to privacy. It protects an individual’s free, personal

conception of the ‘self.’ Justice Nariman held that informational privacy “deals

with a person’s mind, and therefore recognizes that an individual may have

control over the dissemination of material that is personal to him”. Any

unauthorised use of such information may therefore lead to infringement of the

32 Ibid, at page 509 33 Ibid, at page 545

24 PART B

right to privacy. In his concurring judgment, Justice Kaul held that

informational privacy provides the right to an individual “to disseminate certain

personal information for limited purposes alone”. Kaul J. in his separate

opinion held:

“620…The boundaries that people establish from others in society are not only physical but also informational. There are different kinds of boundaries in respect to different relations. Privacy assists in preventing awkward social situations and reducing social frictions. Most of the information about individuals can fall under the phrase “none of your business”. … An individual has the right to control one’s life while submitting personal data for various facilities and services. It is but essential that the individual knows as to what the data is being used for with the ability to correct and amend it. The hallmark of freedom in a democracy is having the autonomy and control over our lives which becomes impossible, if important decisions are made in secret without our awareness or participation.”34 (Emphasis supplied)

30 A reasonable expectation of privacy requires that data collection does

not violate the autonomy of an individual. The judgment of four judges noted

the centrality of consent in a data protection regime. This was also highlighted

in the separate concurring opinion of Justice Kaul:

“625. Every individual should have a right to be able to exercise control over his/her own life and image as portrayed to the world and to control commercial use of his/her identity. This also means that an individual may be permitted to prevent others from using his image, name and other aspects of his/her personal life and identity for commercial purposes without his/her consent.”35

34 Ibid, at page 627 35 Ibid, at page 629

25 PART B

Consent, transparency and control over information are crucial to

informational privacy. In this structure, Court has principally focused on the

“individual” as central to our jurisprudence.

B.5 Restricting the right to privacy

31 There is an inherent importance of giving a constitutional status to

privacy. Justice Nariman dealt with this:

“490...The recognition of such right in the fundamental rights chapter of the Constitution is only a recognition that such right exists notwithstanding the shifting sands of majority governments. Statutes may protect fundamental rights; they may also infringe them. In case any existing statute or any statute to be made in the future is an infringement of the inalienable right to privacy, this Court would then be required to test such statute against such fundamental right and if it is found that there is an infringement of such right, without any countervailing societal or public interest, it would be the duty of this Court to declare such legislation to be void as offending the fundamental right to privacy.”36

A constitutional right may embody positive and negative ‘aspects’. They

signify mandates. At an affirmative level, they emphasise the content and

diversity of our liberties. As a ‘negative’, they impose restraints on the state

and limit the power of the state to intrude upon the area of personal freedom.

‘Negative’ in this sense reflects a restraint: the fundamental rights are a

restraining influence on the authority of power. In addition to keeping itself

within the bounds of its authority, the state may have a positive obligation to

perform. Rights such as informational privacy and data protection mandate

36 Ibid, at pages 580-581

26 PART B

that the state must bring into being a viable legal regime which recognizes,

respects, protects and enforces informational privacy. Informational privacy

requires the state to protect it by adopting positive steps to safeguard its

cluster of entitlements. The right to informational privacy is not only vertical

(asserted and protected against state actors) but horizontal as well.

Informational privacy requires legal protection because the individual cannot

be left to an unregulated market place. Access to and exploitation of individual

personal data – whether by state or non-state entities – must be governed by

a legal regime built around the principles of consent, transparency and

individual control over data at all times.

32 Privacy, being an intrinsic component of the right to life and personal

liberty, it was held that the limitations which operate on those rights, under

Article 21, would operate on the right to privacy. Any restriction on the right to

privacy would therefore be subjected to strict constitutional scrutiny. The

constitutional requirements for testing the validity of any encroachment on

privacy were dealt with in the judgment as follows:

“325… In the context of Article 21 an invasion of privacy must be justified on the basis of a law which stipulates a procedure which is fair, just and reasonable. The law must also be valid with reference to the encroachment on life and personal liberty under Article 21. An invasion of life or personal liberty must meet the three-fold requirement of (i) legality, which postulates the existence of law; (ii) need, defined in terms of a legitimate state aim; and (iii) proportionality which ensures a rational nexus between the objects and the means adopted to achieve them.”37

37 Ibid, at page 509

27 PART B

These three-fold requirements emerge from the procedural and content-based

mandate of Article 21. The first requirement is the enactment of a valid law,

which justifies an encroachment on privacy. The second requirement of a

legitimate State aim ensures that the law enacted to restrict privacy is

constitutionally reasonable and does not suffer from manifest arbitrariness.

The third requirement of proportionality ensures that the nature and quality of

the encroachment on the right to privacy is not disproportionate to the purpose

of the law. Proportionality requires the State to justify that the means which

are adopted by the legislature would encroach upon the right to privacy only to

the minimum degree necessary to achieve its legitimate interest.

Justice Nariman held thus:

“495…Statutory provisions that deal with aspects of privacy would continue to be tested on the ground that they would violate the fundamental right to privacy, and would not be struck down, if it is found on a balancing test that the social or public interest and the reasonableness of the restrictions would outweigh the particular aspect of privacy claimed. If this is so, then statutes which would enable the State to contractually obtain information about persons would pass muster in given circumstances, provided they safeguard the individual right to privacy as well… in pursuance of a statutory requirement, if certain details need to be given for the concerned statutory purpose, then such details would certainly affect the right to privacy, but would on a balance, pass muster as the State action concerned has sufficient inbuilt safeguards to protect this right – viz. the fact that such information cannot be disseminated to anyone else, save on compelling grounds of public interest.”38

33 While five judges of the Court adopted the “proportionality” standard to

test a law infringing privacy, Justice Chelameswar discussed the need to

38 Ibid, at page 583

28 PART B

apply of a “compelling state interest” standard, describing it as the “highest

standard of scrutiny that a court can adopt”. Describing Article 21 as the

“bedrock” of privacy, the learned Judge held:

“379…If the spirit of liberty permeates every claim of privacy, it is difficult if not impossible to imagine that any standard of limitation, other than the one under Article 21 applies.39

380. The just, fair and reasonable standard of review under Article 21 needs no elaboration. It has also most commonly been used in cases dealing with a privacy claim hitherto.

Gobind resorted to the compelling state interest standard in addition to the Article 21 reasonableness enquiry. From the United States where the terminology of ‘compelling state interest’ originated, a strict standard of scrutiny comprises two things- a ‘compelling state interest’ and a requirement of ‘narrow tailoring’ (narrow tailoring means that the law must be narrowly framed to achieve the objective). As a term, compelling state interest does not have definite contours in the US. Hence, it is critical that this standard be adopted with some clarity as to when and in what types of privacy claims it is to be used. Only in privacy claims which deserve the strictest scrutiny is the standard of compelling State interest to be used. As for others, the just, fair and reasonable standard under Article 21 will apply. When the compelling State interest standard is to be employed must depend upon the context of concrete cases.”40 (Emphasis supplied)

Justice Chelameswar’s view accepts the ‘fair, just and reasonable’ standard in

the generality of cases, carving an exception in cases of a certain category

where a heightened scrutiny must apply. Those categories of exception are

not spelt out. They would, as the judge opined, be evolved on a case by case

basis.

39 Ibid, at page 532 40 Ibid, at pages 532-533

29 PART B

34 The Bench of nine judges had held that the contours of privacy exist

across the spectrum of constitutionally protected freedoms. Privacy was held

to be a necessary condition precedent to the enjoyment of the guarantees in

Part III. This has enhanced the scope of the protection guaranteed to privacy.

Consequently, privacy infringements will generally have to satisfy the other

tests applicable apart from those under Article 21. In his concurring opinion,

Justice S A Bobde held:

“427. Once it is established that privacy imbues every constitutional freedom with its efficacy and that it can be located in each of them, it must follow that interference with it by the state must be tested against whichever one or more Part III guarantees whose enjoyment is curtailed. As a result, privacy violations will usually have to answer to tests in addition to the one applicable to Article 21, Such a view would be wholly consistent with R. C. Cooper v. Union of India.”41 (Emphasis supplied)

Any attempt by the State to restrict privacy must therefore meet the

constitutional requirements prescribed for each provision of Part III, which the

restriction infringes. In his concurring opinion, Justice Nariman held thus:

“488... Every State intrusion into privacy interests which deals with the physical body or the dissemination of information personal to an individual or personal choices relating to the individual would be subjected to the balancing test prescribed under the fundamental right that it infringes depending upon where the privacy interest claimed is founded.”42 (Emphasis supplied)

Justice Nariman further held:

“526…when it comes to restrictions on this right, the drill of various Articles to which the right relates must be scrupulously followed. For example, if the restraint on privacy is over fundamental personal choices that an

41 Ibid, at page 549 42 Ibid, at page 580

30 PART B

individual is to make, State action can be restrained under Article 21 read with Article 14 if it is arbitrary and unreasonable; and under Article 21 read with Article 19(1)(a) only if it relates to the subjects mentioned in Article 19(2) and the tests laid down by this Court for such legislation or subordinate legislation to pass muster under the said Article.

Each of the tests evolved by this Court, qua legislation or executive action, under Article 21 read with Article 14; or Article 21 read with Article 19(1) (a) in the aforesaid examples must be met in order that State action must pass muster.”43 (Emphasis supplied)

The constitutional guarantee on protection of privacy was placed on a sure

foundation. Since emanations of privacy are traceable to various rights

guaranteed by Part III, a law or executive action which encroaches on privacy

must meet the requirements of the constitutionally permissible restriction in

relation to each of the fundamental rights where the claim is founded.

B.6 Legitimate state interests

35 Recognizing that the right to privacy is not absolute, the judgment

recognizes that legitimate state interests may be a valid ground for the

curtailment of the right subject to the tests laid down for the protection of

rights. Justice Nariman held:

“526...This right is subject to reasonable regulations made by the State to protect legitimate State interests or public interest. However, when it comes to restrictions on this right, the drill of various Articles to which the right relates must be scrupulously followed.”44

43 Ibid, at page 601 44 Ibid, at page 601

31 PART B

Recognizing that a legitimate state aim is a pre-requisite for any restriction on

the right, the judgment of four judges held:

“310…the requirement of a need, in terms of a legitimate state aim, ensures that the nature and content of the law which imposes the restriction falls within the zone of reasonableness mandated by Article 14, which is a guarantee against arbitrary state action. The pursuit of a legitimate state aim ensures that the law does not suffer from manifest arbitrariness.”

36 The judgment sets out illustrations of legitimate State interests. The

provisos to various fundamental rights were held to be an obvious restriction

on the right to privacy. It was held that the State does have a legitimate

interest in collection and storage of private information when it is related to

security of the nation. Apart from the concerns of national security, an

important State interest, it was held, lies in ensuring that scarce public

resources reach the beneficiaries for whom they are intended. It was held

thus:

“311...Allocation of resources for human development is coupled with a legitimate concern that the utilisation of resources should not be siphoned away for extraneous purposes… Data mining with the object of ensuring that resources are properly deployed to legitimate beneficiaries is a valid ground for the state to insist on the collection of authentic data.”45

Prevention and investigation of crime, protection of the revenue and public

health were demarcated as being part of other legitimate aims of the State.

The judgment places an obligation on the State to ensure that while its

legitimate interests are duly preserved the data which the State collects is

45 Ibid, at page 505

32 PART B

used only for the legitimate purposes of the State and is “not to be utilised

unauthorizedly for extraneous purposes.”

37 However, reiterating that every facet of privacy is to be protected, the

judgment held that there should be a careful balance between individual

interests and legitimate concerns of the state. Justice Nariman, in his separate

opinion held:

“488. Every State intrusion into privacy interests which deals with the physical body or the dissemination of information personal to an individual or personal choices relating to the individual would be subjected to the balancing test prescribed under the fundamental right that it infringes depending upon where the privacy interest claimed is founded.”46

38 The judgment in Puttaswamy recognizes the right to privacy as a

constitutional guarantee protected as intrinsic to the freedoms guaranteed by

Part III of the Constitution. Privacy is integral to the realization of human

dignity and liberty. A society which protects privacy, values the worth of

individual self-realization. For it is in the abyss of solitude that the innermost

recesses of the mind find solace to explore within and beyond.

46 Ibid, at page 580

33 PART C

C Submissions

C.I Petitioners’ submissions

The petitioners challenge the constitutional validity of:

a. The Aadhaar programme that operated between 28.01.2009 till the coming

into force of the Aadhaar Act, 2016 on 12.07.2016;

b. The Aadhaar Act, 2016 (and alternatively certain provisions of the Act);

c. Regulations framed under the Aadhaar Act, 2016;

d. Elements of the Aadhaar programme that continue to operate without the

cover of the Act;

e. Subordinate legislation including the Money Laundering (Amendment)

Rules, 2017;

f. All notifications issued under Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act in so far as they

make Aadhaar mandatory for availing of certain benefits, services and

subsidies; and

g. Actions which made Aadhaar mandatory even where the activity is not

covered by Section 7 of the Act.

Mr Shyam Divan, learned Senior Counsel submitted that the Aadhaar project

and Act are ultra vires on the following grounds:

i The project and the Act violate the fundamental right to privacy;

34 PART C

ii The architecture of the Aadhaar project enables pervasive surveillance by

the State;

iii The fundamental constitutional feature of a ‘limited government’ - which is

the sovereignty of the people and limited government authority- is changed

completely post Aadhaar and reverses the relationship between the citizen

and the State;

iv Due to the unreliability of biometric technology, there are authentication

failures which lead to the exclusion of individuals from welfare schemes;

v A citizen or resident in a democratic society has a choice to identify herself

through different modes in the course of her interactions generally in

society, as well as in her interactions with the State. Mandating

identification by only one mode is highly intrusive, excessive and

disproportionate and violates Articles 14, 19 and 21; and

vi The procedure adopted by the State before and after the enactment of the

law is violative of Articles 14 and 21 because:

a. There is no informed consent at the time of enrolment;

b. UIDAI does not have control over the enrolling agencies and

requesting entities that collect sensitive personal information which

facilitates capture, storage and misuse of information; and

35 PART C

c. The data collected and uploaded into the CIDR is not verified by any

government official designated by UIDAI.

Mr Kapil Sibal, learned Senior Counsel submits that the provisions of the

Aadhaar Act are unconstitutional for the following reasons:

i The aggregation and concentration of sensitive personal information under

the Aadhaar Act is impermissible because it is capable of being used to

affect every aspect of an individual’s personal, professional, religious and

social life. It is therefore violative of the individual freedoms guaranteed

under Articles 19(1)(a) to 19(1)(g), 21 and 25 of the Constitution;

ii Such aggregation of information is also an infringement of informational

privacy, which has been recognised in Puttaswamy;

iii Making Aadhaar mandatory unreasonably deprives citizens of basic rights

and entitlements and infringes Article 21 of the Constitution;

iv Use of Aadhaar as an exclusive identity for availing of subsidies, benefits

and services is disproportionate and violates Article 14 for being arbitrary

and discriminatory against persons otherwise entitled to such benefits;

v Collection and storage of data with the government under the Aadhaar Act

is violative of the right to protection from self-incrimination, and the right to

36 PART C

privacy and personal dignity and bodily Integrity envisaged under Article

20(3) and Article 21 of the Constitution;

vi To prescribe that Aadhaar is the only identity that enables a person to

receive entitlements is contrary to the right of an individual under the

Constitution to identify the person through other prescribed documentation

such as electoral rolls or passports;

vii Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act is applicable only to such subsidies, benefits

and services, for which the entire expenditure is directly incurred from the

Consolidated Fund of India or from which the entire receipts directly form

part of the Consolidated Fund of India;

viii Use of Aadhaar as the sole identity will not prevent pilferage and diversion

of funds and subsidies, as faulty identification is only one of the factors that

contributes to it; and

ix The Aadhaar project conditions the grant of essential benefits upon the

surrender of individual rights.

Mr Gopal Subramanium, learned Senior Counsel, made the following

submissions:

37 PART C

i The Aadhaar project violates dignity under Article 21 of the Constitution as

recognised in the judgments- in Puttaswamy, NALSA47 and

Subramanian Swamy48;

ii The Aadhaar project is unconstitutional as it seeks a waiver of

fundamental rights;

iii The Aadhaar project violates the guarantees of substantive and

procedural reasonableness under Articles 14,19 and 21;

iv Aadhaar perpetrates exclusion from social security schemes and is

therefore discriminatory under Article 14;

v The Aadhaar Act lacks legitimacy in its object in so far as it validates a

breach of fundamental rights retrospectively;

vi Rights and entitlements conferred under the Constitution cannot be based

on algorithmic probabilities which UIDAI cannot control;

vii No consequence is prescribed for non-authentication under the Aadhaar

Act;

viii The Aadhaar Act violates Part IX of the Constitution, which provides for

decentralisation (to Panchayats), while the Aadhaar scheme strikes at the

federal structure of the Constitution; and

47 (2014) 5 SCC 438 48 (2016) 7 SCC 221

38 PART C

ix Breaches under the Aadhaar Act cannot be cured.

Mr Arvind Datar, learned Senior Counsel has submitted:

i Rule 9 of the PMLA (Second Amendment) Rules, 2017 which requires

mandatory linking of Aadhaar with bank accounts is unconstitutional and

violates Articles 14, 19(1)(g), 21 and 300A of the Constitution, Sections 3,

7 and 51 of the Aadhaar Act, and is also ultra vires of the provisions of

the PMLA Act, 2002 on the following grounds:

a. Under the impugned amended Rules, linkage of Aadhaar numbers to

bank accounts is mandatory and persons not enrolling for Aadhaar

cannot operate a bank account, which violates the spirit of Article 14 in

entirety in so far it arbitrarily metes out unequal treatment based on

unreasonable classification;

b The impugned Rules are violative of Article 19(1)(g) as the Rules refer

to companies, firms, trusts, etc., whereas the Aadhaar Act is only to

establish identity of “individuals”;

c Non-operation of a bank account, even for a temporary period, leads

to deprivation of an individual's property and therefore constitutes a

violation under Article 300A of the Constitution, which provides that

deprivation can be done only by primary legislation; and

39 PART C

d The Rule has no nexus to the object of the PMLA Act, as the Act has

no provision to make bank accounts non-operational;

ii Section 139AA of the Income Tax Act, 1961 is liable to be struck down as

violative of Articles 14, 21 and 19(g) of the Constitution;

iii The decision in Binoy Viswam v Union of India49 requires re-

consideration in view of the nine judge Bench decision in Puttaswamy;

iv In view of serious deficiencies in the Aadhaar Act, there is a need for

guidelines under Article 142 to protect inter alia, the right to privacy and to

implement the mandate of the nine judge Bench in Puttaswamy;

v If the Aadhaar project is not struck down, it should be confined only for

identification or authentication of persons who are entitled to subsidies,

benefits and services for which expenditure is incurred from the

Consolidated Fund of India;

vi Sections 2(g), 2(j) 7, 57 and 59 of the Aadhaar Act violate Articles 14, 21

and 300A of the Constitution; and

vii PMLA Rule 9 is arbitrary as it is contrary to the RBI Master Circular

(issued in 2013), which provided a list of documents that were to be

treated as ‘identity proof’, in relation to proof of name and proof of

residence.

49(2017) 7 SCC 59

40 PART C

Mr P Chidambaram, learned Senior Counsel argued that the Aadhaar Act

could not have been passed as a Money Bill. Thus, he submitted:

i The only difference between financial bills and money bills is the term

“only” in Article 110 of the Constitution which implies that the scope of

money bills is narrower than the scope of financial bills and provisions

relating to money bills must thus be construed strictly;

ii The Aadhaar Act, which was passed as a money bill, should be struck

down since many of its provisions such as Section 57 have no relation to

the nature of a Money Bill and bear no nexus to the Consolidated Fund of

India;

iii Since Money Bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, on account of

the curtailment of the powers of the Rajya Sabha and the President, the

relevant provisions must be accorded a strict interpretation;

iv While Article 110(3) provides that the decision of the Speaker of the Lok

Sabha as to whether a Bill is a ‘Money Bill’ shall be final, the finality is

only with regard to the Parliament and does not exclude judicial review;

and

v Since the legislative procedure is illegal and the power of the Rajya

Sabha has been circumvented to disallow legislative scrutiny of the

41 PART C

Aadhaar bill, provisions of the Act cannot be severed to save the Act and

the Act is liable to be struck down as a whole by the Court.

Mr KV Vishwanathan, learned Senior Counsel made the following

submissions:

i All acts done prior to the passage of the Act are void ab initio and are not

saved or validated by Section 59. In any event, Section 59 is invalid;

ii Collection, storage and use of data under the Aadhaar project and Act

are invalid for the following reasons:

a. The Aadhaar Act and the surrounding infrastructure has made the

possession of Aadhaar de facto mandatory;

b. Compulsory collection of identity information violates various facets of

the right to privacy - bodily privacy, informational privacy and

decisional autonomy;

c. The Act is unconstitutional since it collects the identity information of

children between 5-18 years without parental consent;

d. Centralised storage of identity information and the unduly long period

of retention of transaction data and authentication records is

disproportionate;

42 PART C

e. The Act and Regulations preclude Aadhaar number holders from

accessing or correcting their identity information stored on the CIDR;

and

f. The Act and Regulations lack safeguards to secure sensitive personal

data.

iii Services like health related services, and those related to food, pensions

and daily wages claimed under Section 7 of the Act have been denied

because of biometric failure. Biometric infrastructure operates on a

probabilistic system, which cannot be ‘one hundred percent infallible’.

Thus, the State needs to take steps to prevent the denial of benefits by

adopting alternate methods for verification of identity. This is absent at

present, resulting in a violation of Articles 14 & 21;

iv No provision is made for a hearing against omission and deactivation of

the Aadhaar number, which violates the principles of natural justice; and

v Sections 2(g), 2(j), 2(k) and 23(2) of the Aadhaar Act suffer from

excessive delegation and the allied regulations are vague, manifestly

arbitrary and unreasonable.

Mr Anand Grover, learned Senior Counsel has submitted thus:

43 PART C

i The Aadhaar project extends far beyond the scope of the Aadhaar Act

with no procedural safeguards. Hence it violates Article 21 in as much as

it is without the support and sanction of law. The data collected is

unauthorised, excessive and being illegally shared;

ii The use of biometric technology to establish identity is uncertain,

unproven and unreliable leading to exclusion and a violation of Articles 14

and 21;

iii The lack of security in the Aadhaar project violates the right to privacy

under Article 21;

iv Excessive powers have been delegated to the UIDAI through the

Aadhaar Act; and

v Sections 33(2) and 57 of the Act are vague, overbroad and

constitutionally invalid.

Ms Meenakshi Arora, learned Senior Counsel contended that:

i The general and indiscriminate retention of personal data, including meta-

data, and the ensuing possibility of surveillance by the State has a chilling

effect on fundamental rights like the freedom of speech and expression,

privacy, and dignity;

44 PART C

ii Making Aadhaar the sole means of identification for various services

impinges upon dignity as it amounts to requiring a license for the exercise

of fundamental rights; and

iii The Aadhaar project does not contain any specific provisions for data

protection, apart from a mere general obligation on UIDAI, which is a

violation of the obligation of the State to ensure that the right to life,

liberty, dignity and privacy of every individual is not breached under Part

III of the Constitution.

Mr Sajjan Poovayya, learned Senior Counsel has urged the following

submissions:

i The Aadhaar Act fails to satisfy the constitutional test of a just, fair and

reasonable law;

ii Maintenance of Aadhaar records by the State under Section 32 is an

unwarranted intrusion by the State;

iii Use of personal information under Section 33 is an unwarranted intrusion

by the State;

iv Section 57 of the Act is contrary to the principle of purpose limitation; and

45 PART C

v Sections 2(g) and 2(j), the proviso to Section 3(1), Section 23(2)(g) and

Section 23(2)(n) read with Section 54(2)(l), and Section 29(4) of the Act

suffer from the vice of excessive delegation.

Mr CU Singh, learned Senior Counsel, argued that the rights of the child are

violated through the Aadhaar project. A child has no right to give consent or to

enter into a contract. A child in India, under law, has no power or right to bind

herself to anything, to consent or enter into contracts. In this background,

there is no compelling state interest to mandate Aadhaar for children. The

fundamental right of a child to education cannot be made subject to production

of Aadhaar. These requirements are not only contrary to domestic legislation

protecting the rights of children but also against India’s international

obligations. Learned counsel also spoke of the violation of the rights of

homeless people who are denied benefits due to the lack of a fixed abode.

Mr Sanjay Hegde, learned Senior Counsel has urged that since there is no

‘essential practice’ involved, exemptions must be allowed from the mandatory

nature of the Aadhaar Act on the grounds of freedom of conscience under

Article 25 of the Constitution.

Ms Jayna Kothari, learned Counsel arguing on behalf of an intervenor

organization for transgender persons and sexual minorities urged that the

46 PART C

Aadhaar Act discriminates against sexual minorities. Aadhaar Regulations

require demographic information. The enrolment form has a third gender, but

there is no uniformity across the board, and the documents that have to be

produced to get an Aadhaar card do not always have that option. Aadhaar is

being made mandatory for almost everything but transgender persons cannot

get an Aadhaar because they do not have the gender identity documents that

Aadhaar requires. This non-recognition of gender identity leads to denial of

benefits which is violative of both Articles 14 and 21.

It has also been argued before us in an intervention application that denial of

Aadhaar to Non-Resident Indians leads to discrimination when NRIs seek to

avail of basic services in India.

C.2 Respondents’ submissions

Mr KK Venugopal, Learned Attorney General for India, has submitted thus:

i. For the period prior to coming into force of the Aadhaar Act, because of

the interim orders passed by the SC, obtaining an Aadhaar number or

enrollment number was voluntary, and hence there was no violation of

any right;

ii. Section 59 of the Aadhaar Act protects all actions taken from the period

between 2010 till the passage of the Aadhaar Act in 2016;

47 PART C

iii. The judgments in MP Sharma and Kharak Singh being those of 8 and 6

judges respectively, holding that the right to privacy is not a fundamental

right, judgments of smaller benches delivered during the period upto

Puttaswamy would be per incuriam. Hence, the State need not have

proceeded on the basis that a law was required for the purpose of getting

an Aadhaar number or an enrolment number. As a result, the

administrative actions taken would be valid as well as the receipt of

benefits and subsidies by the beneficiaries;

iv. Subsequent to the Aadhaar Act, the petitioners would have to establish

that one or more of the tests laid down by the nine judge bench in

Puttaswamy render the invasion of privacy resulting from the Aadhaar

Act unconstitutional. The tests laid down in Puttaswamy have been

satisfied and hence the Aadhaar Act is not unconstitutional for the

following reasons:

a. The first condition in regard to the existence of a law has been

satisfied;

b. Legitimate state interests such as preventing the dissipation of social

welfare benefits, prevention of money laundering, black money and

tax evasion, and protection of national security are satisfied through

the Act;

48 PART C

c. The Aadhaar Act satisfies the test of proportionality by ensuring that a

“rational nexus” exists between the objects of the Act and the means

adopted to achieve its objects; and

d. For the purpose of testing legitimate State interest and proportionality,

the Court must take note of the fact that each one of the subsidies and

benefits under Section 7 is traceable to rights under Article 21 of the

Constitution - such as the right to live with human dignity, the right to

food, right to shelter, right to employment, right to medical care and

education. If these rights are juxtaposed with the right to privacy, the

former will prevail over the latter.

v. The Aadhaar Act was validly passed as a Money Bill on the following

grounds:

a. The term ‘targeted delivery of subsidies’ contemplates an expenditure of

funds from the Consolidated Fund of India, which brings the Aadhaar

Act within the purview of a Money Bill under Art. 110 of the Constitution;

b. Sections 7, 24, 25 and the Preamble of the Act also support its

classification as a Money Bill;

c. The Aadhaar Act has ancillary provisions, but they are related to the

pith and substance of the legislation which is the targeted delivery of

subsidies and benefits; and

d. Section 57 of the Act is saved by Article 110 (1) (g) of the Constitution as

it is a standalone provision and even if a Bill is not covered under

49 PART C

clauses (a) to (f) of Article110(1), it can still be covered under Article110

(1) (g).

Mr Tushar Mehta, learned Additional Solicitor General, submitted:

i. Section 139AA of the Income Tax Act, was examined in Binoy Viswam

in the context of Article 19 and fulfills the three tests laid down under

Puttaswamy as well as the test of manifest arbitrariness laid down in

Shayara Bano v Union of India50;

ii. The demographic information that is required for Aadhaar enrollment is

already submitted while obtaining a PAN card and therefore individuals

do not have a legitimate interest in withholding information;

iii. Linking Aadhaar to PAN is in public interest on the following grounds:

a. The State has a legitimate interest in curbing the menace of black

money, money laundering and tax evasion, often facilitated by

duplicate PAN cards, and the linking of Aadhaar to the PAN card will

ensure that one person holds only one PAN Card, thereby curbing

these economic offences;

b. Aadhaar-PAN linking is in public interest and satisfies the test of

proportionality and reasonableness;

50 (2017) 9 SCC 1

50 PART C

c. The individual interest gives way to a larger public interest and a

statutory provision furthering state interest will take precedence over

fundamental rights;

d. The Court must not interfere with the Legislature’s wisdom unless the

statutory measure is shockingly disproportionate to the object sought

to be achieved;

e. India is a signatory to various international treaties under which it has

obligations to take action to curb the menace of black money and

money laundering in pursuance of which measures including the

amendments to inter alia the Income Tax Act and the PMLA Act and

Rules thereunder, have been brought about by the legislature;

f. Statutory provisions under Aadhaar Act and Income Tax Act are distinct

and standalone. Moreover, the validity of one provision cannot be

examined in the light of the other;

g. Ascribing a (mandatory or voluntary) character to the provisions of a

statute is Parliament’s prerogative and cannot be questioned by

courts; and

h. Rule 9 of the amended PMLA Rules that mandates furnishing of an

Aadhaar number to open a bank account is not ultra vires the Aadhaar

Act. Similarly, the Rule that an existing bank account will become non-

operational if not linked with Aadhaar within six months is not a

51 PART C

penalty but a consequence to render the accounts of money

launderers non-operational.

Mr Rakesh Dwivedi, learned Senior Counsel, has submitted:

i. The right to privacy exists when there is a reasonable expectation of

privacy. However, this reasonable expectation of privacy differs from one

dataset to another since the Aadhaar Act draws a distinction between

demographic information, optional demographic information (eg. mobile

number), core biometric information (fingerprints and iris scans) and

biometric information such as photographs;

ii. Alternatively, the applicability of Article 21 has to be confined and limited

to core biometric information;

iii. Fundamental rights are not absolute and can be restricted if permitted

specifically. Article 21 expressly envisages deprivation by laws which

seek to carry out legitimate objectives and are reasonable and

proportionate;

iv. The Aadhaar Act does not cause exclusion because if authentication fails

after multiple attempts, then the subsidies, benefits and services, can be

availed of by proving the possession of an Aadhaar number, either by

52 PART C

producing the Aadhaar card or by producing the receipt of the application

for enrolment and producing the enrolment ID number;

v. Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act protects the right to human dignity

recognized by Article 21 of the Constitution by providing services,

benefits and subsidies. The Aadhaar Act is a welfare scheme in

pursuance of the State’s obligation to respect the fundamental rights to

life and personal liberty; to ensure justice (social, political and economic)

and to eliminate inequality (Article 14) with a view to ameliorate the lot of

the poor and the Dalits;

vi. Socio-economic rights must be read into Part III of the Constitution since

civil and political rights cannot be enjoyed without strengthening socio -

economic rights;

vii. A welfare State has a duty to ensure that each citizen has access at least

to the basic necessities of life. The idea of a socialist state under a

mandate to secure justice- social, economic and political - will be

completely illusory if it fails to secure for its citizens the basic

necessities in life. There cannot be any dignity for those who suffer

starvation, subjugation, deprivation and marginalization and those who

are compelled to do work which is intrinsically below human dignity;

53 PART C

viii. The Aadhaar number does not convert individuals to numbers. The

Aadhaar number is necessary for authentication and it is solely used for

that purpose. The petitioners have conflated the concepts of identity and

identification. Authentication through a number is merely a technological

requirement which does not alter the identity of an individual;

ix. Even if there is a conflict between the right to privacy and the right to food

and shelter, the Aadhaar Act strikes a fair balance. The Aadhaar Act

ensures human dignity and the right to life and liberty, hence there would

be no reasonable expectation of privacy and autonomy;

x. The requirement to obtain an Aadhaar number under the Aadhaar Act

does not reflect a lack of trust in citizens. Authentication by the State

does not presume that all its citizens are dishonest. The provisions of the

Aadhaar Act are merely regulatory in nature - similar to the process of

frisking at airports or other offices - since there is no effective method to

ensure targeted delivery;

xi. The “least intrusive test” is not applicable in the present case. The

requirement that the least intrusive means of achieving the State object

must be adopted, has been rejected by Indian courts in a catena of

decisions as it involves a value judgment and second guessing the

wisdom of the legislature. Such a test violates the separation of powers

between the legislature and the judiciary;

54 PART C

xii. Even assuming that the ‘least intrusive method’ test applies, the exercise

of determining the least intrusive method of identification is a technical

exercise and cannot be undertaken in a court of law;

xiii. The Petitioners who have furnished smartcards as an alternative to the

Aadhaar card, have not established that smartcards are less intrusive

than the Aadhaar card authentication process;

xiv. The ‘strict scrutiny test’ does not apply to the Aadhaar Act. That test is

conceptualised in the United States, to be only applied to ‘suspect

classifications’;

xv. Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act does not involve any waiver of fundamental

rights;

xvi. There can be no assumption of mala fide against the government or the

legislature. A mere possibility of abuse is not a ground to invalidate the

Aadhaar Act;

xvii. Through Section 57, Parliament intended to make the use of the Aadhaar

number available for other purposes due to the liberalization and

privatization of the economy in areas earlier occupied by the government

and public sector. Many private corporate bodies are operating parallel to

and in competition with the public sector such as in banking, insurance,

55 PART C

defence, and health. These are core sectors absolutely essential for

national integrity, to the national economy and the life of people;

xviii. Sections 2(g), and (j) read with Section 54(2)(a) and Section 54(1) do not

suffer from excessive delegation of power to UIDAI and there are

sufficient guidelines coupled with restrictions. The regulation making

power of the Authority under the Act is limited by the use of the

expression ‘such other biological attribute’ which will be interpreted

ejusdem generis with the categories of information mentioned before

namely, fingerprints and iris scan. These categories have certain

characteristics: firstly, they do not contain genetic information; secondly,

they are non-intrusive; thirdly, apart from carrying out authentication they

do not reveal any other information of the individual; fourthly, these are

modes of identification used for identifying a person even without digital

technology; fifthly, they are capable of being used for instantaneous

digital authentication; and sixthly, they are biological attributes enabling

digital authentication. The addition of biological attributes, under Section

54, must mandatorily be laid before the Parliament under Section 55. This

is an additional check on the regulation making power of UIDAI;

xix. Under Section 2(k), which defines demographic information, certain

sensitive categories of information such as ‘race, religion, caste, tribe,

ethnicity, language, records of entitlement, income or medical history’ of

56 PART C

the person are excluded. The term ‘other relevant information’ has to be

construed ejusdem generis and would have to be necessarily

demographic in nature as contrasted with biometric information;

xx. Aadhaar is necessary, as 3% of India’s GDP amounting to trillions of

rupees is allocated by Governments towards subsidies, scholarships,

pensions, education, food and other welfare programmes. But

approximately half of if does not reach the intended beneficiaries.

Aadhaar is necessary for fixing this problem as no other identification

document is widely and commonly possessed by the residents of the

country and most of the other identity documents do not enjoy the quality

of portability;

xxi. The enrolment and authentication processes under the Aadhaar Act are

strongly regulated so that the data is secure;

xxii. The security of the CIDR is also ensured through adequate measures and

safeguards;

xxiii. The Aadhaar Act ensures that UIDAI has control over the requesting

entity during the authentication process;

xxiv. Enrolment Regulations ensure that the requirement of informed consent

of individuals is fulfilled while securing the Aadhaar card in the following

ways:

57 PART C

a. Firstly, the resident is given an opportunity of verifying his or her

information for accuracy before uploading;

b. Secondly, the details and the supporting documents are provided by

the resident, or an introducer (in specific cases);

c. Thirdly, the enrolling agency is obliged to inform the individual about

the manner in which the information shall be used, the nature of

recipients with whom the information is to be shared during

authentication; and the existence of a right to access information, the

procedure for making request for such access and details of the

person/ department to whom a request can be made; and

d. Fourthly, the uploading of information is done in the presence of the

individual.

xxv. When an individual makes a choice to enter into a relational sphere then

his or her choice as to mode of identification would automatically get

restricted on account of the autonomy of the individuals or institution with

whom they wish to relate. This is more so where the individual seeks

employment, service, subsidy or benefits;

xxvi. The Central government has the power to direct the linking of Aadhaar

card, with SIM card, as it is proportional to the object sought to be

achieved in the interest of national security;

58 PART C

xxvii. Regarding the process of authentication and metadata retained under

the Act, it is submitted:

a. The only purpose of the Aadhaar project is authentication and there is

no power under the Act to analyze data;

b. The Aadhaar Act does not involve big data or learning algorithms. It

merely utilizes a matching algorithm for the purpose of authentication;

c. Metadata contemplated is process or technical metadata and does not

reveal anything about the individual. Section 2(d) of the Act defines

“authentication record” to mean the record of the time of

authentication, identity of the RE and the response provided by the

Authority”, and the relevant authentication regulation, Regulation 26,

does not go beyond the scope of Section 2(d) of the Act;

d. Moreover, Regulation 26 and Section 32(3) of the Act prohibit the

Authority from collecting or storing any information about the purpose

of authentication; and

e. Only limited technical metadata is required to be stored in an effort to

exercise control over REs by way of audits.

xxviii. Regarding the security of the Aadhaar data, it is submitted:

a. The provisions of the Information Technology Act, 2000 and the

punitive measures provided there are made applicable to Aadhaar

data under Section 30 of the Aadhaar Act; and

59 PART C

b. Anyone attempting to gain unauthorized access to the CIDR faces

stringent punishment, including imprisonment upto 10 years.

xxix. On the control exercised by the Authority over the Requesting Entities

(RE), the following was urged before the Court:

a. The standard of control exercised by the Authority on the Requesting

Entities is ‘fair and reasonable’ as laid down under Article 21 of the

Constitution;

b. This control includes requirements that the RE’s procure the

fingerprint device from vendors controlled by the Authority, with the

Authority also providing the hardware and software of the device. The

device is subject to quality checks, and must be certified by the

Authority before being used by the RE. The Authority also takes

measures to ensure that data is sent to it in an encrypted form;

c. The license is given to the RE from the Authority only after an audit of

the RE is conducted, and the audit report is approved; and

d. The data collected by these REs is segregated and there exists no

way of aggregating this data. During authentication requests, the full

identity information of the individual will never be transmitted back to

the REs by the Authority as there exists a statutory bar from sharing

Biometric information under Sections 29 (1) (a) and 29(4) of the Act.

60 PART C

xxx. UIDAI has entered into licensing agreements with foreign biometric

solution providers (BSP) for software. Even though the source code of the

software is retained by the BSP as it constitutes their intellectual property,

the data in the server rooms is secure as the software operates

automatically and the biometric data is stored offline. There is no

opportunity available to the BSP to extract data as they have no access

to it;

xxxi. Prior to the enactment of the Aadhaar Act, the Aadhaar project was

governed by the provisions of the Information Technology Act, 2000.

Section 72A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 provides for

punishment for disclosure of information in breach of law or contract;

xxxii. The architecture of the Aadhaar Act does not enable any real possibility,

proximate or remote, of mass surveillance in real time by the State;

xxxiii. The giving of identity information and undergoing authentication has no

direct and inevitable effect on Article 19(1)(a). Alternatively, even if Article

19(1)(a) is attracted, Article 19(2) would protect Section 7 of the Aadhaar

Act as it has a direct and proximate nexus to public order and security of

the State;

xxxiv. In response to the argument that the requirements of Aadhaar number

and authentication for benefits, services and subsidies would be ultra

61 PART C

vires Article 243-G and items 11, 12, 16, 17, 23, 25 and 28 of the XIth

Schedule, it is submitted that the Panchayats get only such powers as

are given to it by the legislature of the State. Article 243-G is merely

enabling. There is no compulsion upon the State to endow the

Panchayats with powers relating to the items specified in the XIth

Schedule;

xxxv. On the validity and purpose of Section 57, it is urged:

a. Section 57 is not an enabling provision. It merely provides, as it states,

that the provisions of the Act would not prevent the use of Aadhaar for

other purposes;

b. However, Section 57 imposes a limitation on any such use for other

purposes, that the use must be sanctioned by any law in force or any

contract;

c. Another limitation is presented by the proviso to Section 57, which

says that the use of the Aadhaar number shall be subject to the

procedure and obligations under Section 8 and Chapter VI, which

would necessarily also subject it to the operation of Chapter VII

(dealing with Offences & Penalties) of the Act;

d. Under Section 57, the State, a body corporate or any other person

cannot become Requesting Entities unless the limitations provided for

under Section 57 are complied with;

62 PART C

e. Section 57 imposes limitations, and the use is backed by

authentication, protection of information and punitive measures;

f. The expressions ‘pursuant to any law or any contract’, and ‘to this

effect’- necessarily entail that where the State makes a law or any

body corporate enters into a contract, the law or contract should be

prior in point of time to the making of any application for becoming a

Requesting Entity or a Sub-Authentication User Agency under

Regulation 12 of the Authentication Regulations; and

g. A large number of small service providers simply cannot become

Requesting Entities under Section 57, as they will not meet the

rigorous standard demanded by the eligibility conditions which are

prescribed by the Regulations to become Authentication User

Agencies (AUA)/ KYC User Agencies (KUA). Therefore, this provision

does not create a situation whereby the common man is required to

undergo authentication in all activities.

xxxvi. The Aadhaar Act is not exclusionary but inclusionary since it provides

all citizens the bare necessities for a dignified existence;

xxxvii. Having the option to opt-out is not a constitutional requirement.

Mr Neeraj Kishan Kaul, learned Senior Counsel, made the following

submissions:

63 PART C

i. Aadhaar is a speedy and reliable tool for identification and authentication

and there is no reason to hold it invalid;

ii. Private entities and AUAs/KUAs that have built their businesses around it

should be allowed to use Aadhaar authentication services;

iii. Section 57 is an enabling provision and private players should be given

the choice to use the Aadhaar authentication services as a tool for

verification if there is a consensus between private players’ and their

customers;

iv. Aadhaar authentication has benefited women in villages and migrants and

increased the reach of microfinance institutions, thus reducing predatory

financing; and

v. A statute cannot be struck down on the ground that there is scope for

misuse.

Mr Jayant Bhushan, learned Senior Counsel appearing for the Reserve Bank

of India urged the following submissions before the Court:

i. RBI, in exercise of its powers under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949

and Rule 9 of the PMLA Rules, 2005 issued an amended Master Circular

on April 20, 2018 which mandates that Aadhaar has to be submitted to a

Reporting Entity. This circular conforms with the PMLA rules;

64 PART C

ii. Rule 9(14) of the PMLA Rules provides that the Regulator- the RBI in this

case, lay down guidelines incorporating the requirements of sub-rules

9(1)-(13), which would include enhanced or simplified measures to verify

identity; and

iii. The requirement of submission of Aadhaar to the RE is in exercise of this

power under Rule 9(14).

Mr Gopal Sankarnarayanan, learned counsel, has submitted:

i. The Aadhaar Act as a whole does not violate the fundamental right to

privacy;

ii. The factors that save the Aadhaar Act from failing the proportionality test

are (a) Voluntariness to subject one ’s identity information to obtain

the Aadhaar ; (b) Informed consent when such identity information is

utilized; and (c) A draw on the Consolidated Fund of India;

iii. Right to identity is a fundamental right as a part of the right to dignity,

which is being realized by the Aadhaar Act;

iv. The right to identity is also recognized under India’s international

obligations under instruments such as the UDHR and ICCPR;

v. In view of the large scale enrolments that have already taken place and

the expenditure incurred by the Government out of public funds, it would

65 PART C

be in overarching public interest to give Section 59 full effect. If this were

not done, the only avenue available to the Government would be to

undertake the mammoth enrolment task all over again under a new

regime, affording only a pyrrhic victory to the Petitioners, while there

would be substantial revenue losses to the Government and

deprivation of beneficial schemes to those eligible, in the meanwhile;

vi. Certain provisions of the Aadhaar Act have to be struck down or read

down so that the Act as a whole can continue to serve its essential

purpose - namely Sections 47, Section 8(4) and Section 29(2) of the Act;

and

vii. Section 139AA of the Income Tax Act, 1961 violates Article 14 and 21 of

the Constitution.

Mr Zoheb Hossain, learned Counsel, made the following submissions:

i. The right to privacy cannot be asserted vicariously on behalf of others in

a representative capacity in a Public Interest Litigation, because unlike

other constitutional rights, right to privacy is a personal right. No Section 7

beneficiary has claimed a violation of their right to privacy despite the

pendency of the petitions for 6 years before this Court and therefore, the

Petitioners' challenge, in a representative capacity, to section 7 on the

66 PART C

ground of a violation of the right to privacy of third parties is not

maintainable;

ii. There is no increased threat to privacy due to Aadhaar at the level of

requesting entities (RE) for the following reasons:

a. REs are already in possession of personal information of individuals

and inclusion of Aadhaar does not in any manner increase the threat

to privacy;

b. Any information disclosed by REs will not be on account of Aadhaar

and will have to be dealt with under domain specific legislations, or a

data protection regime or agreements between the REs and their

customers; and

c. REs have data of their own customers and not of other REs’

customers, so there is no possibility of surveillance.

iii. Safeguards against disclosure of information in the Aadhaar Act are

superior to the safeguards laid down in the PUCL case51. Sections 8, 28

and 29 along with Chapter VII which deals with Offences and Penalties,

provide for protection of information and Section 33 lays down a strict

procedure for disclosure. Even though the Aadhaar Act is not required to

meet the same standard as laid down in PUCL, the safeguards in the Act

are not only adequate with regard to identity information and

authentication records, but far exceed the safeguards laid down PUCL;

51 (2011) 14 SCC 331

67 PART C

iv. The petitioners cannot contend that Section 33(2) of the Aadhaar Act

goes against the principles of natural justice and is disproportionate (as it

does not define the term “national security”) for the following reasons:

a. What is in the interest of “national security” is not a question of law but

that of policy lying in the executive domain; and

b. Principles of natural justice cannot be observed strictly in a situation

implicating national security. In such cases, it is the duty of the court to

read into and provide for statutory exclusion.

v. The laws, which are under challenge, are a part of a concerted scheme to

promote redistributive justice and ensure substantive equality, in

furtherance of Articles 14, 38, 39B and 39C. These laws ensure a more

transparent and a cleaner system, root out revenue leakages and evasion

of taxes, thereby giving genuine beneficiaries their rightful share in

subsidies;

vi. The object of the Aadhaar Act, contrary to what the petitioners have

argued, is totally unrelated to suppression of freedom of speech and any

incidental effect, if at all, would not implicate the right under Article

19(1)(a);

vii. The petitioners cannot contend that Section 47 of the Aadhaar Act is

arbitrary or unreasonable for the following reasons:

68 PART C

a. The offences and penalties under the Act are intended to maintain the

purity of data of the Aadhaar number holder and the integrity of the

CIDR, which are integral in achieving the object of the Act;

b. Enrolment, storage of data in CIDR, and authentications are so vast

and inherently technical that any breach of the provisions, can be

effectively dealt with by the UIDAI;

c. The individual has not been left remediless, as he/she can make a

complaint to the UIDAI directly or through the grievance redressal

centre [Regulation 32 of the Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update)

Regulations, 2016]. After a complaint has been made, the UIDAI

would be obliged to examine the complaint and accordingly lodge a

complaint in a Court in terms of Section 47 of the Aadhaar Act;

d. Section 56 of the Aadhaar Act makes it clear that application of other

laws, like the IT Act, is not barred.

viii. Aadhaar must be made mandatory under Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act for

the following reasons:

a. Because of the involvement of biometrics, it is almost impossible for

one person to obtain two Aadhaar numbers. This will help in checking

the entry of fake and duplicate beneficiaries into any welfare scheme;

b. Other methods which were employed over the last 70 years to check

duplication, siphoning of money in welfare schemes, large-scale tax

evasion, generation of black money, and appearance and re-

69 PART C

appearance of duplicates, have turned out to be futile. If Aadhaar is

made voluntary, the same problems are likely to creep back into the

system; and

c. The State is bound to deploy the best technology available to it to

ensure proper allocation of resources as there is a constitutional

mandate upon the State under Article 14 to efficiently utilize its

resources.

ix. There is no conflict between the Aadhaar Act and the Income Tax Act as

they are both stand alone laws and their scope of operation is different;

x. Through the Aadhaar Act, the State is furthering the following obligations

under Part III and Part IV of the Constitution and international obligations:

a. The State has a positive obligation for securing socio-economic rights

like the basic right to food, shelter and livelihood of people arising out

of Article 21, even though it is worded negatively;

b. The Supreme Court has observed that civil & political rights and socio-

economic rights in India are placed on the same pedestal [PUCL].

Aadhaar is a means of achieving the latter set of rights. The

proportionality analysis would therefore require a balancing of rights in

this context;

70 PART C

c. Articles 38, 39(b), (c), (e), (f), 41, 43, 47 and 51(c) impose a

constitutional mandate on the State to ensure effective and efficient

utilization of public resources;

d. The State is the trustee of public resources towards people, and

inaction of the State to plug the continuous leakage of public

resources and revenues would violate both, the principle of non-

arbitrariness and reasonableness envisaged by Article 14 as well as

the constitutional doctrine of public trust; and

e. The creation of Aadhaar infrastructure and enactment of the Aadhaar

Act is a step towards the government pursuing India’s international

obligations under the ICESCR.

xi. While testing proportionality, reasonableness of a restriction has to be

determined in an objective manner from the standpoint of the interests of

the general public and not from the perspective of an individual right

bearer claiming invasion52; and

xii. With regard to the alleged conflict between Section 29(2) of the Aadhaar

Act and Section 4(b)(xii) of the RTI Act, the former cannot be struck down

as unconstitutional for the following reasons:

52 Modern Dental College and Research Centre v State of Madhya Pradesh, (2016) 7 SCC 353.

71 PART D

a. A provision can be struck down only if it is in violation of the

Constitution or if the legislature lacks competence, not on the ground

that it is in conflict with another law;

b. In any case, the obligations of public authorities under both these

provisions are different, as the public authority under the RTI Act can

publish the details of beneficiaries from the existing database and the

information received by the UIDAI is not required to be shared or

displayed publicly. However, if any information is displayed publicly, it

can be challenged by an aggrieved person on the ground of privacy

which would be completely unrelated to the present challenge;

c. The two laws operate in their distinct fields and there is no conflict

between them; and

d. A conflict between two statutes is required to be reconciled through

harmonious construction. However, since there is no conflict between

these two laws, there is no need for harmonious construction.

D Architecture of Aadhaar: analysis of the legal framework

39 The architecture of the Aadhaar Act envisages the creation of a unique

identity for residents on the basis of demographic and biometric information.

The Act envisages a process of identification by which the unique identity

72 PART D

assigned to each individual is verified with the demographic and biometric

information pertaining to that individual which is stored in a centralised

repository of data known as the Central Identities Data Repository (CIDR). The

former part of the legislative design is implemented by its regulatory provisions

governing enrolment53 of individuals who would be allotted a unique identity

number. The latter part of the legislative design consists of the process of

‘authentication’.

40 In order to facilitate an understanding of the key aspects of the law,

Section 2 provides a dictionary of meanings. ‘Aadhaar number’ is defined in

Section 2(a) as the identification number issued to the individual under sub-

section (3) of Section 3. The individual to whom an Aadhaar number is issued

is described in Section 2(b) as the ‘Aadhaar number holder’. The expression

‘authentication’ is defined in Section 2(c) thus:

“(c) “Authentication” means the process by which the Aadhaar number alongwith demographic information or biometric information of an individual is submitted to the Central Identities Data Repository for its verification and such Repository verifies the correctness or lack thereof, on basis of information available with it.”

Section 2(d) speaks of the ‘authentication record’ as the record of the time of

authentication, the identity of the requesting entity and the response provided

by UIDAI. The crucial definitions are those of ‘biometric information’, ‘core

53 Section 2(m) states: “enrolment” means the process, as may be specified by regulations, to collect demographic and biometric information from individuals by the enrolling agencies for the purpose of issuing Aadhaar numbers to such individuals under this Act.

73 PART D

biometric information’, ‘demographic information’ and ‘identity information’.

These are as follows:

“(g) “biometric information” means photograph, finger print, Iris scan, or other such biological attributes of an individual as may be specified by regulations;

...

(j) “core biometric information” means finger print, Iris scan, or such other biological attribute of an individual as may be specified by regulations;

(k) “demographic information” includes information relating to the name, date of birth, address and other relevant information of an individual, as may be specified by regulations for the purpose of issuing an Aadhaar number, but shall not include race, religion, caste, tribe, ethnicity, language, records of entitlement, income or medical history.

...

(n) “identity information” in respect of an individual, includes his Aadhaar number, his biometric information and his demographic information.”

The largest subset of the above definitions consists of ‘identity information’

which is defined in an inclusive sense to comprehend the Aadhaar number,

biometric information and demographic information. Demographic information

is defined as information related to the name, date of birth and address and

other information pertaining to an individual as is specified by the regulations.

Significantly, Section 2(k) excludes, by a mandate, race, religion, caste, tribe,

ethnicity, language, records of entitlement, income or medical history from the

purview of demographic information. Biometric information consists, under

Section 2(g), of the photograph, fingerprint, Iris scan, or other such biological

attributes of an individual as may be specified by regulations. Core biometric

information in Section 2(j) excludes photographs (which form part of biometric

74 PART D

information). Apart from photographs, other biometric information is

comprehended within core biometric information and may be expanded to

include other biological attributes specified in the regulations to be made

under the Act.

41 The identity information of an individual is stored in a central depository.

Section 2(h) defines “Central Identities Data Repository” as a centralised

database in one or more locations containing all Aadhaar numbers issued to

Aadhaar number holders along with the corresponding demographic

information and biometric information of such individuals and other related

information. The CIDR is the backbone of the Aadhaar Act. All the information

collected or created under the Act is stored in it. For the establishment and

maintenance of the CIDR, it has been provided54 under the Act that UIDAI may

engage one or more entities, which can also perform any other functions as

may be specified by regulations. The Act does not prohibit the engagement of

private entities for the establishment and maintenance of the CIDR.

42 Section 3, pertains to the entitlement to obtain an ‘Aadhaar Number’,

which forms a part of Chapter II titled ‘enrolment’. Section 3 comprises of

three parts: (i) an entitlement of every resident to obtain an Aadhaar number;

(ii) a requirement of submitting demographic and biometric information to be

enrolled; and (iii) a process of undergoing enrolment. Section 3 provides thus:

54 Section 10, Aadhaar Act

75 PART D

“Section (3): Aadhaar Number.-

(1) Every resident shall be entitled to obtain an Aadhaar number by submitting his demographic information and biometric information by undergoing the process of enrolment:

Provided that the Central Government may, from time to time, notify such other category of individuals who may be entitled to obtain an Aadhaar number.

(2) The enrolling agency shall, at the time of enrolment, inform the individual undergoing enrolment of the following details in such manner as maybe specified by regulations, namely:-

(a) The manner in which the information shall be used;

(b) The nature of recipients with whom the information is intended to be shared during authentication; and

(c) The existence of a right to access information, the procedure for making requests for such access and details of the person or department in-charge to whom such requests can be made.

(3) On receipt of the demographic information and biometric information under sub-section (1), the Authority shall, after verifying the information, in such manner as may be specified by regulations, issue an Aadhaar number to such individual.”

Significantly, sub-section (1) of Section 3 recognises an entitlement, of every

resident55 to obtain an Aadhaar number. An entitlement postulates a right. A

right contemplates a liberty, for it is in the exercise of the liberty that the

individual asserts a right. What is a matter of an entitlement is evidently a

matter of option and not a compulsion. That constitutes the fundamental

postulate of Section 3. However, the entitlement to obtain the Aadhaar

55 Section 2(v) states: “resident” means an individual who has resided in India for a period or periods amounting in all to one hundred and eighty-two days or more in the twelve months immediately preceding the date of application for enrolment

76 PART D

number is conditioned by the requirement of submitting demographic and

biometric information and participating in the process of enrolment.

43 The collection of demographic and biometric information is carried out

by an enrolling agency. “Enrolling agency” has been defined under Section

2(l) of the Act as an agency, appointed by UIDAI or a Registrar56, for collecting

demographic and biometric information of individuals under the Act. The

enrolling agency need not be an entity of the state. The definition opens the

space for engagement of private entities in the collection of individual

information for the process of enrolment. The enrolling agencies have to set

up enrolment centers and they have to function in accordance with the

procedure specified by UIDAI.57 Sub-section (2) of Section 3 requires the

enrolling agency to disclose to the individual, who is undergoing enrolment,

three important facets. The first is the manner in which the information which

is disclosed by the individual would be used. The second relates to the nature

of the recipients with whom the information is likely to be shared during the

course of authentication. The third is founded upon the individual’s right of

access to the information disclosed. All these three facets are crucial to the

legislative design because they try to place individual autonomy at the

forefront of the process. An individual who discloses biometric and

demographic information has a statutory entitlement to fully understand how

the information which is disclosed is going to be used and with whom the

56 Section 2(s) states: “Registrar” means any entity authorised or recognised by the Authority for the purpose of enrolling individuals under this Act 57 Regulation 7, Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update) Regulations, 2016

77 PART D

information is likely to be shared during authentication.58 Access of the

information supplied to the individual, it has been argued, is an integral feature

of the design created by the statute. These three facets are conditions

precedent to the disclosure of information by the individual. Before the

individual does so, he or she must have a full disclosure which would enable

them to form an informed decision on the exercise of the choice which

underlies an entitlement to an Aadhaar number. The entitlement which is

recognised by sub-section (1) is enforced by the mandatory requirements of

sub-section (2). Before an Aadhaar number is issued, sub-section (3)

requires the authority to verify the information disclosed, in the manner

prescribed by regulations. The Act leaves it to regulations to specify how

verification will be carried out.

44 Sections 4, 5 and 6 indicate the characteristics which are attributed to

Aadhaar numbers, legislative recognition of the steps necessary to ensure

financial inclusion and the requirement of periodical updation of information.

Under Section 4, three important features attach to the possession of an

Aadhaar number. The first is that the number is unique to one individual and

to that individual alone. Once assigned, the Aadhaar number cannot be

reassigned to any other individual. The second feature is that an Aadhaar

number is random and bears no relation to the attributes or identity of its

holder. The third feature of Section 4 is that once assigned, an Aadhaar

number can be accepted as proof of identify of its holder “for any purpose”. 58 Section 3(2), Aadhaar Act.

78 PART D

Under Section 5, UIDAI is under a mandate to adopt special measures to

issue Aadhaar numbers to women, children, senior citizens, the differently

abled, unskilled and unorganised workers, nomadic tribes, persons who do

not have permanent places of abode and to other categories which may be

defined by the regulations. Section 6 contains an enabling provision by which

the authority may require holders to update their demographic and biometric

information periodically, as specified under regulations. An Aadhaar number

also does not, by itself, constitute a conferment of a right of citizenship, or

domicile (Section 9).

45 Chapter III provides for Authentication. By virtue of Section 7, an

enabling provision has been made by which the Union or state governments

may require proof of an Aadhaar number for receiving subsidies, benefits and

services for which the expenditure is incurred from (or the receipts form part

of) the Consolidated Fund of India. Section 7 is in the following terms:

“7. Proof of Aadhaar number necessary for receipt of certain subsidies, benefits and services, etc.- The Central Government or, as the case may be, the State Government may, for the purpose of establishing identity of an individual as a condition for receipt of a subsidy, benefit or service for which the expenditure is incurred from, or the receipt therefrom forms part of, the Consolidated Fund of India, require that such individual undergo authentication, or furnish proof of possession of Aadhaar number or in the case of an individual to whom no Aadhaar number has been assigned, such individual makes an application for enrolment:

Provided that if an Aadhaar number is not assigned to an individual, the individual shall be offered alternate and viable means of identification for delivery of the subsidy, benefit or service.”

79 PART D

Section 3 (as explained earlier) postulates an entitlement to an Aadhaar

number. An entitlement envisages a right which may (or may not) be

exercised by the resident. An entitlement is, after all, an option. Section 7,

however, contemplates a requirement. It covers subsidies, benefits or

services that are charged to the Consolidated Fund of India; the connect being

either in regard to the source of expenditure or the receipts. The statutory

definitions of the expressions ‘benefit’, ‘service’ and ‘subsidy’ are contained in

clauses (f),(w) and (x) of Section 2 which provide as follows:

“(f) “benefit” means any advantage, gift, reward, relief, or payment, in cash or kind, provided to an individual or a group of individuals and includes such other benefits as may be notified by the Central Government;”

(w) “service” means any provision, facility, utility or any other assistance provided in any form to an individual or a group of individuals and includes such other services as may be notified by the Central Government;

(x) “subsidy” means any form of aid, support, grant, subvention, or appropriation, in cash or kind, to an individual or a group of individuals and includes such other subsidies as may be notified by the Central Government.”

46 Section 7 encapsulates a purpose, a condition and a requirement. The

purpose incorporated in the provision is to establish the identity of an

individual. The condition which it embodies is for the receipt of a subsidy,

benefit or service for which the expenditure is incurred or the receipts form

part of the Consolidated Fund of India. Where the purpose and condition are

fulfilled, the central or state governments may require that the individual

should (i) undergo authentication; or (ii) furnish proof of possession of an

Aadhaar number; or (iii) provide proof of an application for enrolment where

80 PART D

the Aadhaar number has not been assigned. Three alternatives are stipulated

in Section 7. Where the purpose and condition (noted above) are fulfilled, the

individual has to undergo authentication. Alternately, the individual has to

furnish proof that he or she possesses an Aadhaar number. However, if an

Aadhaar number has not been assigned to the individual, he or she would

have to make an application for enrolment. In a situation where no Aadhaar

number has been assigned as yet, the proviso stipulates that alternate and

viable means of identification would be provided to the individual for the

delivery of subsidies, benefits or services. Section 7 indicates that while the

central or state governments can mandate that an individual must undergo

authentication as a condition for the receipt of a subsidy, benefit or service, a

failure of authentication cannot be held out as a ground to deny benefits,

subsidies or services. That is for the reason that in the absence of

authentication, possession of an Aadhaar number would suffice. Moreover,

even if an individual does not possess an Aadhaar number, the mandate of

Section 7 would be subserved by producing an application for enrolment.

Section 3 which speaks of an entitlement to obtain an Aadhaar number stands

in contrast to Section 7 under which an Aadhaar number may be required as a

condition for the receipt of a subsidy, benefit or service. As an entitlement,

Section 3 makes the possession of an Aadhaar number optional. Section 7 is

an enabling power by which the central or state governments may make the

requirement of an Aadhaar number compulsive or mandatory where a person

81 PART D

desires a subsidy, benefit or service for which expenditure is incurred from or

the receipt of which forms part of the Consolidated Fund of India. Section 7

acts as an overriding provision over Section 3.

47 The manner in which an authentication is carried out is elaborated upon

by Section 8. Section 8 is in the following terms:

“Authentication of Aadhaar number.-

(1) The Authority shall perform authentication of the Aadhaar number of an Aadhaar number holder submitted by any requesting entity, in relation to his biometric information or demographic information, subject to such conditions and on payment of such fees and in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

(2) A requesting entity shall –

(a) unless otherwise provided in this Act, obtain the consent of an individual before collecting his identity information for the purposes of authentication in such manner as may be specified by regulations; and

(b) ensure that the identity information of an individual is only used for submission to the Central Identities Data Repository for authentication.

(3) A requesting entity shall inform, in such manner as may be specified by regulations, the individual submitting his identify information for authentication, the following details with respect to authentication, namely:-

(a) the nature of information that may be shared upon authentication;

(b) the uses to which the information received during authentication may be put by the requesting entity; and

(c) alternatives to submission of identity information to the requesting entity.

(4) The Authority shall respond to an authentication query with a positive, negative or any other appropriate response sharing such identity information excluding any core biometric information.”

As we have noticed earlier, authentication involves a process in which the

Aadhaar number, together with the demographic or biometric information, is 82 PART D

submitted to the CIDR for verification and is verified to be correct or otherwise

by the repository on the basis of the information available with it. Under sub-

section (1) of Section 8 authentication has to be performed on a request

submitted by a requesting entity. The expression ‘requesting entity’ is defined

in Section 2(u) as follows:

“(u) “requesting entity” means an agency or person that submits the Aadhaar number, and demographic information or biometric information, of an individual to the Central Identities Data Repository for authentication.”

This definition also does not prohibit the engagement of private agencies for

the process of authentication. Under sub-section (2) of Section 8, every

requesting entity is bound to obtain the consent of the individual before

collecting his or her identity information for the purpose of authentication.

Moreover, the requesting entity must ensure that the identity information is

submitted only for the purpose of authentication to the CIDR. Before the

requesting entity submits the identity information for authentication, it is under

a mandate of law to disclose (i) the nature of the information that may be

shared upon authentication; (ii) the use to which information received during

authentication may be put; and (iii) alternatives to the submission of identity

information.59 During the course of authentication, UIDAI is required to

respond to an authentication query with a positive, negative or appropriate

response sharing such identity information excluding core biometric

information.60 Core biometric information cannot be shared. The modes of

59 Section 8(3), Aadhaar Act 60 Section 8(4), Aadhaar Act

83 PART D

authentication are as mentioned in Regulation 4 of the Aadhaar

(Authentication) Regulations 2016. It can be based on (i) demographic

information; (ii) a one-time password with limited time validity; (iii) biometrics

or (iv) multi-factor authentication (a combination of two or more of the above).

The Requesting Agency chooses the mode according to its requirement.

48 UIDAI is the umbrella entity under the Aadhaar Act. The statutory

backing to the authority of UIDAI to undertake the responsibility for the

processes of enrolment and authentication and maintenance of CIDR has

been provided under Chapter IV of the Act. Section 11 provides that the

Central Government shall, by notification, establish UIDAI, a body corporate 61,

to be responsible for the processes of enrolment and authentication and

perform such other functions as are assigned to it under the Act. The

composition of UIDAI has been provided under Section 12: a Chairperson

(appointed on part-time or full-time basis); two part-time Members, and the

chief executive officer who shall be the Member- Secretary, to be appointed

by the Central Government. Section 23 enunciates the powers and functions

of the UIDAI. Sub-section (1) of Section 23 requires UIDAI to develop the

policy, procedure and systems for issuing Aadhaar numbers to individuals and

to perform authentication. Section 23(2) provides an inclusive list of the

powers and functions of UIDAI:

“(2) Without prejudice to sub-section (1), the powers and functions of the Authority, inter alia, include—

61 Section 11(2), Aadhaar Act

84 PART D

(a) specifying, by regulations, demographic information and biometric information required for enrolment and the processes for collection and verification thereof;

(b) collecting demographic information and biometric information from any individual seeking an Aadhaar number in such manner as may be specified by regulations;

(c) appointing of one or more entities to operate the Central Identities Data Repository;

(d) generating and assigning Aadhaar numbers to individuals;

(e) performing authentication of Aadhaar numbers;

(f) maintaining and updating the information of individuals in the Central Identities Data Repository in such manner as may be specified by regulations;

(g) omitting and deactivating of an Aadhaar number and information relating thereto in such manner as may be specified by regulations;

(h) specifying the manner of use of Aadhaar numbers for the purposes of providing or availing of various subsidies, benefits, services and other purposes for which Aadhaar numbers may be used;

(i) specifying, by regulations, the terms and conditions for appointment of Registrars, enrolling agencies and service providers and revocation of appointments thereof;

(j) establishing, operating and maintaining of the Central Identities Data Repository;

(k) sharing, in such manner as may be specified by regulations, the information of Aadhaar number holders, subject to the provisions of this Act;

(l) calling for information and records, conducting inspections, inquiries and audit of the operations for the purposes of this Act of the Central Identities Data Repository, Registrars, enrolling agencies and other agencies appointed under this Act;

(m) specifying, by regulations, various processes relating to data management, security protocols and other technology safeguards under this Act;

(n) specifying, by regulations, the conditions and procedures for issuance of new Aadhaar number to existing Aadhaar number holder;

(o) levying and collecting the fees or authorising the Registrars, enrolling agencies or other service providers to

85 PART D

collect such fees for the services provided by them under this Act in such manner as may be specified by regulations;

(p) appointing such committees as may be necessary to assist the Authority in discharge of its functions for the purposes of this Act;

(q) promoting research and development for advancement in biometrics and related areas, including usage of Aadhaar numbers through appropriate mechanisms;

(r) evolving of, and specifying, by regulations, policies and practices for Registrars, enrolling agencies and other service providers;

(s) setting up facilitation centres and grievance redressal mechanism for redressal of grievances of individuals, Registrars, enrolling agencies and other service providers;

(t) such other powers and functions as may be prescribed.”

Under Section 54, UIDAI is empowered to make regulations and rules

consistent with the Act, for carrying out the provisions of the Act. Sub-section

(2) of Section 54 provides that UIDAI may make regulations covering any of

the following matters:

“(a) the biometric information under clause (g) and the demographic information under clause (k), and the process of collecting demographic information and biometric information from the individuals by enrolling agencies under clause (m) of section 2;

(b) the manner of verifying the demographic information and biometric information for issue of Aadhaar number under sub-

section (3) of section 3;

(c) the conditions for accepting an Aadhaar number as proof of identity of the Aadhaar number holder under sub-section (3) of section 4;

(d) the other categories of individuals under section 5 for whom the Authority shall take special measures for allotment of Aadhaar number;

(e) the manner of updating biometric information and demographic information under section 6;

(f) the procedure for authentication of the Aadhaar number under section 8;

86 PART D

(g) the other functions to be performed by the Central Identities Data Repository under section 10;

(h) the time and places of meetings of the Authority and the procedure for transaction of business to be followed by it, including the quorum, under sub-section (1) of section 19;

(i) the salary and allowances payable to, and other terms and conditions of service of, the chief executive officer, officers and other employees of the Authority under sub-section (2) of section 21;

(j) the demographic information and biometric information under clause (a) and the manner of their collection under clause (b) of sub-section (2) of section 23;

(k) the manner of maintaining and updating the information of individuals in the Central Identities Data Repository under clause (f) of sub-section (2) of section 23;

(l) the manner of omitting and deactivating an Aadhaar number and information relating thereto under clause (g) of sub-section (2) of section 23;

(m) the manner of use of Aadhaar numbers for the purposes of providing or availing of various subsidies, benefits, services and other purposes for which Aadhaar numbers may be used under clause (h) of sub-section (2) of section 23;

(n) the terms and conditions for appointment of Registrars, enrolling agencies and other service providers and the revocation of appointments thereof under clause (i) of sub- section (2) of section 23;

(o) the manner of sharing information of Aadhaar number holder under clause (k) of sub-section (2) of section 23;

(p) various processes relating to data management, security protocol and other technology safeguards under clause (m) of sub-section (2) of section 23;

(q) the procedure for issuance of new Aadhaar number to existing Aadhaar number holder under clause (n) of sub- section (2) of section 23;

(r) manner of authorising Registrars, enrolling agencies or other service providers to collect such fees for services provided by them under clause (o) of sub-section (2) of section 23;

(s) policies and practices to be followed by the Registrar, enrolling agencies and other service providers under clause

(r) of sub-section (2) of section 23;

87 PART D

(t) the manner of accessing the identity information by the Aadhaar number holder under the proviso to sub-section (5) of section 28;

(u) the manner of sharing the identity information, other than core biometric information, collected or created under this Act under sub-section (2) of section 29;

(v) the manner of alteration of demographic information under sub-section (1) and biometric information under sub-section (2) of section 31;

(w) the manner of and the time for maintaining the request for authentication and the response thereon under sub-section (1), and the manner of obtaining, by the Aadhaar number holder, the authentication records under sub-section (2) of section 32;

(x) any other matter which is required to be, or may be, specified, or in respect of which provision is to be or may be made by regulations.”

Section 11(1), read with Sections 23(2) and 54(2), indicates that UIDAI is the

sole authority vested with the power and responsibility of carrying out

numerous functions. These functions include:

(i) collection of demographic information and biometric information from

individuals;

(ii) generating and assigning Aadhaar numbers to individuals;

(iii) performing authentication of Aadhaar numbers;

(iv) maintaining and updating the information of individuals in the CIDR;

(v) omitting and deactivating of an Aadhaar number;

(vi) specifying the manner of use of Aadhaar numbers for the purposes of

providing or availing of various subsidies, benefits, services and other

purposes;

88 PART D

(vii) specifying the terms and conditions for appointment of Registrars,

enrolling agencies and service providers and revocation of appointments;

(viii) specifying various processes relating to data management, security

protocols and other technological safeguards under the Act;

(ix) setting up facilitation centres and mechanisms for the redressal of the

grievances of individuals, Registrars, enrolling agencies and other service

providers; and

(x) other functions prescribed by the Central government.

The Act does not set any limits within which the sole authority of UIDAI may

operate. UIDAI has been conferred with discretionary powers as provided in

the above provisions. The architecture of Aadhaar keeps UIDAI at the centre

of all processes.

49 For the purpose of performing the functions of collecting, storing,

securing, processing of information, delivery of Aadhaar numbers to

individuals or performing authentication, clause (a) of Section 23(3)

contemplates that UIDAI may enter into Memoranda of Understanding or

agreements with the central or state governments, Union territories or other

agencies. In discharging its functions, UIDAI may appoint, by notification, a

number of Registrars, engage and authorise such agencies to collect, store,

secure and process information or perform authentication or such other

functions in relation to it, as may be necessary for the purposes of the Act

89 PART D

(Section 23 (3) (b)). For the efficient discharge of its functions, UIDAI may also

engage consultants, advisors and other persons as may be required (Section

23(4)). These, like many other provisions, open the scope for the involvement

of private entities in the Aadhaar project. This is also evident from Section 57

of the Act, which allows the use of the Aadhaar number, by the state,

corporate entities or persons to establish the identity of an individual:

“57. Act not to prevent use of Aadhaar number for other purposes under law.-

Nothing contained in this Act shall prevent the use of Aadhaar number for establishing the identity of an individual for any purpose, whether by the State or any body corporate or person, pursuant to any law, for the time being in force, or any contract to this effect:

Provided that the use of Aadhaar number under this section shall be subject to the procedure and obligations under section 8 and Chapter VI.”

50 The responsibility to ensure the security of identity information and

authentication records of individuals has been placed on UIDAI. 62 UIDAI is

also required to ensure confidentiality of identity information and authentication

records of individuals,63 except in circumstances, where disclosure of

information is permitted by the Act.64 Section 28(3) requires UIDAI to take all

necessary measures to ensure that the information in its possession or control,

including information stored in the CIDR, is secured and protected against

access, use or disclosure not permitted under the Act or regulations, and

against accidental or intentional destruction, loss or damage. For the purpose

62 Section 28(1), Aadhaar Act 63 Section 28(2), Aadhaar Act 64 Section 33, Aadhaar Act

90 PART D

of maintaining the security and confidentiality of the information of individuals,

UIDAI is also required, under Section 28(4), to:

“(a) adopt and implement appropriate technical and organisational security measures;

(b) ensure that the agencies, consultants, advisors or other persons appointed or engaged for performing any function of the Authority under this Act, have in place appropriate technical and organisational security measures for the information; and

(c) ensure that the agreements or arrangements entered into with such agencies, consultants, advisors or other persons, impose obligations equivalent to those imposed on the Authority under this Act, and require such agencies, consultants, advisors and other persons to act only on instructions from the Authority.”

Except where it has otherwise been provided in the Aadhaar Act, a burden is

placed (under Section 28(5)) upon UIDAI, its officers, other employees

(whether during service or thereafter), and any agency that maintains the

CIDR not to reveal any information stored or the authentication record to

anyone. An Aadhaar number holder, however, may request UIDAI to provide

access to identity information excluding core biometric information in the

manner as may be specified by regulations (proviso to Section 28(5)).

Section 29 puts restrictions on sharing of information, collected or created

under the Act. Sub-section (1) of Section 29 provides that:

“(1) No core biometric information, collected or created under this Act, shall be—

(a) shared with anyone for any reason whatsoever; or

(b) used for any purpose other than generation of Aadhaar numbers and authentication under this Act.”

91 PART D

Sub-section (2) contemplates that the identity information, other than core

biometric information, collected or created under the Act may be shared only in

accordance with the provisions of the Act and in the manner as may be

specified by regulations.

A burden is placed, under Section 29(3), upon a requesting entity to ensure

that any identity information available with it, is neither used for any purpose,

other than that specified to the individual at the time of submitting identity

information for authentication; nor disclosed further, except with the prior

consent of the individual to whom such information relates.

Sub-section (4) prohibits publishing, display or posting publicly of any Aadhaar

number or core biometric information collected or created under the Act in

respect of an Aadhaar number holder, except for such purposes as may be

specified by the regulations. Section 30 contemplates that the biometric

information collected and stored in an electronic form is to be deemed

“sensitive personal data or information”. The provision specifically relates to

biometric information. The provision dilutes the protection that should be given

to demographic information. Further, a statutory duty has been placed upon

UIDAI to maintain authentication records in the manner and for a time period

prescribed by regulations.65 The issue of maintenance of authentication

records by UIDAI has been contentious and is dealt in a subsequent section

titled “Proportionality”. A statutory right is provided to every Aadhaar number

65 Section 32(1), Aadhaar Act

92 PART D

holder to obtain his authentication record in the manner specified by

regulations.66 Section 32(3) prohibits UIDAI (either by itself or through any

entity under its control) to collect, keep or maintain any information about the

purpose of authentication.

51 The Aadhaar Act allows disclosure of individual information in limited

circumstances. The manner and purpose for which information of individuals,

including identity information or authentication records, can be disclosed has

been provided under Section 33 of the Act. Section 33 states:

“(1) Nothing contained in sub-section (2) or sub-section (5) of section 28 or sub-section (2) of section 29 shall apply in respect of any disclosure of information, including identity information or authentication records, made pursuant to an order of a court not inferior to that of a District Judge:

Provided that no order by the court under this sub-section shall be made without giving an opportunity of hearing to the Authority.

(2) Nothing contained in sub-section (2) or sub-section (5) of section 28 and clause (b) of sub-section (1), sub-section (2) or sub-section (3) of section 29 shall apply in respect of any disclosure of information, including identity information or authentication records, made in the interest of national security in pursuance of a direction of an officer not below the rank of Joint Secretary to the Government of India specially authorised in this behalf by an order of the Central Government:

Provided that every direction issued under this sub-section, shall be reviewed by an Oversight Committee consisting of the Cabinet Secretary and the Secretaries to the Government of India in the Department of Legal Affairs and the Department of Electronics and Information Technology, before it takes effect:

Provided further that any direction issued under this sub- section shall be valid for a period of three months from the

66 Section 32(2), Aadhaar Act

93 PART D

date of its issue, which may be extended for a further period of three months after the review by the Oversight Committee.”

The Aadhaar Act provides two categories: a “court order” and “in the interest of

national security”, where the personal information of an individual can be

disclosed.

Under Section 31, in case any demographic information or biometric

information of an Aadhaar number holder is found to be incorrect, is lost or

changes subsequently, the Aadhaar number holder is required to request

UIDAI to make an alteration in his or her record in the CIDR in the manner

specified by regulations. On receipt of a request for alteration of demographic

or biometric information, UIDAI is vested with the power, subject to its

satisfaction, to make alterations as required in the record relating to the

Aadhaar number holder and to intimate the alteration to the holder. Sub-

section (4) of Section 31 prohibits alteration of any identity information in the

CIDR except in the manner provided in the Act or regulations made in this

behalf.

52 Chapter VII provides offences and penalties. Under Section 34, a

penalty has been provided for impersonation at the time of enrolment. Section

35 creates a penalty for impersonation of the Aadhaar number holder by

changing demographic or biometric information. Section 37 provides a penalty

94 PART D

for disclosing identity information (which was collected in the course of

enrolment or authentication).

Under Section 38, a penalty for unauthorised access to the CIDR has been

provided. Section 38 provides thus:

“Whoever, not being authorised by the Authority, intentionally,—

(a) accesses or secures access to the Central Identities Data Repository;

(b) downloads, copies or extracts any data from the Central Identities Data Repository or stored in any removable storage medium;

(c) introduces or causes to be introduced any virus or other computer contaminant in the Central Identities Data Repository;

(d) damages or causes to be damaged the data in the Central Identities Data Repository;

(e) disrupts or causes disruption of the access to the Central Identities Data Repository;

(f) denies or causes a denial of access to any person who is authorised to access the Central Identities Data Repository;

(g) reveals any information in contravention of sub-section (5) of section 28, or shares, uses or displays information in contravention of section 29 or assists any person in any of the aforementioned acts;

(h) destroys, deletes or alters any information stored in any removable storage media or in the Central Identities Data Repository or diminishes its value or utility or affects it injuriously by any means; or

(i) steals, conceals, destroys or alters or causes any person to steal, conceal, destroy or alter any computer source code used by the Authority with an intention to cause damage,

shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years and shall also be liable to a fine which shall not be less than ten lakh rupees.”

95 PART D

Section 39 imposes a penalty for tampering with data in the CIDR. Sections 40

and 41 impose penalties on requesting and enrolment agencies in case they

act in contravention of the obligations imposed upon them under the Act.

Section 42 provides for a general penalty for an offence under the Act or the

rules or regulations made thereunder, for which no specific penalty is provided

under the Act. Under Section 43, when an offence has been committed by a

company, every person who at the time the offence was committed was in

charge of, and was responsible to the company for the conduct of the business

of the company, as well as the company, shall be deemed to be guilty of the

offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.

Section 44 indicates that the provisions of the Act would apply to any offence

or contravention committed outside India by any person, irrespective of

nationality. The power to investigate offences under the Act has been placed,

under Section 45, on a police officer not below the rank of Inspector of Police.

Section 47(1) of the Act puts a bar on the courts from taking cognizance of any

offence punishable under the Act, except when a complaint is made by UIDAI

or any officer or person authorised by it. The provision indicates that the scope

of cognizance is limited. It does not allow an individual who finds that there is

any violation under the Act, to initiate criminal proceedings. The scope of

grievance redressal under the Act is restrictive and works only on the action of

UIDAI or a person authorised by it. UIDAI has set up a grievance redressal

mechanism as contemplated by Section 23(2)(s) of the Aadhaar Act. There is

96 PART D

no grievance redressal mechanism if any breach or offence is committed by

UIDAI itself. The right of an individual to seek remedy under the Act if his/her

rights are violated will be discussed subsequently. Under sub-Section (2), no

court inferior to that of a Chief Metropolitan Magistrate or a Chief Judicial

Magistrate can try any offence punishable under the Act.

Section 48 empowers the Central Government to supersede UIDAI, in certain

situations. Under Section 50, UIDAI, in exercise of its powers or performance

of its functions under the Act, shall be bound by the written directions on

questions of policy of the Central Government. Section 51 vests power in

UIDAI to delegate to any member, officer or any other person, its powers and

functions under the Act (except the power under section 54) as it may deem

necessary. Section 51 grants a wide discretion to the UIDAI to delegate any of

its powers and functions.

Section 55 requires every rule and regulation made under the Aadhaar Act to

be laid down before each House of Parliament. The Section states:

“55. Laying of rules and regulations before Parliament.-

Every rule and every regulation made under this Act shall be laid, as soon as may be after it is made, before each House of Parliament, while it is in session, for a total period of thirty days which may be comprised in one session or in two or more successive sessions, and if, before the expiry of the session immediately following the session or the successive sessions aforesaid, both Houses agree in making any modification in the rule or regulation, or both the Houses agree that the rule or regulation should not be made, the rule or regulation shall thereafter have effect only in such modified form or be of no effect, as the case may be; so, however, that

97 PART E

any such modification or annulment shall be without prejudice to the validity of anything previously done under that rule or regulation.”

UIDAI needs to place the regulations framed by it before Parliament.

53 The architecture of Aadhaar is integral to the exercise of analyzing the

reasonableness of the entire project. Whether the architecture addresses the

concerns raised by the petitioners is an essential component of this exercise.

The architecture of Aadhaar must pass the constitutional requirements of

reasonableness and proportionality. This aspect will be dealt under the

heading of “proportionality” in a subsequent part of this judgment.

E Passage of Aadhaar Act as a Money Bill

54 The petitioners challenge the constitutionality of the Aadhaar Act,

contending that it could not have been passed as a Money Bill. According to

the submission, the Aadhaar Act did not qualify as a Money Bill under Article

110 of the Constitution, and it legislates on matters which fall outside that

provision. The Attorney General for India submitted that the Constitution

accords finality to the decision of the Speaker as to whether a Bill is a Money

Bill and hence the question whether the Aadhaar Act fulfils the requirements

of being categorized as Money Bill is not open to judicial review. The Attorney

General also urged that the Aadhaar Act does fall under Article 110. Article 110 provides thus:

98

PART E

“(1) For the purposes of this Chapter, a Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters, namely:—

(a) the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;

(b) the regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India, or the amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the Government of India;

(c) the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of moneys from any such Fund;

(d) the appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India;

(e) the declaring of any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or the increasing of the amount of any such expenditure;

(f) the receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or the custody or issue of such money or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a State; or

(g) any matter incidental to any of the matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to (f).

(2) A Bill shall not be deemed to be a Money Bill by reason only that it provides for the imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties, or for the demand or payment of fees for licences or fees for services rendered, or by reason that it provides for the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax by any local authority or body for local purposes.

(3) If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People thereon shall be final.

(4) There shall be endorsed on every Money Bill when it is transmitted to the Council of States under article 109, and when it is presented to the President for assent under article 111, the certificate of the Speaker of the House of the People signed by him that it is a Money Bill.”

55 The key questions before this Court are:

(i) Whether under Article 110(3), the decision of the Speaker of the Lok

Sabha, that a Bill is a Money Bill, is immune from judicial review;

99 PART E

(ii) If the answer to (i) is in the negative, whether the Aadhaar Act is a Money

Bill under Article 110(1) of the Constitution; and

(iii) If the Bill to enact the Aadhaar Act was not a Money Bill, whether a

declaration of unconstitutionality will result from its legislative passage as

a Money Bill in the Lok Sabha.

E.I Judicial Review of the Speaker’s Decision

56 Article 109 provides for a special procedure in respect of Money Bills. It

provides that a Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States, the

Rajya Sabha. After a Money Bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha and passed by

it, the Bill has to be transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations.

Article 110(4) provides that when a ‘Money Bill’ is transmitted from the Lower

House to the Upper House, it must be endorsed with a certificate by the

Speaker of the Lower House that it is a Money Bill. From the date of the

receipt of the Money Bill, the Rajya Sabha is bound to return the Bill to the Lok

Sabha, within a period of fourteen days, with its recommendations. The Lok

Sabha has the discretion to “either accept or reject all or any of the

recommendations” made by the Rajya Sabha.67 If the Lok Sabha accepts any

of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha, the Money Bill is deemed to

have been passed by both Houses of the Parliament “with the amendments

recommended” by the Rajya Sabha and accepted by the Lok Sabha.68

67 Article 109(2), The Constitution of India 68 Article 109(3), The Constitution of India

100 PART E

However, when the Lok Sabha “does not accept any of the recommendations”

of the Rajya Sabha, the Money Bill is said to have been passed by both

Houses in the form in which it was originally passed by the Lok Sabha.69 If a

Money Bill after being passed by the Lok Sabha and transmitted to the Rajya

Sabha for its recommendations is not returned to the Lok Sabha within a

period of fourteen days, it is then deemed to have been passed by both the

Houses of the Parliament in the form in which it was originally passed by the

Lok Sabha.70 When a Money Bill has been passed by the Houses of the

Parliament, Article 111 requires it to be presented to the President along with

the Lok Sabha Speaker’s certificate for assent71. Article 117(1) also provides

that a Bill “making provision for any of the matters specified in sub-clauses (a)

to (f) of clause (1) of article 110” shall also not be introduced in the Rajya

Sabha.

57 The Constitution contains corresponding provisions for Money Bills

introduced in and passed by a state legislative assembly. Article 198 provides

a special procedure for Money Bills in the state legislative assembly. Article

199(3) provides for the finality of the decision of the Speaker of the Legislative

Assembly. Under Article 200, when a Money Bill has been passed by the

State Legislature, it is to be presented to the Governor, along with the

Speaker’s certificate, for assent.72

69 Article 109(4), The Constitution of India 70 Article 109(5), The Constitution of India 71 Article 110(4), The Constitution of India 72 Article 199(4), The Constitution of India

101 PART E

Article 107 contains provisions for the introduction and passing of Bills in

general and provides thus:

“(1) Subject to the provisions of articles 109 and 117 with respect to Money Bills and other financial Bills, a Bill may originate in either House of Parliament. (2) Subject to the provisions of articles 108 and 109, a Bill shall not be deemed to have been passed by the Houses of Parliament unless it has been agreed to by both Houses, either without amendment or with such amendments only as are agreed to by both Houses. (3) A Bill pending in Parliament shall not lapse by reason of the prorogation of the Houses.

(4) A Bill pending in the Council of States which has not been passed by the House of the People shall not lapse on a dissolution of the House of the People.

(5) A Bill which is pending in the House of the People, or which having been passed by the House of the People is pending in the Council of States, shall, subject to the provisions of article 108, lapse on a dissolution of the House of the People.”

58 Ordinary bills can be passed only when they are agreed to by both

Houses. Amendments suggested by one House have to be agreed upon by

both the Houses for the bill to be passed. Both Houses of Parliament have a

vital role assigned by the Constitution in the passage of ordinary bills.

Deviating from the important role which it assigns to the Rajya Sabha in the

passage of legislation, the Constitution carves out a limited role for the Rajya

Sabha in the passage of Money Bills.

59 The Constitution confers special powers on the Speaker of the Lok

Sabha in the passage of a Money Bill. Ordinary bills (other than Money Bills)

can originate in either House of Parliament. They can be scrutinised, debated

in and amended in both the Houses of Parliament during the course of

102 PART E

passage. A Bill is not regarded as being passed by Parliament until both the

Houses agree to its passage without amendments or with the amendments as

proposed. A constitutional discretion is conferred on the Speaker of the Lok

Sabha to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill. When the Speaker of the Lok

Sabha declares a Bill to be a Money Bill, the Rajya Sabha is left only with the

option to make recommendations to the Bill within the deadline of fourteen

days. Being only recommendations, they do not bind the Lok Sabha. They

may either be accepted or rejected by the Lok Sabha.

60 The Rajya Sabha is a constitutional body in a bicameral legislature. The

makers of the Constitution adopted bicameralism from Britain. The origin of

the limited role that the Upper House has in the passing of a Money Bill can

be traced to the British Parliament Act, 1911, which will be discussed in a

subsequent part of this analysis. The draftspersons of the Constitution were

conscious of the impact of a misuse of institutional power. They provided for a

detailed blue print of the architecture of constitutional governance. It is

necessary to understand our constitutional history in order to comprehend the

scope of the finality attributed to the Speaker’s decision on whether or not a

Bill is a Money Bill.

61 The origins of the procedure of passing Money Bills in the United

Kingdom are older than the Parliament Act of 1911. The authoritative

103 PART E

treatise73, by Thomas Erskine May, on the law, privileges, proceedings and

usage of Parliament in Britain dwells on the history of the evolution of the

relationship between the House of Commons and the House of Lords with

regard to their powers of taxation and in relation to national revenue and

public expenditure.74

A grant imposed by the House of Commons would become law in effect, only

after the assent of the House of Lords and of the Queen.75 While the House of

Commons enjoyed the legal right to originate grants for nearly 300 years, the

House of Lords was originally not precluded from amending a Bill. But in

167176 and 167877 respectively, the Commons passed two resolutions to

curtail the powers of the House of Lords so that only the Commons had the

sole right to direct or limit the scope of a Bill regarding taxation and

government expenditure. The House of Lords was excluded from altering any

such Bill.

The exclusion of the Lords was so strictly followed that the Commons even

denied to the former, the power of authorising the taking of fees, imposing

73 Thomas Erskine May, A treatise on the law, privileges, proceedings and usage of Parliament, Ninth Edition (1883) 74 Ibid, at pages 637-638. It notes: “At length, when the Commons had increased in political influence, and the subsidies voted by them had become the principal source of national revenue, they gradually assumed their present position in regard to taxation and supply, and included the Lords as well as themselves in their grants. So far back as 1407, it was stated by King Henry IV, in the ordinance called “The Indemnity of the Lords and Commons”, that grants were “granted by the Commons, and assented to by the Lords”.” 75 Ibid, at page 638 76 Ibid, at page 641. The Resolution stated: “That in all aids given to the king by the Commons, the rate or tax

ought not to be altered”.

77 Ibid. The Resolution stated: “That all aids and supplies, and aids to his Majesty in Parliament, are the sole gift

of the Commons ; and all bills for the granting of any such aids and supplies ought to begin with the Commons : and that it is the undoubted and sole right of the Commons to direct, limit, and appoint in such bills the ends, purposes, considerations, conditions, limitations, and qualifications of such grants ; which ought not to be changed or altered by the House of Lords.”

104 PART E

pecuniary penalties or of varying the mode of suing for them, or of applying

them when recovered, though such provisions were necessary to give effect

to the general enactments of a Bill.78 Since this strict enforcement was found

to be “attended with unnecessary inconvenience”, it led to the adopting of a

Standing Order in 1849 which accommodated space to the House of Lords for

suggesting amendments on legislative issues.79 However, the constitutional

skirmishes continued. They eventually led to the passage of the Parliament

Act of 1911, which essentially deprived the House of Lords of the right to

reject Money Bills.

62 The Parliament Act 1911 was explicitly aimed at “regulating the

relations between the two Houses of Parliament”80. The Preamble of the Act

indicates that it was enacted for “restricting the existing powers of the House

of Lords”81. Section 1(1) provides for the power of the House of Lords on

Money Bills:

“If a Money Bill, having been passed by the House of Commons, and sent up to the House of Lords at least one month before the end of the session, is not passed by the House of Lords without amendment within one month after it is so sent up to that House, the Bill shall, unless the House of Commons direct to the contrary, be present to His Majesty and become an Act of Parliament on the Royal Assent being signified, notwithstanding that the House of Lords have not consented to the Bill.”

“Money Bill” was defined statutorily for the first time. Section 1(2) provided:

78 Ibid, at pages 642-643 79 Ibid, pages 646-647 80 Preamble of the Parliament Act 1911 81 Ibid

105 PART E

“A Money Bill means a Public Bill which in the opinion of the Speaker of the House of Commons contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following subjects, namely, the imposition, repeal, remission, alteration, or regulation of taxation; the imposition for the payment of debt or other financial purposes of charges on the Consolidated Fund, [the National Loans Fund] or on money provided by Parliament, or the variation or repeal of any such charges; supply; the appropriation, receipt, custody, issue or audit of accounts of public money; the raising or guarantee of any loan or the repayment thereof; or subordinate matters incidental to those subjects or any of them. In this subsection the expressions “taxation”, “public money”, and “loan” respectively do not include any taxation, money, or loan raised by local authorities or bodies for local purposes.”

The use of the expression “means” in the definition of a Money Bill indicates it

was exhaustively defined. A Bill would be a Money Bill, if the Speaker of the

House of Commons opined that it contains “only” certain specific provisions.

Under Section 1(3), when a Money Bill is sent up to the House of Lords and to

Her Majesty for assent, it should be endorsed by a certificate of the Speaker

of the House of Commons that it is a Money Bill. This sub-section also

provides that before giving his certificate, the Speaker may consult “two

members to be appointed from the Chairman’s Panel at the beginning of each

Session by the Committee of Selection”. Therefore, the Speaker has to certify

any bill which in his or her opinion falls within the definition of a Money Bill.

Any bill containing provisions outside the definition would not be certified as a

Money Bill. The Speaker does not certify a Bill until it has reached the form in

which it will leave the House of Commons, that is, at the end of its Commons

106 PART E

stage. The Speaker can only decide whether or not to certify a Bill once it has

passed the House.82

Section 3 of the 1911 Act provides finality to the certificate issued by the

Speaker and renders it immune from judicial review. According to it:

“Any certificate of the Speaker of the House of Commons given under this Act shall be conclusive for all purposes, and shall not be questioned in any court of law.” (Emphasis supplied)

The Act provides finality to the decision of the Speaker of the House of

Commons. By using the phrase “shall not be questioned in any court of law”,

the Act grants immunity to the Speaker’s decision from judicial review.

The statutory concept of a ‘Money Bill’ and the Speaker’s certification of a Bill

as a ‘Money Bill’ introduced by the Parliament Act, 1911 ultimately found its

way into the Constitution of India, but with significant modifications.

63 In India, the categorization of Money Bills can be said to have begun

from the Commonwealth of India Bill 1925, which was drafted by a National

Convention comprised of 250 members, with Tej Bahadur Sapru as its

Chairman. Article 36 of the Commonwealth Bill provided:

“36. (a) Any Bill which appropriates revenue or moneys for the ordinary annual services of the Government shall deal only with such appropriation.

82 House of Lords, Select Committee on the Constitution, Money Bills and Commons Financial Privilege (2011), available at https://publications.parliament.uk/pa/ld201011/ldselect/ldconst/97/97.pdf

107 PART E

(b) Bills imposing taxation· shall deal only with the imposition of taxes, and any provision therein dealing with any other matter shall be of no effect.

(c) Bills for the appropriation of revenues or moneys or imposing taxation shall be introduced only by a member of the Cabinet, and can only originate in the Legislative Assembly.”

The Bill neither provided a definition of a Money Bill nor did it discuss the role

of the Speaker of the Assembly of elected representatives.

In its Madras session of December 1927, the Indian National Congress, as a

response to the setting up of the Simon Commission (which did not have any

Indian members) decided to set up an All Parties’ Conference to draft a

Constitution for India. With Motilal Nehru as the Chairman of the Committee

constituted by the All Parties’ Conference, a Report was prepared. Article 17

of the Nehru Report provided a definition of a Money Bill:

“17. A money bill means a bill which contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following subjects, namely the imposition, repeal, remission, alteration or regulation of taxation; the imposition, for the payment of debt or other financial purposes, of charges on public revenues or monies, or the variation or repeal of any such charges; the supply, appropriation, receipt, custody, issue or audit of accounts of public money; the raising of any loan or the repayment thereof; or subordinate matters incidental to those subjects or any of them. In this definition the expression “taxation”, “public money” and “loan” respectively do not include any taxation, money or loan raised by local authorities or bodies for local purposes.”

The definition of a Money Bill in the Nehru Report, was drawn from the

Parliament Act, 1911 in Britain. Article 18 of the Report provided that the

“question whether a bill is or is not a money bill will be decided by the

108 PART E

president of the House of Representatives”. The House of Representatives

(the Lower House) was provided the final authority to either accept or reject

the recommendations made by the Senate (the Upper House). Article 19 of

the Report provided thus:

“A money bill passed by the House of Representatives shall be sent to the Senate for its recommendations and it shall be returned not later than… days therefrom to the House of Representatives, which may pass it, accepting or rejecting all or any of the recommendations of the Senate; and the bill so passed shall be deemed to have been passed by both chambers.”

While the Constituent Assembly of India was in session, the Socialist Party of

India came up with a “Draft Constitution of the Republic of India”, based on its

ideologies. Article 147 of its Draft Constitution provided:

“147. (1) A Bill making provision-

(a) for imposing, abolishing, remitting, altering or regulating any tax ; or

(b) for regulating the borrowing of money, or giving any guarantee by the Government, or for amending the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the Government; or

(c) for declaring any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the public revenues, or for increasing the amount of any such expenditure shall be deemed as a money Bill and shall not be introduced or moved except on the recommendation of the Government. (2) A Bill or amendment shall not be deemed to make provision for any of the purposes aforesaid by reason only that it provides for the Imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties, or for the demand and payment of fees for licenses or fees for services rendered, or by reason that it provides for the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of tax by any local authority or body for local purposes. (3) In case of dispute whether a Bill is a money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker, or in his absence of the Deputy Speaker, shall be final.”

109 PART E

The Draft Constitution of the Socialist Party conferred a discretion on the

Speaker of the Lower House, and in his absence, on the Deputy Speaker, to

decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill.

64 There was another model present before the makers of the Indian

Constitution. British India was governed by the provisions of the Government

of India Act, 1935, which provided for two Houses of Parliament − the Council

of States (Upper House) and Federal Assembly (Lower House). Section 37 of

the Government of India Act 1935 made special provisions for financial bills:

“37.-(1) A Bill or amendment making provision- (a) for imposing or increasing any tax; or (b) for regulating the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Federal Government, or for amending the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the Federal Government ; or (c) for declaring any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the revenues of the Federation, or for increasing the amount of any such expenditure, shall not be introduced or moved except on the recommendation of the Governor-General, and a Bill making such provision shall not be introduced in the Council of State.”

Under the 1935 Act, there was no provision for a Speaker’s certificate

regarding a Financial Bill. Section 38(1) authorized each House to make rules

regulating its procedure and for the conduct of its business, subject to the

provisions of the Act.

A Financial Bill could be introduced only “on the recommendation of the

Governor-General”. Section 41 provided a general immunity from judicial

review on the “ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure”:

110 PART E

“41(1). The validity of any proceedings in the Federal Legislature shall not be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure.

(2) No officer or other member of the Legislature in whom powers are vested by or under this Act for regulating procedure or the conduct of business, or for maintaining order, in the Legislature shall be subject to the jurisdiction of any court in respect of the exercise by him of those powers.”

The Constituent Assembly evidently had these legislative precedents relating

to Money Bills which it would have considered while formulating its drafts.

65 While the proceedings of the Constituent Assembly were in motion, Sir

B N Rau, as its constitutional advisor, prepared a memorandum of the Draft

Constitution for the Union Constitution Committee. It envisaged a Parliament

of the Union consisting of the President and two Houses—the Senate and the

House of Representatives.83 One of the proposals discussed in the meetings

of the Union Constitution Committee was that “Money Bills would originate in

the House of the People and the power of the other House would be limited to

making suggestions for amendment, which the House of the People could

accept or reject”.84 B Shiva Rao has recorded what transpired during the

course of the proceedings of the Constituent Assembly:

“The Draft also included provisions regarding legislative procedure, procedure in financial matters and general procedure for the conduct of business. No Bill could be submitted for the President’s assent unless it had been passed in identical form by both Houses. Except in the case of Money Bills, both Houses enjoyed equal powers; and difference between the two Houses were to be settled by a majority vote in a joint sitting of both Houses convened by the President… Money Bills were defined in the Draft as

83 B Shiva Rao, The Framing of India’s Constitution: A Study, Indian Institution of Public Administration (1968), at page 420 84 Ibid

111 PART E

comprising Bills proposing the imposition or increase of any tax, regulating the borrowing of money by the Government of India or the giving of financial guarantees, or declaring any item of expenditure as ‘‘charged” on the revenues, i.e. placing it outside the vote of the House of the People. The general principle approved by the Constituent Assembly was that financial control over the executive would' be - exercised by the House of the People. Accordingly the Draft provided that Money Bills could originate only in that House. The powers of the Council of States in the case of Money Bills were restricted to making suggestions for amendment. If these suggestions were, not accepted by the House of the People, or if the Council of States did not return a Bill within thirty days with its suggestions for amendment, the Bill would be ‘deemed to have been' passed by both Houses in the form in which it was passed' by the House of the People” and submitted to the President for his assent’.”85

66 The draft prepared by the Constitutional Advisor provided a definition of

a Money Bill, which was inspired by Section 37 of the Government of India

Act 1935, Section 53 of the Commonwealth of Australia Constitution Act

190086 and Article 22 of the Constitution of Ireland 1937.87 Article 75 of this

draft of the Constitution provided that “if any question arises whether a Bill is a

‘money bill’ or not, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People

thereon shall be final.”88 Neither Section 37 of the Government of India Act

1935 nor Section 53 of the Commonwealth of Australia Constitution Act 1900

85 Ibid, at pages 427-428 86 The said provision provides: “Powers of the Houses in respect of legislation. Proposed laws appropriating revenue or moneys, or imposing taxation, shall not originate in the Senate. But a proposed law shall not be taken to appropriate revenue or moneys, or to impose taxation, by reason only of its containing provisions for the imposition or appropriation of fines or other pecuniary penalties, or for the demand or payment or appropriation of fees for licences, or fees for services under the proposed law. The Senate may not amend proposed laws imposing taxation, or proposed laws appropriating revenue or moneys for the ordinary annual services of the Government. The Senate may not amend any proposed law so as to increase any proposed charge or burden on the people. The Senate may at any stage return to the House of Representatives any proposed law which the Senate may not amend, requesting, by message, the omission or amendment of any items or provisions therein. And the House of Representatives may, if it thinks fit, make any of such omissions or amendments, with or without modifications. Except as provided in this section, the Senate shall have equal power with the House of Representatives in respect of all proposed laws.” 87 B Shiva Rao, The Framing of India’s Constitution: Selected Documents, Indian Institution of Public

Administration (2012), at page 32, as quoted in Pratik Datta, Shefali Malhotra & Shivangi Tyagi, Judicial Review and Money Bills, NUJS Law Review (2017) 88 Ibid

112 PART E

has a similar provision which accords legal finality to the decision of the

Speaker. The draft provision was similar to Article 22 of the Constitution of

Ireland 1937, which provides:

“1. The Chairman of Dáil Éireann89 shall certify any Bill which, in his opinion, is a Money Bill to be a Money Bill, and his certificate shall, subject to the subsequent provisions of this section, be final and conclusive.

2. Seanad Éireann90, by a resolution, passed at a sitting at which not less than thirty members are present, may request the President to refer the question whether the Bill is or is not a Money Bill to a Committee of Privileges.

3. If the President after consultation with the Council of State decides to accede to the request he shall appoint a Committee of Privileges consisting of an equal number of members of Dáil Éireann and of Seanad Éireann and a Chairman who shall be a Judge of the Supreme Court: these appointments shall be made after consultation with the Council of State. In the case of an equality of votes but not otherwise the Chairman shall be entitled to vote.

4. The President shall refer the question to the Committee of Privileges so appointed and the Committee shall report its decision thereon to the President within twenty-one days after the day on which the Bill was sent to Seanad Éireann.

5. The decision of the Committee shall be final and conclusive.

6. If the President after consultation with the Council of State decides not to accede to the request of Seanad Éireann, or if the Committee of Privileges fails to report within the time hereinbefore specified the certificate of the Chairman of Dáil Éireann shall stand confirmed.” (Emphasis supplied)

67 The draft prepared by the Advisor to the Constituent Assembly did not

adopt the above provision in its entirety. It adopted the part on the finality of

the certification of the Speaker on whether a Bill is a Money Bill. The Irish

model of dispute resolution, which provided for a mechanism to review the

Speaker’s certification, was not adopted.

89 Lower House in Ireland 90 Upper House in Ireland

113 PART E

Subsequently, in its report submitted to the President of the Constituent

Assembly on 5 December 1947, the Expert Committee on Financial

Provisions suggested an amendment to the draft provision, to the effect that:

“When a Money Bill is sent from the Lower House to the Upper, a certificate of the Speaker of the Lower House saying that it is a Money Bill should be attached to, or endorsed on, the bill and a provision to that effect should be made in the Constitution on the lines of the corresponding provision in the Parliament Act, 1911. This will prevent controversies about the matter outside the Lower House.”91 (Emphasis supplied)

Certification of any Bill by the Speaker of the Lower House as a Money Bill,

was envisaged for procedural simplicity to avoid causing confusion in the

Upper House of Parliament.

68 The final provision which has assumed the form of Article 110 of the

Constitution, does not contain the exact language used in the Act of 1911.

The 1911 Act of the British Parliament consciously excluded judicial review of

the certificate of the Speaker of the House of Commons. The intention of the

British Parliament is clear from the specific language used in Section 3 of the

Act. Section 3 accords finality to the decision of the Speaker by providing that

any certificate of the Speaker of the House of Commons “shall be conclusive

for all purposes, and shall not be questioned in any court of law”. The

certification of the Speaker is both conclusive and immune from judicial

review. The framers of the Indian Constitution did not adopt this language.

91 B Shiva Rao, The Framing of India’s Constitution: Selected Documents, Indian Institution of Public Administration, at page 281

114 PART E

Rather, they chose to adopt the phrase “shall be final”. The phrase used in the

Act of 1911 expressly excluded courts from exercising their power of judicial

review over the decision of the Speaker of the House of Commons. This

language was used in the 1911 Act to put an end to the constitutional

skirmishes experienced by the House of Lords and the House of Commons in

Britain for more than five hundred years, leading to the enactment of the 1911

Act.92 The deviation from incorporating the language, used in the 1911 Act,

into the Indian Constitution is reflective of the intention of our Constitution

makers that they did not want to confer the same status on the power

assigned to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, as is provided to the Speaker of

the House of Commons. Had their intention been otherwise, they would have

used the same language as that provided under the 1911 Act. Finality would

operate as between the Houses of Parliament. It did not exclude judicial

review by a constitutional Court.

69 The British legal system adopts the principle of parliamentary

sovereignty. That is not so in India. Ours is a system founded on the

supremacy of the Constitution. Judicial review is an essential component of

constitutional supremacy. A Constitution Bench of this Court in Kalpana

Mehta v Union of India93 has, while noticing this distinction, held:

“…The fundamental difference between the two systems lies in the fact that parliamentary sovereignty in the Westminster form of government in the UK has given way, in the Indian Constitution, to constitutional supremacy. Constitutional

92 Pratik Datta, Shefali Malhotra & Shivangi Tyagi, Judicial Review and Money Bills, NUJS Law Review (2017) 93 (2018) 7 SCC 1

115 PART E

supremacy mandates that every institution of governance is subject to the norms embodied in the constitutional text. The Constitution does not allow for the existence of absolute power in the institutions which it creates. Judicial review as a part of the basic features of the Constitution is intended to ensure that every institution acts within its bounds and limits.”94

70 The purpose of judicial review is to ensure that constitutional principles

prevail in interpretation and governance. Institutions created by the

Constitution are subject to its norms. No constitutional institution wields

absolute power. No immunity has been attached to the certificate of the

Speaker of the Lok Sabha from judicial review, for this reason. The

Constitution makers have envisaged a role for the judiciary as the expounder

of the Constitution. The provisions relating to the judiciary, particularly those

regarding the power of judicial review, were framed, as Granville Austin

observed, with “idealism”95. Courts of the country are expected to function as

guardians of the Constitution and its values. Constitutional courts have been

entrusted with the duty to scrutinize the exercise of power by public

functionaries under the Constitution. No individual holding an institutional

office created by the Constitution can act contrary to constitutional

parameters. Judicial review protects the principles and the spirit of the

Constitution. Judicial review is intended as a check against arbitrary conduct

of individuals holding constitutional posts. It holds public functionaries

accountable to constitutional duties. If our Constitution has to survive the

vicissitudes of political aggrandisement and to face up to the prevailing

94 Ibid, at para 227 95 Granville Austin, The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation, Oxford University Press (1966), at page 205

116 PART E

cynicism about all constitutional institutions, notions of power and authority

must give way to duties and compliance with the rule of law. Constitutional

institutions cannot be seen as focal points for the accumulation of power and

privilege. They are held in trust by all those who occupy them for the moment.

The impermanence of power is a sombre reflection for those who occupy

constitutional offices. The Constitution does not contemplate a debasement of

the institutions which it creates. The office of the Speaker of the House of

People, can be no exception. The decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha in

certifying a Bill as a Money Bill is liable to be tested upon the touchstone of its

compliance with constitutional principles. Nor can such a decision of the

Speaker take leave of constitutional morality.

71 Our Constitution does not provide absolute power to any institution. It

sets the limits for each institution. Our constitutional scheme envisages a

system of checks and balances. The power of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha,

to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill, cannot be untrammelled. The

contention that the decision of Speaker is immune from judicial review and

cannot be questioned, is contrary to the entire scheme of the Constitution,

which is premised on transparency, non-arbitrariness and fairness. The

phrase “shall be final” used in Article 110(3) has been adopted, as mentioned

earlier, from Article 22 of the Irish Constitution. The provisions of Article 22 of

the Irish Constitution provide a mechanism for review of the certificate issued

by the Speaker. Recourse is provided under the Irish Constitution by which

117 PART E

the members of the Upper House of the Irish Parliament can request the

President of Ireland to refer the question of whether a Bill is a Money Bill, to a

Committee of Privileges. If the President refers the question to this

Committee, the decision of the Committee stands “final and conclusive”. The

members of the Constituent Assembly did not adopt this mechanism. Absence

of this mechanism does not mean that the decision of the Speaker of the Lok

Sabha cannot be subject to checks and balances, of which judicial review is

an indispensable facet. The Speaker has to act within the domain, which the

Constitution accords to the office of the Speaker. The power conferred on the

Speaker of the Lok Sabha cannot be exercised arbitrarily, for it could damage

the scheme of the Constitution. Judicial review is the ultimate remedy to

ensure that the Speaker does not act beyond constitutional entrustment.

72 The scope of the phrase “shall be final” can also be understood by

looking at the proceedings of the Constituent Assembly. The constitutional

foundation of Article 110(4) is based upon a suggestion of the Expert

Committee on Financial Provisions that when a Money Bill is transmitted from

the Lower House to the Upper House, it should be endorsed by the Speaker’s

certificate, so as to prevent any controversy “about the matter outside the

Lower House”. Therefore, the finality provided to the decision of the Speaker

as to whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, is aimed at avoiding any

controversy on the issue in the Rajya Sabha and before the President. Had it

been intended to prevent the court from adjudicating upon the validity of the

118 PART E

decision of the Speaker, the language of the Article would have made it

explicit. Where a constitutional provision evinces a specific intent to exclude

judicial review, clear words to that effect are used. Articles 243O(a) 96,

243ZG(a)97 and 329(a) specifically use the phrase − “shall not be called in

question in any court”. For instance, Article 329(a) provides thus:

“Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution —

(a) the validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies or the allotment of seats to such constituencies, made or purporting to be made under article 327 or article 328, shall not be called in question in any court.” (Emphasis supplied)

73 In N P Ponnuswami v Returning Officer, Namakkal Constituency,

Namakkal, Salem District98, a six judge Bench of this Court, while construing

the provisions of Article 329, compared it to the preceding Articles, and held

thus:

“5…A notable difference in the language used in articles 327 and 328 on the one hand, and article 329 on the other, is that while the first two articles begin with the words “subject to the provisions of this Constitution”, the last article begins with the words “notwithstanding anything in this Constitution”. It was conceded at the Bar that the effect of this difference in language is that whereas any law made by Parliament under article 327, or by the State Legislature under article 328, cannot exclude the jurisdiction of the High Court under article 226 of the Constitution, that jurisdiction is excluded in regard to matters provided for in article 329.”99

96 Article 243O(a), which is a part of the chapter on Panchayats, provides: “Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution,— (a) the validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies or the allotment of seats to such constituencies, made or purporting to be made under article 243K, shall not be called in question in any court.” 97 Article 243ZG(a), which is a part of the chapter on Municipalities, provides: “Notwithstanding anything in this

Constitution,— (a) the validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies or the allotment of seats to such constituencies, made or purporting to be made under article 243ZA shall not be called in question in any court.” 98 1952 SCR 218 99 Ibid, at para 5

119 PART E

74 In order to understand the scope of the finality attached to the

Speaker’s decision under Article 110(3), it would be useful to analyse how in

the case of other constitutional provisions, the words “shall be final” have been

interpreted by this Court. Articles 217(3)100, 311(3)101 and paragraph 6(1) of

the Tenth Schedule102 contain the phrase “shall be final”. In Union of India v

Jyoti Prakash Mitter103, this Court held that it can examine the legality of an

order passed by the President on the determination of the age of a Judge of

the High Court under Article 217 (3) of the Constitution. The six judge Bench

held:

“32…The President acting under Article 217(3) performs a judicial function of grave importance under the scheme of our Constitution. He cannot act on the advice of his Ministers. Notwithstanding the declared finality of the order of the President the Court has jurisdiction in appropriate cases to set aside the order, if it appears that it was passed on collateral considerations or the rules of natural justice were not observed, or that the President's judgment was coloured by the advice or representation made by the executive or it was founded on no evidence…Appreciation of evidence is entirely left to the President and it is not for the Courts to hold that on the evidence placed before the President on which the conclusion is founded, if they were called upon to decide the case they would have reached some other conclusion.”104

The President was held to perform a judicial function in making a

determination under Article 217(3).

100 Article 217 (3) states: “If any question arises as to the age of a Judge of a High Court, the question shall be decided by the President after consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the decision of the President shall be final.” 101 Article 311(3) states: “If, in respect of any such person as aforesaid, a question arises whether it is reasonably

practicable to hold such inquiry as is referred to in clause (2), the decision thereon of the authority empowered to dismiss or remove such person or to reduce him in rank shall be final.” 102 Paragraph 6(1) states “If any question arises as to whether a member of a House has become subject to

disqualification under this Schedule, the question shall be referred for the decision of the Chairman, or, as the case may be, the Speaker of such House and his decision shall be final:

Provided that where the question which has arisen is as to whether the Chairman or the Speaker of a House has become subject to such disqualification, the question shall be referred for the decision of such member of the House as the House may elect in this behalf and his decision shall be final.” 103 (1971) 1 SCC 396 104 Ibid, at page 397

120 PART E

The question of finality under Article 311(3) was dealt with by a Constitution

Bench of this Court in Union of India v Tulsiram Patel105. The Court held that

the finality given to the decision of the disciplinary authority by Article 311(3)

that it is not reasonably practicable to hold an enquiry, is not binding upon the

Court so far as its power of judicial review is concerned.

The constitutional validity of the provisions contained in the Tenth Schedule to

the Constitution came up for consideration before a Constitution Bench of this

Court in Kihoto Hollohan v Zachillhu106. The Constitution Bench held that

the power vested in the Speaker or the Chairman under the Schedule, is a

judicial power, and was amenable to judicial review:

“111…That Paragraph 6(1) of the Tenth Schedule, to the extent it seeks to impart finality to the decision of the Speakers/Chairmen is valid. But the concept of statutory finality embodied in Paragraph 6(1) does not detract from or abrogate judicial review under Articles 136, 226 and 227 of the Constitution in so far as infirmities based on violations of constitutional mandates, mala fides, non-

compliance with Rules of Natural Justice and perversity, are concerned.”107 (Emphasis supplied)

The Bench had also clarified that:

“101…The principle that is applied by the courts is that in spite of a finality clause it is open to the court to examine whether the action of the authority under challenge is ultra vires the powers conferred on the said authority. Such an action can be ultra vires for the reason that it is in contravention of a mandatory provision of the law conferring on the authority the power to take such an action. It will also be ultra vires the powers conferred on the authority if it is

105 (1985) 3 SCC 398 106 (1992) Supp (2) SCC 651 107 Ibid, at page 711

121 PART E

vitiated by mala fides or is colourable exercise of power based on extraneous and irrelevant considerations...”108

Undoubtedly, the finality clauses contained in Article 217(3), 311(3) and in

paragraph 6(1) of the Tenth Schedule were held not to exclude judicial review

since the essential nature of the power is judicial. A constitutional function is

entrusted to the Speaker to certify a Bill as a Money Bill under Article 110(3),

to which the attributes of a judicial power do not apply. Indeed, the power

which is entrusted to the Speaker under Article 110(3) is integral to the

legislative process. But, the fact that the authority which a constitutional

functionary exercises is not of a judicial character, is not sufficient to lead to

the conclusion that a finality clause governing the exercise of that power

makes it immune from judicial review. Where the entrustment of the power is

subject to the due fulfilment of constitutional norms, the exercise of jurisdiction

is amenable to judicial review, to the extent necessary to determine whether

there has been a violation of a constitutional mandate. The nature and extent

of judicial review would undoubtedly vary from a situation where finality has

been attached to a judicial, administrative or quasi-judicial power. However, a

clause on finality notwithstanding, it is open to the constitutional court to

determine as to whether there has been a violation of a constitutional mandate

as a result of which the decision suffers from a constitutional infirmity. The

entrustment of a constitutional function to the Speaker under Article 110(3) to

certify a Bill as a Money Bill is premised on the fulfilment of the norms

stipulated in Article 110(1). A certification can be questioned on the ground 108 Ibid, at page 708

122 PART E

that the Bill did not fulfil the conditions stipulated in Article 110(1) to be

designated as a Money Bill. If that is established, the certification would be

contrary to constitutional mandate. Whether that is so can be judicially

scrutinized.

75 The notion that an entrustment of power is absolute has a colonial

origin. Law under a colonial regime was not just an instrument to maintain

order but was a source of subordination. Recognition of the vesting of

absolute authority was but a reflection of the premise that those who ruled

could not be questioned. Those who were ruled had to accept the authority of

the ruler. Nothing can be as divorced from constitutional principle as these

normative foundations of colonial law and history. The notion that power is

absolute is inconsistent with a Constitution which subjects the entrustment of

functions to public functionaries to the restraints which accompany it. Our law

must recognise the need to liberate its founding principles from its colonial

past. The Court should not readily accept the notion that the authority vested

in a constitutional functionary is immune from judicial review. In the absence

of a specific exclusion of judicial review, none can be implied. Moreover, any

exclusion of judicial review must be tested on the anvil of its functionality. A

specific exclusion of judicial review, in order to be valid, must serve a

constitutional function. The test of functionality must relate to whether an

exclusion of review is necessary to fulfil the overarching need for the proper

discharge of a constitutional role. Exclusion of review, to be valid, must fulfil

123 PART E

the requirement of a constitutional necessity. Its purpose cannot be to shield

an excess of power from being questioned before the Court. Nor is the fact

that a power is vested in a high functionary a ground to shield it from scrutiny.

The ultimate test is whether the exclusion of judicial review is express and

specific and, whether such an exclusion is designed to achieve a

constitutional purpose that meets the test of functionality, assessed in terms of

a constitutional necessity. In the seventh decade of the republic, our

interpretation of the Constitution must subserve the need to liberate it from its

colonial detritus.

This approach was adopted by a seven judge Bench of this Court in Krishna

Kumar Singh v State of Bihar109. While interpreting the ordinance making

power of the Governor, the Court held that the interpretation of the

Constitution must be “carefully structured” to ensure that the power remains

what the framers of our Constitution intended it to be. The Bench held:

“91…The issue which needs elaboration is whether an ordinance which by its very nature has a limited life can bring about consequences for the future (in terms of the creation of rights, privileges, liabilities and obligations) which will enure beyond the life of the ordinance. In deciding this issue, the court must adopt an interpretation which furthers the basic constitutional premise of legislative control over ordinances. The preservation of this constitutional value is necessary for parliamentary democracy to survive on the sure foundation of the Rule of law and collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature. The silences of the Constitution must be imbued with substantive content by infusing them with a meaning which enhances the Rule of law. To attribute to the executive as an incident of the power to frame ordinances, an unrestricted ability to create binding effects for posterity would

109 (2017) 3 SCC 1

124 PART E

set a dangerous precedent in a parliamentary democracy.

The court's interpretation of the power to frame ordinances, which originates in the executive arm of government, cannot be oblivious to the basic notion that the primary form of law making power is through the legislature...”110 (Emphasis supplied)

The ordinance making power was held to be an exceptional power to meet a

“constitutional necessity”.

76 The marginal note to Article 122 is: “Courts not to inquire into

proceedings of Parliament”. The Article reads thus:

“122. (1) The validity of any proceedings in Parliament shall not be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure.

(2) No officer or member of Parliament in whom powers are vested by or under this Constitution for regulating procedure or the conduct of business, or for maintaining order, in Parliament shall be subject to the jurisdiction of any court in respect of the exercise by him of those powers.”

This Court must deal with the question whether the Speaker’s decision under

Article 110(3) is protected by Article 122. Article 122 prohibits courts from

examining the validity of any proceedings in Parliament on the ground that

there was “any alleged irregularity of procedure”. The content of the

expression “procedure” referred to in the Article, is indicated in Article 118 of

the Constitution. The marginal note to Article 118 provides for “Rules of

procedure”. Article 118 provides as follows:

“118. (1) Each House of Parliament may make rules for regulating, subject to the provisions of this Constitution, its procedure and the conduct of its business. (2) Until rules are made under clause (1), the rules of 110 Ibid, at pages 76-77

125 PART E

procedure and standing orders in force immediately before the commencement of this Constitution with respect to the Legislature of the Dominion of India shall have effect in relation to Parliament subject to such modifications and adaptations as may be made therein by the Chairman of the Council of States or the Speaker of the House of the People, as the case may be.

(3) The President, after consultation with the Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker of the House of the People, may make rules as to the procedure with respect to joint sittings of, and communications between, the two Houses.

(4) At a joint sitting of the two Houses the Speaker of the House of the People, or in his absence such person as may be determined by rules of procedure made under clause (3), shall preside.” (Emphasis supplied)

77 Articles 118 to 122 are covered under the rubric of the general heading-

“Procedure Generally”. Article 118 provides for rules to be made by each

House of Parliament for regulating the procedure and conduct of its business.

The Article subjects these contemplated rules to the provisions of the

Constitution. The provision does not indicate that these rules will stand above

the Constitution. They are, on the contrary, subject to the Constitution. The

rules framed under Article 118, are procedural in nature. The procedure

contemplated under Articles 118 to 122 is distinct from substantive

constitutional requirements. The obligation placed on the Speaker of the Lok

Sabha to certify whether a Bill is a Money Bill is not a mere matter of

“procedure” contemplated under Article 122. It is a constitutional requirement,

which has to be fulfilled according to the norms set out in Article 110. Article

122 will not save the action of the Speaker, if it is contrary to constitutional

norms provided under Article 110. The Court, in the exercise of its power of

judicial review, can adjudicate upon the validity of the action of the Speaker if

126 PART E

it causes constitutional infirmities. Article 122 does not envisage exemption

from judicial review, if there has been a constitutional infirmity. The

Constitution does not endorse a complete prohibition of judicial review under

Article 122. It is only limited to an “irregularity of procedure”.

78 This Court has on several occasions restricted the scope of the bar

provided under Article 122 (and under corresponding Article 212 for the

States) and has distinguished an “irregularity of procedure” from “illegality”. In

Special Reference No. 1 of 1964111, a seven judge Bench of this Court

brought home that distinction in the context of Article 212(1) with the following

observations:

“61…Article 212(2) confers immunity on the officers and members of the Legislature in whom powers are vested by or under the Constitution for regulating procedure or the conduct of business, or for maintaining order, in the Legislature from being subject to the jurisdiction of any court in respect of the exercise by him of those powers. Art. 212(1) seems to make it possible for a citizen to call in question in the appropriate court of law the validity of any proceedings inside the legislative chamber if his case is that the said proceedings suffer not from mere irregularity of procedure, but from an illegality. If the impugned procedure is illegal and unconstitutional, it would be open to be scrutinised in a court of law, though such scrutiny is prohibited if the complaint against the procedure is no more than this that the procedure was irregular...” (Emphasis supplied)

In Ramdas Athawale v Union of India112 (“Ramdas Athawale”), a

Constitution Bench of this Court extended the above formulation to Article 122

of the Constitution:

111 AIR 1965 SC 745 112 (2010) 4 SCC 1

127 PART E

“36.This Court Under Article 143, Constitution of India, In re (Special Reference No. 1 of 1964) [AIR 1965 SC 745 : (1965) 1 SCR 413] (also known as Keshav Singh case [AIR 1965 SC 745 : (1965) 1 SCR 413] ) while construing Article 212(1) observed that it may be possible for a citizen to call in question in the appropriate Court of law, the validity of any proceedings inside the Legislature if his case is that the said proceedings suffer not from mere irregularity of procedure, but from an illegality. If the impugned procedure is illegal and unconstitutional, it would be open to be scrutinized in a Court of law, though such scrutiny is prohibited if the complaint against the procedure is no more than this that the procedure was irregular. The same principle would equally be applicable in the matter of interpretation of Article 122 of the Constitution.”113

A Constitution Bench of this Court reaffirmed the distinction between a

“procedural irregularity” and an “illegality” in Raja Ram Pal v Hon'ble

Speaker, Lok Sabha114 (“Raja Ram Pal”). The Bench held that courts are

not prohibited from exercising their power of judicial review to examine any

illegality or unconstitutionality in the procedure of Parliament:

“386…Any attempt to read a limitation into Article 122 so as to restrict the court's jurisdiction to examination of the Parliament's procedure in case of unconstitutionality, as opposed to illegality would amount to doing violence to the constitutional text. Applying the principle of “expressio unius est exclusio alterius” (whatever has not been included has by implication been excluded), it is plain and clear that prohibition against examination on the touchstone of "irregularity of procedure" does not make taboo judicial review on findings of illegality or unconstitutionality…115

398… the Court will decline to interfere if the grievance brought before it is restricted to allegations of “irregularity of procedure”. But in case gross illegality or violation of constitutional provisions is shown, the judicial review will not be inhibited in any manner by Article 122, or for that matter by Article 105.”116

113 Ibid, at pages 13-14 114 (2007) 3 SCC 184 115 Ibid, at page 359 116 Ibid, at page 362

128 PART E

The Court distinguished the constitutional background in India from that of

England, holding that while England has adopted a regime of exclusive

parliamentary dominance, India is governed by a system of checks and

balances provided in the Constitution:

“366.The touchstone upon which Parliamentary actions within the four-walls of the Legislature were examined was both the constitutional as well as substantive law. The proceedings which may be tainted on account of substantive illegality or unconstitutionality, as opposed to those suffering from mere irregularity thus cannot be held protected from judicial scrutiny by Article 122(1) in as much as the broad principle laid down in Bradlaugh [(1884) 12 QBD 271] acknowledging exclusive cognizance of the Legislature in England has no application to the system of governance provided by our Constitution wherein no organ is sovereign and each organ is amenable to constitutional checks and controls, in which scheme of things, this Court is entrusted with the duty to be watchdog of and guarantor of the Constitution.”117 (Emphasis supplied)

The principle which emerges from these decisions is that the decision of the

Speaker is amenable to judicial review, if it suffers from illegality or from a

violation of constitutional provisions.

79 The Attorney General advanced the submission that this Court has on

previous occasions refrained from scrutinizing the decision of the Speaker on

whether a Bill is a Money Bill. Those decisions require discussion for

adjudicating the present case. In Mangalore Ganesh Beedi Works v State of

Mysore118 (“Mangalore Beedi”), a new system of coinage was introduced by

amending the Indian Coinage Act. Under the new system, while one rupee

117 Ibid, at page 350 118 1963 Supp (1) SCR 275

129 PART E

was divided into a hundred naya paisas, the old legal tender of sixteen annas

or sixty four pice remained legal tender equivalent to one hundred naya

paisas. The appellant, which was a firm registered under the Mysore Sales

Tax Act, had to pay an additional amount as sales tax due to change in the

currency. It was argued that by the substitution of 2 naya paisas (the new

currency) in place of 3 pies (the old currency) as tax, there was a change in

the tax imposed by the Mysore Sales Tax Act, which could only have been

done by passing a Money Bill under Articles 198, 199 and 207 of the

Constitution and since no Money Bill was introduced or passed for the

enhancement of the tax, the tax was illegal and invalid. The contention,

therefore, was that the procedure envisaged for passing a Money Bill ought to

have been, but was not, followed. The Constitution Bench dismissed the

appeal, holding that the substitution of a new coinage i.e. naya paisas in place

of annas, pice and pies did not amount to an enhancement of tax. It was held

to be merely a substitution of one coinage by another of equivalent value. This

Court held that the levy of tax in terms of naya paisas was not unconstitutional

nor was it a taxing measure but it dealt merely with the conversion of the old

coinage into new coinage. Having held this, the Bench also remarked:

“5…Even assuming that it is a taxing measure its validity cannot be challenged on the ground that it offends Arts. 197 to 199 and the procedure laid down in Art. 202 of the Constitution. Article 212 prohibits the validity of any proceedings in a legislature of a State from being called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure and Art. 255 lays down that requirements as to recommendation and previous sanction are to be regarded as matters of procedure only...”

130 PART E

The Court having found that a substitution of coinage did not result in an

enhancement of tax, Article 199 was not attracted. The legislative measure

was not a Money Bill. Once that was the case, the subsequent observations

(extracted above) proceeded on an assumption: that even if it were a taxing

measure, it would be saved by Article 255. The court having held that no

enhancement of tax was involved in a mere substitution of coinage, the

alternative hypothesis is not a part of the ratio and was unnecessary. The ratio

was that substitution of a new coinage did not amount to a Money Bill. The

decision of the Constitution Bench in Mangalore Beedi dealt with the

contention that a Money Bill was unconstitutionally passed as an ordinary Bill.

The Bench held that substitution of coinage did not make it a Money Bill. The

decision contains a general observation regarding the immunity of

proceedings in a state legislature. A scholarly article119 has correctly referred

to the general remarks made in Mangalore Beedi as unnecessary and not the

ratio since the issue was already decided on merits, by holding that the

substitution of coinage was not an enhancement of tax.

80 A three judge Bench of this Court in Mohd Saeed Siddiqui v State of

Uttar Pradesh120 (“Mohd Saeed Siddiqui”) dealt with the constitutional

validity of the Uttar Pradesh Lokayukta and Up-Lokayuktas (Amendment) Act,

2012. Section 5(1) of the unamended Act provided a term of six years for the

Lokayukta. Section 5(3) provided that on ceasing to hold office, the Lokayukta

119 Pratik Datta, Shefali Malhotra & Shivangi Tyagi, Judicial Review and Money Bills, Vol 10, NUJS Law Review (2017).

120 (2014) 11 SCC 415

131 PART E

or Up-Lokayukta shall be ineligible for further appointment. The new State

government, which came in office, introduced a Bill which was passed as the

Uttar Pradesh Lokayukta and Up-Lokayuktas (Amendment) Act, 2012, by

which the term of the U.P. Lokayukta and Up-Lokayukta was extended from

six years to eight years or till the successor enters upon office. The

Amendment Act also limited the ineligibility of the Lokayuktas or Up-

Lokayuktas for further appointment under the Government of Uttar Pradesh.

The Amendment Act was challenged on the ground that it was passed as a

Money Bill when, on the face of it, it could never have been called a Money

Bill under Article 199 of the Constitution. The Bench rejected the petition

holding that the question “whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not can be raised

only in the State Legislative Assembly by a member thereof when the Bill is

pending in the State Legislature and before it becomes an Act”. It relied upon

the observations made in Mangalore Beedi, to formulate following principles:

“(i) the validity of an Act cannot be challenged on the ground that it offends Articles 197 to 199 and the procedure laid down in Article 202; (ii) Article 212 prohibits the validity of any proceedings in a Legislature of a State from being called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure; and (iii) Article 255 lays down that the requirements as to recommendation and previous sanction are to be regarded as a matter of procedure only. It is further held that the validity of the proceedings inside the Legislature of a State cannot be called in question on the allegation that the procedure laid down by the law has not been strictly followed and that no Court can go into those questions which are within the special jurisdiction of the Legislature itself, which has the power to conduct its own business.”

132 PART E

The judgment also made a reference to the seven judge Bench decision in

Pandit MSM Sharma v Dr Shree Krishna Sinha121 (“MSM Sharma”).

The “proceedings of the Legislature” were held to include “everything said or

done in either House” in the transaction of parliamentary business. Relying

upon Articles 212 and 255, the Bench accorded finality to the decision of the

Speaker:

“43. As discussed above, the decision of the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly that the Bill in question was a Money Bill is final and the said decision cannot be disputed nor can the procedure of the State Legislature be questioned by virtue of Article 212. Further, as noted earlier, Article 255 also shows that under the Constitution the matters of procedure do not render invalid an Act to which assent has been given to by the President or the Governor, as the case may be. Inasmuch as the Bill in question was a Money Bill, the contrary contention by the Petitioner against the passing of the said Bill by the Legislative Assembly alone is unacceptable.”122

Making a passing reference to the decision of the Constitution Bench in Raja

Ram Pal, the Bench opined that even if it is established that there was some

infirmity in the procedure in the enactment of the Amendment Act, it will be

protected by Article 255 of the Constitution.

81 Subsequently, a two judge Bench of this Court in Yogendra Kumar

Jaiswal v State of Bihar123 (“Yogendra Kumar”) dealt with the constitutional

validity of the Orissa Special Courts Act, 2006. The law was enacted by the

121 AIR 1960 SC 1186 122 Mohd Saeed Siddiqui, Ibid, at page 430 123 (2016) 3 SCC 183

133 PART E

State legislature, keeping in view the accumulation of properties

disproportionate to their known sources of income by persons who have held

or hold high political and public offices. The legislature provided special courts

for speedy trial of certain classes of offences and for confiscation of

properties. The appellants, who were public servants and facing criminal

cases, challenged the Act on the ground that it was introduced in the State

Assembly as a Money Bill though it did not have any characteristics of a

Money Bill under Article 199 of the Constitution. The Court dismissed the

petitions, following the decision in Mohd Saeed Siddiqui. It held that:

“43. In our considered opinion, the authorities cited by the learned Counsel for the Appellants do not render much assistance, for the introduction of a bill, as has been held in Mohd. Saeed Siddiqui (supra), comes within the concept of “irregularity” and it does come with the realm of substantiality. What has been held in the Special Reference No. 1 of 1964 (supra) has to be appositely understood. The factual matrix therein was totally different than the case at hand as we find that the present controversy is wholly covered by the pronouncement in Mohd. Saeed Siddiqui (supra) and hence, we unhesitatingly hold that there is no merit in the submission so assiduously urged by the learned Counsel for the Appellants.”124

Special Reference No. 1 of 1964 was distinguished in Yogendra Kumar.

Article 255 provides:

“No Act of Parliament or of the Legislature of a State, and no provision in any such Act, shall be invalid by reason only that some recommendation or previous sanction required by this Constitution was not given, if assent to that Act was given—

(a) where the recommendation required was that of the Governor, either by the Governor or by the President;

(b) where the recommendation required was that of the Rajpramukh, either by the Rajpramukh or by the President;

124 Ibid, at page 229

134 PART E

(c) where the recommendation or previous sanction required was that of the President, by the President.”

82 Article 255 speaks about a situation where a “recommendation or

previous sanction” is required to be given by the Governor, Rajpramukh or, as

the case may be, by the President. The absence of a recommendation or

previous sanction will not invalidate the law, where the Act has received the

assent of the Governor or the President. Subsequent assent, in other words,

cures the absence of recommendation or sanction. Article 255 is in no way

related to the decision or certificate of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or of the

State Legislative Assembly on whether a Bill is a Money Bill. Moreover, Article

255 does not apply to Articles 110 for the simple reason that the latter does

not embody either a previous sanction or recommendation. Article 255 does

not envisage superseding the role of the Upper House of Parliament or the

State Legislature. Mohd Saeed Siddiqui proceeds on an erroneous

understanding of Article 255. Mohd Saeed Siddiqui was followed in

Yogendra Kumar. These two judgments cite the same three articles —

Articles 199,125 212,126 and 255, to refrain from questioning the conduct of the

Speaker, without noticing that Article 255 does not apply there.

Further, MSM Sharma, which was referred in Mohd Saeed Siddiqui was

discussed in the Special Reference to hold that the validity of any

proceedings in a legislative chamber can be questioned if such proceedings

125 Corresponding provision for the Union is Article 110 of the Constitution. 126 Corresponding provision for the Union is Article 122 of the Constitution.

135 PART E

suffer from illegality. The consistent thread which emerges from the judgments

in Special Reference, Ramdas Athawale and Raja Ram Pal is that the

validity of proceedings in Parliament or a State Legislature can be subject to

judicial review on the ground that there is an illegality or a constitutional

violation. Moreover, the judgment in Yogendra Kumar followed Mohd Saeed

Siddiqui. Siddiqui was based on an erroneous understanding of Mangalore

Beedi. The decision of the Speaker under Articles 110(3) and 199(3) is not

immune from judicial review.

The three judge Bench decision in Mohd Saeed Siddiqui and the two judge

Bench decision in Yogendra Kumar are overruled.

83 Barring judicial review of the Lok Sabha Speaker’s decision would

render a certification of a Bill as a Money Bill immune from scrutiny, even

where the Bill does not, objectively speaking, deal only with the provisions set

out in Article 110(1). The decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha whether a

Bill is a Money Bill impacts directly upon the constitutional role which will be

discharged by the Rajya Sabha in relation to it. The Lok Sabha alone does not

represent Parliament. The Indian Parliament is bicameral. The Constitution

envisages a special role for the Rajya Sabha. In order to truly understand the

relevance of the Rajya Sabha in the Indian context, an analysis of major

bicameral systems is necessary, as an exercise in comparative law.

136 PART E

84 Bicameral legislatures are not unique to either the Presidential or

Parliamentary forms of government. Democracies with a Presidential form of

government have adopted bicameral legislatures, the United States being the

leading example. Among Parliamentary democracies, India and the UK have

adopted bicameral legislatures. They are predominant in federal countries.

Where second chambers exist, they vary in terms of powers and composition.

Together, their powers and composition shape the impact that they have on

legislation.127 The phenomenon of the bicameral system has two different

historic origins. It was first established in England, and later in the US.128 Both

these models have been replicated across the globe.

85 Britain developed some of the earliest institutional practices that came

to be emulated through the Western world. A separate powerful legislature

was initiated when King John in 1215 gave a written commitment to seek the

consent of Parliament to levy taxes to which he was entitled by feudal

prerogative. Over the next five centuries, the British Parliament was

transformed from an institution summoned at the desire of the ruler to one

which met on regular occasions to develop policy inclinations independent of

the wishes of the ruler.129 In the fourteenth century, Parliament was divided

into two chambers: one chamber (the House of Lords) in which debate took

place with the feudal lords and a second chamber (the House of Commons)

127 Fathali M. Moghaddam, The SAGE Encyclopaedia of Political Behaviour (2017). 128 Betty Drexhage, Bicameral Legislatures: An International Comparison, Ministry of the Interior and Kingdom Relations- Netherlands (2015), at page 7 129 Abhinay Muthoo & Kenneth A. Shepsle, The Constitutional Choice of Bicameralism, in Institutions and

Economic Performance (Elhanan Helpman ed.), Harvard University Press (2008), at pages 251-252

137 PART E

where the citizens were represented.130 The upper chamber of the British

Parliament, the Lords, comprised of hereditary peers (whose number varied

with the discretion of the King to create them). The lower chamber, the

Commons, represented individuals satisfying a substantial property

requirement. The two chambers in Britain reflected a kind of class division.

Before the beginning of the eighteenth century, several factors such as civil

war, regicide, experimentation with a republic, and the restoration of the titular

monarch caused power to be permanently shifted from the King to

Parliament.131

Around the same time, the British colonies in North America were crafting

institutions of their own. Colonial legislatures were being conceptualized on

similar lines, with some exceptions, to British Parliament. The Constitution for

the newly formed United States adopted a bicameral system.132 The

legislature in the United States was innovative, for it created a bicameral

arrangement that replaced a class basis (as was in existence in Britain) for

chamber representation with a modified federal basis. The Constitutional

Convention of 1787 had provided for a lower chamber, a directly-elected

House of Representatives, where each voter had an equal vote in elections,

and an upper chamber, a Senate, to which each state could send two

members, elected indirectly by the state parliaments. The Convention was a

130 Betty Drexhage, Bicameral Legislatures: An International Comparison, Ministry of the Interior and Kingdom Relations- Netherlands (2015), at page 7 131 Abhinay Muthoo & Kenneth A. Shepsle, The Constitutional Choice of Bicameralism, in Institutions and Economic Performance (Elhanan Helpman ed.), Harvard University Press (2008), at page 252 132 Betty Drexhage, Bicameral Legislatures: An International Comparison, Ministry of the Interior and Kingdom Relations- Netherlands (2015), at page 8

138 PART E

compromise between those who wanted a parliament in which the states,

irrespective of their population size, would have an equal voice, and those

who wanted a Parliament for the newly formed federal nation where the

participating states were represented in proportion to the size of their

population. A system with two differently composed chambers was ultimately

chosen to be the only way out of the deadlock.133 The rationale for a

bicameral legislature comprising of a directly elected Lower House and an

indirectly elected Upper House was best articulated by James Madison, in the

Federalist Papers:

“First… a senate, as a second branch of the legislative assembly, distinct from, and dividing the power with, a first, must be in all cases a salutary check on the government. It doubles the security to the people, by requiring the concurrence of two distinct bodies in schemes of usurpation or perfidy, where the ambition or corruption of one would otherwise be sufficient… Second. The necessity of a senate is not less indicated by the propensity of all single and numerous assemblies to yield to the impulse of sudden and violent passions, and to be seduced by factious leaders into intemperate and pernicious resolutions… Third. Another defect to be supplied by a senate lies in a want of due acquaintance with the objects and principles of legislation. It is not possible that an assembly of men called for the most part from pursuits of a private nature, continued in appointment for a short time, and led by no permanent motive to devote the intervals of public occupation to a study of the laws, the affairs, and the comprehensive interests of their country, should, if left wholly to themselves, escape a variety of important errors in the exercise of their legislative trust… A good government implies two things: first, fidelity to the object of government, which is the happiness of the people; secondly, a knowledge of the means by which that object can be best attained… Fourth. The mutability in the public councils arising from a rapid succession of new members, however qualified they

133Betty Drexhage, Bicameral Legislatures: An International Comparison, Ministry of the Interior and Kingdom Relations- Netherlands (2015), at page 7

139 PART E

may be, points out, in the strongest manner, the necessity of some stable institution in the government…”134

Madison conceptualized that the second chamber would fulfil significant roles:

(a) it would provide the certainty that the government will not neglect its

obligations to its constituents, as the chamber provides an extra check on it;

(b) it can curb the actions of the other chamber if it gives into the urge to

follow ‘sudden and pronounced sentimental reactions’; (c) it can meet the

need for expertise in the framing of laws and the interests of the country, and

thus help to avoid legislative mistakes; and (d) it can be a factor for stability

that ensures continuity in the administration of the country.

86 Bicameralism, in both systems, emerged as a development associated

with the changing conceptions of the state. The literature on bicameralism has

highlighted the importance of having a second chamber in the legislature of a

state. William Riker has emphasized that a bicameral structure acts as a

control over the tyranny of a majority.135 Levmore similarly echoes this

thought:

“At the very least, if the two chambers consider an issue simultaneously, one chamber’s agenda setter will be at the mercy of the order of consideration in the second chamber. Bicameralism can thus be understood as an antidote to the manipulative power of the convenor, or agenda setter, when faced with cycling preferences.”136

134 James Madison, The Federalist No. 62 – The Senate, The Federalist Papers (1788), available at http://www.constitution.org/fed/federa62.html 135 William H. Riker, The Justification of Bicameralism, International Political Science Review (1992), Vol. 13,

Issue 1, at pages 101–16.

136 Saul Levmore, Bicameralism: When Are Two Decisions Better than One?, International Review of Law and

Economics (1992), Vol. 12, at pages 147-148.

140 PART E

A study137 commissioned by the Dutch Ministry of the Interior and Kingdom

Relations analysed the design of the bicameral system in several countries.

The study consulted constitutional texts and literature on the evolution of

bicameralism and came to the finding that:

“Historically, the creation of bicameral systems, both in the federal and the aristocratic variant, always was a concession to those (states or estates) who risked losing power in the new setting. In emerging democracies, and up until the present day, the choice of a bicameral system appears as a means of dispelling fear about the consequences of democratisation and reconciling established elites with the democratisation process. In developed democracies, the rationale of a bicameral system is now sought primarily in the possibility of combining different systems of representation (particularly in federal systems) and in the possibility of reconsideration by a different chamber in the legislative, making it possible to avoid making mistakes and enhancing both the quality and the stability of the legislation. In majority systems of the Westminster model - where the government is part of the lower house and it tends to have a stable majority - a senate moreover is sometimes ascribed the role of giving more independent input into the parliamentary work, less determined by party discipline, and of paying more attention to the interests of minorities. A bicameral system is, for that reason, sometimes recommended as a means to protect minorities against a tyranny of the majority… Finally, a bicameral system may also increase efficiency because it is possible to divide the legislative workload between two chambers. That can be the case when the two chambers absorb a sort of division of labour (e.g. an emphasis on technical legal quality in the senate). In many bicameral systems, moreover, it can be decided to put bills to either house, and the senate also has a right of initiative.”138

87 The importance of the second chamber increases when there is no

single party rule in Parliament. Governments that lack Upper-House majority

137 Betty Drexhage, Bicameral Legislatures: An International Comparison, Ministry of the Interior and Kingdom Relations- Netherlands (2015).

138 Ibid, at pages 11-12

141 PART E

support find it difficult to pass Bills.139 Elliot Bulmer notes pertinently that in a

democracy, a second chamber addresses the inability of the elected chamber

to adequately represent a diverse society. In this view, a second chamber

may enable a “more nuanced and complete representation of society, with

greater representation for territorial, communal or other minorities”.140

While discussing the advantage of second chambers in republican

legislatures, Rogers observes that the institution of a second chamber

generates legislative advantage only “if the chambers differ significantly from

one another”.141 Quoting from the work of various scholars, he observes:

“Hammond and Miller find that “The stability-inducing properties of bicameralism are . . . dependent on the existence of distinctly different viewpoints in the two chambers”… Buchanan and Tullock conclude similarly that, “unless the bases for representation are significantly different in the two houses, there would seem to be little excuse for the two-house system”… Because two “congruent” chambers would ostensibly not significantly affect policy outcomes, Lijphart described bicameral systems with congruent chambers as “weak” forms of bicameralism…”142

88 Bicameralism, when entrenched as a principle in a constitutional

democracy, acts as a check against the abuse of power by constitutional

means or its use in an oppressive manner. As a subset of the constitutional

principle of division of power, bicameralism is mainly a safeguard against the

abuse of the constitutional and political process. A bicameral national

139 James N. Druckman & Michael F. Thies, The Importance of Concurrence: The Impact of Bicameralism on Government Formation and Duration, American Journal of Political Science (2002), Vol. 46, No. 4, at pages 760-771.

140 Elliot Bulmer, Bicameralism, International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Assistance (2017), at page 4 141 James R. Rogers, The Advantage of Second Chambers in Republican Legislatures: An Informational Theory,

at page 6, available at https://ecpr.eu/Filestore/PaperProposal/beb20221-c2c5-4475-9b9f-74bb3f1512a7.pdf 142 Ibid

142 PART E

parliament can hold the government accountable and can check or restrain

the misuse of government power. Among its other roles is that of representing

local state units, acting as a body of expert review, and providing

representation for diverse socio-economic interests or ethno-cultural

minorities.

While deliberating over the necessity of having a second chamber, the

Constituent Assembly had the benefit of examining the constitutional history

of several other nations. The constitutional advisor, B N Rau, found the issue

of second chambers to be “one of the most vexing questions of political

science”.143 Under colonial rule, bicameralism had already been introduced.

The first bicameral legislature as the national assembly for India was

established by the Government of India Act 1919. The Government of India

Act, 1935 had created an Upper House in the federal legislature which

consisted of members elected by the provincial legislatures as well as

representatives sent by numerous princely states that were not under the

direct control of the British government. The 1935 Act became the blueprint

for the structure of Parliament in the new Constitution. The Rajya Sabha, as

the Upper House of the Parliament, was adopted into the Constitution. The

vision of the Constitution makers behind the establishment of the Upper

House of Parliament has found expression in the classic work of Granville

Austin:

143Granville Austin, The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation, Oxford University Press (1966), at page 195 143 PART E

“The members of the Constituent Assembly had one predominant aim when framing the Legislative provisions of the Constitution: to create a basis for the social and political unity of the country… The goals of the Constituent Assembly… were to bring popular opinion into the halls of government, and, by the method of bringing it there, to show Indians that although they were many peoples, they were but one nation.”144

89 Article 80 of the Constitution deals with the composition of the Rajya

Sabha. The maximum strength of this chamber is 250 members, out of which

up to 238 members are elected representatives from the states and union

territories. 12 members are nominated by the President among persons with

a special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art and

social service. Members representing the states are elected by the state

legislatures through proportional representation by means of a single

transferable vote145. The method of electing representatives from Union

territories has been left to prescription by Parliament.146 In a departure from

the American model of equal representation for the states, the allocation of

seats in the Rajya Sabha to the States and Union territories is in accordance

with the division provided in the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution (read with

Articles 4(1) and 80(2)). The reason behind this division of seats is “to

safeguard the interests of the smaller states while at the same time ensuring

the adequate representation of the larger states, so that the will of the

representatives of a minority of the electorate does not prevail over that of

144 Granville Austin, The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation, Oxford University Press (1966), at pages 180 & 203 145 Article 80(4), The Constitution of India 146 Article 80(5), The Constitution of India

144 PART E

those who represented the majority”147. In this sense, the Rajya Sabha has a

special structure.

90 The institutional structure of the Rajya Sabha has been developed to

reflect the pluralism of the nation and its diversity of language, culture,

perception and interest. The Rajya Sabha was envisaged by the makers of

the Constitution to ensure a wider scrutiny of legislative proposals. As a

second chamber of Parliament, it acts as a check on hasty and ill-conceived

legislation, providing an opportunity for scrutiny of legislative business. The

role of the Rajya Sabha is intrinsic to ensuring executive accountability and to

preserving a balance of power. The Upper Chamber complements the

working of the Lower Chamber in many ways. The Rajya Sabha acts as an

institution of balance in relation to the Lok Sabha and represents the federal

structure148 of India. Both the existence and the role of the Rajya Sabha

constitute a part of the basic structure of the Constitution. The architecture of

our Constitution envisions the Rajya Sabha as an institution of federal

bicameralism and not just as a part of a simple bicameral legislature. Its

nomenclature as the ‘Council of States’ rather than the ‘Senate’ appropriately

justifies its federal importance.149 Seervai has observed that the federal

principle is dominant in our Constitution. While adverting to several of its

147 Sidharth Chauhan, Bicameralism: comparative insights and lessons, Seminar (February, 2013) available at http://india-seminar.com/2013/642/642_sidharth_chauhan.html 148 In SR Bommai v Union of India (AIR 1994 SC 1998), a seven-judge Bench of this Court held: “Democracy and

federalism are the essential features of our Constitution and are part of its basic structure.” 149 Rajya Sabha Secretariat, Second Chamber In Indian Parliament: Role and Status of Rajya Sabha, (2009), at

page 2. See also M.N. Kaul and S.L. Shakdher, Practice and Procedure of Parliament, Lok Sabha Secretariat (2001) 145 PART E

federal features, Seervai emphasises the position of the Rajya Sabha as an

integral element:

“First and foremost, Parliament (the Central Legislature) is dependent upon the States, because one of its Houses, the Council of States, is elected by the Legislative Assemblies of the States. Where the ruling party, or group of parties, in the House of the People has a majority but not an overwhelming majority, the Council of States can have a very important voice in the passage of legislation other than financial Bills. Secondly, a Bill to amend the Constitution requires to be passed by each House of Parliament separately by an absolute majority in that House and by not less than two- thirds of those present and voting. Since the Council of States is indirectly elected by the State Legislatures, the State Legislatures have an important say in the amendment of the Constitution because of the requirement of special majorities in each House. Thirdly, the very important matters mentioned in the proviso to Article 368 (Amendment of the Constitution) cannot be amended unless the amendments passed by Parliament are ratified by not less than half the number of Legislatures of the States… Fourthly, the amendment of Article 352 by the 44th Amendment gives the Council of States a most important voice in the declaration of Emergency, because a proclamation of emergency must be approved by each House separately by majorities required for an amendment of the Constitution… Fifthly, the executive power of the Union is vested in the President of India who is not directly elected by the people but is elected by an electoral college consisting of (a) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States and (b) the elected members of both Houses of Parliament… Directly the State Legislatures have substantial voting power in electing the President; that power is increased indirectly through the Council of States, which is elected by the Legislative Assemblies of States.”150

91 The Rajya Sabha represents the constituent states of India. It

legitimately holds itself as the guardian of the interest of the component states

in a federal polity. It endeavours to remain concerned and sensitive to the

aspirations of the states, thereby strengthening the country’s “federal fabric”

150 H M Seervai, Constitutional Law of India, Universal Law Co. Pvt. Ltd, Vol. 1, (1991), at pages 299-300.

146 PART E

and “promotes national integration”.151 Being the federal chamber of

Parliament, the Rajya Sabha enjoys some special powers, which are not even

available to the Lok Sabha, under the Constitution152:

“(i) Article 249 of the Constitution provides that Rajya Sabha may pass a resolution, by a majority of not less than two- thirds of the Members present and voting to the effect that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest that Parliament should make a law with respect to any matter enumerated in the State List. Then, Parliament is empowered to make a law on the subject specified in the resolution for the whole or any part of the territory of India. Such a resolution remains in force for a maximum period of one year but this period can be extended by one year at a time by passing a further resolution;

(ii) Under Article 312 of the Constitution, if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the Members present and voting declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest to create one or more All India Services common to the Union and the States, Parliament has the power to create by law such services; and

(iii) Under the Constitution, President is empowered to issue Proclamations in the event of national emergency (Article

352), in the event of failure of constitutional machinery in a State (Article 356), or in the case of financial emergency (Article 360). Normally, every such Proclamation has to be approved by both Houses of Parliament within a stipulated period. Under certain circumstances, however, Rajya Sabha enjoys special powers in this regard. If a Proclamation is issued at a time when the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place within the period allowed for its approval, then the Proclamation can remain effective if a resolution approving it, is passed by Rajya Sabha.”

92 The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body as it is not subject to

dissolution.153 Being an indirectly elected House, it has no role in the making

or unmaking of the Government and therefore it is comparatively “free from

151 Rajya Sabha Secretariat, Second Chamber In Indian Parliament: Role and Status of Rajya Sabha, (2009), at page 6.

152 Rajya Sabha Secretariat, Structure and Functions of Rajya Sabha Secretariat, (2009), at pages 2-3 153 Under Article 83(1), the Rajya Sabha is a permanent body with members being elected for 6 year terms and

one-third of the members retiring every 2 years.

147 PART E

compulsions of competitive party politics”.154 As a revising chamber, the

Constitution makers envisioned that it will protect the values of the

Constitution, even if it is against the popular will. The Rajya Sabha is a symbol

against majoritarianism.

A Constitution Bench of this Court in Kuldip Nayar v Union of India155

highlighted the importance of the Rajya Sabha:

“47. The Rajya Sabha is a forum to which experienced public figures get access without going through the din and bustle of a general election which is inevitable in the case of Lok Sabha. It acts as a revising chamber over the Lok Sabha. The existence of two debating chambers means that all proposals and programmes of the Government are discussed twice. As a revising chamber, the Rajya Sabha helps in improving Bills passed by the Lok Sabha...”156

93 Participatory governance is the essence of democracy. It ensures

responsiveness and transparency. An analysis of the Bills revised by the

Rajya Sabha reveals that in a number of cases, the changes recommended

by the Rajya Sabha in the Bills passed by the Lok Sabha were eventually

carried out.157 The Dowry Prohibition Bill is an example of a legislation in

which the Rajya Sabha’s insistence on amendments led to the convening of a

joint sitting158 of the two Houses and in that sitting, one of the amendments

154 Rajya Sabha Secretariat, Second Chamber In Indian Parliament: Role and Status of Rajya Sabha, (2009), at pages 7-8 155 (2006) 7 SCC 1 156 Ibid, at page 47 157 Rajya Sabha Secretariat, Second Chamber In Indian Parliament: Role and Status of Rajya Sabha, (2009), at

page 5 158 Dr Ambedkar explained that the joint sitting had been kept at the centre because of the federal character of

the Central Legislature. See Granville Austin, The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation, Oxford University Press (1966), at page 202

148 PART E

suggested by the Rajya Sabha was adopted without a division. 159 The Rajya

Sabha has a vital responsibility in nation building, as the dialogue between the

two houses of Parliament helps to address disputes from divergent

perspectives. The bicameral nature of Indian Parliament is integral to the

working of the federal Constitution. It lays down the foundations of our

democracy. That it forms a part of the basic structure of the Constitution, is

hence based on constitutional principle. The decision of the Speaker on

whether a Bill is a Money Bill is not a matter of procedure. It directly impacts

on the role of the Rajya Sabha and, therefore, on the working of the federal

polity.

94 There is a constitutional trust which attaches to the empowerment of

the Speaker of the Lok Sabha to decide whether a legislative measure is a

Money Bill. Entrustment of the authority to decide is founded on the

expectation that the Speaker of the Lok Sabha will not dilute the existence of

a co-ordinate institution in a bicameral legislature. A constitutional trust has

been vested in the office of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. By declaring an

ordinary Bill to be a Money Bill, the Speaker limits the role of the Rajya

Sabha. This power cannot be unbridled or bereft of judicial scrutiny. If the

power of the Speaker is exercised contrary to constitutional norms, it will not

only limit the role of the Rajya Sabha, but denude the efficacy of a legislative

body created by the Constitution. Such an outcome would be inconsistent

159 Rajya Sabha Secretariat, Second Chamber In Indian Parliament: Role and Status of Rajya Sabha, (2009), at page 5

149 PART E

with the scheme of the Indian Constitution. Judicial review is necessary to

ensure that the federal features of the Constitution are not transgressed.

E.2 Aadhaar Act as a Money Bill

This Court must now deal with whether the Aadhaar Act was validly passed as

a Money Bill.

95 Article 110(1) of the Constitution defines a Money Bill. For a Bill to be a

Money Bill, it must contain “only provisions” dealing with every or any one of

the matters set out in sub-clauses (a) to (g) of clause 1 of Article 110. The

expression “if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following

matters, namely...” is crucial. Firstly, the expression “if” indicates a condition

and it is only upon the condition being fulfilled that the deeming fiction of a Bill

being a Money Bill for the purposes of the Chapter will arise. Secondly, to be a

Money Bill, the Bill should have only those provisions which are referable to

clauses (a) to (g). The condition is much more stringent than stipulating that

the Bill should incorporate any of the matters spelt out in clauses (a) to (g).

The words “only provisions” means that besides the matters in sub clauses (a)

to (g), the Bill shall not include anything else. Otherwise, the expression “only”

will have no meaning. The word “only” cannot be treated to be otiose or

redundant. Thirdly, the two expressions “if it contains only provisions” and

“namely” indicate that sub-clauses (a) to (g) are exhaustive of what a Money

Bill may contain. The contents of a Money Bill have to be confined to all or any

150 PART E

of the matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to (g). Fourthly, sub-clause (g)

covers any matter incidental to sub-clauses (a) to (f). A matter is incidental

when it is ancillary to what is already specified. Sub-clause (g) is not a

residuary entry which covers all other matters other than those specified in

sub-clauses (a) to (f). If sub-clause (g) were read as a catch-all residuary

provision, it would defeat the purpose of defining a class of Bills as Money

Bills. What is incidental under sub-clause (g) is that which is ancillary to a

matter which is already specified in sub-clauses (a) to (f). The test is not

whether it is incidental to the content of a Bill but whether it is incidental to any

of the matters specifically enumerated in sub-clauses (a) to (f). The Attorney

General would request the court to read the word “only” before “if” and not

where it occurs. If the submission were to be accepted, it would lead to the

consequence that the Bill would be a Money Bill if it contained provisions

dealing with clause (a) to (g), even if it contained other provisions not relatable

to these clauses. We cannot rewrite the Constitution, particularly where it is

contrary to both text, context and intent.

Clause (2) of Article 110 provides that a Bill shall not be deemed to be a

Money Bill just for the reason that it provides for the imposition of fines or

other pecuniary penalties, or for the demand or payment of fees for licences or

fees for services rendered, or by reason that it provides for the imposition,

abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax by any local authority or

body for local purposes. Like in the Parliament Act of 1911, the definition of a

151 PART E

Money Bill provided under Article 110(1) is exhaustive in nature. A Bill can be

a Money Bill if it contains “only provisions” dealing with all or any of the

matters listed under sub-clauses (a) to (g) of Article 110(1).

96 A Financial Bill is different from a Money Bill. Article 117 provides for

special provisions relating to Financial Bills. Clause (1) of Article 117 states:

“(1) A Bill or amendment making provision for any of the matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to (f) of clause (1) of article 110 shall not be introduced or moved except on the recommendation of the President and a Bill making such provision shall not be introduced in the Council of States.”

A Financial Bill does not need to have “only provisions” dealing with Sub-

clauses (a) to (f) of Article 110. The provisions of Article 110(1) are therefore

narrow and exhaustive.

97 As a matter of interpretation, the use of the word “only” indicates that a

particular entry is exhaustive and is inapplicable to anything which falls

outside its scope. This Court has interpreted the expression “only” as a word

of exclusion and restriction.160 The interpretation of Article 110(1) as being

restrictive in nature is also supported by the proceedings in the Constituent

Assembly of India. Article 110 corresponds to Article 90 of the Draft

Constitution. On 20 May 1949, a member of the Constituent Assembly,

Ghanshyam Singh Gupta, proposed an amendment in clause (1) of Article 90

160Hari Ram v. Baby Gokul Prasad, (1991) Supp (2) SCC 608; M/s Saru Smelting (P) Ltd. v. Commissioner of Sales Tax, Lucknow, (1993) Supp (3) SCC 97.

152 PART E

to delete the word “only”. He stated that a Bill can be a Money bill even while

containing other provisions. Gupta argued:

“This article is a prototype of Section 37 of the Government of India Act which says that a Bill or amendment providing for imposing or increasing a tax or borrowing money, etc. shall not be introduced or moved except on the recommendation of the Governor-General. This means that the whole Bill need not be a money Bill: it may contain other provisions, but if there is any provision about taxation or borrowing, etc. It will come under this Section 37, and the recommendation of the Governor-General is necessary. Now article 90 says that a Bill shall be deemed to be a money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with the imposition, regulation, etc., of any tax or the borrowing of money, etc. This can mean that if there is a Bill which has other provisions and also a provision about taxation or borrowing etc., it will not become a money Bill. If that is the intention I have nothing to say; but that if that is not the intention I must say the word "only" is dangerous, because if the Bill does all these things and at the same time does something else also it will not be a money Bill. I do not know what the intention of the Drafting Committee is but I think this aspect of the article should be borne in mind.”161 (Emphasis supplied)

Another member Naziruddin Ahmad also emphasized on the deletion of the

word “only”. The concern of these two members was that the word “only”

restricts the scope of a Bill being passed as a Money Bill. Their apprehension

was that if a Bill has other provisions which are unrelated to the clauses

mentioned in draft Article 90, the Bill would not qualify to be a Money Bill in

view of the word “only”. The amendment suggested by these members was

listed to be put to vote on a later date. The amendment was rejected when it

was put to vote on 8 June 1949. The framers of the Indian Constitution

consciously rejected the said amendment.

161 Constituent Assembly Debates (20 May 1949)

153 PART E

98 When a Bill is listed as a Money Bill, it takes away the power of the

Rajya Sabha to reject or amend the Bill. The Rajya Sabha can only make

suggestions to a Money Bill, which are not binding on the Lok Sabha. The

Constitution makers would have been aware about the repercussions of a Bill

being introduced as a Money Bill. As the role of the Rajya Sabha is limited in

the context of Money Bills, the scope of what constitutes a Money Bill was

restricted by adopting the word “only” in Draft Article 90. A Bill to be a Money

Bill must not contain any provision which falls outside clauses (a) to (g) of

Article 110(1). The Constitution has carefully used the expression “dealing

with” in Article 110 (1) and not the wider legislative form “related to”. A Bill,

which has both − certain provisions which fall within sub-clauses (a) to (g) of

Article 110(1) and other provisions which fall outside will not qualify to be a

Money Bill. It is for this reason that there cannot also be any issue of the

severability of the provisions of a Bill, which has certain provisions relating to

sub-clauses (a) to (g) of Article 110(1), while also containing provisions which

fall beyond. Any other interpretation would result in rewriting the Constitution.

If a Bill contains provisions which fall outside sub-clauses (a) to (g), it is not a

Money Bill. The Rajya Sabha is entitled as part of its constitutional function to

legislative participation. The entirety of the Bill cannot be regarded as a Money

Bill, once it contains any matters which fall beyond sub-clauses (a) to (g).

Once that is the position, it could be impossible to sever those parts which fall

within sub-clauses (a) to (g) and those that lie outside. The presence of

matters which travel beyond sub-clauses (a) to (g) has consequences in terms

154 PART E

of the nature of the Bill and the legislative participation of the Rajya Sabha. If

the constitutional function of the Rajya Sabha has been denuded on the

hypothesis that this Bill was a Money Bill, the consequence of a finding in

judicial review that the Bill is not a Money Bill must follow. Any other

construction will reduce bicameralism to an illusion.

This interpretation is also supported by the judgment of a Bench of seven

judges of this Court in Krishna Kumar Singh v State of Bihar162, where it

held that the ordinance making power conferred upon the President and the

Governors is limited by the requirements set out by Articles 123 and 213. This

Court had held:

“59…The constitutional conferment of a power to frame ordinances is in deviation of the normal mode of legislation which takes place through the elected bodies comprising of Parliament and the state legislatures. Such a deviation is permitted by the Constitution to enable the President and Governors to enact ordinances which have the force and effect of law simply because of the existence of circumstances which can brook no delay in the formulation of legislation. In a parliamentary democracy, the government is responsible collectively to the elected legislature. The subsistence of a government depends on the continued confidence of the legislature. The ordinance making power is subject to the control of the legislature over the executive. The accountability of the executive to the legislature is symbolised by the manner in which the Constitution has subjected the ordinance making power to legislative authority. This, the Constitution achieves by the requirements of Article 213...”163 (Emphasis supplied)

99 The authority of the Lok Sabha to pass a Money Bill is based on the

requirements set out under Article 110. The framers of the Indian Constitution

162 (2017) 3 SCC 1 163 Ibid, at page 61

155 PART E

deliberately restricted the scope of Article 110(1) to ensure that the provision

is not an avenue to supersede the authority of the Rajya Sabha. The intention

of the Constitution makers is clear. The Lok Sabha cannot introduce and pass

a legislative measure in the garb of a Money Bill, which could otherwise have

been amended or rejected by the Rajya Sabha. Bicameralism is a founding

value of our democracy. It is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.

Introduction and passing of a Bill as a Money Bill, which does not qualify to be

a Money Bill under Article 110(1) of the Constitution, is plainly

unconstitutional. The Lok Sabha is not entrusted with the entire authority of

Parliament. The Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the President together

constitute the Parliament of India. The Lok Sabha is a body of elected

representatives and represents the aspirations of citizens. Yet, like every

constitutional institution, it is part of this basic structure of the Constitution. A

political party or a coalition which holds the majority in the Lok Sabha cannot

subvert the working of the Constitution, against which Dr B R Ambedkar had

warned164 in the Constituent Assembly. A ruling government has to work

within constitutional parameters and has to abide by constitutional morality.

100 The Constitution of India is not a mere parchment of paper. It was

written with the vision of those who gave blood and sweat to freedom: political

personalities, social reformers and constitution framers. It symbolises a faith in

institutions, justice and good governance. That vision cannot be belied. The

164 Constituent Assembly Debates (4 November, 1948). Dr Ambedkar had remarked: “… it is perfectly possible to pervert the Constitution, without changing its form by merely changing the form of the administration and to make it inconsistent and opposed to the spirit of the Constitution.”

156 PART E

Speaker of the Lok Sabha has an onerous constitutional duty to ensure that a

Bill, which is not a Money Bill is not passed as a Money Bill. The Speaker of

the Lok Sabha, the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, the members of the Lok

Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, and the President need to work in constitutional

solidarity to ensure that no provision of the Constitution is diluted or subverted.

101 The Aadhaar Act was passed as a Money Bill. The provisions of the Act

need to be analysed to determine whether the Act is a Money Bill.

The Preamble of the Act states that it is:

“An Act to provide for, as a good governance, efficient, transparent, and targeted delivery of subsidies, benefits and services, the expenditure for which is incurred from the Consolidated Fund of India, to individuals residing in India through assigning of unique identity numbers to such individuals and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.”

The Preamble focuses on the delivery of subsidies, benefits and services for

which the expenditure is borne from the Consolidated Fund of India. But the

essential issue is whether the Act confines itself to matters which fall within

the ambit of Article 110.

102 Section 3 entitles every resident165 in India to obtain an Aadhaar

number by submitting his or her demographic information, by undergoing the

process of enrolment. Section 2(m) defines “enrolment” as the process to

165 Section 2(v) provides: “resident” means an individual who has resided in India for a period or periods amounting in all to one hundred and eighty-two days or more in the twelve months immediately preceding the date of application for enrolment.

157 PART E

collect demographic and biometric information from individuals by the enrolling

agencies for the purpose of issuing Aadhaar numbers to such individuals.

After receiving the demographic and biometric information of the individual,

the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) would verify the information

and shall issue an Aadhaar number to such an individual.166 Section 4(3)

provides that the Aadhaar number may be accepted as proof of identity for

“any purpose”. Section 5 requires UIDAI to take special measures to issue

Aadhaar numbers to “women, children, senior citizens, persons with disability,

unskilled and unorganised workers, nomadic tribes or to such other persons

who do not have any permanent dwelling house and such other categories of

individuals”. Under Section 6, UIDAI may require Aadhaar number holders to

update their demographic information and biometric information, from time to

time so as to ensure continued accuracy of their information in the Central

Identities Data Repository (“CIDR”). The Aadhaar Act defines CIDR as a

centralised database containing all Aadhaar numbers issued to Aadhaar

number holders along with the corresponding demographic information and

biometric information of such individuals and other related information.167

103 Section 7 requires proof of an Aadhaar number as a necessary

condition to avail subsidies, benefits and services, for which the expenditure is

borne from the Consolidated Fund of India. The proviso to Section 7 states

that if an Aadhaar number is not assigned to an individual, the individual shall

166 Section 3(3), Aadhaar Act 167 Section 2(h), Aadhaar Act

158 PART E

be offered alternate and viable means of identification for delivery of the

subsidy, benefit or service. Section 8(1) requires UIDAI to perform

authentication168 of the Aadhaar number of an Aadhaar number holder, in

relation to his or her biometric information or demographic information

submitted by any requesting entity169. Under Section 8(2), a requesting entity

is required to obtain the consent of an individual before collecting his or her

identity information for the purposes of authentication. The requesting entity

must ensure that the identity information of an individual collected by it is only

used for submission to the CIDR for authentication. Section 8(3) requires a

requesting entity to inform the individual submitting identity information for

authentication certain details with respect to authentication.

104 Chapter IV of the Act deals with UIDAI. Section 11 establishes UIDAI as

the body responsible for the processes of enrolment and authentication and

for performing functions assigned to it under the Act. The Act provides for the

composition of UIDAI170, qualifications of its members171, terms of office172 of

its chairperson and members, their removal173 and functions174. Section 23,

which deals with the powers and functions of UIDAI, authorizes it to develop

the policy, procedure and systems for issuing Aadhaar numbers to individuals

168 Section 2(c) provides: “authentication” means the process by which the Aadhaar number alongwith demographic information or biometric information of an individual is submitted to the Central Identities Data Repository for its verification and such Repository verifies the correctness, or the lack thereof, on the basis of information available with it.

169 Section 2 (u) provides: “requesting entity” means an agency or person that submits the Aadhaar number, and

demographic information or biometric information, of an individual to the Central Identities Data Repository for authentication 170 Section 12, Aadhaar Act 171 Section 13, Aadhaar Act 172 Section 14, Aadhaar Act 173 Section 15, Aadhaar Act 174 Section 17, Aadhaar Act

159 PART E

and to perform authentication. Section 23(h) states that UIDAI has the power

to specify the “manner of use of Aadhaar numbers” for the purposes of

providing or availing of various subsidies, benefits, services and “other

purposes” for which Aadhaar numbers may be used. Under Section 23(3),

UIDAI may enter into a Memorandum of Understanding or agreement with the

Central Government or State Governments or Union territories or other

agencies for the purpose of performing any of the functions in relation to

collecting, storing, securing or processing of information or delivery of

Aadhaar numbers to individuals or performing authentication.

105 Chapter V deals with grants, accounts and audit and annual reports of

UIDAI. Section 25 provides that the fees or revenue collected by UIDAI shall

be credited to the Consolidated Fund of India. Chapter VI deals with protection

of information collected from individuals for authentication. Section 28(3)

requires UIDAI to take all necessary measures to ensure that the information

in its possession or control, including information stored in the CIDR, is

secured and protected against access, use or disclosure (not permitted under

the Act or the regulations), and against accidental or intentional destruction,

loss or damage. Section 29 imposes restrictions on sharing of core biometric

information, collected or created under the Act. Section 32(2) entitles every

Aadhaar number holder to obtain his or her authentication record in such

manner as may be specified by regulations. Section 33 provides for disclosure

of information pursuant to a court order or in the interest of national security.

160 PART E

106 Chapter VII of the Act (Sections 34 to 47) provides for offences and

penalties. Section 34 provides for penalty for impersonation at the time of

enrolment. Section 35 provides a penalty for impersonation of an Aadhaar

number holder by changing demographic or biometric information. Under

Section 37, a penalty for disclosing identity information (which was collected in

the course of enrolment or authentication) is provided. Section 38 provides a

penalty for unauthorised access to the CIDR. Section 39 imposes a penalty for

tampering with data in the CIDR. Under Sections 40 and 41, a penalty has

been provided for requesting entities and enrolment agencies, in case they act

in contravention of the obligations imposed upon them under the Act. Section

44 indicates that the provisions of the Act would apply to any offence or

contravention committed outside India by any person, irrespective of

nationality.

107 Section 48 empowers the Central Government to supersede UIDAI in

certain situations. Section 50 states that UIDAI is bound by directions on

questions of policy given by the Central Government. Section 51 authorizes

the UIDAI to delegate to any member, officer of the Authority or any other

person, such of its powers and functions (except the power under section 54)

as it may deem necessary. Section 53 empowers the Central Government to

make rules to carry out the provisions of the Act. Under Section 54(2)(m),

UIDAI can make regulations providing the manner of use of Aadhaar numbers

for the purposes of providing or availing of various subsidies, benefits,

161 PART E

services and “other purposes” for which Aadhaar numbers may be used.

Section 57 authorizes the State or any body corporate or person to use an

Aadhaar number for establishing the identity of an individual “for any purpose”,

subject to the procedure and obligations under Section 8 and Chapter VI of

the Act. Section 59 seeks to validate the actions taken by the Central

Government pursuant to the notifications dated 28 January 2009 and 12

September 2015, and prior to the enactment of the Aadhaar Act.

This broad description of the provisions of the Aadhaar Act indicates that the

Act creates a framework for obtaining a unique identity number - the Aadhaar

number - by submitting demographic and biometric information and

undergoing the process of enrolment and authentication. The Act indicates

that the Aadhaar number may be accepted as proof of identity for any

purpose. The Act, in other words, creates a platform for one pan-India and

nationally acceptable identity. It creates a central database (CIDR) for storage

of identity information collected from individuals. Sections 3 to 6 specifically

deal with the process of enrolment. Section 3 entitles every resident to hold

an Aadhaar number. Section 4(3) states that the Aadhaar number so

generated may be used as a proof of identity “for any purpose”. The primary

object of the legislation is to create one national identity for every resident. It

seeks to do so by legislating a process for collecting demographic and

biometric information. The Act has created an authority to oversee the

fulfilment of its provisions. In its primary focus and initiatives, the law traverses

162 PART E

beyond the territory reserved by Article 110 for a Money Bill. Sections 7 to 10

deal with authentication of information submitted at the time of enrolment.

Section 8 creates obligations on requesting entities to ensure that consent

is obtained from individuals before collecting their identity information and

that the identity information of such individual is only used for submission to

the CIDR for authentication. Sections 11 to 23 create a statutory authority

(UIDAI) and assign responsibilities to it for the processes of enrolment and

authentication and to discharge other functions assigned to it under the Act,

including developing the policy, procedure and systems for issuing Aadhaar

numbers to individuals. Section 23(2)(h) provides that apart from availing of

various subsidies, benefits, and services, Aadhaar numbers may be used for

“other purposes”. Sections 28 to 33 deal with protection of information, and

provide for security and confidentiality of identity information and restrictions

on sharing of information. Section 28 imposes obligations on the UIDAI to

ensure the security and confidentiality of identity information and

authentication records of individuals, which are in its possession or control,

including information stored in CIDR. Disclosure of identity information and

authentication records can be made under Section 33, pursuant to a court

order (not below the rank of District Judge) or in the interest of national

security in pursuance of a direction of an officer (not below the rank of Joint

Secretary to the Government of India). Sections 34 to 47 deal with substantive

offences and penalties created under the Act. Sections 54(2)(m) states that

regulations can be made by UIDAI specifying the manner of use of Aadhaar

163 PART E

numbers for the purposes of providing or availing of various subsidies,

benefits, services and “other purposes” for which Aadhaar numbers may be

used. Section 57 authorizes the use of Aadhaar number by anyone (whether

by the State or any body corporate or person under law or contract) for

establishing the identity of an individual “for any purpose”.

108 Section 7 makes the use of the Aadhaar number mandatory for availing

subsidies, benefits or services, for which expenditure is incurred from the

Consolidated Fund of India. The scheme of the Act deals with several aspects

relating to the unique identity number. The unique identity is capable of being

used for multiple purposes: availing benefits, subsidies and services, for

which expenses are incurred from the Consolidated Fund of India, is just one

purpose, among others. The Preamble to the Aadhaar Act indicates that the

main objective was to achieve an efficient and “targeted delivery of subsidies,

benefits and services, the expenditure for which is incurred from the

Consolidated Fund of India”. The substantive provisions of the Act are,

however, not confined to the object specified in the Preamble. Indeed, they

travel far beyond the boundaries of a money bill under Article 110(1). The

enrolment on the basis of demographic and biometric information, generation

of Aadhaar number, obtaining consent of individuals before collecting their

individual information, creation of a statutory authority to implement and

supervise the process, protection of information collected during the process,

disclosure of information in certain circumstances, creation of offences and

164 PART E

penalties for disclosure or loss of information, and the use of the Aadhaar

number for any purpose lie outside the ambit of Article 110. These themes are

also not incidental to any of the matters covered by sub-clauses (a) to (f) of

Article 110(1). The provisions of Section 57 which allow the use of an Aadhaar

number by bodies corporate or private parties for any purpose do not fall

within the ambit of Article 110. The legal framework of the Aadhaar Act

creates substantive obligations and liabilities which have the capability of

impacting on the fundamental rights of residents.

109 A Bill, to be a Money Bill, must contain only provisions which fall within

the ambit of the matters mentioned in Article 110. Section 7 of the Act allows

the Aadhaar number to be made mandatory for availing of services, benefits

and subsidies for which expenditure is incurred from the Consolidated Fund of

India. Under clause (e) of Article 110(1) the money bill must deal with the

declaring of any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the Consolidated

Fund of India (or increasing the amount of expenditure). Significantly, Section

7 does not declare the expenditure incurred on services, benefits or subsidies

to be a charge on the Consolidated Fund of India. What Section 7 does is to

enact a provision allowing for Aadhaar to be made mandatory, in the case of

services, benefits or subsidies which are charged to the Consolidated Fund.

Section 7 does not declare them to be a charge on the Consolidated Fund. It

provides that in the case of services, benefits or subsidies which are already

charged to the Consolidated Fund, Aadhaar can be made mandatory to avail

165 PART E

of them. Section 7, in other words, is a provision for imposing a requirement of

authentication and not declaring any expenditure to be a charge on the

Consolidated Fund of India. Hence, even Section 7 is not within the ambit of

Article 110(1)(e). However, even if Section 7 were to be held to be referable to

Article 110, that does not apply to the other provisions of the Act. The other

provisions of the Act do not in any event fall within the ambit of Article 110(1).

Introducing one provision – Section 7 – does not render the entirety of the Act

a Money Bill where its other provisions travel beyond the parameters set out in

Article 110. Section 57 of the Act in particular (which creates a platform for the

use of the Aadhaar number by the private entities) can by no stretch of logic

be covered under Article 110(1). The other provisions of the Act do not deal

with that which has been provided under Sub-clauses (a) to (g) of Article 110.

As regards the ‘incidental’ provision under Article 110(1)(g), the provisions of

the Aadhaar Act are not “incidental to any of the matters specified in sub-

clauses (a) to (f)”. Even if it is assumed that there is one provision (Section 7)

which is relatable to sub-clause (e) of Article 110(1), the other provisions of

the Act are unrelated to Article 110(1).

110 This Court must also advert to the legislative history prior to the

enactment of the Aadhaar Act. An attempt to provide a legislative framework

governing the Aadhaar project was first made by introducing the National

Identification Authority of India Bill, 2010 (“NIA Bill”). The NIA Bill was

166 PART E

introduced in the Rajya Sabha on 3 December 2010. The Preamble of the Bill

indicated its purpose:

“A Bill to provide for the establishment of the National Identification Authority of India for the purpose of issuing identification numbers to individuals residing in India and to certain other classes of individuals and manner of authentication of such individuals to facilitate access to benefits and services to such individuals to which they are entitled and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.”

The main objective of the Bill was to establish the National Identification

Authority of India to issue unique identification numbers (called ‘Aadhaar’) to

residents of India and to any other category of people for the purpose of

facilitating access to benefits and services. Chapter II (Clauses 3 to 10) of the

Bill dealt with Aadhaar numbers. Clause 3 of the Bill entitled every resident to

obtain an Aadhaar number on providing demographic and biometric

information to the Authority in such manner as may be specified. Clause 4(3)

stated that an Aadhaar number shall be accepted, subject to authentication,

as proof of identity of the Aadhaar number holder. Chapter III (Clauses 11 to

23) dealt with the National Identification Authority of India. Clause 11 provided

for establishment of the Authority by the Central Government. Clause 23

empowered the Authority to develop the policy, procedure and systems for

issuing Aadhaar numbers to residents and to perform authentication. Clause

23(2)(h) stated that the Authority may specify the usage and applicability of

the Aadhaar number for delivery of various benefits and services.

Establishing, operating and maintaining of the Central Identities Data

Repository (CIDR) by the Authority was provided under Clause 23(2)(j).

167 PART E

Chapter IV (Clauses 24 to 27) provide for grants, accounts and audit and

annual reports related to the Authority. Clause 25 stated that the fees or

revenue collected by the Authority shall be credited to the Consolidated Fund

of India and the entire amount would be transferred to the Authority. Chapter

V (Clauses 28 and 29) dealt with creation of an Identity Review Committee

and its functions. The functions of the Review Committee included

ascertaining the extent and pattern of usage of Aadhaar numbers across the

country and preparing a report annually along with recommendations. Chapter

VI (Clauses 30 to 33) dealt with the protection of individual identity information

and authentication records. Clause 30(1) required the Authority to ensure the

security and confidentiality of identity information and authentication records of

individuals. Clause 30(2) required the Authority to take measures (including

security safeguards) to ensure that the information in the possession or

control of the Authority (including information stored in the Central Identities

Data Repository) is secured and protected against any loss or unauthorised

access or use or unauthorised disclosure. Clause 33 stated that individual

information may be disclosed pursuant a court order or in the interest of

national security. Chapter VII (Clauses 34 to 46) created offences and

penalties under the law. Clause 47 empowered the Central Government to

supersede the Authority. Clause 50 authorized the Authority to delegate to any

Member, officer of the Authority or any other person such of its powers and

functions (except the power under Clause 53). Clause 57 sought to validate

168 PART E

actions taken by the Central Government under the Planning Commission’s

notification of 2009.

111 Since the UID programme involved complex issues, the NIA Bill was

referred, on 10 December 2010, to the Standing Committee on Finance,

chaired by Mr Yashwant Sinha, for examination and report. The Standing

Committee comprised of 21 members from the Lok Sabha and 10 members

from the Rajya Sabha. The Standing Committee submitted its Report175 on 11

December 2011. The Report raised several objections to the Bill, which

included those summarised below:

(i) Since law making was underway, the bill being pending, any executive

action is as violative of Parliament’s prerogatives as promulgation of an

ordinance while one of the Houses of Parliament is in session;

(ii) While the country is facing a serious problem of illegal immigrants and

infiltration from across the borders, the National Identification Authority of

India Bill, 2010 proposes to entitle every resident to obtain an Aadhaar

number, apart from entitling such other category of individuals as may be

notified from time to time. This will, it is apprehended, make even illegal

immigrants entitled for an Aadhaar number;

(iii) The issue of a unique identification number to individuals residing in India

and other classes of individuals under the Unique Identification (UID)

175Forty-Second Report, Standing Committee on Finance (2011-12), available at http://www.prsindia.org/uploads/media/UID/uid%20report.pdf

169 PART E

Scheme is riddled with serious lacunae and concern areas. For example,

the full or near full coverage of marginalized sections for issuing Aadhaar

numbers could not be achieved mainly due to two reasons viz. (a) the

UIDAI doesn’t have the statistical data relating to them; and (b) estimated

failure of biometrics is expected to be as high as 15% because a large

chunk of population is dependent on manual labour;

(iv) Despite the presence of serious differences of opinion within the

Government on the UID scheme, the scheme continues to be

implemented in an overbearing manner without regard to legalities and

other social consequences;

(v) The UID scheme lacks clarity on many issues including even the basic

purpose of issuing an “Aadhaar” number. Although the scheme claims

that obtaining an Aadhaar number is voluntary, an apprehension has

developed in the minds of people that in future, services / benefits

including food entitlements would be denied in case they do not an have

an Aadhaar number;

(vi) It is also not clear as to whether possession of an Aadhaar number would

be made mandatory in future for availing of benefits and services. Even if

the Aadhaar number links entitlements to targeted beneficiaries, it may

not ensure that beneficiaries have been correctly identified. Thus, the

present problem of proper identification would persist;

170 PART E

(vii) Though there are significant differences between the identity system of

other countries and the UID scheme, yet there are lessons from the

global experience to be learnt before proceeding with the implementation

of the UID scheme, which the Ministry of Planning has ignored

completely;

(viii) Considering the huge database and possibility of misuse of information,

the enactment of a national data protection law is a pre-requisite for any

law that deals with large scale collection of information from individuals

and its linkages across separate databases. In the absence of data

protection legislation, it would be difficult to deal with issues like access to

and misuse of personal information, surveillance, profiling, linking and

matching of data bases and securing confidentiality of information;

(ix) The Standing Committee strongly disapproved of the hasty manner in

which the UID scheme was approved. Unlike many other schemes /

projects, no comprehensive feasibility study, which ought to have been

done before approving such an expensive scheme, was done involving all

aspects of the UID scheme including a cost-benefit analysis, comparative

costs of Aadhaar numbers and various existing forms of identity, financial

implications and prevention of identity theft, for example, using hologram

enabled ration cards to eliminate fake and duplicate beneficiaries;

(x) The UID scheme may end up being dependent on private agencies,

despite contractual agreements made by the UIDAI with several private

171 PART E

vendors. As a result, the beneficiaries may be forced to pay over and

above the charges to be prescribed by the UIDAI for availing of benefits

and services, which are now available free of cost;

(xi) The scheme is full of uncertainty in technology as a complex scheme is

built up on untested and unreliable technology and on several

assumptions. It is also not known as to whether the proof of concept

studies and assessment studies undertaken by the UIDAI have explored

the possibilities of maintaining accuracy to a large level of enrolment of

1.2 billion people; and

(xii) The Committee felt that entrusting the responsibility of verification of

information of individuals to the registrars to ensure that only genuine

residents get enrolled into the system may have far reaching

consequences for national security. Given the limitation of any

mechanism such as a security audit by an appropriate agency that would

be set up for verifying the information, it is not evident as to whether a

complete verification of information of all Aadhaar number holders is

practically feasible; and whether it would deliver the intended results

without compromising national security.

With these apprehensions about the UID scheme, the Standing Committee on

Finance categorically conveyed that the National Identification Authority of

India Bill, 2010 was not acceptable. The Committee urged the Government to

172 PART E

reconsider and review the UID scheme and the proposals contained in the Bill

and bring forth a fresh legislation before Parliament. Ultimately, the NIA Bill

was withdrawn from the Rajya Sabha on 3 March, 2016.

112 A comparison of the Aadhaar Act 2016 and NIA Bill 2010 reveals that

both have a common objective and framework − establishing a system of

unique identity numbers, which would be implemented and monitored by a

statutory authority. The NIA Bill was not a Money Bill. It was never passed by

the Rajya Sabha. The Bill was scrutinized by a Standing Committee on

Finance, which had 10 members from the Rajya Sabha and 21 from the Lok

Sabha. The NIA Bill did not contain a provision, similar to Section 7 of the

Aadhaar Act. Yet, as discussed earlier, the presence of Section 7 does not

make the Aadhaar Act a Money Bill. Introducing the Aadhaar Act as a Money

Bill deprived the Rajya Sabha of its power to reject or amend the Bill. Since

the Aadhaar Act in its current form was introduced as a Money Bill in the Lok

Sabha, the Rajya Sabha had no option other than of making

recommendations to the Bill. The recommendations made by the Rajya Sabha

(which also included deletion of Section 57) were rejected by the Lok Sabha.

The legislative history is a clear pointer to the fact that the subsequent

passage of the Bill as a Money Bill by-passed the constitutional authority of

the Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha was deprived of its legitimate

constitutional role by the passage of the Bill as a Money Bill in the Lok Sabha.

173 PART E

113 The Court must also address the contention of the Respondents that

the Aadhaar Act is “in pith and substance” a Money Bill. The learned Attorney

General for India has submitted that though the Act has ancillary provisions,

its main objective is the delivery of subsidies, benefits and services flowing out

of the Consolidated Fund of India and that the other provisions are related to

the main purpose of the Act which was giving subsidies and benefits. It has

been submitted that the real test to be applied in the present dispute is the

doctrine of pith and substance.

114 This Court has applied the doctrine of pith and substance when the

legislative competence of a legislature to enact a law is challenged. The

doctrine is applied to evaluate whether an enactment which is challenged falls

within an entry in one of the three Lists in the Seventh Schedule over which

the legislature has competence under Article 246 of the Constitution. The

Seventh Schedule to the Constitution distributes legislative powers between

the Union and the States. When a law enacted by a legislature is challenged

on the ground of a lack of legislative competence, the doctrine of pith and

substance is invoked. Under the doctrine, the law will be valid if in substance,

it falls within the ambit of a legislative entry on which the legislature is

competent to enact a law, even if it incidentally trenches on a legislative entry

in a separate list. The constitutional rationale for the application of this

174 PART E

doctrine has been explained in a Constitution Bench decision of this Court in

A S Krishna v State of Madras176:

“8…But then, it must be remembered that we are construing a federal Constitution. It is of the essence of such a Constitution that there should be a distribution of the legislative powers of the Federation between the Centre and the Provinces. The scheme of distribution has varied with different Constitutions, but even when the Constitution enumerates elaborately the topics on which the Centre and the States could legislate, some overlapping of the fields of legislation is inevitable. The British North America Act, 1867, which established a federal Constitution for Canada, enumerated in Sections 91 and 92 the topics on which the Dominion and the Provinces could respectively legislate. Notwithstanding that the lists were framed so as to be fairly full and comprehensive, it was not long before it was found that the topics enumerated in the two sections overlapped, and the Privy Council had time and again to pass on the constitutionality of laws made by the Dominion and Provincial legislatures. It was in this situation that the Privy Council evolved the doctrine, that for deciding whether an impugned legislation was intra vires, regard must be had to its pith and substance. That is to say, if a statute is found in substance to relate to a topic within the competence of the legislature, it should be held to be intra vires, even though it might incidentally trench on topics not within its legislative competence...” (Emphasis supplied)

The decision of a three judge Bench of this Court in State of Maharashtra v

Bharat Shanti Lal Shah177 has summarized the process of reasoning which

must be followed by the Court while applying the doctrine of pith and

substance. The Court held:

“43…If there is a challenge to the legislative competence the courts will try to ascertain the pith and substance of such enactment on a scrutiny of the Act in question. In this process, it is necessary for the courts to go into and examine the true character of the enactment, its object, its scope and effect to find out whether the enactment in

176 1957 SCR 399 177(2008) 13 SCC 5

175 PART E

question is genuinely referable to the field of legislation allotted to the respective Legislature under the constitutional scheme. Where a challenge is made to the constitutional validity of a particular State Act with reference to a subject mentioned in any entry in List I, the court has to look to the substance of the State Act and on such analysis and examination, if it is found that in the pith and substance, it falls under an entry in the State List but there is only an incidental encroachment on topics in the Union List, the State Act would not become invalid merely because there is incidental encroachment on any of the topics in the Union List.”178 (Emphasis supplied )

115 The doctrine of pith and substance is mainly used to examine whether

the legislature has the competence to enact a law with regard to any of the

three Lists provided under the Constitution. It cannot be applied to sustain as

a Money Bill, a Bill which travels beyond the constitutional boundaries set out

by Article 110 Whether a Bill is validly passed as a Money Bill has nothing to

do with the legislative competence of the legislature under Article 246 of the

Constitution. Whether a Bill is a Money Bill has to be tested within the

boundaries of Article 110. The submission of the Attorney General boils down

to this: ‘ignore the expression “only provisions dealing with all or any of the

following matters” and hold the Bill to be a Money Bill by treating Section 7 as

its dominant provision’. This cannot be accepted. This would ignore the

express and clear language of Article 110. As we have emphasised earlier,

the submission of the Attorney General requires the court to transpose the

word “only” from its present position to a place before “if”. That would be to

rewrite the Constitution to mean that a Bill would be a Money Bill if it

contained some provisions which fall under sub-clauses (a) to (g). The

178 Ibid, at page 21

176 PART E

Constitution says to the contrary: a Bill is a Money Bill if it contains “only

provisions” dealing with one or more of the matters set out in sub-clauses (a)

to (g). Looked at in another way, all the provisions of the Aadhaar Act (apart

from Section 7) cannot be read as incidental to Section 7. Such a view is

belied by a plain reading of the Act, as indicated earlier. Moreover, we have

also indicated reasons why even Section 7 cannot be held to be referable to

Article 110. Section 7 does not deal with the declaring of any expenditure as

expenditure charged to the Consolidated Fund. Section 7 allows for making

Aadhaar mandatory for availing of subsidies, benefits or services the

expenditure incurred on which is charged to the Consolidate Fund. Section 7

does not charge any expenditure to the Consolidated Fund. It deals with

making Aadhaar mandatory.

In support of their contention, the Respondents have also relied upon a two

judge Bench decision in Union of India v Shah Goverdhan L Kabra

Teachers’ College179 to submit that the doctrine of pith and substance can be

used in any context. The Court held:

“7. It is further a well-settled principle that entries in the different lists should be read together without giving a narrow meaning to any of them. Power of the Parliament as well as the State legislature are expressed in precise and definite terms. While an entry is to be given its widest meaning but it cannot be so interpreted as to over-ride another entry or make another entry meaningless and in case of an apparent conflict between different entries, it is the duty of the court to reconcile them. When it appears to the Court that there is apparent overlapping between the two entries the doctrine of "pith and substance" has to be applied to find out the true nature of a legislation and the entry with which it would fall. In

179 (2002) 8 SCC 228

177 PART E

case of conflict between entries in List I and List II, the same has to be decided by application of the principle of "pith and substance". The doctrine of "pith and substance" means that if an enactment substantially falls within the powers expressly conferred by the Constitution upon the legislature which enacted it, it cannot be held to be invalid, merely because it incidentally encroaches on matters assigned to another legislature. When a law is impugned as being ultra-vires of the legislative competence, what is required to be ascertained is the true character of the legislation. If on such an examination it is found that the legislation is in substance one on a matter assigned to the legislature then it must be held to be valid in its entirety even though it might incidentally trench on matters which are beyond its competence. In order to examine the true character of the enactment, the entire Act, its object and scope and effect, is required to be gone into. The question of invasion into the territory of another legislation is to be determined not by degree but by substance. The doctrine of "pith and substance' has to be applied not only in cases of conflict between the powers of two legislatures but in any case where the question arises whether a legislation is covered by particular legislative power in exercise of which it is purported to be made.”180 (Emphasis supplied)

The decision is of no assistance to the submission in the present dispute. The

observations made by the Court are in relation to the power to legislate under

Article 246 of the Constitution. It is unconnected to the question of a Money

Bill. Therefore, the argument that the Aadhaar Act is “in pith and substance” a

Money Bill is rejected.

116 Introducing the Aadhaar Act as a Money Bill has bypassed the

constitutional authority of the Rajya Sabha. The passage of the Aadhaar Act

as a Money Bill is an abuse of the constitutional process. It deprived the Rajya

Sabha from altering the provisions of the Bill by carrying out amendments. On

the touchstone of the provisions of Article 110, the Bill could not have been 180 Ibid, at pages 233-234

178 PART E

certified as a Money Bill. In his last address to the Constituent Assembly on

25 November 1949, Dr B R Ambedkar had stated:

“The working of a Constitution does not depend wholly upon the nature of the Constitution. The Constitution can provide only the organs of State such as the Legislature, the Executive and the Judiciary. The factors on which the working of those organs of the State depends are the people and the political parties they will set up as their instruments to carry out their wishes and their politics.”181

117 The Rajya Sabha has an important role in the making of laws.

Superseding the authority of the Rajya Sabha is in conflict with the

constitutional scheme and the legitimacy of democratic institutions. It

constitutes a fraud on the Constitution. Passing of a Bill as a Money Bill, when

it does not qualify for it, damages the delicate balance of bicameralism which

is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution. The ruling party in power

may not command a majority in the Rajya Sabha. But the legislative role of

that legislative body cannot be obviated by legislating a Bill which is not a

Money Bill as a Money Bill. That would constitute a subterfuge, something

which a constitutional court cannot countenance. Differences in a democratic

polity have to be resolved by dialogue and accommodation. Differences with

another constitutional institution cannot be resolved by the simple expedient of

ignoring it. It may be politically expedient to do so. But it is constitutionally

impermissible. This debasement of a democratic institution cannot be allowed

to pass. Institutions are crucial to democracy. Debasing them can only cause

a peril to democratic structures.

181 Constituent Assembly (25 November 1949)

179 PART F

The Act thus fails to qualify as a Money Bill under Article 110 of the

Constitution. Since the Act was passed as a Money Bill, even though it does

not qualify to be so, the passage of the Act is an illegality. The Aadhaar Act is

in violation of Article 110 and therefore is liable to be declared

unconstitutional.

F Biometrics, Privacy and Aadhaar

“Any situation that allows an interaction between man and machine is capable of incorporating biometrics”182

118 The term ‘biometric’ is derived from the Greek nouns ‘βίος’ (life) and

‘μέτρον’ (measure) and means ‘measurement of living species’. 183 Biometric

technologies imply that “unique or distinctive human characteristics of a

person are collected, measured and stored for the automated verification of a

claim made by that person for the identification of that person.”184 These

systems thus identify or verify the identity or a claim of persons on the basis of

the automated measurement and analysis of their biological traits (such as

fingerprints, face and iris) or behavioral characteristics (such as signature and

voice).

182 Gary Roethenbaugh, (cited in A. Cavoukian, Privacy and Biometrics, Information and Privacy Commissioner, Ontario, Canada, 1999, page 11, available at http://www.ipc.on.ca/images/Resources/pri- biom.pdf 183 Els J. Kindt, Privacy and Data Protection Issues of Biometric Applications: A Comparative Legal Analysis,

Springer (2013) 184 Ibid.

180 PART F

119 The idea that parts of our body can be used to identify our unique

selves is not new. Prints of hand, foot and finger have been used since

ancient times because of their unique characteristics. Before the advent of

biometric systems, however, human characteristics were compared in a

manual way. Today’s biometric systems hence differ from manual verification

methods in that technology allows for automated comparison of human

characteristic(s) in place of a regime of manual verification that existed earlier.

It must be understood that biometric systems themselves do not identify

individuals. For identification, additional information which is already stored in

databases is needed since biometric systems can only compare information

which is already submitted.185 Integral to such a system is the matching of a

claim of identity with biometric data collected and stored earlier.

In general, biometric applications are referred to as systems which allow one

to authenticate claims. The verb ‘to authenticate’ can be described as ‘making

authentic, legally valid’.186 Originally, fingerprints were the most commonly

known and used biometric traits, but with improvements in technology,

multiple sources of biometric information have emerged. These include data

related to facial features, iris, voice, hand geometry and DNA. Each trait is

collected using different technologies and can be used for different purposes

185 Ibid.

186 Ibid.

181 PART F

separately or in combination, to strengthen and improve the accuracy and

reliability of the identification process.187

In general, biometric information is developed by processing extractable key

features of an individual into an ‘electronic digital template’, which is then

encrypted and stored in a database. When an individual connects with the

system to verify his/her identity for any purpose, the information is used by

matching the ‘electronic digital template’ saved with the biometric information

presented, based on which comparison, the individual’s identity will be

confirmed or rejected. The intended purpose of biometric technology is to

confirm the identity of individuals through a “one to one” identification check.

This system compares a source of biometric data with existing data for that

specific person.

F.I Increased use of biometric technology

120 There had been an initial increase in the usage of biometric technology

in both developed and developing countries by both the private and the public

sector. However, despite the increased adoption of biometric technologies by

developed countries in the 1980s and 1990s, recent trends depict their

reluctance to deploy biometric technology - or at least mass storage of

biometric data - because of privacy concerns.188 Key instances included the

187Nancy Yue Liu, Bio-Privacy: Privacy Regulations and the Challenge of Biometrics, Routledge (2013). 188Privacy International, Biometrics: Friend or foe of privacy?, available at https://privacyinternational.org/sites/default/files/2017-11/Biometrics_Friend_or_foe.pdf

182 PART F

scrapping of the National Identity Register and ID cards in the UK, and

Germany’s decision to reject a centralised database when deploying biometric

passports.189 By contrast, in developing countries there is a rise in the

deployment of biometric technology since it is being portrayed to citizens as a

means to establishing their legal identity and providing them access to

services, as well as a tool for achieving economic development. However, too

often these goals are prioritised at the expense of their right to privacy and

other human rights.190 Simon Davies, an eminent privacy expert, points out

that it is not an accident or coincidence that biometric systems are most

aggressively tried out with welfare recipients since they are not in a position to

resist the State-mandated intrusion.191

There has been a particular increase in the use of biometric technology in

identification programs in developing countries. This is because “biometrics

include a wide range of biological measures which are considered sufficiently

unique at a population level to allow individual identification with high rates of

accuracy”.192 Lack of formal identification and official identity documentation in

the developing world is a serious challenge which impedes the ability of

governments as well as development organisations to provide essential goods

and services to the populations they serve.193 Further, identification is also

189 Ibid 190 Ibid 191 Simon Davies, as cited in John D. Woodward, Biometric Scanning, Law & Policy: Identifying the Concerns -

Drafting the Biometric Blueprint, University of Pittsburgh Law Review, (1997) 192 Daniel M. L Storisteanu, Toby L. Norman, Alexandra Grigore and Alain B. Labrique, Can biometrics beat the

developing world’s challenges?, Biometric Technology Today (2016) 193 Ibid

183 PART F

essential to the gathering of accurate data which is required for monitoring the

progress of government programmes.194 However, while biometric technology

brings many advantages, the flip side is that the same technology can also

lead to human rights violations:

“When adopted in the absence of strong legal frameworks and strict safeguards, biometric technologies pose grave threats to privacy and personal security, as their application can be broadened to facilitate discrimination, profiling and mass surveillance. The varying accuracy and failure rates of the technology can lead to misidentification, fraud and civic exclusion.”195

121 The adoption of biometric technologies in developing countries in

particular poses unique challenges since the implementation of new

technologies in these countries is rarely preceded by the enactment of robust

legal frameworks. Assessments of countries where a legal mechanism to

regulate new technologies or protect data has followed as an afterthought

have shown that there exists a huge risk of mass human rights violations

where individuals are denied basic fundamental rights, and in extreme cases,

even their identity.196

122 Technology today brings with it tremendous power and is much like two

sides of a coin. When applied productively, it allows individuals around the

world to access information, express themselves and participate in local and

global discussions in real-time in ways previously thought unimaginable. The

194 Ibid 195 Privacy International, Biometrics, available at https://privacyinternational.org/topics/biometrics 196 Privacy International, Biometrics: Friend or foe of privacy?, available at

https://privacyinternational.org/sites/default/files/2017-11/Biometrics_Friend_or_foe.pdf

184 PART F

flip side is the concern over the abuse of new technology, including

biometrics, by the State and private entities by actions such as surveillance

and large-scale profiling. This is particularly acute, given the fact that

technological advancements have far outpaced legislative change. As a

consequence, the safeguards necessary to ensure protection of human rights

and data protection are often missing. The lack of regulatory frameworks, or

the inadequacy of existing frameworks, has societal and ethical consequences

and poses a constant risk that the concepts of privacy, liberty and other

fundamental freedoms will be misunderstood, eroded or devalued.197

123 Privacy has been recognized as a fundamental human right in various

national constitutions and numerous global and regional human rights treaties.

In today’s digital age, the right to privacy is “the cornerstone that safeguards

who we are and supports our on-going struggle to maintain our autonomy and

self-determination in the face of increasing state power.”198

124 The proliferation of biometric technology has facilitated the invasion of

individual privacy at an unprecedented scale. The raw information at the heart

of biometrics is personal by its very nature.199 The Aadhaar Act recognises

this as sensitive personal information. Biometric technology is unique in the

sense that it uses part of the human body or behaviour as the basis of

authentication or identification and is therefore intimately connected to the 197 Ibid 198 Privacy International, Biometrics: Friend or foe of privacy?, available at https://privacyinternational.org/sites/default/files/2017-11/Biometrics_Friend_or_foe.pdf 199 Nancy Yue Liu, Bio-Privacy: Privacy Regulations and the Challenge of Biometrics, Routledge (2013)

185 PART F

individual concerned. While biometric technology raises some of the same

issues that arise when government agencies or private firms collect any

personal information about citizens, there are specific features that distinguish

biometric data from other personal data, making concerns about biometric

technology of particular importance with regard to privacy protection.200

125 There are two main groups of privacy- related interests that are directly

pertinent to the contemporary discussion on the ethical and legal implications

of biometrics.201 The first group falls under ‘informational privacy’ and is

concerned with control of personal information. The ability to control personal

information about oneself is closely related to the dignity of the individual, self-

respect and sense of personhood. The second interest group falls under the

rubric of ‘physical privacy’. This sense of privacy transcends the purely

physical and is aimed essentially at protecting the dignity of the human

person. It is a safeguard against intrusions into persons’ physical bodies and

spaces. Another issue is of property rights with respect to privacy, which

concerns the appropriation and ownership of interests in human personality. In

many jurisdictions, the basis of informational privacy is the notion that all

information about an individual is in some fundamental way their own

property, and it is theirs to communicate or retain as they deem fit.

200 Ibid 201 Ibid

186 PART F

126 The collection of most forms of biometric data requires some

infringement of the data subject’s personal space. Iris and fingerprint scanners

require close proximity of biometric sensors to body parts such as eyes, hands

and fingertips.

Even in the context of law enforcement and forensic identification, the use of

fingerprinting is acknowledged to jeopardise physical privacy. Many countries

have laws and regulations which are intended to regulate such measures, in

order to protect the individual’s rights against infringement by state powers

and law enforcement. However, biometrics for the purpose of authentication

and identification is different as they do not have a specific goal of finding

traces related to a crime but are instead conducted for the purpose of

generating identity information specific to an individual. This difference in

purpose actually renders the collection of physical biometrics a more serious

breach of integrity and privacy. It indicates that there may be a presumption

that someone is guilty until proven innocent. This would be contrary to

generally accepted legal doctrine that a person is innocent until proven guilty

and will bring a lot of innocent people into surveillance schemes.

127 Concerns about physical privacy usually take a backseat as compared

to concerns about informational privacy. The reason for this is that physical

intrusion resulting from the use of biometric technology usually results from

the collection of physical information. However, for some people of specific

187 PART F

cultural or religious backgrounds, even the mental harm resulting from

physical intrusion maybe quite serious.202

Another concern is that the widespread usage of biometrics substantially

undermines the right to remain anonymous.203 People desire anonymity for a

variety of reasons, including that it is fundamental to their sense of freedom

and autonomy. Anonymity may turn out to be the only tool available for

ordinary people to defend themselves against being profiled. Thus, it is often

argued that biometric technology should not be the appropriate choice of

technology as biometrics by its very nature is inconsistent with anonymity.

Given the manner in which personal information can be linked and identified

using biometric data, the ability to remain anonymous is severely diminished.

While some argue that “it is not obvious that more anonymity will be lost when

biometrics are used”, this argument may have to be evaluated in light of the

fact that there is no existing identifier that can be readily equated with

biometrics.204 No existing identifier can expose as much information as

biometric data nor is there any other identifier that is supposed to be so

universal, long-lasting and intimately linked as biometrics. To say that the use

of biometrics will not cause further loss of anonymity may thus be overly

optimistic. Semi-anonymity maybe possible, provided that the biometric

system is carefully designed from the inception.

202 Nancy Yue Liu, Bio-Privacy: Privacy Regulations and the Challenge of Biometrics, Routledge (2013). 203 Ibid 204 Ibid

188 PART F

Another significant change brought about by biometric technology is the

precipitous decline of ‘privacy by obscurity’, which is essentially “a form of

privacy afforded to individuals inadvertently by the inefficiencies of paper and 205 other legacy recordkeeping.” Now that paper records worldwide are giving

way to more efficient digital record-keeping and identification, this form of

privacy is being extinguished, and sometimes without commensurate data

privacy protections put in place to remedy the effects of the changes.”206

128 Biometrically enhanced identity information, combined with

demographic data such as address, age and gender, among other data, when

used in increasingly large, automated systems creates profound changes in

societies, particularly in regard to data protection, privacy, and security.

Biometrics are at the very heart of identification systems. There are numerous

instances in history where the persecution of groups of civilians on the basis

of race, ethnicity and religion was facilitated through the use of identification

systems. There is hence an alarming need to ensure that the on-going

development of identification systems be carefully monitored, while taking into

account lessons learnt from history.

129 It is important to justify the usage of biometric technology given the

invasion of privacy. When the purpose of collecting the biometric data is just

for authentication and there is little or no benefit in having stronger user 205 Pam Dixon, A Failure to Do No Harm – India’s Aadhaar biometric ID program and its inability to protect privacy in relation to measures in Europe and the U.S., Health and Technology (2017), Vol. 7, at pages 539– 567 206 Ibid.

189 PART F

identification, it is difficult to justify the collection of biometric information. The

potential fear is that there are situations where there are few or no benefits to

be gained from strong user verification / identification and this is where

biometric technology may be unnecessary.207 (Example: When ascertaining

whether an individual is old enough to go to a bar and drink alcohol, it is

unnecessary to know who the person is, when all that is needed to be

demonstrated is that the individual is of legal age). Fundamental rights are

likely to be violated in case biometrics are used for applications merely

requiring a low level of security.

130 Biometric data, by its very nature, is intrinsically linked to characteristics

that make us ‘humans’ and its broad scope brings together a variety of

personal elements. It is argued that the collection, analysis and storage of

such innate data is dehumanising as it reduces the individual to but a number.

Ultimately, organisations and governmental agencies must demonstrate that

there is a compelling legitimate interest in using biometric technology and that

an obligatory fingerprint requirement is reasonably related to the objective for

which it is required. One way of avoiding unnecessary collection of biometric

data is to set strict legal standards to ensure that the intrusion into privacy is

commensurate with and proportional to the need for the collection of bio-

metric data.208

207 Nancy Yue Liu, Bio-Privacy: Privacy Regulations and the Challenge of Biometrics, Routledge (2013). 208 Ibid

190 PART F

F.2 Consent in the collection of biometric data

131 Rules on the collection of physical data by government agencies usually

specify under what conditions a person can be required to provide fingerprints

and/or bodily tissues. If consent is required, rules are in place to regulate the

scope of consent. If forced searches are allowed, specifications are usually

provided as to how and by whom the search will be performed. Therefore, the

legal questions surrounding the issue should be:

(a) If required, what exactly should be the extent of coverage of the consent?

(b) When is the compulsory collection of biometric information required and

who is eligible to conduct it?

(c) What is the procedure to do so?

(d)What exactly should be filed and stored?

132 Biometric technology is far from being a mature technology and a

variety of errors inevitably occur. Mature technology is a popular term for any

technology for which any improvements in deployment are evolutionary rather

than revolutionary.209 Once a biometric system is compromised, it is

compromised forever. In the event of biometric identity theft, there would

appear to be no alternative but to withdraw the user from the system.

Passwords and numbers can be changed, but how does one change the basic

biological features that compromise biometrics in the event that there is a

theft?

209 Segen’s Medical Dictionary, 2012.

191 PART F

All of these parameters need to be applied to test the validity of the Aadhaar

legislation in a two-part inquiry: First, reports and steps taken by the

Government of India that guided the introduction and role of biometrics before

the enactment of the Aadhaar Act will be analysed, which will be followed by

an analysis of relevant provisions concerning the intersection of biometric

technology and privacy, as they are enshrined in the Aadhaar Act, 2016 and

supporting Regulations made under it.

F.3 Position before the Aadhaar legislation

Summary of Pre-Enactment Events

133 On 3 March 2006, the Department of Information Technology, Ministry

of Communications & Information Technology, gave its approval for

implementation of the project ‘Unique ID for Below Poverty Line Families’

(BPL) by the National Informatics Centre over a period of 12 months.210 This

was followed by a Processes Committee being set up a few months later on 3

July 2006, to suggest the processes for updation, modification, addition and

deletion of data from the core database to be created under the Unique ID

(“UID”) for BPL Families Project.211 The Processes Committee prepared a

210 Ministry of Communication & Information Technology, Department of Information Technology, Administrative Approval for the project - “Unique ID for BPL families”, dated March 03, 2006 (Annexure R-1, List of Pre- enactment dates and events for the Aadhaar project submitted by the Learned AG). 211 Department of Information Technology, Notification: Setting up of a Process Committee to suggest the processes for updation, modification, addition & deletion of data and fields from the core database to be created under the Unique ID for BPL families project, dated July 03, 2006 (Annexure R-2, List of Pre- enactment dates and events for the Aadhaar project submitted by the learned AG).

192 PART F

paper titled ‘Strategic Vision: Unique Identification of Residents’212. The paper

recommended the linkage of the UID database with other databases which

would ensure continuous updation and user-based validation and use of the

Election Commission’s database as the base database.213 The document

inter-alia, also stated that statutory backing would be required for adoption of

UID in the long term;214 focus and conviction would be required on security

and privacy to ensure adoption by different stakeholders; 215 while

‘transparency vs. right to privacy’ was another challenge that would have to be

addressed.216 Biometrics, however, found no mention in the paper at this

stage.

Thereafter, on 4 December 2006, an Empowered Group of Ministers

(“EGoM”), was constituted with the approval of the Prime Minister to collate

the National Population Register (“NPR”) under the Citizenship Act 1955 and

the Unique Identification Number Project.217 In its meeting held on 27 April

2007, the Processes Committee decided that the UID database would evolve

in three stages: initial, intermediate and final. Biometrics was mentioned for

the first time in the context of UID, when the committee agreed that if the

infrastructure was available and the photograph and/or biometrics of a

212 Strategic Vision: Unique Identification of Residents, dated 26 November 2006 (Annexure R-3, List of Pre-

enactment dates and events for the Aadhaar project submitted by the learned AG). 213 Ibid 214 Ibid 215 Ibid 216 Ibid 217 Constitution of an Empowered Group of Ministers to collate two schemes - the National Population Register under the Citizenship Act, 1955 and the Unique Identification Number (UID) project of the Department of Information Technology (Annexure R-4, List of Pre-enactment dates and events for the Aadhaar project submitted by the learned AG).

193 PART F

resident was obtainable along with other information, it would be captured in

the initial and intermediate stages as well.218 Subsequently, the EGoM

approved the establishment of a UID Authority under the Planning

Commission on 28 January 2008.219 while the strategy to collate NPR and UID

was also approved. The EGoM also agreed that the collection of data under

the NPR exercise could include collection of photographs and biometrics to

the extent feasible, while it was also resolved that the data collected under the

NPR would be handed over to the UID Authority for maintenance and

updation. The EGoM, in its fourth meeting dated 4 November 2008 decided

that initially, the UIDAI will be established as an executive body under the

Planning Commission for a period of 5 years. UIDAI, it was envisaged, will

create its database from the electoral roll of the ECI and verify it through

Below Poverty Line and Public Distribution System data, but it would also

have the authority to take its own decisions as to how a database should be

built.220 Consequently, the Government of India issued a notification on 28

January 2009 constituting the UIDAI as an attached office and executive

authority under the aegis of the Planning Commission.

218 Planning Commission, No. 4(4)/56/2005- C&I, Minutes of the Fifth Meeting of the Unique ID project under the Chairmanship of Dr. Arvind Virmani (Annexure R-6, List of Pre-enactment dates and events for the Aadhaar project submitted by the learned AG).

219 Minutes of the Second Meeting of the EGoM to collate two schemes - The National Population Register under the Citizenship Act, 1955 and the Unique Identification number (UID) project of the Department of Information Technology (Annexure R-10, List of Pre-enactment dates and events for the Aadhaar project submitted by the learned AG).

220 Minutes of the Fourth Meeting of the EGoM to collate two schemes - The National Population Register under the Citizenship Act, 1955 and the Unique Identification Number (UID) project of the Department of Information Technology (Annexure R-12, List of Pre-enactment dates and events for the Aadhaar project submitted by the learned AG).

194 PART F

134 Following the constitution of UIDAI, the Secretary, Planning

Commission addressed a letter to Chief Secretaries of all States/ UTs on 6

May 2009 enclosing a brief write up on UIDAI and UID numbers for resident

Indians. The letter included the concept, implementation strategy, model of the

project along with the role and responsibilities of the states/ UTs.221 It was also

decided that partner databases for two-way linkages between the UID

database and the partner databases for maintenance and continuous updation

of the UID databases would be ECI database, Ministry of Rural Development-

rural household survey database and the State ration card (PDS) databases.

135 The first meeting of the PM’s Council of UIDAI, was held on 12 August

2009. Various proposals were approved by the Council,222 by which it was

decided, among other things, that the proposal to designate UIDAI as an apex

body to set standards in the area of biometrics and demographic data

structures be approved. On 29 September 2009, UIDAI set up the Biometrics

Standards Committee (“BSC”) to frame biometric standards for UIDAI. The

Committee was assigned with the following mandate:223

● To develop biometric standards that will ensure interoperability of devices,

systems and processes used by various agencies that use the UID system.

221 Secretary, Government of India, Planning Commission, D.O. No. A-11016/02/09-UIDAI (Annexure R-22, List of Pre-enactment dates and events for the Aadhaar project submitted by the learned AG). 222 Planning Commission, Minutes of the meeting of the PM’s Council of UIDAI (Annexure R-35, List of Pre-

enactment dates and events for the Aadhaar project submitted by the Learned AG). 223 Planning Commission, UIDAI, Office Memorandum, available at https://www.uidai.gov.in/images/resource/Biometric_Standards_Committee_Notification.pdf.

195 PART F

● To review the existing standards of Biometrics and, if required,

modify/extend/enhance them so as to serve the specific requirements of

UIDAI relating to de-duplication and Authentication.

This was followed by the creation of the Demographic Data Standards and

Verification Procedure Committee (“DDSVPC”) on 9 October 2009, with the

following mandate:224

● Review/ modify/ extend/ enhance the existing standards of Demographic

data and recommend the Demographic Data standards (The data fields

and their formats/structure, etc.) that will ensure interoperability and

standardization of basic demographic data and their structure used by

various agencies that use the UID system; and

● Recommend the Process of Verification of this demographic data in order

to ensure that the data captured, at the time of enrolment of the residents

into the UID system, is correct.

136 The DDSVPC in its report dated 9 December 2009, stated that UIDAI

had selected biometrics features as the primary method to check for duplicate

identity. In order to ensure that an individual was uniquely identified in an easy

and cost-effective manner, it was necessary to ensure that the captured

biometric information was capable of carrying out de-duplication at the time

when information was collected.225 The Know Your Resident (“KYR”)

224 DDSVPC (UIDAI), DDSVPC Report, dated 09 December 2009, available at https://uidai.gov.in/images/UID_DDSVP_Committee_Report_v1.0.pdf ,at pages 5-6. 225 Ibid, at page 4

196 PART F

verification procedure was introduced to ensure that “key demographic data is

verified properly so that the data within UID system can be used for

authentication of identity by various systems”. Three distinct methods of

verification were to be acceptable under UID. Verification could be based on

● Supporting documents;

● An introducer system under which a network of “approved” introducers can

introduce a resident and vouch for the validity of the resident’s information;

and (This idea was borrowed from the account opening procedure in the

banks.)

● The process adopted for public scrutiny in the National Population

Register.

137 In order to verify the correctness of certain mandatory fields, such as

name, date-of-birth, and address, a “Proof of Identity” (PoI) and “Proof of

Address” (PoA) would be required. This would comprise of documents

containing the resident’s name and photograph and the name and address,

respectively. On 9 April 2010, the collection of iris biometrics for the NPR

exercise was approved.226

138 A strategy overview issued by UIDAI in April 2010 described the

features, benefits, revenue model and timelines of the project.227 The survey

226 Annexure R-43, Volume II, List of Pre-enactment dates and events for the Aadhaar project, Submissions by the AG 227 UIDAI, UIDAI Strategy Overview, available at

http://www.prsindia.org/uploads/media/UID/UIDAI%20STRATEGY%20OVERVIEW.pdf.

197 PART F

outlined that UIDAI would collect the following demographic and biometric

information from residents in order to issue a UID number:

● Name ● Date of birth ● Gender ● Father's/ Husband's/ Guardian's name and UID number (optional for adult residents) ● Mother's/ Wife's/ Guardian's name and UID number (optional for adult residents) ● Introducer's name and UID number ( in case of lack of documents) ● Address ● All ten fingerprints, photograph and both iris scans

On 12 May 2010, a note outlining the background of UIDAI, and proposing an

approach for collection of demographic and biometric attributes of residents

for the UID project was submitted to the Cabinet Committee on UIDAI. 228

Permission of the Union Cabinet was sought to ensure that the approach

which was proposed should be adhered to by the Registrar General of India

for the NPR exercise and by all other Registrars in the UID system. The

rationale behind the inclusion of iris biometrics and the need for capturing iris

scans at the time of capturing biometric details was also explained.

This was followed by the introduction of the National Identification Authority of

India Bill, 2010 (NIAI Bill) in the Rajya Sabha on 3 December 2010. On 13

February 2011, the one millionth Aadhaar card was delivered. Thereafter, on

228Annexure R-46, Volume II, List of Pre-enactment dates and events for the Aadhaar project, Submissions by the AG

198 PART F

11 April 2011, the Central Government notified the Information Technology

(Reasonable security practices and procedures and sensitive personal data or

information) Rules, 2011 [“IT Rules”] under Section 43A of the IT Act, 2000.

On 29 September 2011, the Aadhaar project completed one year. An

announcement was made of the generation of ten crore enrolments and of

more than 3.75 crore Aadhaar numbers.

Analysis of UIDAI Reports & Rights of Registrars

A. Biometrics Standards Committee (BSC) Report

139 BSC in its report dated 30 December 2009 stated that it held extensive

meetings and discussions with international experts and technology suppliers.

A technical sub-group was formed to collect Indian fingerprints and analyze

quality. Over 2,50,000 fingerprint images from 25,000 persons were sourced

from the districts of Delhi, UP, Bihar and Orissa. Nearly all the images were

from rural regions, and were collected by different agencies using different

capture devices, and through different operational processes. The BSC report

is silent about the pretext on which fingerprints of 25,000 people were

collected. This action of UIDAI raises privacy concerns especially since the

fingerprints were collected from rural regions where people may not have

been aware or made aware by UIDAI before collection of fingerprints, of the

possible privacy harms of giving up biometrics.

199 PART F

BSC after reviewing international standards and current national

recommendations, concluded that a fingerprints-based biometric system was

to be at the core of UIDAI’s de-duplication efforts and that the ISO 19794

series of biometrics standards for fingerprints, face and iris set by the

International Standards Organization (ISO) were most suitable for the UID

project.229 BSC also observed that while a fingerprints-based biometric system

shall be at the core of UIDAI’s de-duplication efforts, its accuracy in the Indian

context could not predicted in the absence of empirical data:

“The Committee notes that face is the most commonly captured biometric, and frequently used in manual checking. However, stand-alone, automatic face recognition does not provide a high level of accuracy, and can only be used to supplement a primary biometric modality. Fingerprinting, the oldest biometric technology, has the largest market share of all biometrics modalities globally. … Based on these factors, the Committee recognizes that a fingerprints-based biometrics system shall be at the core of the UIDAI’s de- duplication efforts…

The Committee, however, is also conscious of the fact that de-duplication of the magnitude required by the UIDAI has never been implemented in the world. In the global context, a de-duplication accuracy of 99% has been achieved so far, using good quality fingerprints against a database of up to fifty million. Two factors, however, raise uncertainty about the accuracy that can be achieved through fingerprints. First, retaining efficacy while scaling the database size from fifty million to a billion has not been adequately analyzed. Second, fingerprint quality, the most important variable for determining de-duplication accuracy, has not been studied in depth in the Indian context.”230

140 In its report for discussion titled “Technical Standards for Digital Identity

Systems for Digital Identity”, the Identification for Development (ID4D)

initiative, a cross-departmental effort report of the World Bank, noted that

229 UIDAI Committee on Biometrics, Biometrics Design Standards For UID Applications, at page 4 230 Ibid.

200 PART F

UIDAI had not implemented “an important security standard, ISO 24745,

which provides guidance for the protection of biometric information for

confidentiality and integrity during storage or managing identities … due to the

complexity of applicable compliance procedures” for the Aadhaar system. 231

Proponents of the program argue that in all fairness to UIDAI, it has to be

noticed that the ISO 24745 standard was published in August 2011 whereas

the report of BSC had already been submitted to UIDAI in January 2010.

However, Mr. Myung Geun Chun, the Project Editor of ISO 24745, is reported

to have stated that ISO 24745 standard is an ‘invaluable tool’ for addressing

‘unique privacy concerns’ like ‘unlawful processing and use of data’ raised by

biometric identification because of its binding nature ‘which links biometrics

with personally identifiable information’.232

ISO 24745 seeks to “safeguard the security of a biometric system and the

privacy of data subjects with solid countermeasures”.233 ISO 24745 standard

specifies:

● “Analysis of threats and countermeasures inherent in biometric and biometric system application models; ● Security requirements for binding between a biometric reference and an identity reference;

● Biometric system application models with different scenarios for the storage and comparison of biometric references;

● Guidance on the protection of an individual’s privacy during the processing of biometric information.”234

231 Identification for Development (World Bank Group), Technical Standards for Digital Identity Systems for Digital Identity Draft for Discussion, available at http://pubdocs.worldbank.org/en/579151515518705630/ID4D- Technical-Standards-for-Digital-Identity.pdf, at page 22. 232 Katie Bird, Is your biometric data safe online? ISO/IEC standard ensures security and privacy, (11 August

2011), available at https://www.iso.org/news/2011/08/Ref1452.html. 233 Ibid.

234 Ibid.

201 PART F

B. Strategy Overview of 2010

In this report, a balance was sought to be struck between ‘privacy and

purpose’ in respect of the information of the residents which was collected.

The report states that ‘agencies’ may store the information of the residents at

the time of enrolment, but they will not have access to the information stored

in the UID database.235 Further, for the purposes of authentication, requests

made by the agencies would be answered through a ‘Yes’ or a ‘No’ response

only.236 Under the sub-heading “Protecting Privacy and Confidentiality”, the

report stated that the additional information which was being sought from

people was only biometric information like fingerprints and iris scans, as other

information was already available with public and private agencies in the

country.237 Right to privacy and confidentiality were sought to be protected by

putting necessary provisions “in place”.238 It was also observed in the context

of privacy that loss of biometric information of a resident who is a victim of

identity theft, especially when such information is linked to banking, social

security and passport records, risks financial and other assets and the

reputation of the resident.239 According to the review, the envisaged UIDAI Act

(which was still under contemplation at the time of publishing of this report and

had not yet been legislated) would have remedies for the following offences:

235 UIDAI, UIDAI Strategy Overview, available at http://www.prsindia.org/uploads/media/UID/UIDAI%20STRATEGY%20OVERVIEW. pdf, at page 4 236 Ibid.

237 Ibid, at page 32 238 Ibid.

239 Ibid, at page 33

202 PART F

● “Unauthorized disclosure of information by anyone in UIDAI, Registrar or the Enrolling agency;

● Disclosure of information violating the protocols set in place by UIDAI;

● Sharing any of the data on the database with anyone; ● Engaging in or facilitating analysis of the data for anyone; ● Engaging in or facilitating profiling of any nature for anyone or providing information for profiling of any nature for anyone;

● All offences under the Information Technology Act shall be deemed to be offences under UIDAI if directed against UIDAI or its database.”240

However, according to the report, UIDAI was to concern itself only with identity

fraud and any grievances in respect of document fraud (counterfeit/

misleading documents) were to be left to the Registrar enrolling the

resident.241

141 The following conclusions emerge from the UIDAI’s strategy overview:

Firstly, the UIDAI was aware of the importance of biometric information before

the Aadhaar programme had been rolled out. Secondly, UIDAI had itself

contemplated a scenario of identity theft which could occur at the time of

enrollment for Aadhaar cards. However, it had no solution to the possible

harms which could result after the identity theft of a person, more so when the

potential ‘UIDAI Act’ was still in the pipeline and was not eventually enacted

until 2016.

240 Ibid.

241 Ibid, at page 34

203 PART F

C. Registrars

142 The term ‘Registrar’ was first defined by UIDAI in its DDSVPC Report as

“any government or private agency that will partner with UIDAI in order to

enroll and authenticate residents”.242 In the Strategy Overview, the term was

defined as “agencies such as central and state departments and private sector

agencies who will be ‘Registrars’ for the UIDAI”.243

The Strategy Overview also stated that:

“Registrars will process UID applications, and connect to the CIDR to de-duplicate resident information and receive UID numbers. These Registrars can either be enrollers, or will appoint agencies as enrollers, who will interface with people seeking UID numbers. The Authority will also partner with service providers for authentication. If the Registrar issues a card to the resident, the UIDAI will recommend that the card contain the UID number, name and photograph. They will be free to add any more information related to their services (such as Customer ID by bank). They will also be free to print/ store the biometric collected from the applicant on the issued card. If more registrars store such biometric information in a single card format, the cards will become interoperable for offline verification. But the UIDAI will not insist on, audit or enforce this.”244 (Emphasis supplied)

143 In the ‘Aadhaar Handbook for Registrars 2010’ (“2010 Handbook”),

following policy guidelines were laid down in respect of Registrars:

1. “Registrars may retain the biometric data collected from residents enrolled by them. However, the Registrar will have to exercise a fiduciary duty of care with respect to the data collected from residents and will be responsible for loss, unauthorized access to and misuse of data in their custody.

2. In order to ensure data integrity and security, the biometrics captured shall be encrypted upon collection by using the

242 DDSVPC (UIDAI), DDSVPC Report, (9 December 2009), available at https://uidai.gov.in/images/UID_DDSVP_Committee_Report_v1.0. pdf , at page 5 243 UIDAI, UIDAI Strategy Overview, available at

http://www.prsindia.org/uploads/media/UID/UIDAI%20STRATEGY%20OVERVIEW.pdf, at page 2 244 Ibid, at page 15

204 PART F

encryption key defined by the Registrar. It is the responsibility of the Registrar to ensure the safety, security and confidentiality of this data which is in their custody. The Registrar must protect the data from unauthorized access and misuse. The UIDAI will define guidelines for the storage of biometric data in order to give the Registrar some guidance on ensuring security of the data. The Registrar shall have to define their own security policy and protocols to ensure safety of the Biometric data. The Registrars shall bear liability for any loss, unauthorized access and misuse of this data. In the interest of transparency, it is recommended that the Registrar inform the resident that they will be keeping the biometric data and also define how the data will be used and how it will be kept secure.”245 (Emphasis supplied)

In the ‘Aadhaar Handbook for Registrars 2013’ (“2013 Handbook”), it was

stated that “UIDAI has defined security guidelines for the storage of

biometric data”.246 While it is indicated in the handbook that guidelines for

storage were defined by UIDAI, it is evident that this took place only after 2010

before which the registrars were functioning without guidelines mandating how

the biometric data was to be kept secure.

The following guideline finds mention both in the Handbook of 2010 and 2013:

“In the interest of transparency, it is recommended that the Registrar inform the resident that they will be keeping the biometric data and also define how the data will be used and how it will be kept secure”.247

However, it is apparent from this guideline that it was merely a

recommendation to the Registrars, and no obligation was cast upon the

245 UIDAI, Aadhaar Handbook for Registrars, available at http://doitc.rajasthan.gov.in/administrator/Lists/Downloads/Attachments/26/aadhaar_handbook_version. pdf, at page 11 246 Annexure R-74, Volume III, List of Pre-enactment dates and events for the Aadhaar project, Submissions by the AG.

247 UIDAI (Planning Commission), Aadhaar Handbook for Registrars (2010), available at http://indiamicrofinance.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/08/Aadhaar-Handbook. pdf, at page 11; UIDAI (Planning Commission), Aadhaar Handbook for Registrars (2013), at page 16 (Annexure R-74, List of Pre-

enactment dates and events for the Aadhaar project submitted by the Learned AG).

205 PART F

Registrars, to inform residents that their biometric data will be stored by them

and how the data was to be used and kept secure. In contrast, Regulation 5 of

the Aadhaar (Sharing of Information) Regulations 2016, states:

“Responsibility of any agency or entity other than requesting entity with respect to Aadhaar number. —

(1) Any individual, agency or entity which collects Aadhaar number or any document containing the Aadhaar number, shall: (a) collect, store and use the Aadhaar number for a lawful purpose; (b) inform the Aadhaar number holder the following details:— i. the purpose for which the information is collected; ii.

whether submission of Aadhaar number or proof of Aadhaar for such purpose is mandatory or voluntary, and if mandatory, the legal provision mandating it; iii. alternatives to submission of Aadhaar number or the document containing Aadhaar number, if any; (c) obtain consent of the Aadhaar number holder to the collection, storage and use of his Aadhaar number for the specified purposes.

(2) Such individual, agency or entity shall not use the Aadhaar number for any purpose other than those specified to the Aadhaar number holder at the time of obtaining his consent.

(3) Such individual, agency or entity shall not share the Aadhaar number with any person without the consent of the Aadhaar number holder.” (Emphasis supplied)

144 What the Registrar is obliged to do under law after the enactment of the

Aadhaar Act, was a recommendation to the Registrar prior to the enactment of

the Aadhaar Act. Thus, it is uncertain whether residents were informed about

where and how their data would be kept secure since the guidelines to the

Registrars were only recommendatory in nature. Similarly, in a UIDAI

document titled ‘Roles and Responsibilities of Enrollment Staff, 2017’, one of

the ‘Fifteen Commandments that an Operator must remember during Resident

Enrollment’ is “Make sure that the resident is well informed that his/her

206 PART F

biometric will only be used for Aadhaar Enrolment/Update and no other

purpose”.248 However, in the UIDAI document titled ‘Enrollment Process

Essentials, 2012’, there is no mention of any such obligation being placed

upon the enrolment staff.249 In the absence of informed consent for the

collection of data, a shadow of potential illegality is cast.

F.4 Privacy Concerns in the Aadhaar Act

1 Consent during enrolment and authentication & the right to access information under the Aadhaar Act

145 Section 3(2) of the Aadhaar Act requires enrolment agencies to inform

the individual being enrolled about: a) the manner in which information shall

be used; b) the nature of recipients with whom the information is to be shared

during authentication; and c) the existence of a right to access information.

However, the Enrolment Form in Schedule I of the Enrolment Regulations

does not offer any clarification or mechanism on how the mandate of Section

3(2) is to be fulfilled.

The right of an individual to access information related to his or her

authentication record is recognized in Section 3(2)(c) and Section 32(2) of the

248 UIDAI, Roles and Responsibilities of Enrolment Staff, available at https://idai.gov.in/images/annexure_b_roles_and_responsibility_of_enrolment_staff. Pdf , at page 8 249UIDAI, Enrolment Process Essentials (13 December 2012), available at

http://www.nictcsc.com/images/Aadhaar%20Project%20Training%20Module/English%20Training%20Module/ module2_aadhaar_enrolment_process17122012. pdf

207 PART F

Aadhaar Act. However, the supplementary regulations that complement the

Act are bereft of detail on the procedure to access such information.

Similarly, Regulation 9(c) of the Enrolment Regulations states that the

procedure for accessing data would be provided to residents through the

enrolment form, which is found in Schedule I to the Enrolment Regulations.

However, all that Schedule I states is: “I have a right to access my identity

information (except core biometrics) following the procedure laid down by

UIDAI”, without any such procedure actually being laid down.

146 Section 2(I) of the Act, which defines an enrolling agency read with

Regulation 23 of the Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update) Regulations allows for

the collection of sensitive personal data (demographic and biometric

information) of individuals by private agencies, which also have to discharge

the burden of explaining the voluntary nature of Aadhaar registration and

obtaining an individual’s informed consent.

The Authentication Regulations, framed under sub-section (1), and sub-

clauses (f) and (w) of sub-section (2) of Section 54 of the Aadhaar Act deal

with the authentication framework for Aadhaar numbers, the governance of

authentication agencies and the procedure for collection, storage of

authentication data and records. Regulation 5 (1) states what details shall be

made available to the Aadhaar number holder at the time of authentication

208 PART F

which are a) the nature of information that will be shared by the Authority upon

authentication, (b) the uses to which the information received during

authentication may be put; and (c) alternatives to submission of identity

information. Regulation 6 (2) mandates that a requesting entity shall obtain the

consent of an Aadhaar number holder for authentication in physical or,

preferably, in electronic form and maintain logs or records of the consent

obtained in the manner and form as may be specified by the Authority for this

purpose.

Although Regulation 5 mentions that at the time of authentication, requesting

entities shall inform the Aadhaar number holder of alternatives to submission

of identity information for the purpose of authentication, and Regulation 6

mandates that the requesting entity shall obtain the consent of the Aadhaar

number holder for the authentication, in neither of the above circumstances do

the regulations specify the clearly defined options that should be made

available to the Aadhaar number holder in case they do not wish to submit

identity information, nor do the regulations specify the procedure to be

followed in case the Aadhaar number holder does not provide consent. This is

a significant omission. Measures for providing alternatives must be defined in

all identity systems, particularly those that are implemented on a large scale.

209 PART F

2 Extent of information disclosed during authentication & sharing of

core biometric information

147 Section 8(4) of the Act permits the Authority to respond to an

authentication query with a “positive, negative or any other appropriate

response sharing such identity information excluding any core biometric

information”. The petitioners have argued that the wide ambit of this provision

gives the Authority discretion to respond to the requesting entity with

information including an individual’s photograph, name, date of birth, address,

mobile number, email address and any other demographic information that

was disclosed at the time of enrolment.

Moreover, it must be realized that even if core biometric information cannot be

shared, demographic information is nonetheless, sensitive. Regulation 2(j) of

the Authentication Regulations250 provides that a digitally signed response

with e-KYC data251 [which is defined in Regulation 2(k)] can be returned to the

requesting entity, while Regulation 3(ii)252 provides for this form of

authentication (e-KYC) by UIDAI.

250 Regulation 2(j) of Aadhaar (Authentication) Regulations: “e-KYC authentication facility” means a type of authentication facility in which the biometric information and/or OTP and Aadhaar number securely submitted with the consent of the Aadhaar number holder through a requesting entity, is matched against the data available in the CIDR, and the Authority returns a digitally signed response containing e-KYC data along with other technical details related to the authentication transaction. 251 Regulation 2(k) of Aadhaar Authentication Regulations: “e-KYC data” means demographic information and

photograph of an Aadhaar number holder.

252 Regulation 3(ii) of Aadhaar (Authentication) Regulations, 2016: “3. Types of Authentication-There shall be

two types of authentication facilities provided by the Authority, namely— (i) Yes/No authentication facility, which may be carried out using any of the modes, (ii) e-KYC authentication facility, which may be carried out only using OTP and/ or biometric authentication modes as specified in regulation 4(2)”.

210 PART F

148 Section 29(1) of the Aadhaar Act expressly states that ‘core biometric

information can never be shared with anyone for any reason whatsoever or be

used for any purpose other than generation of Aadhaar numbers and

authentication under this Act’. However, this provision which seemingly

protects an individual’s core biometric information from being shared is

contradicted by Section 29(4)253 of the Act, the proviso to which grants UIDAI

the power to publish, display or post core biometric information of an individual

for purposes specified by the regulations. The language of this section is

overbroad and which could lead to transgressions and abuse of power.

Moreover, sub-sections 29(1) and (2), in effect, create distinction between two

classes of information (core biometric information and identity information),

which are integral to individual identity. Identity information requires equal

protection as provided to core biometric information.

3 Expansive scope of biometric information

149 Definitions of biometric information [Section 2(g)], core biometric

information [Section 2(j)] and demographic information [Section 2(k)] under

the Aadhaar Act are inclusive and expansive. Section 2(g) defines 'biometric

information' as “photograph, fingerprint, iris scan, or such other biological

attributes of an individual as may be specified by regulations”. Section 2(j)

defines ‘core biometric information’ as “fingerprint, Iris scan, or such other

253 Section 29(4) states: “No Aadhaar number or core biometric information collected or created under this Act in respect of an Aadhaar number holder shall be published, displayed or posted publicly, except for the purposes as may be specified by regulations.”

211 PART F

biological attribute of an individual as may be specified by regulations”.

Section 2(t) explains that the regulations are to be made by UIDAI, which is

the supreme authority under the Act. Sections 2(g), (j), (k) and (t) give

discretionary power to UIDAI to define the scope of biometric and

demographic information. Although the Act specifically provides what

information can be collected, it does not specifically prohibit the collection of

further biometric information. The scope of what can, in addition, be collected,

has been left to regulations. These provisions empower UIDAI to expand on

the nature of information already collected at the time of enrolment, to the

extent of also collecting ‘such other biological attributes’ that it may deem fit by

specifying it in regulations at a future date.

The definitions of these sections provide the government with unbridled

powers to add to the list of biometric details that UIDAI can require a citizen to

part with during enrolment which might even amount to an invasive collection

of biological attributes including blood and urine samples of individuals.

4 Other concerns regarding the Aadhaar Act: Misconceptions regarding the efficacy of biometric information

150 The uniqueness of a fingerprint in forensic science remains an

assumption without watertight proof. The uniqueness of biometric data is not

absolute, it is relative. Not everyone will have a particular biometric trait, or an

individual’s biometric trait may be significantly different from the ‘normal’

212 PART F

expected trait. Some people may be missing fingerprints due to skin or other

disease, which may cause further problems when enrolling a large population

in a fingerprint-based register. Discrimination concerns may also be raised in

such a case. Therefore, a large scale biometric scheme will usually need to

utilise more than one biometric. For example- both fingerprint and face to

ensure all people can be enrolled.254

The stability of even so called stable types of biometric data is not absolute.

Each time an individual places a fingerprint on a fingerprint reader, the pattern

may appear to be the same from a short distance, but there are actually small

differences in the pattern due to dryness, moisture and elasticity of the skin.

Moreover, cuts and scratches can alter the pattern. Similarly, even the iris, a

popular biometric measurement suffers from difficulties in obtaining a valid

image. The iris can also be hindered by specula reflections in uncontrolled

lighting situations. These problems also apply to other relatively stable

biometric identifiers.255

151 Sections 6256 and 31(2)257 of the Aadhaar Act place an additional onus

on individual Aadhaar holders to update their information. These provisions

254Ramesh Subramanian, Computer Security, Privacy & Politics: Current Issues, Challenges & Solutions, IRM Press, at pages 99-100 255Ibid, at page 100 256Section 6 states: “The Authority may require Aadhaar number holders to update their demographic information

and biometric information, from time to time, in such manner as may be specified by regulations, so as to ensure continued accuracy of their information in the Central Identities Data Repository.” 257Section 31(2) states: “In case any biometric information of Aadhaar number holder is lost or changes

subsequently for any reason, the Aadhaar number holder shall request the Authority to make necessary alteration in his record in the Central Identities Data Repository in such manner as may be specified by regulations.”

213 PART F

create a legal mandate on individuals to ensure that their information is

accurate within the CIDR. It is an acknowledgement that an individual’s

biometric information may change from time to time. Natural factors like

ageing, manual labour, injury and illness can cause an individual’s biometric

information to be altered over the course of a lifetime. Critics of the Aadhaar

program however point to the fact that provisions for updation fly in the face of

UIDAI’s repeated advertisements that Aadhaar enrolment is a “one-time”

affair, as it is not and will never be. Moreover, there is no way in which a

person can estimate that he or she is due for an update, as this is not

something that can be discerned by actions as innocuous as looking in the

mirror or at one’s fingers, and therefore there remains no objective means of

complying with the above sections. In fact, an authentication failure and a

subsequent denial of welfare benefits, a subsidy or a service that an individual

is entitled to might be the only way one comes to the conclusion that his or her

biometrics need to be updated in the CIDR.258

Moreover, since the promise of Aadhaar as a unique identity hinges on the

uniqueness of biometrics, it would be logical to assume that any update to

biometric data should go through the same rigour as a new enrolment.

Regulation 19(a), entitled ‘Modes of Updating Residents Information’ under

Chapter IV of the Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update) Regulations, 2016

provides:

258 L. Vishwanath, Four Reasons You Should Worry About Aadhaar's Use of Biometrics, The Wire (28 March, 2017), available at https://thewire.in/rights/real-problem-aadhaar-lies-biometrics

214 PART F

“19. Mode of Updating Residents Information:

a) At any enrolment centre with the assistance of the operator and/or supervisor. The resident will be biometrically authenticated and shall be required to provide his Aadhaar number along with the identity information sought to be updated.”

This raises the question as to how an individual will update his/her biometric

information. If the biometric information stored in CIDR has changed, the

present biometrics will lead to mismatch during authentication. This

Regulation does not provide any real clarity on how updation should be taking

place in practice for the following reasons:

1. As required by the regulation, can an individual be asked to undergo

biometric authentication, when the purpose is to update the biometrics?

2. Does the provision amount to an implied expectation that an individual is

supposed to revisit the enrolment centre before all ten fingers and two

irises (core biometric information) are rendered inaccurate for the

purposes of authentication?259

This is also evidence of the fact that an Aadhaar enrolment is not a one-time

affair.

5 No access to biometric records in database

152 The proviso to Section 28(5)260 of the Aadhaar Act disallows an

individual access to the biometric information that forms the core of his or her

259 Ibid.

260 Section 28(5) states: “Notwithstanding anything contained in any other law for the time being in force, and save as otherwise provided in this Act, the Authority or any of its officers or other employees or any agency

215 PART F

unique ID (Aadhaar). The lack of access is problematic for the following

reasons: First, verification of whether the biometrics have been recorded

correctly or not in the first place is not possible. This becomes critical when

that same information forms the basis of identity and is the basis of

authentication and subsequent access to welfare benefits and other services.

Second, there is a great potential for fraudulently replacing a person’s

biometric identity in the database, as the individual has no means to verify the

biometric information that has been recorded at the time of enrolment. Even

an entity like the enrolment operator (with a software hack) could upload

someone else’s biometrics against another person.261 Denial of access to the

individual violates a fundamental principle of data protection: ownership of the

data must at all times vest with the individual. Overlooking this fundamental

principle is manifestly arbitrary and violative of Article 14.

6 Biometric locking

153 Authentication Regulations 11 (1) and (4) provide for the facility of

Biometric Locking. Regulation 11(1) provides:

“The Authority may enable an Aadhaar number holder to permanently lock his biometrics and temporarily unlock it when needed for biometric authentication.”

that maintains the Central Identities Data Repository shall not, whether during his service or thereafter, reveal any information stored in the Central Identities Data Repository or authentication record to anyone:

Provided that an Aadhaar number holder may request the Authority to provide access to his identity information excluding his core biometric information in such manner as may be specified by regulations.” 261 L. Vishwanath, Four Reasons You Should Worry About Aadhaar's Use of Biometrics, The Wire (28 March,

2017), available at https://thewire.in/rights/real-problem-aadhaar-lies-biometrics

216 PART F

Regulation 11(4) provides:

“The Authority may make provisions for Aadhaar number holders to remove such permanent locks at any point in a secure manner.”

The provision allowing biometric locking is salutary to the extent that it allows

Aadhaar number holders to permanently lock their biometrics and temporarily

unlock them only when needed for biometric authentication. But the regulation

is problematic to the extent that it also empowers the UIDAI to make

provisions to remove such locking without any specified grounds for doing

so.262

7 Key takeaways

154 The use of biometric technology is only likely to grow dramatically both

in the private and public sector. On our part, we can only ensure that the

strides made in technology are accompanied by stringent legal and technical

safeguards so that biometrics do not become a threat to privacy.263

155 There is no unique concept of privacy and there maybe trade-offs

between privacy and other objectives.264 The challenge regarding privacy is

best put in the following words:

262 The Centre for Internet & Society, Analysis of Key Provisions of the Aadhaar Act Regulations, (31 March, 2017), available at https://cis-india.org/internet-governance/blog/analysis-of-key-provisions-of-aadhaar-act-

regulations.

263 A. Cavoukian, Privacy and Biometrics, Information and Privacy Commissioner Canada (1999), available at http://www.ipc.on.ca/images/Resources/pri-biom.pdf 264 Robert Gellman. Privacy and Biometric ID Systems: An Approach Using Fair Information Practices for Developing Countries, CGD Policy Paper 028 Washington DC: Centre for Global Development (1 August 2013), available at https://www.cgdev.org/sites/default/files/privacy-and-biometric-ID-systems_0. pdf

217 PART F

“The definition of privacy in any jurisdiction must take into account cultural, historical, legal, religious and other local factors. One size may not fit all countries, regions, or cultures when it comes to privacy or to some elements of privacy. In addition, views of privacy change as time passes and technology advances. However, different perspectives are not a barrier to evaluating privacy but a challenge.”265

The relationship between biometrics and privacy is completely shaped by the

design of the systems and the framework within which private and personal

data is handled. Unfortunately, particularly in developing countries the

adoption of biometrics has not been accompanied by an adequate discussion

of privacy concerns.266 Biometrics can also be a “staunch friend of privacy”

when the technology is used for controlling access and to restrict unauthorized

personnel from gaining access to sensitive personal information. 267 While

evaluating privacy consequences of biometric technology, it is also important

to bear in mind that there cannot be an assumption that current privacy

protections which may be appropriate for the present state of technology will

also be sufficient in the future.268 Technology will continue to develop as will

the need to develop corresponding privacy protections. Concerns around

privacy and data protection will have to be addressed. “Fair Information

Practices (FIPs), Privacy by Design (PbD), and Privacy Impact Assessments

(PIAs)”269 might be useful in addressing these concerns. FIPs offer the

substantive content for a privacy policy. PbD offers a proactive approach to

265 Ibid 266 Ibid 267John D Woodward, Biometrics: Identifying Law & Policy Concerns, in Biometrics (AK Jain A.K, R Bolle, and S

Pankanti eds.), Springer (1996) 268Robert Gellman, Privacy and Biometric ID Systems: An Approach Using Fair Information Practices for

Developing Countries, CGD Policy Paper 028 Washington DC: Centre for Global Development (1 August, 2013), available at https://www.cgdev.org/sites/default/files/privacy-and-biometric-ID-systems_0.pdf 269Ibid

218 PART F

the protection of privacy that relies on advance planning rather responding to

problems after they arise. PIAs offer a formal way to consider and assess the

privacy consequences of technology or other choices, including consideration

of alternatives early in the planning stages. These three methodologies are

not mutually exclusive and can be combined to achieve the just and optimal

result for society.270

156 Of particular significance is the “Do Not Harm” principle which means

that biometrics and digital identity should not be used by the issuing authority,

typically a government, or adjacent parties to serve purposes that could harm

the individuals holding the identification.271 Identity systems, whether in paper

or digital, must work for the public good and must do no harm. However,

identity systems due to their inherent power, can cause harm when placed

into hostile hands and used improperly. Great care must be taken to prevent

this misuse. “Do No Harm” requires rigorous evaluation, foresight, and

continual oversight.272

157 There are many adversarial actors – from private espionage groups to

foreign governments, who may try to exploit data vulnerabilities. There is also

the threat of abuse of power by future governments. However, creating and

instilling strong privacy protection laws and safeguards may decrease these

270 Ibid 271Pam Dixon, A Failure to Do No Harm – India’s Aadhaar biometric ID program and its inability to protect privacy in relation to measures in Europe and the U.S., Health and Technology, Vol. 7 (2017), at pages 539–567 272 Ibid

219 PART G

risks- such as the framework provided by the EUGDPR273. In order to uphold

democratic values, the government needs to curtail its own powers concerning

the tracking of all citizens and prevent the needless collection of data. Such

protections may assuage the fears and uphold the long-term legitimacy of

Aadhaar. If the legislative process takes into account public feedback and

addresses the privacy concerns regarding Aadhaar, it would provide a solid

basis for more digital initiatives, which are imminent in today’s digital age.

However, in its current form, the Aadhaar framework does not address the

privacy concerns issues discussed in this section of the judgment.

G Legitimate state aim

G.I Directive Principles

158 The Union government has contended that the legitimate state interest

in pursuing the Aadhaar project flows from the solicitous concern shown in the

text and spirit of the Constitution for realising socio-economic rights. The right

to food must, according to the view proposed before the Court, trump over the

right to privacy. The Aadhaar project, it has been urged, seeks to fulfil socio-

economic entitlements.

159 The Constituent Assembly did not work in a vacuum. The idealism with

which the members of the Assembly drafted the Constitution was the result of

273 General Data Protection Regulation, available at https://gdpr-info.eu/

220 PART G

the “social content of the Independence movement”274, which came from the

awareness of the members about the existing conditions of the Indian

masses. Granville Austin has therefore referred to the Constitution as a “social

document” and a “modernizing force”, whose provisions reflect “humanitarian

sentiments”.275 The Constitution was the medium through which the nascent

Indian democracy was to foster many goals. Austin observes:

“Transcendent among [the goals] was that of social revolution. Through this revolution would be fulfilled the basic needs of the common man, and, it was hoped, this revolution would bring about fundamental changes in the structure of Indian society.”276 (Emphasis supplied)

Austin has further observed:

“The first task of [the] Assembly… [was] to free India through a new constitution, to feed the starving people, and to clothe the naked masses, and to give every Indian the fullest opportunity to develop himself according to his capacity.”277

In his work titled “The Constitution of India: A Contextual Analysis”, Arun K

Thiruvengadam identified one such goal of the Constitution as follows:

“The Indian Constitution sought to lay the blueprint for economic development of the vast subcontinental nation, which was an imperative for a populace that was largely illiterate, poor and disproportionately situated in rural societies that had limited access to many essential social goods and infrastructural facilities.278” .

“By establishing these positive obligations of the state, the members of the Constituent Assembly made it the responsibility of future Indian governments to find a middle way between individual liberty and the public good,

274 Granville Austin, The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation, Oxford University Press (1999) at page xxii 275 Ibid, at pages 62, xiii and xxii 276 Ibid, at page xxi 277 Ibid, at page 32 278 Arun K Thiruvengadam, The Constitution of India: A Contextual Analysis, (Bloomsbury 2017), at page 1

221 PART G

between preserving the property and the privilege of the few and bestowing benefits on the many in order to liberate ‘the powers of all men equally for contributions to the common good’.”279 (Emphasis supplied)

160 The draftpersons of the Constitution believed that the driving force to

bring social change rested with the State. This is evident from an instance

during the proceedings of the Constituent Assembly. Dr. B R Ambedkar had

submitted to the Assembly a social scheme to be incorporated into the

Constitution, which included provisions to cover every adult Indian by life

insurance. However, his social scheme was rejected on the ground that such

provisions should be left to legislation and need not be embodied into the

Constitution.280

161 The social and economic goals which were contemplated at the time of

Independence remain at the forefront of the State’s agenda even today.

Certain parts of the Constitution play a leading role in declaring the blueprint

of its social intent. Directive Principles were specifically incorporated into the

Constitution for this purpose. Though not enforceable in courts, the principles

are “fundamental in the governance of the country” and it is the duty of the

State to apply these principles while making laws.281 The essence of the

Directive Principles lies in Article 38 of the Constitution, which places an

obligation on the State to secure a social order for the promotion of the

279 Granville Austin, The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation, Oxford University Press (1999) at page 66 280 Ibid, at page 99 281 Article 37, The Constitution of India

222 PART G

welfare of the people. Titled as Part IV of the Constitution, the Directive

Principles are symbolic of the welfare vision of the Constitution makers.

Article 38 of the Constitution provides that :

“(1) The State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice, social economic and political, shall inform all the institutions of the national life.

(2) The State shall, in particular, strive to minimize the inequalities in income, and endeavor to eliminate inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities, not only amongst individuals but also amongst groups of people residing in different areas or engaged in different vocations.”

Clauses (b), (c), (e) and (f) of Article 39 provide thus :

“39. The State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing -

...

(b) that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good;

(c) that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment;

..

(e) that the health and strength of workers, men and women, and the tender age of children are not abused and that citizens are not forced by economic necessity to enter avocations unsuited to their age or strength;

(f) that children are given opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of freedom and dignity and that childhood and youth are protected against exploitation and against moral and material abandonment.”

Article 41 speaks of the right to work, to education, and to public assistance :

“41. The State shall, within the limits of its economic capacity and development, make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases

223 PART G

of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, and in other cases of undeserved want.”

Article 43 contemplates a living wage and conditions of work which provide a

decent standard of life:

“43. The State shall endeavour to secure, by suitable legislation or economic organisation or in any other way, to all workers, agricultural, industrial or otherwise, work, a living wage, conditions of work ensuring a decent standard of life and full enjoyment of leisure and social and cultural opportunities and, in particular, the State shall endeavour to promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operative basis in rural areas.”

Article 47 casts a positive obligation upon the State to raise the level of

nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health, as among its

primary duties. Reflecting a constitutional vision of socio-economic justice, the

values adopted in the Directive Principles are to be progressively realised in

the course of social and economic development.

162 In a recently published book titled “Supreme Court of India: The

Beginnings”, George H Gadbois, Jr. observes that the Indian Constitution,

“easily the lengthiest fundamental law in the world, probably ranks also as one

of the most eclectic ever produced”.282 Reflecting upon the constitutional

models from which the draftspersons of India’s Constitution drew sustenance,

Gadbois states:

“The Constitution makes provision for a parliamentary system adapted from the British model, a federation patterned after the Government of India Act of 1935 and the Canadian

282George H Gadbois, JR, Supreme Court of India: The Beginnings (Vikram Raghavan and Vasujith Ram eds.), Oxford University Press (2017), at page 193

224 PART G

Constitution, a set of emergency powers similar to those set forth in the Weimar Constitution, a lengthy list of fundamental rights adapted from the American experience with a Bill of Rights, a Supreme Court endowed with express powers of judicial review for which the American Supreme Court served as the model, and list of “Directive Principles of State Policy” patterned after the Constitution of Eire.”283

Reflecting on the Directive Principles, Gadbois observes:

“Suffice to say that the directive principles have provided the constitutional basis and justification for the Government’s efforts to establish a welfare state, or, to use the designation preferred by Indian leaders, a “socialist pattern of society”.284

The sanction behind the Directives, according to him “is political and not

juridical”. On the other hand, the fundamental rights are justiciable because

Article 13 provides that a law which takes them away or abridges them will be

void. The conflict as Gadbois sees it is this:

“the directive principles are a set of instructions to the Government of the day to legislate into being a welfare state, which means, of course, an emphasis on the social and economic uplift of the community at large and a corresponding subtraction from individual rights. It is the duty of the Government to apply these principles in making laws. In short, the Constitution confers upon the Supreme Court the task of making the fundamental rights meaningful against possible infringements by the legislatures and executives, and makes it obligatory for the Government to bring about changes in the social and economic life of the nation, changes which were bound to affect adversely some private rights.

It is conceivable at least, that both the Supreme Court and the Government could have pursued their respective tasks without conflict, but this did not happen. The legislatures, purporting to be doing no more than carrying out the duties prescribed in the directive principles, enacted legislation which the Supreme Court found to be in conflict with some of the fundamental rights.”285

283 Ibid, at pages 193-194 284 Ibid, at page 195 285 Ibid, at pages 195-196

225 PART G

This formulation by Gadbois formed part of a dissertation in April 1965. The

evolution of jurisprudence in India since then has altered the Constitutional

dialogue. Over time, the values enshrined in the Directive Principles have

been read into the guarantees of freedom in Part III. In incremental stages, the

realisation of economic freedom has been brought within the realm of

justiciability, at least as a measure of the reasonableness of legislative

programmes designed to achieve social welfare.

163 As our constitutional jurisprudence has evolved, the Directive Principles

have been recognised as being more than a mere statement of desirable

goals. By a process of constitutional interpretation, the values contained in

them have been adopted as standards of reasonableness to expand the

meaning and ambit of the fundamental rights guaranteed by Part III of the

Constitution.286 In doing so, judicial interpretation has attempted to imbue a

substantive constitutional content to the international obligations assumed by

India in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and the International

Covenant on Economic and Social and Cultural Rights. Eradicating extreme

poverty and hunger is a significant facet of the Millennium Development Goals

of the United Nations. Social welfare legislation is but a step to achieve those

goals. The enactment of the National Food Security Act 2013 constituted a

milestone in legislative attempts to provide food security at the household

level. The Act discerns a targeted Public Distribution System for providing

food-grains to those below the poverty line. The rules contemplated in Section 286 Minerva Mills Ltd. v Union of India, (1980) 3 SCC 625

226 PART G

12(2)(b), incorporate the application of Information and Communication

Technology tools to ensure transparency of governance and prevent a

diversion of benefits. Another important piece of legislation has been the

Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) Act

2005 which was enacted for the enhancement of livelihood and security of

rural households. The Act guarantees a hundred days of wage employment in

every financial year to at least one able-bodied member of every household in

rural areas in public works programmes designed to create public assets.

Both the National Food Security Act 2013 and the MGNREGA Act 2005 follow

a rights-based approach in dealing with endemic problems of poverty and

deprivation in rural areas. Leveraging Aadhaar for biometric identification of

beneficiaries, it has been argued by the respondents, is an intrinsic part of the

legislative effort to ensure that benefits in terms of food security and

employment guarantee are channelised to those for whom they are meant.

G.2 Development and freedom

164 Many scholars have delved into the substantive themes of the Indian

Constitution. Upendra Baxi has argued that the Indian Constitution has four

sovereign virtues: “rights, justice, development, and governance”287. Baxi

notes that they are “intertwined and interlocked with the rest and, in

contradictory combination/recombinations with both the constitutional and

287Upendra Baxi, “A known but an indifferent judge”: Situating Ronald Dworkin in contemporary Indian jurisprudence, International Journal of Constitutional Law, (2003) at page 582

227 PART G

social past and their future images”.288 Development is a leading aspect of our

constitutional vision. Development in the constitutional context is not only

economic development assessed in terms of conventional indicators such as

the growth of the gross domestic product or industrial output. The central

exercise of development in a constitutional sense is addressing the

“deprivation, destitution and oppression”289 that plague an individual’s life.

165 In a traditional sense, freedom and liberty mean an absence of

interference by the state into human affairs. Liberty assumes the character of

a shield. The autonomy of the individual is protected from encroachment by

the state. This formulation of political rights reflects the notion that the state

shall not be permitted to encroach upon a protected sphere reserved for

individual decisions and choices. What the state is prevented from doing is

couched in a negative sense. Civil and political rights operate as restraints on

state action. They postulate a restriction on the state. Isaiah Berlin formulates

the negative conception of liberty thus:

“I am … free to the degree to which no man or body of man interferes with my activity. Political liberty is simply the area within which a man can act unobstructed by others.”290

166 Individual freedom, in this conception, imposes a duty of restraint on the

state. Modern ideas of neo liberalism have funnelled this notion. Neo-

liberalism postulates that the increasing presence of the state is a threat to

288 Ibid 289 Amartya Sen, Development as Freedom, Oxford University Press (2000), at page xii 290 Isaiah Berlin, Two Concepts of Liberty, available at

http://faculty.www.umb.edu/steven.levine/courses/Fall%202015/What%20is%20Freedom%20Writings/Berlin.p df

228 PART G

individual autonomy. A free market economy with minimum state control, in

this view, is regarded as integral to protecting individual rights and freedoms.

FA Hayek construes the content of liberty as meaning the absence of

obstacles. Resultantly, this notion of liberty regards the role of the state in a

narrow jurisprudential frame. Attempts by the state to pursue social justice or

to use its authority for redistribution of wealth would in this conception not be a

legitimate use of state power.291

167 The notion that liberty only consists of freedom from restraint does not

complete the universe of its discourse. Broader notions of liberty are cognizant

of the fact that individuals must be enabled to pursue their capacities to the

fullest degree. Social and economic discrimination poses real barriers to

access education, resources and the means to a dignified life. This approach

to understanding the content of freedom construes the ability to lead a

dignified existence as essential to the conception of liberty and freedom. The

integral relationship between removal of socio-economic inequality and

freedom has been eloquently set out by Amartya Sen in “Development as

Freedom”292:

“Development requires the removal of major sources of unfreedom: poverty as well as tyranny, poor economic opportunities as well as systematic social deprivation, neglect of public facilities as well as intolerance or overactivity of repressive states. Despite unprecedented increases in overall opulence, the contemporary world denies elementary freedoms to vast numbers – perhaps even the majority-of people. Sometimes the lack of substantive freedoms relates directly to economic poverty, which robs people of the

291 F A Hayek, The Constitution of Liberty, Routledge & Kegan Paul, (1960) at pages 11, 207-208 292 Amartya Sen, Development as Freedom, Oxford University Press (2000) at page 3-4

229 PART G

freedom to satisfy hunger, or to achieve sufficient nutrition, or to obtain remedies for treatable illnesses, or the opportunity to be adequately clothed or sheltered, or to enjoy clean water or sanitary facilities. In other cases, the unfreedom links closely to the lack of public facilities and social care, such as the absence of epidemiological programs, or of organized arrangements for health care or educational facilities, or of effective institutions for the maintenance of local peace and order. In still other cases, the violation of freedom results directly from a denial of political and civil liberties by authoritarian regimes and from imposed restrictions on the freedom to participate in the social, political and economic life of the community.”

In Sen’s analysis, human development is influenced by economic

opportunities, political liberties, social powers, and the enabling conditions of

good health, basic education, and the encouragement and cultivation of

initiatives. Taking it further, Sen has recognized an important co-relation in

terms of the non-availability of basic economic conditions:

“Economic unfreedom, in the form of extreme poverty, can make a person a helpless prey in the violation of other kinds of freedom… Economic unfreedom can breed social unfreedom, just as social or political unfreedom can also foster economic unfreedom.”293

168 The notion of freedom as an agency has been developed by Sen as

part of the ‘capability theory’. The necessary consequence of focusing upon

major sources of unfreedom, in a social and economic perspective, is that the

removal of these restraints is essential to the realization of freedom. If true

freedom is to be achieved through the removal of conditions which cause

social and economic deprivation, the role of the state is not confined to an

absence of restraint. On the contrary, the state has a positive obligation to

293 Ibid, at page 8

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enhance individual capabilities. Martha Nussbaum294 argues that realising

freedom requires the state to discharge positive duties. Nussbaum expresses

a threshold level of capability below which true human functioning is not

available. Freedom is seen in terms of human development and is the process

by which individuals can rise above capability thresholds. In the realisation of

basic rights, the state is subject to positive duties to further the fulfilment of

freedom.

169 The broader conception of freedom and liberty which emerges from the

writings of Sen and Nussbaum has direct consequences upon how we view

civil and political rights and socio-economic rights. The distinction between

the two sets of rights becomes illusory once civil and political rights are

regarded as comprehending within their sweep a corresponding duty to take

such measures as would achieve true freedom. Henry Shue295 suggests that

rights give rise to corresponding duties. These duties include:

(i) a duty to respect;

(ii) a duty to protect; and

(iii) a duty to fulfil.

Duties of respect embody a restraint on affecting the rights of others. Duties

to protect mandate that the state must restrain others in the same manner as

it restrains itself. The state’s duty of non-interference extends to private

individuals. The duty to fulfil connotes aiding the deprived in the realisation of

294Martha Nussbaum, Women and Human Development, Cambridge University Press, (2000) 295Henry Shue, Basic Rights: Subsistence, Affluence and US Foreign Policy, Princeton University Press, Second Edition (1996)

231 PART G

rights. This imposes a corresponding duty to create the conditions which will

facilitate the realisation of the right. The right which is protected for the

individual will also signify an expectation that the state must create institutions

enabling the exercise of facilitative measures or programmes of action, of an

affirmative nature. The state has affirmative obligations to fulfil in the

realisation of rights. These positive duties of the state are readily apparent in

the context of welfare entitlements when the state must adopt affirmative

steps to alleviate poverty and the major sources of economic and social non-

freedom. But the thesis of Nussbaum and Shue have an important role for the

state to discharge in ensuring the fulfilment of political rights as well. In a

highly networked and technology reliant world, individual liberty requires the

state to take positive steps to protect individual rights. Data protection and

individual privacy mandate that the state put in place a positive regime which

recognises, respects and protects the individual from predatory market places.

The state has a positive duty to create an autonomous regulatory framework

in which the individual has access to remedies both against state and non-

state actors, both of whom pose grave dangers of assault on the individual as

an autonomous entity. Failure to discharge that duty is a failure of the state to

respect, protect and fulfil rights.

Dr Ambedkar’s prophetic final address to the Constituent Assembly elaborates

that vision:

“On the social plane, we have in India a society based on the principle of graded inequality with elevation for some and degradation for others. On the economic plane, we have a society in which there are some who have immense wealth as against many who live in abject poverty. On the 26th of

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January 1950, we are going to enter into a life of contradictions. In politics we will have equality and in social and economic life we will have inequality...How long shall we continue to live this life of contradictions? How long shall we continue to deny equality in our social and economic life? If we continue to deny it for long, we will do so only by putting our political democracy in peril. We must remove this contradiction at the earliest possible moment or else those who suffer from inequality will blow up the structure of political democracy which [this] Assembly has [so] laboriously built up.”296

The pursuit of social welfare and security is a central aspect of development.

The State, in Ambedkar’s vision, would be the main instrumentality in the

debate on development, which has to revolve around the social, economic

and political spheres and would be guided by the values of the Constitution.

170 Social opportunities are the facilities and “arrangements that society

makes” for education, healthcare and nutrition, which “influence the

individual’s substantive freedom to live better”.297 Social security measures

include programmes which intend to promote the welfare of the population

through assistance measures guaranteeing access to sufficient resources.

The social security framework is not only important for individual

development, but also for effective participation in economic and political

activities. Social security programmes flow from ‘economic and social rights’−

also called as “welfare rights” 298 or second generation rights. These rights,

recognized for the first time under the Universal Declaration on Human

Rights, 1948 include a large list of freedoms and claims under its “protective

296 Constituent Assembly Debates (25 November 1949) 297 Amartya Sen, Development as Freedom, Oxford University Press (2000), at page 39 298 Amartya Sen, The Idea of Justice, Penguin (2009) at pages 379-380

233 PART G

umbrella”. They include not only basic political rights, but the right to work, the

right to education, protection against unemployment and poverty, the right to

join trade unions and even the right to just and favourable remuneration. 299

Social security programmes as an instrument for the removal of global poverty

and other economic and social deprivations are at the centre stage in the

global discourse. Article 22 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights

expressly recognises that every member of society is entitled to the right to

social security and to the realisation of economic, social and cultural rights.

Those rights are stated to be indispensable for dignity and to the free

development of personality. The realisation of these rights has to be facilitated

both through national efforts and international co-operation and in accordance

with the organisation and the resources of each state. Article 22 stipulates

that:

“Article 22 Everyone, as a member of society, has the right to social security and is entitled to realization, through national effort and international co-operation and in accordance with the organization and resources of each State, of the economic, social and cultural rights indispensable for his dignity and the free development of his personality.”

In a similar vein, Article 23 comprehends a conglomeration of rights including

(i) the right to work; (ii) free choice of employment; (iii) just and favourable

conditions of work; (iv) protection against unemployment; (v) equal pay for

equal work without any discrimination; (vi) just and favourable remuneration

for work; and (vii) formation and membership of trade unions. Article 23

299 Ibid, at page 380

234 PART G

construes these rights as a means of ensuring both for the individual and the

family, an “existence worthy of human dignity” supplemented if necessary “by

other means of social protection”.

India having adopted the UDHR, its principles can legitimately animate our

constitutional conversations. Both Articles 22 and 23 are significant in

recognising economic rights and entitlements in matters of work and social

security. Both the articles recognise the intrinsic relationship between human

dignity and the realisation of economic rights. Measures of social protection

are integral to the realisation of economic freedom and to fulfil the aspiration

for human dignity.

171 India adopted and ratified the Covenant on Civil and Political Rights as

well as the Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights. India acceded

to the Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights on 10 April 1979.

According to the Preamble, the states who are parties to the Covenant have

recognized that:

“the ideal of free human beings enjoying freedom from fear and want can only be achieved if conditions are created whereby everyone may enjoy his economic, social and cultural rights, as well as his civil and political rights.”

Freedom is thus defined in terms of the absence of fear and want. Moreover,

freedom consists in the enjoyment of a conglomeration of rights: economic,

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social and cultural as well as civil and political rights. There is in other words

no dichotomy between the two sets of rights.

Article 11 of the Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights imposes

positive obligations on the covenanting states:

“Article 11.

1. The States Parties to the present Covenant recognize the right of everyone to an adequate standard of living for himself and his family, including adequate food, clothing and housing, and to the continuous improvement of living conditions. The States Parties will take appropriate steps to ensure the realization of this right, recognizing to this effect the essential importance of international cooperation based on free consent.

2. The States Parties to the present Covenant, recognizing the fundamental right of everyone to be free from hunger, shall take, individually and through international co-

operation, the measures, including specific programmes, which are needed:

(a) To improve methods of production, conservation and distribution of food by making full use of technical and scientific knowledge, by disseminating knowledge of the principles of nutrition and by developing or reforming agrarian systems in such a way as to achieve the most efficient development and utilization of natural resources;

(a) Taking into account the problems of both food-importing the food-exporting countries, to ensure an equitable distribution of world food supplies in relation to need.”

172 The Masstricht Guidelines on Violations of Economic, Social and

Cultural Rights (January 1997) stipulate that:

“It is now undisputed that all human rights are indivisible, interdependent, interrelated and of equal importance for human dignity. Therefore, states are as responsible for violations of economic, social and cultural rights as they are for violations of civil and political rights.”

236 PART G

The Guidelines also stipulate that like civil and political rights, economic,

social and cultural rights impose three different types of obligations on states :

the obligation to respect, protect and fulfil. The guidelines recognize that

violations of economic, social and cultural rights can occur through acts of

commission and omission on the part of states. The omission or failure of

states to take measures emanating from their legal obligations may result in

such violations. Among them is the failure to enforce legislation or to put into

effect policies designed to implement the provisions of the Covenant. In

similar terms, the Limburg Principles on the Implementation of the

International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights cast

affirmative duties on states to take immediate steps towards realizing the

rights contained in the Covenant. Clauses 16, 21 and 27 of the guidelines are

thus:

“16. All States parties have an obligation to begin immediately to take steps towards full realization of the rights contained in the Covenant.

21. The obligation “to achieve progressively the full realization of the rights” requires States parties to move as expeditiously as possible towards the realization of the rights. Under no circumstances shall this be interpreted as implying for States the right to defer indefinitely efforts to ensure full realization. On the contrary all States parties have the obligation to begin immediately to take steps to fulfil their obligations under the Covenant.

27. In determining whether adequate measures have been taken for the realization of the rights recognized in the Covenant attention shall be paid to equitable and effective use of and access to the available resources.”

The office of the UN High Commissioner for Human Rights notified General

Comment No. 3, which was adopted at the fifth session of the Committee on

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Economic, Social and Cultural Rights on 14 December 1990. The Comment

states:

“…while the full realization of the relevant rights may be achieved progressively, steps towards that goal must be taken within a reasonably short time after the Covenant’s entry into force for the States concerned. Such steps should be deliberate, concrete and targeted as clearly as possible towards meeting the obligations recognized in the Covenant.”

Similarly, General Comment No. 12 on the right to adequate food was

adopted at the twentieth session of the Committee on Economic, Social and

Cultural Rights on 12 May 1999. It states :

“The Committee observes that while the problems of hunger and malnutrition are often particularly acute in developing countries, malnutrition, under-nutrition and other problems which relate to the right to adequate food and the right to freedom from hunger also exist in some of the most economically developed countries, Fundamentally, the roots of the problem of hunger and malnutrition are not lack of food but lack of access to available food, inter alia because of poverty, by large segments of the world's population.”

The emphasis on the lack of access to available food is significant to the

present discourse. It indicates that access to food requires institutional

mechanisms to ensure that the available resources reach the beneficiaries for

whom they are intended.

173 Section 2(1)(f) of the Protection of Human Rights Act 1993 specifically

adverts to the Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights:

“2.(1)(f) “International Covenants” means the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights and the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights adopted by the General Assembly of the United Nations on 16th December, 1996 and such other Covenant or Convention

238 PART G

adopted by the General Assembly of the United Nations as the Central Government may, by notification, specify;”

Under Section 12(f), the National Human Rights Commission has been

entrusted with the function of studying treaties and other international

instruments of human rights and to make recommendations for their effective

implementation. Parliament has statutorily incorporated India’s obligations at

international law under the above covenants as a part of the national effort to

realise fundamental human freedoms. Achieving economic freedom is integral

to that mission. In his classic work “The Idea of Justice”, Amartya Sen has

observed in this regard:

“The inclusion of second-generation rights makes it possible to integrate ethical issues underlying general ideas of global development with the demands of deliberative democracy, both of which connect with human rights and quite often with an understanding of the importance of advancing human capabilities.”300

174 Social security thus acts as an underpinning link with development.

There is also a two-way relationship between development and social security

(expansion of human capability). Dreze and Sen have dealt with this

relationship in their following observation:

“Growth generates resources with which public and private efforts can be systematically mobilized to expand education, health care, nutrition, social facilities, and other essentials of fuller and freer human life for all. And the expansion of human capability, in turn, allows a faster expansion of resources and production, on which economic growth ultimately depends… Well-functioning public services, especially (but not only) in fields such as education and health, are also critical in fostering participatory growth as well as in ensuring that

300 Amartya Sen, The Idea of Justice, Penguin (2009) at page 381

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growth leads to rapid improvements in people’s living conditions.”301

The authors have further observed that apart from education and healthcare,

India faces larger issues of accountability in the “public sector as a whole”. 302

The lack of progress in public services acts as a huge barrier to improve the

quality of life of people.303 It has been observed:

“The relative weakness of Indian social policies on school education, basic healthcare, child nutrition, essential land reform and gender equity reflects deficiencies of politically engaged public reasoning and social pressure, not just inadequacies in the official thinking of the government.”304

The future of Indian democracy therefore depends on how it engages itself

with the issues of accountability in transfer of basic human facilities to the

common man.

175 The State has a legitimate aim to ensure that its citizens receive basic

human facilities. In order to witness development, the huge amount of

expenditure that the State incurs in providing subsidies and benefits to the

common citizens, must be accompanied by accountability and transparency.

Legislative and institutional changes are often capable of creating an

atmosphere of transparency and accountability. The most visible example of a

legislative enactment which brought institutional changes is the Right to

Information Act, 2005. Commentators have often highlighted the importance

301 Jean Dreze and Amartya Sen, An Uncertain Glory, Penguin (2013), at pages x and xi 302 Ibid, at page xi 303 Jean Dreze and Amartya Sen, An Uncertain Glory, Penguin (2013), at page 33 304 Amartya Sen, The Idea of Justice, Penguin (2009) at page 349

240 PART G

of this legislation by deliberating upon how it has been successful at “curbing

corruption and restoring accountability in public life”305. According to the State,

though the Aadhaar programme is not in itself a social security programme,

the institutional framework established by the Act, seeks to act, in a way, as

an extension of social security programmes. The State has a legitimate

concern to check that the welfare benefits which it marks for those, who are

entitled, reach them without diversion. The Aadhaar programme, it is argued,

acts as an instrument for the realization of the benefits arising out of the social

security programmes. The Aadhaar programme, it was further contended,

fulfils the State’s concern that its resources are utilised fully for human

development.

It has been contended by the Respondents that since the establishment of the

UIDAI in 2009, its basic mandate is to provide a unique identity number to

residents. The number would subserve two purposes. First, it would serve as

a proof of identity. Second, it would be used for the purpose of identifying

beneficiaries for the transfer of social welfare benefits, provided by the state.

The rationale for establishing a method of identification is to ensure that the

benefits provided by social welfare programmes formulated by the State reach

the beneficiaries for whom they are intended. As a policy intervention, a

unique measure of identification is intended, it has been argued, to secure

financial inclusion. A significant hurdle in the success of social welfare

programmes is that benefits do not reach the targeted population. The reason 305 Jean Dreze and Amartya Sen, An Uncertain Glory, Penguin (2013), at page 100

241 PART G

for this may have something to do intrinsically with the condition of the

individuals as much as with their larger socio-economic circumstances.

Migrant labour and labour in the unorganised sector lacks fixity of abode. The

nature of their work renders their lives peripatetic. Nomadic tribes, particularly

in inaccessible areas, may not have fixed homes. In many cases, traditional

occupations require individuals to move from place to place, dependent on

seasonal changes. Then again, groups of citizens including women, children

and the differently abled may face significant difficulties in accessing benefits

under publicly designed social welfare programmes as a result of factors such

as gender, age and disability.

176 Unequal access to welfare benefits provided by the State becomes a

significant source of deprivation resulting in a denial of the means to sustain

life and livelihood. Before the adoption of Aadhaar based-identity, there were

multiple platforms for identification of residents. They created a situation

where those with no identity had no access to the means of sustaining a

dignified life. Equally significant, as a policy intervention, was the issue of

capture. While on the one hand, large swathes of the population had no

access to welfare assistance, benefits could be captured by persons not

entitled to them either by the assertion of fake or multiple identities. Setting up

a fake identity enables an individual to pass off as another and to secure a

benefit to which that individual is not entitled. Fake identities compound the

problem of capture by allowing individuals to receive multiple benefits through

242 PART G

shell identities. Policy makers were confronted with the serious problems

posed by fake and multiple identities since they imposed a burden on the

exchequer while at the same time diluting the efficacy of state designed social

welfare measures. The burden on the exchequer is illustrated by situations

where persons who are not entitled to benefits secure them in the guise of

being persons entitled to them. When imposters secure benefits which are

not meant for them, they deprive in the process, persons who are genuinely

entitled to benefits. The class of beneficiaries of social welfare programmes is,

so to speak, adulterated by the capture of benefits by those not entitled to

them. This raises serious concerns of the deprivation of human rights. The

capture of benefits has the consequence of depriving those to whom these

benefits should legitimately flow, of the measures designed by the state to

protect its populace from human want and need. The resources deployed by

the state are from its public revenues. When designing a unique measure of

identification, the state must be guided by the necessity of ensuring financial

inclusion and of protecting against financial exclusion. Every citizen who is

eligible for social welfare benefits should obtain them. No person who is

entitled should be excluded. Individuals who do not qualify for social welfare

benefits should not capture them by passing off as individuals entitled.

Enforcing and implementing a robust platform for identification of beneficiaries

must ensure that social welfare benefits reach the hands of those who fulfil the

conditions of eligibility and are not captured by rent-seeking behaviour of

those to whom social welfare benefits are not designed. This constitutes a

243 PART G

legitimate object of state policy. Reaching out to the targeted population is a

valid constitutional purpose. Social welfare measures are an intrinsic part of

state policy designed to facilitate dignified conditions of existence to the

marginalised, especially those who live below the poverty line. Identification

of beneficiaries is crucial to the fulfilment of social welfare programmes.

177 These concerns form the basis of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of

Financial and other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016. As its

Statement of Objects and Reasons explains:

“The correct identification of targeted beneficiaries for delivery of various subsides, benefits, services, grants, wages and other social benefits schemes which are funded from the Consolidated Fund of India has become a challenge for the Government. The failure to establish identity of an individual has proved to be a major hindrance for successful implementation of these programmes. This has been a grave concern for certain categories of persons, such as women, children, senior citizens, persons with disabilities, migrant unskilled and unorganised workers, and nomadic tribes. In the absence of a credible system to authenticate identity of beneficiaries, it is difficult to ensure that the subsidies, benefits and services reach to intended beneficiaries.”

The Statement of Objects and Reasons indicates that the enactment is

designed to ensure “the effective, secure and accurate delivery of benefits,

subsidies and services from the Consolidated Fund of India to targeted

beneficiaries”. The architecture of the law contemplates regulating the

following aspects:

“(a) issue of Aadhaar numbers to individuals on providing ..

demographic and biometric information to the Unique Identification Authority of India;

(b) requiring, Aadhaar numbers for identifying an individual for delivery of benefits, subsidies, and

244 PART G

services (where) the expenditure is incurred from or the receipt therefrom forms part of the Consolidated Fund of India;

(c) authentication of the Aadhaar number of an Aadhaar number holder in relation to his demographic and biometric information;

(d) establishment of the Unique Identification Authority of India… to perform functions in pursuance of the objectives above;

(e) maintenance and updating the information of individuals in the Central Identities Data Repository in such manner as may be specified by regulations;

(f) measures pertaining to security, privacy and confidentiality of information in possession or control of the Authority including information stored in the Central Identities Data Repository; and

(g) offences and penalties for contravention of relevant statutory provisions.”

The Preamble to the enactment indicates that Parliament designed the

legislation as an instrument of good governance, to secure an “efficient,

transparent and targeted delivery of subsidies, benefits and services” for

which the expenditure is incurred from the Consolidated Fund to resident

individuals.

178 The Aadhaar platform is not a social welfare benefit in itself.

Essentially, what it seeks to achieve is to provide a unique identity to every

resident. This identity, in the form of an Aadhaar number, is obtained upon the

submission of demographic and biometric information in the course of

enrolment. The legislative design envisages that the identity of the individual is

verified through the process of authentication by which the biometric data

stored in the central repository is matched with the biometric information

submitted for authentication. Aadhaar is a platform for verification of identity

245 PART G

based principally on biometric information. In facilitating the process of

establishing the identity of the individual who seeks social welfare benefits

envisaged in Section 7, Aadhaar has an instrumental role. It is instrumental in

the sense that as a measure of state policy, it seeks to bring about financial

inclusion by providing a means of identification to every segment of the

population including those who may not have been within the coverage of

traditional markers of identity. As an instrument for verifying identity, Aadhaar

seeks to ensure that social welfare benefits are obtained by persons eligible to

do so and are not captured by the ineligible. Relying on an asserted reliability

of biometric markers, the Aadhaar platform attempts to eliminate, or at least to

curb rent-seeking behaviour.

The rationale underlying Section 7 is the targeted delivery of services, benefits

and subsidies which are funded from the Consolidated Fund of India. In the

seven decades since Independence, the Union Government has put into place

social welfare measures including the public distribution system, free

education, scholarships, mid-day meals and LPG subsidies to ameliorate the

conditions of existence of the poor and marginalised. There is a state interest

in ensuring that the welfare benefits which the state provides reach those for

whom they are intended.

246 PART G

G.3 Identity and Identification

179 Identity is inseparable from the human personality. An identity is a

statement of who an individual is. Our identities define who we are. They

express what we would wish the world to know us as. The human personality

is, at a certain level, all about identity, for it is through the assertion of identity

that each individual seeks to preserve the core of his or her humanity. An

identity is the persona which an individual puts forth in a multitude of

relationships. The significance of our identity lies in our ability to express the

core of our beings. When the Constitution protects our right to be and to be

what we are, it creates a space where the individual is immune from

interference. By recognizing our liberty as autonomous persons, the

Constitution recognizes our ability to preserve and shape our identities in

interactions with others.

Identity may be, but is not always based upon immutable characteristics that

are defined at birth. What is immutable may not be or, at any rate, is not

generally understood as being capable of change. But even here, the

immutability of our features is relative to our own existence and is capable of

being shaped by the social milieu in which human beings lead their lives.

Features about our biological being which are defined at birth are, after all, not

as constraining upon our identities as is often assumed to be the case. That

is because these immutable features are also constantly engaged with our

247 PART G

social and cultural environment. They shape and are influenced by that

environment.

180 There is a distinction between identity and identification. Identification is

a matter of proof- of establishing that a person is actually, the individual who

claims a right or entitlement. In their daily interactions, individuals have to

distinguish themselves from others, whether it be in the course of

employment, travel, civil union, location, community perspectives, revenue

obligations or access to benefits. Identification is a proof of identity or

evidence of identity. Identification is mandatory in numerous activities of day

to day life: a passport is necessary for international travel, a voter ID is

required for exercising electoral rights, a driving license is necessary to ply a

vehicle and an arms license is needed to possess a fire arm. The holder of a

policy of medical insurance will have a card depicting his or her identity which

is a proof of holding a valid policy for availing medical benefits.

181 Under international law, recognition of identity is an obligation of a

nation state. Article 6 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights provides

that “everyone has the right to recognition everywhere as a person before the

law”. Article 16 of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights is in

similar terms. Article 8 of the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child

mandates that State parties undertake to respect the right of the child to

248 PART G

preserve his or her identity, including nationality, name and family relations as

recognized by law without unlawful interference. The importance of identity is

recognized by Article 3 of the American Convention on Human Rights. The

Inter-American Juridical Committee (IAJC) of the Organisation of American

States (OAS) has in fact provided that:

“12. The right to identity is consubstantial to the attributes and human dignity. Consequently it is an enforceable basic human right erga omnes as an expression of a collective interest of the overall international community that does not admit derogation or suspension in cases provided in the American Convention on Human Rights.

15. The Committee considers that the right to identity is, among its most relevant implications and scope, to constitute an autonomous right that is based on the regulations of international law and those that derive from the actual cultural elements considered in the domestic legal systems of the States, in order therefore to satisfy the specificity of the individual, with his or her rights that are unique, singular and identifiable.”306

182 In National Legal Services Authority v Union of India307, this Court

held that gender identity is fundamental to and an essential component for the

enjoyment of civil rights by the transgender community. Self-determination of

identity has been held to be an essential facet of Article 21. In the view of this

Court:

“74. The recognition of one's gender identity lies at the heart of the fundamental right to dignity. Gender, as already indicated, constitutes the core of one's sense of being as well

306 Opinion on the Right to Identity, 2007, available at http://www.oas.org/en/sla/iajc/docs/ijc_current_agenda_Right_to_Identity.pdf 307 (2014) 5 SCC 438

249 PART G

as an integral part of a person's identity. Legal recognition of gender identity is, therefore, part of right to dignity and freedom guaranteed under our Constitution.

75. Article 21, as already indicated, guarantees the protection of "personal autonomy" of an individual. In Anuj Garg v. Hotel Association of India33 (SCC p. 15, paras 34-35), this Court held that personal autonomy includes both the negative right of not to be subject to interference by others and the positive right of individuals to make decisions about their life, to express themselves and to choose which activities to take part in. Self-determination of gender is an integral part of personal autonomy and self-expression and falls within the realm of personal liberty guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution of India.”

Identity assumes a complex character in a networked society. Shah adopts

the following definition of a networked society308:

“a network society is a society where the key social structures and activities are organized around electronically processed information networks. So it’s not just about networks or social networks, because social networks have been very old forms of social organization. It’s about social networks which process and manage information and are using micro- electronic based technologies”309.

183 In a networked society, an individual is a data subject and a quantified

self. The individual is a data subject since his or her data is stored in a

database. Shah notes that there is an ambivalence about whether the data

subject is the individual whose identity becomes the basis of validating the

data or whether the data subject is the identity of the individual as it gets

constructed through data sets. The individual becomes a quantified self

where data which is distributed across various systems is “curated” to form a

comprehensive profile of an individual.

308Nishant Shah, Identity and Identification – the Individual in the Time of Networked Governance, Socio Legal Review, available at http://www.sociolegalreview.com/wp-content/uploads/2015/12/Identity-and-Identification- the-Individual-in-the-Time-of-Networked-Governance.pdf 309Manuel Castells, Conversation with Manuel Castells, Globetrotter, available at

http://globetrotter.berkeley.edu/people/Castells/castells-con4.html

250 PART G

184 The Aadhaar project was intended to allow a unique identity to enable

individuals to “navigate through disconnected and often hostile governmental

database systems”. Shah notes that ever since 2009, the terms ‘identity’ and

‘identification’ were used as part of the Aadhaar project inter-changeably,

introducing “a curious conflation and interoperability”310 between these

notions. ‘Identification’ is the ability of a network device to identify an individual

by scanning unique data sets, from personal information to biometric details

such as finger print and iris scan, which would be stored in a massive

centralized database. UIDAI posited that identification took place through its

yes/no mechanism by which the centralised database would provide a

response to whether the biometric details submitted for authentication match

those in the repository. Technologically, at this level, Aadhaar was to be a

means of identification. Yet at another level, the Aadhaar project also

offered itself as providing a documentary identity to persons who may not

have possessed one at all. Shah, in the course of his article, has this to state

about the conflation between identity and identification in the Aadhaar project:

“This ambiguity and conflation cannot merely be attributed to a semantic slip of the keyboard, but to a much larger phenomenon which points to the construction of a new notion of the individual, through big data streams and measures of self-quantification. It offers us a techno-social framework where the machine function of identification is wedded to the human expression of identity, and thus offers an inroad into looking at what happens when our identities are mediated, mitigated, facilitated, and contained by the ways in which the networked technologies of authentication and verification operate. It is a crucial shift where the identity of a person is ontologically defined through the logics and logistics of

310Nishant Shah, Identity and Identification – the Individual in the Time of Networked Governance, Socio Legal Review, available at http://www.sociolegalreview.com/wp-content/uploads/2015/12/Identity-and-Identification- the-Individual-in-the-Time-of-Networked-Governance.pdf

251 PART G

networked computation that form the Aadhaar project. This is why the Aadhaar enrolment system, for instance, does not check the veracity of the information that the individual gives it. For the enrolment, the individual needs no proof to substantiate or validate the information provided. The name, the address, the description, etc. are empty signifiers and it is possible for anybody to assume any identity as long as they give the inviolable data of biometric recognition. Thus, the identity of the person being enrolled and registered is almost insignificant and has value only in how it would now always identify the individual through the credentials or information provided. The Aadhaar network governance system is concerned only with the identifiers rather than the narrative, iterative, forms of identity and expression, and this is where we begin examining the ways in which identity is shaped, understood, and used to construct the notion of an individual in computation systems.”311

185 Identity includes the right to determine the forms through which identity

is expressed and the right not to be identified. That concept is now “flipped” so

that identification through identifiers becomes the only form of identity in the

time of database governance. This involves a radical transformation in the

position of the individual.

The submission which has been urged on behalf of the petitioners is that an

individual entitled to the protection of the freedoms and liberties guaranteed by

Part III of the Constitution must have the ability to assert a choice of the

means of identification for proving identity. Requiring an individual to prove

identity on the basis of one mode alone will, it is submitted, violate the right of

self-determination and free choice.

311 Ibid

252 PART G

186 The Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update) Regulations, 2016 stipulate in

Regulation 4, the demographic information which is required for enrolment.

Regulation 4 is in the following terms:

“4. Demographic information required for enrolment.-

(1) The following demographic information shall be collected from all individuals undergoing enrolment (other than children below five years of age):

(i) Name; (ii) Date of Birth; (iii) Gender; (iv) Residential Address.

(2) The following demographic information may also additionally be collected during enrolment, at the option of the individual undergoing enrolment:

(i) Mobile number;

(ii) Email address.

(3) In case of Introducer-based enrolment, the following additional information shall be collected:

(i) Introducer name;

(ii) Introducer’s Aadhaar number.

(4) In case of Head of Family based enrolment, the following additional information shall be collected:

(i) Name of Head of Family;

(ii) Relationship;

(iii) Head of Family’s Aadhaar number;

(iv) One modality of biometric information of the Head of Family.

(5) The standards of the above demographic information shall be as may be specified by the Authority for this purpose.

253 PART G

(6) The demographic information shall not include race, religion, caste, tribe, ethnicity, language, record of entitlement, income or medical history of the resident.”

Regulation 9 postulates that at the time of enrolment, the enrolling agency

shall inform the individual who is undergoing enrolment of (i) the manner in

which the information shall be used; (ii) the nature of recipients with whom the

information is intended to be shared during authentication; and (iii) the

existence of a right to access information. Under Regulation 10, a resident

seeking enrolment has to submit an application for enrolment together with

copies of supporting documents for proof of identity, address and date of birth.

Schedule II indicates a list of supporting documents which are accepted for

verification of identity, address and date of birth. If a resident does not

possess the supporting documents, enrolment is contemplated through an

introducer or a Head of Family. Schedule II contains as many as eighteen

documents which are accepted towards proof of identity and thirty three

documents as proof of address. The Aadhaar Act, it has been contended,

allows the resident to identify herself through any of the stipulated documents

for the purpose of availing an Aadhaar number. The Aadhaar number can be

availed of to secure a subsidy, benefit or service under Section 7, the

expenditure of which is drawn from the Consolidated Fund of India.

Article 266 of the Constitution provides as follows:

“266. Consolidated Funds and public accounts of India and of the States

254 PART G

(1) Subject to the provisions of Article 267 and to the provisions of this Chapter with respect to the assignment of the whole or part of the net proceeds of certain taxes and duties to States, all revenues received by the Government of India, all loans raised by that Government by the issue of treasury bills, loans or ways and means advances and all moneys received by that Government in repayment of loans shall form one consolidated fund to be entitled the “Consolidated Fund of India”, and all revenues received by the Government of a State, all loans raised by that Government by the issue of treasury bills, loans or ways and means advances and all moneys received by that Government in repayment of loans shall form one consolidated fund to be entitled “the Consolidated Fund of the State”.

(2) All other public moneys received by or on behalf of the Government of India or the Government of a State shall be credited to the public account of India or the public account of the State, as the case may be (3) No moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Consolidated Fund of a State shall be appropriated except in accordance with law and for the purposes and in the manner provided in this Constitution.”

187 The Union Government is the custodian of the Consolidated Fund under

Article 266. All revenues received by the government form part of the

Consolidated Fund. No part of its proceeds can be “appropriated except in

accordance with law and for the purpose and in the manner” which is provided

by the Constitution. As the custodian of the fund, the Union Government, it

has been submitted by the respondents, had the Aadhaar Act enacted through

Parliament. The Act places a restriction on the right of the individual to utilize

any other identification save and except for the Aadhaar number, for the

purpose of availing of a subsidy, benefit or service that involves an

expenditure from the Consolidated Fund. The purpose of making an Aadhaar

number mandatory for the delivery of benefits, services and subsidies funded

from the Consolidated Fund is to confirm the identity of the individual to whom

255 PART G

the benefit is being transferred. This was in order to ensure that the benefits

under social welfare programmes funded by the Consolidated Fund reach the

hands of targeted beneficiaries. The Union Government which expends huge

sums of money in its welfare schemes was apprised of the fact that money

which was meant for the beneficiaries was being siphoned off through ghosts

and duplicates. As a result, genuine beneficiaries would be deprived of their

basic rights. Cornering of benefits by the creation of bogus identities seriously

impacted upon social welfare measures adopted by the Union Government as

an instrument of fostering social and economic development. It was to deal

with this evil that the Aadhaar project assumed a statutory character in 2016.

Through the provisions of the law, Parliament intended that Aadhaar should

become an effective instrument of de-duplication. This is premised on the

view of the legislating body that the use of biometrics would render it difficult, if

not impossible, to obtain fake identities. Aadhaar, in other words, was

adopted as a matter of legislative policy to curb the evil of shell companies

and ghost identities. Where the State expends large sums on social welfare

projects, it has a legitimate interest in ensuring that the resources which it

deploys reach the hands of those for whom they are meant.

Thus, there are two important facets of the Aadhaar regime which must be

noticed. The first is that under Section 3, it is a voluntary option of the

individual to choose Aadhaar as a form of identification. However, if the

individual seeks a subsidy, benefit or service for which the expenditure is

256 PART G

incurred from the Consolidated Fund of India, Aadhaar becomes a mandatory

requirement. The second important feature is the requirement of informed

consent when the individual parts with identity information. The mandate of

Section 7 must be understood from the perspective of the obligation imposed

on the State to ensure effective and efficient utilization of public resources.

Article 266 reinforces that mandate in its stipulation that all monies out of the

Consolidated Fund of India can only be appropriated in accordance with law,

for the purpose of and in the manner provided by the Constitution. The State

is a trustee of public resources. The adoption of Aadhaar is in fulfilment of the

doctrine of public trust. The state is under a bounden obligation to ensure that

its revenues which are placed in the Consolidated Fund are appropriated in

accordance with law and are not diverted for extraneous purposes. These

principles have been elucidated in the decisions of this Court in Natural

Resources Allocation, In Re, Special Reference No.1 of 2012312, Centre

for Public Interest Litigation v Union of India313, Reliance Telecom

Limited v Union of India314.

The mandate of Section 7 is founded on a legitimate state interest. The state

has a vital interest in ensuring that public revenues are duly accounted, that

the Consolidated Fund is utilized for purposes authorized by law; that funds

for development reach genuine beneficiaries and that scarce public resources

312 (2012) 10 SCC 1 313 (2012) 3 SCC 1 314 (2017) 4 SCC 269

257 PART H

meant for those at the foot of the socio-economic ladder are not mis-utilized

by rent-seeking behavior.

H Proportionality

188 The petitioners have challenged the constitutional validity of the

Aadhaar project and the Aadhaar Act on various grounds including the

violation of the fundamental rights of citizens including the right to privacy and

dignity. The respondents, in defense, have argued that Aadhaar is an enabler

of identity and empowers citizens to realise various facets of the right to life,

such as the right to food and livelihood.

189 The learned Attorney General has argued that the use and

authentication of the Aadhaar number is a necessary and proportionate

measure to ensure targeted delivery of financial benefits and services and to

prevent ‘leakages’. He submits that the Aadhaar scheme satisfies the test of

proportionality: it has a rational nexus with the goal that it seeks to achieve,

and since welfare benefits enhance the right to live with dignity, the latter will

prevail over the right to privacy. Mr Rakesh Dwivedi, learned Senior Counsel

has argued that the “least intrusive test” is not accepted in Indian

jurisprudence. He submits that even if the test were to be accepted, the

exercise of determining whether a measure is the least intrusive is a technical

issue for which the Court lacks the requisite expertise. He states that this

258 PART H

exercise “cannot be undertaken in the courts with the assistance of lawyers

who equally have no expertise in the field” and that “such an exercise involves

research, study by the experts and courts cannot substitute the same”. Mr

Gopal Sankaranarayanan, learned Counsel, submits that the means adopted

“at the moment” are no more than is necessary for ensuring that the “avowed

objects” are served, and that they balance individual interests (fundamental

rights) with societal interests (directive principles). He further submits that the

fact there are various limitations in place ensure that “some balance” is

achieved between the breach of privacy and the object sought to be achieved.

This Court must now perform the delicate task of ‘balancing’ these competing

interests by subjecting the Aadhaar Act to the proportionality test.

H.I Harmonising conflicting rights

190 In the 2003 edition of his celebrated work, Granville Austin recounts the

words of Prime Minister Morarji Desai that freedom and bread are not

incompatible, but further adds, ‘Neither could they easily be sought

together’.315 As mentioned earlier, Granville Austin had insightfully spoken

about how the strands of the Constitution of unity-integrity, democracy and

social revolution could come in conflict with one another creating challenges

for those who work with the Constitution.316 Some of the questions inherent in

315 Granville Austin, Working a Democratic Constitution: A History of the Indian Experience, Oxford University Press (2003), at page 652 316 Ibid, at page 651

259 PART H

the Constitution according to him are “Democracy for whom? Justice for

whom? What is Justice? What are the appropriate means of employing the

Constitution’s means’ among citizens, between them and their

government?”317 It was due to the foresight of the framers of the Constitution

that they insisted that neither the strand of social revolution nor the strand of

democracy was to be pursued at the expense of the other.318

The ostensible conflict between bread and freedom has also been explored in

the works of Professor Upendra Baxi. In a seminal essay on human rights in

1984 which he calls the “the great gift of classical and contemporary human

thought to culture and civilization”319, he discusses the widening sphere of

human rights thought and action to new arenas and constituencies as “New

rights arise from the womb of the old.”320 He draws on the distinction between

basic human needs and human rights and argues that the constant struggle

between these two forces is the essence of the difference between the right to

be human approach and the human rights approach.321 It is rightly pointed out

that a discussion on human rights will always constitute an inherent aspect of

the larger debate of development. He opines that whatever meaning maybe

ascribed to the term “development”, it must ensure that people will not be

deprived of the right to remain human:

317 Ibid 318 Ibid 319Upendra Baxi, From Human Rights to the Right to be Human: Some Heresies, India International Centre

Quarterly, Vol. 13, No. 3/4, Pg.185, (December 1986) 320 Ibid, at page 185 321 Ibid

260 PART H

“Whatever it may be made to mean, “development” must at least mean this: people will be given the right to be and remain human. Total and continuing destitution and impoverishment exposes people to a loss of their humanity. In no society that takes human rights seriously should there be allowed a state of affairs where human beings become sub- human—that is, when they perforce have to surrender even those sonorously recited "inalienable" rights of man… The expression "human rights" presupposes a level at which biological entities are bestowed with the dignity of being called human. The bearers of human rights must have an implicit right to be and remain human, allowing them some autonomy of choice in planning survival.”322

Thus, the broader matrix of human rights includes within it the inalienable and

fundamental right to always ‘be and remain human’. Professor Upendra Baxi

notes that this broader debate between human rights and the ‘right to be

human’ is reflective of the bread vs freedom conflict. It is noted that

historically, freedom might have been chosen over bread due to the vast

enumeration of liberal rights it includes, despite the acute awareness that

without bread, freedom of speech and assembly, of association, of

conscience and religion, of political participation, symbolic adult suffrage may

all be meaningless.323 At the same time, Baxi points out the danger in

choosing bread at the cost of freedom, given that historically in the absence of

freedom, human beings have been subject to the most egregious indignities:

“The provision of "bread" may justify indefinite postponement of the provision of any kind of "freedom". In the absence of such freedom, even the promised "bread" may not be realized by the masses; indeed, they even lose, in the process, their power to protest at the indignity of regime sponsored starvation. This, indeed, is a possibility which has materialized more often than not.”324

322 Ibid, at page 187 323 Ibid, at page 186 324 Ibid, at page 190

261 PART H

Baxi concludes that the choice between bread and freedom is a false

antithesis. The challenge is not a choice in the abstract between bread and

freedom but rather the balancing of the two:325

“But the issues are not really "bread" and/or "freedom" in the abstract, but rather who has how much of each, for how long, at what cost to others, and why. Some people have both "bread" and "freedom"; others have "freedom" but little "bread" or none at all; yet others have half a loaf (which is better than none, surely!) with or without freedom; and still others have a precarious mix where "bread" is assured if certain (not all) freedoms are bartered.”326

It is the foremost duty of the State to work towards achieving and maintaining

a fine balance, taking into account these myriad considerations. The State

must always be guided by the knowledge and sense of duty that in a true

democracy, the citizens cannot be made to choose between rights and needs,

as they are equally entitled to both. As the sentinel of justice and protector of

fundamental rights, it is the responsibility of this Court to act as a check and

ensure that government action or inaction does not endanger or threaten to

disturb the balance that the Constitution seeks to achieve. It is imperative to

remember that both ‘bread’ and ‘freedom’ play a vital role in the guaranteeing

to our citizens the gamut of human rights and freedoms that make human

existence meaningful.

191 While exercising judicial review, courts are often confronted with

situations involving conflicts between rights, tensions between individuals

arising from the assertion of rights and discord arising out of the assertion of 325 Ibid, at page 186 326 Ibid, at page 186

262 PART H

the same right by two or more individuals. Conflicts between rights arise when

the assertion of a fundamental human right by an individual impacts upon the

exercise of distinct freedoms by others. The freedom of one individual to

speak and to express may affect the dignity of another. A person may be

aggrieved when the free exercise of the right to speak by someone impinges

upon his or her reputation, which is integral to the right to life under Article 21.

A conflict will, in such a situation, arise between a right which is asserted

under Article 19(1)(a) by one citizen and the sense of injury of another who

claims protection of the right to dignity under Article 21. Conflicts also arise

when the exercise of rights is perceived to impact upon the collective identity

of another group of persons. Conflicts may arise when an activity or conduct

of an individual, in pursuit of a freedom recognised by the Constitution,

impinges upon the protection afforded to another individual under the rubric of

the same human right. Such a situation involves a conflict arising from a

freedom which is relatable to the same constitutional guarantee. Privacy is an

assertion of the right to life under Article 21. The right to a dignified existence

is also protected by the same Article. A conflict within Article 21 may involve a

situation when two freedoms are asserted as political rights. A conflict may

also envisage a situation where an assertion of a political right under the

umbrella of the right to life stands in conflict with the assertion of an economic

right which is also comprehended by the protection of life under the

Constitution.

263 PART H

Such conflicts require the court to embark on a process of judicial

interpretation. The task is to achieve a sense of balance. An ideal situation

would be one which would preserve the core of the right for both sets of

citizens whose entitlements to freedom appear to be in conflict. Realistically,

drawing balances is not a simple task. Balances involve sacrifices and the

foregoing of entitlements. In making those decisions, a certain degree of

value judgment is inevitable. The balance which the court draws may be open

to criticism in regard to its value judgment on the relative importance ascribed

to the conflicting rights in judicial decision making. In making those fine

balances, the court can pursue an objective formulation by relying upon those

values which the Constitution puts forth as part of its endeavour for a just

society. Our Constitution has in Part III recognised the importance of political

freedom. In Part IV, the Constitution has recognised our social histories of

discrimination and prejudice which have led to poverty, deprivation and the

absence of a dignified existence to major segments of society. Holding Part III

in balance with Part IV is integral to the vision of social and economic justice

which the Constitution has sought to achieve consistent with political

democracy. Difficult as this area is, a balancing of rights is inevitable, when

rights asserted by individuals are in conflict.

192 Several decisions of this Court over the last two decades have sought

to bring order to the clash between fundamental rights. In People’s Union for

264 PART H

Civil Liberties (PUCL) v Union of India327, this Court was called upon to

balance the right to information of voters (requiring the disclosure of the

assets of candidates and their spouses at an election) with the right to privacy

implicit in Article 21. In drawing the balance, a bench of three Judges of this

Court gave primacy to the entitlement of citizens to be informed about the

affairs of those who would represent them in electoral democracy. As the

Court held:

“121…By calling upon the contesting candidate to disclose the assets and liabilities of his/her spouse, the fundamental right to information of a voter/citizen is thereby promoted. When there is a competition between the right to privacy of an individual and the right to information of the citizens, the former right has to be subordinated to the latter right as it serves the larger public interest. The right to know about the candidate who intends to become a public figure and a representative of the people would not be effective and real if only truncated information of the assets and liabilities is given.”328

The Court held that the provision contained in the Representation of People

Act 1951 for a disclosure of assets and liabilities only to the Speaker or to the

Chairman of the House did not adequately protect the citizen’s right to

information, resulting in a violation of the guarantee of free speech and

expression.

193 In Thalappalam Service Cooperative Bank Limited v State of

Kerala329, this Court dealt with a conflict between the right to information

327 (2003) 4 SCC 399 328 Ibid, at page 472 329 (2013) 16 SCC 82

265 PART H

[(protected by Article 19(1)(a)] and the right to privacy (protected by Article

21). The Court observed:

“61. The right to information and right to privacy are, therefore, not absolute rights, both the rights, one of which falls under Article 19(1)(a) and the other under Article 21 of the Constitution of India, can obviously be regulated, restricted and curtailed in the larger public interest. Absolute or uncontrolled individual rights do not and cannot exist in any modern State. Citizens' right to get information is statutorily recognised by the RTI Act, but at the same time limitations are also provided in the Act itself, which is discernible from the Preamble and other provisions of the Act.”330

The Court held that the balance between the right to information and the right

to privacy is drawn under the Right to Information Act 2005: if the information

which is sought is personal and has no relationship with a public activity or

interest, a public authority is not legally bound to provide such information. If

the information which is sought is to be made available in the larger public

interest, reasons have to be recorded because the person from whom the

information is sought has a right to privacy guaranteed by Article 21.

Thalappalam considered a conflict arising between two fundamental rights,

the right to information protected by Article 19(1)(a) and the right to privacy

which is protected by Article 21.

194 More recently, in G Sundarrajan v Union of India331, a two judge

Bench considered a challenge to the establishment of a nuclear power plant

on the ground that it would violate the right to life guaranteed by Article 21.

Noting that there was a need to draw a balance between the assertion of

330 Ibid, at page 112 331 (2013) 6 SCC 620

266 PART H

several rights including the protection of the environment, the Court observed

that the larger public interest must prevail:

“198. We have to resolve the issue whether the establishment of NPP would have the effect of violating the right to life guaranteed under Article 21 to the persons who are residing in and around Kudankulam or by establishing the NPP, it will uphold the right to life in a larger sense. While balancing the benefit of establishing KKNPP Units 1 to 6, with right to life and property and the protection of environment including marine life, we have to strike a balance, since the production of nuclear energy is of extreme importance for the economic growth of our country, alleviate poverty, generate employment, etc. While setting up a project of this nature, we have to have an overall view of larger public interest rather than smaller violation of right to life guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution.”332

In Subramanian Swamy v Union of India333, the learned Chief Justice,

speaking for a Bench of two judges emphasised the need for a sense of

balance when the assertion of fundamental rights by two citizens is in conflict:

“137…One fundamental right of a person may have to coexist in harmony with the exercise of another fundamental right by others and also with reasonable and valid exercise of power by the State in the light of the directive principles in the interests of social welfare as a whole. The Court's duty is to strike a balance between competing claims of different interests.”334

Noting that the “balancing of fundamental rights is a constitutional necessity”,

the Court has attempted to harmonise reputation as an intrinsic element of the

right to life under Article 21 with criminal defamation as a restriction under

Article 19(2).

332 Ibid, at page 714 333 (2016) 7 SCC 221 334 Ibid, at page 319

267 PART H

195 In Asha Ranjan v Chandrakeshwar Prasad335, this Court dealt with a

case involving a conflict between the fundamental rights of two individuals

within Article 21. There was on the one hand an assertion of the right to life on

the part of an individual accused of an offence, who claimed a right to a fair

trial, and the protection of the interests of the victim which was also relatable

to the same fundamental right under Article 21. In resolving the conflict, the

Court gave expression to the need to preserve “paramount collective

interests”:

“61…circumstances may emerge that may necessitate for balancing between intra-fundamental rights. It has been distinctly understood that the test that has to be applied while balancing the two fundamental rights or inter fundamental rights, … may be different than the principle to be applied in intra-conflict between the same fundamental right. To elaborate, as in this case, the accused has a fundamental right to have a fair trial under Article 21 of the Constitution. Similarly, the victims who are directly affected and also form a part of the constituent of the collective, have a fundamental right for a fair trial. Thus, there can be two individuals both having legitimacy to claim or assert the right. The factum of legitimacy is a primary consideration. It has to be remembered that no fundamental right is absolute and it can have limitations in certain circumstances. Thus, permissible limitations are imposed by the State. The said limitations are to be within the bounds of law. However, when there is intra- conflict of the right conferred under the same article, like fair trial in this case, the test that is required to be applied, we are disposed to think, it would be “paramount collective interest” or “sustenance of public confidence in the justice dispensation system”.336

196 These decisions indicate that the process of resolving conflicts arising

out of the assertion of different fundamental rights and conflicts within the

same fundamental right, necessarily involves judicial balancing. In finding a

335 (2017) 4 SCC 397 336 Ibid, at page 433

268 PART H

just balance this Court has applied norms such as the ‘paramount public

interest’. In seeking to draw the balance between political freedoms and

economic freedoms, the Court must preserve the euphony between

fundamental rights and directive principles. It is on their co-existence that the

edifice of the Constitution is founded. Neither can exist without the other.

Democracy rejects the totalitarian option of recognising economic entitlements

without political liberty. Economic rights have become justiciable because of

the constitutional guarantees founded on freedom and the rule of law. The

Constitution is founded on democratic governance and is based on the

protection of individual freedom. Freedom comprehends both fundamental

political freedoms as well as basic human rights. A just balance between the

two is integral to the fulfilment of India’s constitutional commitment to realise

human liberty in a social context which is cognizant of the histories of

discrimination and prejudice suffered by large segments of our society. Where

the question is related to the limiting the right to privacy, Puttaswamy requires

the test of proportionality. It has, therefore, to be tested whether the Aadhaar

scheme fulfils the test of proportionality.

197 The test of proportionality, which began as an unwritten set of general

principles of law, today constitutes the dominant “best practice” judicial

standard for resolving disputes that involve either a conflict between two rights

claims or between a right and a legitimate government interest. 337 It has

337JudMathews and Alec Stone Sweet, All things in Proportion? American Rights Review and the Problem of Balancing, Emory Law Journal, Vol. 60 (2011)

269 PART H

become a “centrepiece of jurisprudence” across the European continent as

well as in common law jurisdictions including the United Kingdom, South

Africa and Israel.338 Proportionality is the “defining doctrinal core of a

transnational rights-based constitutionalism”339. It has been raised to the rank

of a fundamental constitutional principle,340 and represents a global shift from

a culture of authority to a culture of justification.341 Servin argues that

jurisprudence on privacy has evolved from the “right to be let alone”, to now

being centered around the principle of proportionality.342

198 Subjecting the Aadhaar scheme to the test of proportionality does not

mean that the Court is second-guessing the wisdom of the legislature. State

action must be subjected to judicial scrutiny to ensure that it passes

constitutional muster. The test of proportionality stipulates that the nature and

extent of the State’s interference with the exercise of a right (in this case, the

rights to privacy, dignity, choice, and access to basic entitlements) must be

proportionate to the goal it seeks to achieve (in this case, purported plugging

of welfare leakage and better targeting).

338Alec Stone Sweet & Jud Mathews, Proportionality Balancing and Global Constitutionalism, Columbia Journal of Transnational Law, Vol. 47 (2008) 339Jud Mathews and Alec Stone Sweet, All things in Proportion? American Rights Review and the Problem of

Balancing, Emory Law Journal, Vol. 60 (2011) 340 Ibid 341Moshe Cohen-Eliya and Iddo Porat, Proportionality and the Culture of Justification, American Journal of

Comparative Law Vol. 59 (2011) (cited in); Etienne Mureinik, A Bridge to Where? Introducing the Interim Bill of Rights, South African Journal on Human Rights, Vol. 10 (1994) 342Andrew B. Serwin, Privacy 3.0 – The Principle of Proportionality, University of Michigan Journal of Law

Reform, Vol. 42 (2009)

270 PART H

Within the framework of constitutional interpretation, proportionality serves as

a test to determine the extent to which fundamental rights can be limited in the

face of legislative intervention which purports to further social and public

interest aims. Aharon Barak, the former Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of

Israel has described the importance of the proportionality test as thus:343

“Examination of the test of proportionality (in the narrow sense) returns us to first principles that are the foundation of our constitutional democracy and the human rights … Our democracy is characterized by the fact that it imposes limits on the ability to violate human rights; that it is based on the recognition that surrounding the individual there is a wall protecting his right, which cannot be breached even by majority.”

In applying the proportionality test, the Court cannot mechanically defer to the

State’s assertions. Especially given the intrusive nature of the Aadhaar

scheme, such deference to the legislature is inappropriate. The State must

discharge its burden by demonstrating that rights-infringing measures were

necessary and proportionate to the goal sought to be achieved.

H.2 Proportionality standard in Indian jurisprudence

199 In India, the principle of proportionality has a long jurisprudential history

which has been adverted to in a judgment344 of this Court:

“On account of a Chapter on Fundamental Rights in Part III of our Constitution right from 1950, Indian Courts did not suffer from the disability similar to the one experienced by English Courts for declaring as unconstitutional legislation on the principle of proportionality or reading them in a manner

343 Adalah v. The Minister of Interior, HCJ 7052/03, English translation available at http://elyon.court.gov.il/files_eng/03/520/070a47/03070520.a47.pdf 344 Om Kumar v Union of India, (2001) 2 SCC 386

271 PART H

consistent with the charter of rights. Ever since 1950, the principle of ‘proportionality’ has indeed been applied vigorously to legislative (and administrative action) in India. While dealing with the validity of legislation infringing fundamental freedoms enumerated in Article 19(1) of the Constitution of India…this court had occasion to consider whether the restrictions imposed by legislation were disproportionate to the situation and were not the least restrictive of the choices.” (Emphasis supplied)

The early decisions of this Court may not have used the expression

“proportionality”. But the manner in which the court explained what would be a

permissible restraint on rights indicates the seeds or the core of the

proportionality standard. Proportionality has been the core of reasonableness

since the 1950s. Chintaman Rao v State of Madhya Pradesh345 concerned

a State legislation which empowered the government to prohibit people in

certain areas from manufacturing bidis. The object of the law was to ensure

the supply of adequate labour for agricultural purposes in areas where bidi

manufacturing was an alternative source of employment for persons likely to

be engaged in agricultural labour. The Court held that the State need not have

prohibited all labourers from engaging in bidi manufacturing throughout the

year in order to satisfy the objective. Justice Mahajan, on behalf of a

Constitution Bench held:

“6.The phrase "reasonable restriction" connotes that the limitation imposed on a person in enjoyment of the right should not be arbitrary or of an excessive nature, beyond what is required in the interests of the public. The word "reasonable" implies intelligent care and deliberation, that is, the choice of a course which reason dictates. Legislation which arbitrarily or excessively invades the right cannot be said to contain the quality of reasonableness and unless it strikes a proper balance between the freedom

345 1950 SCR 759

272 PART H

guaranteed in article 19(1)(g) and the social control permitted by clause (6) of article 19, it must be held to be wanting in that quality.” (Emphasis supplied)

200 State of Madras v V G Row346 considered whether the action of the

Tamil Nadu government in declaring an association unlawful violated Article

19(1)(c) of the Constitution. Chief Justice Patanjali Sastri, speaking for the

Constitution Bench, propounded what has come to be regarded as a classic

statement of the principle of proportionality in our law:

“15…the test of reasonableness, wherever prescribed, should be applied to each individual statute impugned, and no abstract standard, or general pattern of reasonableness can be laid down as applicable to all cases. The nature of the right alleged to have been infringed, the underlying purpose of the restrictions imposed, the extent and urgency of the evil sought to be remedied thereby, the disproportion of the imposition, the prevailing conditions at the time, should all enter into the judicial verdict...” (Emphasis supplied)

The decision of the Constitution Bench in State of Bihar v Kamla Kant

Misra347 concerned a challenge to the second part of sub-section (6) of

Section 144 of the Code of Criminal Procedure on the ground that it violated

sub-clauses (b), (c) and (d) of Clause (1) of Article 19 of the Constitution.

Justice K S Hegde, speaking for the majority, observed:

“15.One of the important tests to find out whether a restriction is reasonable is to see …whether the restriction is in excess of the requirement or whether it is imposed in an arbitrary manner”.348 (Emphasis supplied)

346 1952 SCR 597 347 (1969) 3 SCC 337 348 Ibid, at page 345

273 PART H

201 In Mohammed Faruk v State of Madhya Pradesh349 a Constitution

Bench of this Court held that in determining the proportionality of a measure

restricting an individual’s right under Article 19(1)(g) of the Constitution, the

factors to be taken into consideration would include whether a less drastic

restriction would have served the purpose. As the Court held:

“10…The Court must in considering the validity of the impugned law imposing a prohibition on the carrying on of a business or profession, attempt an evaluation of its direct and immediate impact upon the fundamental rights of the citizens affected thereby and the larger public interest sought to be ensured in the light of the object sought to be achieved, the necessity to restrict the citizen's freedom, [...],the possibility of achieving the object by imposing a less drastic restraint , [...] or that a less drastic restriction may ensure the object intended to be achieved.”350 (Emphasis supplied)

In Bishambhar Dayal Chandra Mohan v State of Uttar Pradesh351,

“reasonable restriction” was held to mean that the limitation imposed on the

enjoyment of a right should not be arbitrary or of an excessive nature, beyond

what is required in the interests of the public.

202 The decision in Om Kumar v Union of India352 concerned the quantum

of punishment imposed in departmental disciplinary proceedings. Justice M.

Jagannadha Rao, speaking for a two judge Bench, defined proportionality in

the following terms:

“28. By 'proportionality', we mean the question whether, while regulating exercise of fundamental rights, the appropriate or

349 (1969) 1 SCC 853 350 Ibid, at page 857 351 (1982) 1 SCC 39 352 (2001) 2 SCC 386

274 PART H

least restrictive choice of measures has been made by the legislature or the administrator so as to achieve the object of the legislation or the purpose of the administrative order, as the case may be. Under the principle, the Court will see that the legislature and the administrative authority 'maintain a proper balance between the adverse effects which the legislation or the administrative order may have on the rights, liberties or interests of persons keeping in mind the purpose which they were intended to serve'. The legislature and the administrative authority are however given an area of discretion or a range of choices but as to whether the choice made infringes the rights excessively or not is for the Court. That is what is meant by proportionality.”353 (Emphasis supplied)

In Teri Oat Estates v U.T., Chandigarh354, this Court adopted a similar

interpretation of proportionality.

203 In Modern Dental College and Research Centre v State of Madhya

Pradesh,355 a Constitution Bench of this Court while dealing with a challenge

to the vires of the Madhya Pradesh Niji Vyavasayik Shikshan Sanstha

(Pravesh Ka Viniyaman Avam Shulk Ka Nirdharan) Adhiniyam, 2007, held

that proportionality is the correct test to apply in the context of Article 19(6).

Justice A K Sikri, speaking for the Court, held thus :

“60…Thus, while examining as to whether the impugned provisions of the statute and Rules amount to reasonable restrictions and are brought out in the interest of the general public, the exercise that is required to be undertaken is the balancing of fundamental right to carry on occupation on the one hand and the restrictions imposed on the other hand. This is what is known as 'Doctrine of Proportionality'. Jurisprudentially, 'proportionality' can be defined as the set of Rules determining the necessary and sufficient conditions for limitation of a constitutionally protected

353 Ibid, at page 399 354 (2004) 2 SCC 130 355 (2016) 7 SCC 353

275 PART H

right by a law to be constitutionally permissible...”356 (Emphasis supplied)

While expounding on the theory of proportionality, Justice AK Sikri referred to

Aharon Barak’s seminal book357 on proportionality:

“60…A limitation of a constitutional right will be constitutionally permissible if: (i) it is designated for a proper purpose; (ii) the measures undertaken to effectuate such a limitation are rationally connected to the fulfilment of that purpose; (iii) the measures undertaken are necessary in that there are no alternative measures that may similarly achieve that same purpose with a lesser degree of limitation; and finally (iv) there needs to be a proper relation ('proportionality stricto sensu' or 'balancing') between the importance of achieving the proper purpose and the social importance of preventing the limitation on the constitutional right.”358

Justice Sikri held that laws limiting constitutional rights must satisfy the test of

proportionality:

“63…The law imposing restrictions will be treated as proportional if it is meant to achieve a proper purpose, and if the measures taken to achieve such a purpose are rationally connected to the purpose, and such measures are necessary….359

64. The exercise which, therefore, to be taken is to find out as to whether the limitation of constitutional rights is for a purpose that is reasonable and necessary in a democratic society and such an exercise involves the weighing up of competitive values, and ultimately an assessment based on proportionality i.e. balancing of different interests.”360 (Emphasis supplied)

356 Ibid, at page 412 357 Aharon Barak, Proportionality: Constitutional Rights and their Limitations, Cambridge University Press (2012) 358 Ibid, at page 412 359 Ibid, at page 414 360 Ibid, at page 415

276 PART H

204 In KS Puttaswamy v Union of India361, one of us (Chandrachud J.),

speaking for four judges, laid down the tests that would need to be satisfied

under our Constitution for violations of privacy to be justified. This included the

test of proportionality:

“325…A law which encroaches upon privacy will have to withstand the touchstone of permissible restrictions on fundamental rights. In the context of Article 21 an invasion of privacy must be justified on the basis of a law which stipulates a procedure which is fair, just and reasonable. The law must also be valid with reference to the encroachment on life and personal liberty under Article 21. An invasion of life or personal liberty must meet the three-fold requirement of (i) legality, which postulates the existence of law; (ii) need, defined in terms of a legitimate state aim; and (iii) proportionality which ensures a rational nexus between the objects and the means adopted to achieve them.”362

The third principle (iii above) adopts the test of proportionality to ensure a

rational nexus between the objects and the means adopted to achieve them.

The essential role of the test of proportionality is to enable the court to

determine whether a legislative measure is disproportionate in its interference

with the fundamental right. In determining this, the court will have regard to

whether a less intrusive measure could have been adopted consistent with the

object of the law and whether the impact of the encroachment on a

fundamental right is disproportionate to the benefit which is likely to ensue.

The proportionality standard must be met by the procedural and substantive

aspects of the law.

361 (2017) 10 SCC 1 362 Ibid, at page 509

277 PART H

Justice Sanjay Kishan Kaul, in his concurring opinion, suggested a four-

pronged test as follows363:

“(i)The action must be sanctioned by law;

(ii) The proposed action must be necessary in a democratic society for a legitimate aim;

(iii) The extent of such interference must be proportionate to the need for such interference;

(iv) There must be procedural guarantees against abuse of such interference.”

The ‘test of proportionality’ is a judicially-entrenched principle which has

invigorated fundamental rights jurisprudence in the country. The application of

the proportionality standard in rights-based adjudication is well-recognised

across diverse jurisdictions.

H.3 Comparative jurisprudence

205 Since some of the concerns raised by the Aadhaar scheme have arisen

for the first time in India, it would be appropriate to discuss judgments of

foreign jurisdictions which have inquired into the proportionality of measures

many of them similar to those prescribed under the Aadhaar Act.

206 The Privy Council formulated the parameters of proportionality in Elloy

de Freitas v Permanent Secretary of Ministry of Agriculture, Fisheries,

Lands and Housing,364 elaborating a three-fold test:

“whether: (i) the legislative objective is sufficiently important to justify limiting a fundamental right; (ii) the measures designed

363 Ibid, at para 638 364 [1999] 1 AC 69

278 PART H

to meet the legislative objective are rationally connected to it;

and (iii) the means used to impair the right or freedom are no more than is necessary to accomplish the objective.”

Subsequently in Huang (FC) v Secretary of State for the Home

Department,365 the House of Lords added a fourth parameter which is “the

need to balance the interests of society with those of individuals and groups.”

207 In the Federal Census Act Case (Volkszählungsurteil),366 the

Federal Constitutional Court of the Federal Republic of Germany dealt with a

challenge to the German Federal Census Act, 1983, which provided for

collection of citizens’ basic personal information, including, inter alia, source of

income, occupation, supplementary employment, educational background and

hours of work. Certain provisions provided for transmission of statistical data

to local governments for the purposes of regional planning, surveying,

environmental protection, and redrawing of election districts. The Court struck

down provisions permitting transfer of statistical data to local authorities on

the ground that they enabled authorities to compare census data with local

housing registries. The Court observed that the combination of statistical data

and a personalized registry could lead to the identification of particular

persons, which would lead to a chilling effect upon individuals’ right to

informational self-determination.

365 [2007] UKHL 11 366 (1983) 65 BVerfGE 1

279 PART H

The Court developed a ‘fundamental right of informational self-determination’

drawing from Articles 1(1) and 2(1) of the German Constitution, which protect

the fundamental right to human dignity and the right to freely develop one’s

personality. Explaining the importance of this right in the context of risks

occasioned by modern data processing, the Court noted that:

“The freedom of individuals to make plans or decisions in reliance on their personal powers of self-determination may be significantly inhibited if they cannot with sufficient certainty determine what information on them is known in certain areas of their social sphere and in some measure appraise the extent of knowledge in the possession of possible interlocutors. A social order in which individuals can no longer ascertain who knows what about them and when and a legal order that makes this possible would not be compatible with the right to informational self-determination…This would not only restrict the possibilities for personal development of those individuals but also be detrimental to the public good since self-determination is an elementary prerequisite for the functioning of a free democratic society predicated on the freedom of action and participation of its members…The fundamental right guarantees in principle the power of individuals to make their own decisions as regards the disclosure and use of their personal data.”367

The Court, while recognizing the right to informational self-determination,

observed that distinct silos of data “can be pieced together with other data

collections particularly when individual integrated information systems are

built up – to add up to a partial or virtually complete personality profile,” and

that too with, “the person concerned having no means of controlling its truth

and application.”368 Of crucial importance is the Court’s observation that the

right to informational self-determination is particularly endangered because

367Jürgen Bröhmer et al., “BVerfGE 65, 1 - Census Act” in 60 Years German Basic Law: The German Constitution and its Court - Landmark Decisions of the Federal Constitutional Court of Germany in the Area of Fundamental Rights (Suhainah Wahiduddin ed.), (2012) at Pages 147-148, available at http://www.kas.de/wf/doc/kas_32858-1522-1-30.pdf?121123115540 368 Census Act Case, (1983)

280 PART H

in reaching decisions, one no longer has to rely on manually collected

registries and files. Today, the technical means of storing individual

statements about personal or factual situations of a certain or verifiable

person with the aid of automatic data processing are practically unlimited and

can be retrieved in a matter of seconds irrespective of distances.369

The Court noted, however, that the right to informational self-determination is

not absolute and that public sector entities could collect personal data under

certain conditions. The Court held that there must be a statutory basis for this

informational activity, and that it must satisfy the principle of proportionality.

On the need for a statutory basis, the Court held that:

“The use of the data is limited to the purpose specified by law. If for no other reason than because of the dangers associated with automated data processing, protection is required against unauthorized use - including protection against such use by other governmental entities - through a prohibition on the transfer and use of such data”370 “Clearly defined conditions must be created for processing to ensure that individuals do not become mere data subjects in the context of the automated collection and processing of the information pertaining to their person. Both the absence of a connection with a specific purpose that can be recognized and verified at all times and the multifunctional use of data, reinforce the tendencies that are to be checked and restricted by data-protection legislation, which represents the concrete manifestation of the constitutionally guaranteed right to informational self-determination.”371

On the principle of proportionality, the Court held that:

“The legislature must in its statutory regulations respect the principle of proportionality. This principle, which enjoys constitutional status, follows from the nature of the

369Census Act Case, (1983) 370 Ibid, at page 150.

371 Ibid, at page 151

281 PART H

fundamental rights themselves, which, as an expression of the general right of the public to freedom from interference by the state, may be restricted by the public powers in any given case only insofar as indispensable for the protection of public interests … In view of the threats described above that arise from the use of automated data processing, the legislature must more than was the case previously, adopt organizational and procedural precautions that work counter to the threat of violation of the right of personality …”372 “The survey program of the 1983 Census Act also satisfies, to the extent relevant to the matter under review, the principle of proportionality. A measure to achieve the intended purpose must therefore be suitable and necessary; the intensity of the attendant action may not be disproportionate to the importance of the matter and the compromises imposed upon the public.”373

The Court concluded that according to the principles of purpose specification

and proportionality, not only must the purpose for which data is being

collected be specified at the time of collection, but the data acquired must also

not exceed that which is absolutely necessary for accomplishing the specified

purpose. In light of this, the Court directed the German Parliament to amend

the law in certain particulars before the census could be carried out, and to

close all loopholes in the law that may lead to abuses in the collection,

storage, use and transfer of personal data.

208 The ECtHR dealt with whether retention of DNA samples of individuals

who were arrested but who were later acquitted or had charges against them

dropped was a violation of the right to privacy. In S and Marper v United

372 Ibid, at page 149 373 Ibid, at page 154

282 PART H

Kingdom,374 the ECtHR noted the “blanket and indiscriminate nature of the

power of retention”:

“The material may be retained irrespective of the nature or gravity of the offence with which the individual was originally suspected or of the age of the suspected offender; fingerprints and samples may be taken—and retained—from a person of any age, arrested in connection with a recordable offence, which includes minor or non-imprisonable offences. The retention is not time-limited; the material is retained indefinitely whatever the nature or seriousness of the offence of which the person was suspected. Moreover, there exist only limited possibilities for an acquitted individual to have the data removed from the nationwide database or the materials destroyed; in particular, there is no provision for independent review of the justification for the retention according to defined criteria, including such factors as the seriousness of the offence, previous arrests, the strength of the suspicion against the person and any other special circumstances.”375

The Court concluded that the retention constituted a disproportionate

interference with the Applicants’ right to privacy:

“125…That the blanket and indiscriminate nature of the powers of retention of the fingerprints, cellular samples and DNA profiles of persons suspected but not convicted of offences, as applied in the case of the present applicants, fails to strike a fair balance between the competing public and private interests and that the respondent State has overstepped any acceptable margin of appreciation in this regard. Accordingly, the retention at issue constitutes a disproportionate interference with the applicants’ right to respect for private life and cannot be regarded as necessary in a democratic society…” (Emphasis supplied)

The Court rejected the government’s arguments that fingerprints constituted

neutral, objective, irrefutable and unintelligible material, holding that they

contained unique information about an individual, allowing their precise

374 (2008) 48 EHRR 1169 375 Ibid, at Paragraph 119

283 PART H

identification in certain circumstances. The Court concluded that the collection

of fingerprints was therefore capable of affecting private life, and retention of

such information without consent “cannot be regarded as neutral or

insignificant.”

209 In 2012, the French Constitutional Council (“Council”) – the body that

reviews the constitutionality of French laws – declared four provisions of the

Identity Protection Act, which proposed the introduction of a new national

biometric ID for citizens, to be unconstitutional.376 Articles 3 and 5 were

among the provisions that were struck down. Article 3 authorized that the

national ID card may contain data which would enable the holder to identify

himself or herself on electronic communication networks or use his or her

electronic signature. The Article stated that:

“If requested by its holder, the national identity card may also contain data, stored separately, enabling it to identify itself on electronic communication networks and to affix its electronic signature. Upon each use, the interested party shall decide which identification data are to be transmitted electronically.”

The Council observed that Article 3 did not stipulate the nature of the data that

was being collected, nor did it provide any guarantee of maintaining

confidentiality. Thus, the Council declared Article 3 to be unconstitutional:

“that the provisions of Article 3 do not specify either the nature of the “data” through which these functions may be implemented or the guarantees ensuring the integrity and confidentiality of this data; that they do not define in any

376Decision No. 2012-652 DC of 22 March 2012 by Le Conseil Constitutionnel, available at http://www.conseil- constitutionnel.fr/conseil-constitutionnel/english/case-law/sample-of-decisions-in-relevant-areas- dc/decision/decision-no-2012-652-dc-of-22-march-2012.105428.html

284 PART H

greater detail the conditions under which the persons implementing these functions are to be authenticated, especially when they are minors or are subject to legal protection; that accordingly, Parliament acted in excess of its powers; that accordingly Article 3 must be ruled unconstitutional;”

Article 5 allowed for the establishment of a database of personal information

which would include, in addition to the marital status and residence of the

holder, their height, eye colour, fingerprints and photograph for the issuance

of French passports and national ID cards and for conducting investigations

involving certain offences if authorised by a public prosecutor or a judge.

The Council relied on Article 34 of the French Constitution to hold that it was

incumbent upon the Parliament to strike a balance between safeguarding

public order and bringing offenders to justice on one hand, and the right to

privacy on the other. The Council placed reliance on the Declaration of the

Rights of Man and the Citizen of 1789. Article 2 of the Declaration states “The

aim of every political association is the preservation of the natural and

imprescriptible rights of Man. These rights are liberty, property, safety and

resistance to oppression”. The Council held that the liberty proclaimed by

Article 2 includes the right to respect for private life, and accordingly, that “the

collection, registration, conservation, consultation and communication of

personal data must be justified on grounds of general interest and

implemented in an adequate manner, proportionate to this objective.” The

Council held that Article 5 violated the French Constitution as the nature of the

data collected was such that it would facilitate the identification of French

285 PART H

citizens on the basis of their fingerprints, thus breaching the right to respect

for private life:

“Considering however that, given its object, this database containing personal data is intended to collect data relating to almost all of the population of French nationality; that since the biometric data registered in this file, including in particular fingerprints, are themselves liable to be compared with physical traces left involuntarily by an individual or collected unbeknown to him, they are particularly sensitive; that the technical characteristics of this database as defined by the contested provisions enable it to be consulted for purposes other than the verification of an individual's identity; that the provisions of the act referred authorise this database to be consulted or viewed not only in relation to the issue or renewal of identity and travel documents or to verify the holder of such a document, but also for other purposes of an administrative nature or by the investigating police;… …having regard to the nature of the data registered, the scope of this processing, its technical characteristics and the conditions under which it may be consulted, the provisions of Article 5 violate the right to respect for privacy in a manner which cannot be regarded as proportionate to the goal pursued; that accordingly, Articles 5 and 10 of the act must be ruled unconstitutional…” (Emphasis supplied)

Subsequently, Law 2012-410 of March 27, 2012, on Identity Protection was

published in the official gazette of France, without Articles 3 and 5, which had

been rendered unconstitutional by the Council.377

210 Aycaguer v France378 concerned the applicant’s refusal to undergo

biological testing, the result of which was to be included in the national

computerised DNA database. As a result of his refusal, he was convicted. The

ECtHR held that the regulations on the storage of DNA profiles did not provide

377LOI n° 2012-410 du 27 mars 2012 relative à la protection de l'identité, available at https://www.legifrance.gouv.fr/affichTexte.do?cidTexte=JORFTEXT000025582411&dateTexte=&categorieLien =id.

378 Application no. 8806/12 286 PART H

individuals with sufficient protection, due to its duration and the fact that the

data could not be deleted. The Court concluded that the regulations failed to

strike a balance between competing public and private interests and held,

unanimously, that there had been a violation of Article 8 (right to respect for

private life) of the European Convention on Human Rights.

211 The Conseil d'Etat379 in Association pour la promotion de l'image 380

was asked whether a decree regulating the use and storage of data from

biometric passports was lawful. One of the stipulations of the decree was that

eight fingerprints were stored by the authorities, while only two were required

for the passport. The Conseil d'Etat stated that the collection and retention of

six more fingerprints to be centrally stored was irrelevant and excessive in

relation to the purpose of the computerized database.

212 In Digital Rights Ireland Ltd v Minister,381 the Court of Justice of the

European Union held that the EU legislature had exceeded the limits of the

principle of proportionality in relation to certain provisions of the Charter of

Fundamental Rights of the European Union – Articles 7, 8 and 52(1) – by

adopting the Data Retention Directive. According to the Directive, member

states were obliged to store citizens’ telecommunications data for a minimum

of 6 months and a maximum of 24 months. The Directive empowered police

379The Conseil d’Etat (Council of State) is a body of the French government that acts as legal advisor of the executive branch and as the supreme court for administrative justice 380 Conseil d’ Etat in France, 26 October 2011 381 C‑293/12 and C‑594/12

287 PART H

and security agencies to request access to details such as IP address and

time of use of all e-mails, phone calls and text messages sent or received.

The Court applied the test of proportionality to the measures. It was noted

that metadata allows officials to make precise conclusions about a person’s

private life, and dragnet data collection creates a chilling effect based on the

sense that one’s life is subject to surveillance at all times. On the nature of

metadata, the Court observed that:

“Taken as a whole, [metadata] may allow very precise conclusions to be drawn concerning the private lives of the persons whose data has been retained, such as the habits of everyday life, permanent or temporary places of residence, daily or other movements, the activities carried out, the social relationships of those persons and the social environments frequented by them.”382

The Court found that surveillance serves an important public interest – public

security – and that the right to security is itself a fundamental right under

Article 6 of the Charter.383 However, the Court adopted a two-pronged

proportionality test to conclude that the Directive’s retention and access

requirements were not proportional to that interest.

“…According to the settled case-law of the Court, the principle of proportionality requires that acts of the EU institutions be appropriate for attaining the legitimate objectives pursued by the legislation at issue and do not exceed the limits of what is appropriate and necessary in order to achieve those objectives.”384

382 Ibid, at para 27 383 Ibid, at para 42 384 Ibid, at para 46

288 PART H

The retention measure was held to be unnecessary to fulfill the objective of

fighting against serious crime:

“As regards the necessity for the retention of data required by Directive 2006/24, it must be held that the fight against serious crime, in particular against organised crime and terrorism, is indeed of the utmost importance in order to ensure public security and its effectiveness may depend to a great extent on the use of modern investigation techniques. However, such an objective of general interest, however fundamental it may be, does not, in itself, justify a retention measure such as that established by Directive 2006/24 being considered to be necessary for the purpose of that fight. (Emphasis supplied)”385

The Court criticized the Directive for failing to lay down any clear or precise

rules governing the extent of the interference with the fundamental rights

enshrined in Articles 7 and 8 of the Charter. It observed that the Directive was

overbroad because it applied to all data, regardless of the existence of

suspicion, and contained no criteria for limiting government access or

safeguards for preventing abuse:

“…Directive 2006/24 covers, in a generalised manner, all persons and all means of electronic communication as well as all traffic data without any differentiation, limitation or exception being made in the light of the objective of fighting against serious crime… …Whilst seeking to contribute to the fight against serious crime, Directive 2006/24 does not require any relationship between the data whose retention is provided for and a threat to public security and, in particular, it is not restricted to a retention in relation (i) to data pertaining to a particular time period and/or a particular geographical zone and/or to a circle of particular persons likely to be involved, in one way or another, in a serious crime, or (ii) to persons who could, for other reasons, contribute, by the retention of their data, to the prevention, detection or prosecution of serious offences.”386 “Not only is there a general absence of limits in Directive 2006/24 but Directive 2006/24 also fails to lay down any

385 Ibid, at para 51 386 Ibid, at paras 57-59

289 PART H

objective criterion by which to determine the limits of the access of the competent national authorities to the data and their subsequent use for the purposes of prevention, detection or criminal prosecutions concerning offences that, in view of the extent and seriousness of the interference with the fundamental rights enshrined in Articles 7 and 8 of the Charter, may be considered to be sufficiently serious to justify such an interference. On the contrary, Directive 2006/24 simply refers, in Article 1(1), in a general manner to serious crime, as defined by each Member State in its national law.”387

The Court concluded that the Directive failed to set out “clear and precise

rules”388 for access or for how states should judge the period of time for which

data should be held, and “entails a wide-ranging and particularly serious

interference with those fundamental rights in the legal order of the EU, without

such an interference being precisely circumscribed by provisions to ensure

that it is actually limited to what is strictly necessary.”389 The Court struck

down the Directive on the basis of the scope of the data to be retained, 390 the

lack of limits imposed on state access,391 and the failure to distinguish

between the treatment of data based on its usefulness and relevance.392

Of crucial importance is the Court’s emphasis that the judicial review of the EU

legislature’s discretion “should be strict” because of “the important role played

by the protection of personal data in the light of the fundamental right to

respect for private life and the extent and seriousness of the interference with

387 Ibid, at para 60 388 Ibid, at para 54 389 Ibid, at para 65 390 Ibid, at paras 56 –58 391 Ibid, at paras 60-62 392 Ibid, at paras 59, 63– 64

290 PART H

that right caused by Directive 2006/24”.393 In addition, the Court emphasized

that even highly important objectives such as the fight against serious crime

and terrorism cannot justify measures which lead to forms of interference that

go beyond what is ‘strictly necessary’.394

213 In Michael Schwarz v Stadt Bochum,395 the Court of Justice of the

European Union was called upon to examine the validity of a provision in a

Council Regulation that obliged persons applying for a passport to provide

fingerprints which would be stored in that passport. In considering whether this

regulation was valid and necessary, the Court observed:

“…Article 1(2) of Regulation No 2252/2004 does not provide for the storage of fingerprints except within the passport itself, which belongs to the holder alone.396 The regulation not providing for any other form or method of storing those fingerprints, it cannot in and of itself…be interpreted as providing a legal basis for the centralised storage of data collected thereunder or for the use of such data for purposes other than that of preventing illegal entry into the European Union.397 In those circumstances, the arguments put forward by the referring court concerning the risks linked to possible centralisation cannot, in any event, affect the validity of that regulation and would have, should the case arise, to be examined in the course of an action brought before the competent courts against legislation providing for a centralised fingerprint base. In the light of the foregoing, it must be held that Article 1(2) of Regulation No 2252/2004 does not imply any processing of fingerprints that would go beyond what is necessary in order to achieve the aim of protecting against the fraudulent use of passports. It follows that the interference arising from Article 1(2) of Regulation No 2252/2004 is justified by its aim of protecting against the fraudulent use of passports.”398

393 Ibid, at para 48 394 Ibid, at para 51 395 [2013] EUECJ C-291/12 396 Ibid, at para 60 397 Ibid, at para 61 398 Ibid, at para 62

291 PART H

The Court held that although the taking and storing of fingerprints in passports

constituted an infringement of the right to respect for private life and the right

to protection of personal data, Article 1(2) of Regulation No 2252/2004 did not

imply any processing of fingerprints that would go beyond what is necessary

in order to achieve the aim of protecting against the fraudulent use of

passports and was therefore valid.

214 In Madhewoo v The State of Mauritius,399 the Judicial Committee of

the Privy Council heard an appeal from a judgment of the Supreme Court of

Mauritius regarding the constitutionality of the provisions of The National

Identity Card (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 2013. The Act required biometric

information including fingerprints, to be stored in a central register in which

particulars of the identity of every citizen of Mauritius were to be recorded.

The Supreme Court upheld provisions of the Act that provided for the

compulsory taking of fingerprints. However, the Court struck down those

provisions that provided for the biometric data to be stored in a central

register. The Appellant appealed to the Committee, contending that the

provisions providing for the compulsory taking of fingerprints should also be

struck down as unconstitutional.

The appellant challenged the following provisions of the Act: (i) the storage of

data in a register in electronic data under Section 3; (ii) the obligation to 399 [2016] UKPC 30

292 PART H

provide biometric information under Section 4; (iii) the collection of

information, in electronic form, for a national ID card under Section 5; (iv) the

compulsory production of an identity card to a policeman under Section 7(1A)

in response to a request under Section 7(1)(b); and (v) the gravity of the

potential penalties for non-compliance under Section 9(3), before the

Mauritian Supreme Court. The challenge was on the ground that the

implementation of the biometric identity card and the permanent storage of

biometric data contravened provisions of the Mauritian Constitution and the

Civil Code.

Regarding the challenge to Section 4 (2)(c) of the Act, which provided that,

“every person who applies for an identity card shall allow his fingerprints, and

other biometric information about himself, to be taken and recorded … for the

purpose of the identity card,” the Supreme Court noted that the right to privacy

under Section 9(1) of the Constitution was not an absolute right and

interference with that right could be permitted under Section 9(2), if a law that

interfered with that right was in the interest, inter alia, of public order. The

Committee noted the Supreme Court’s approach to determining whether

Section 4(2)(c) fell foul of the Constitution, which was based on the test laid

down in S and Marper v The United Kingdom400:

“In addressing the question whether section 4(2)(c) of the 1985 Act (as amended) was reasonably justifiable in a democratic society the Supreme Court drew on jurisprudence of the European Court of Human Rights in S v The United Kingdom…In substance the Court asked whether the

400 [2008] ECHR 1581

293 PART H

measure pursued a legitimate aim, whether the reasons given by the national authorities for the interference in pursuit of that aim were relevant and sufficient, and whether the measure was proportionate to the aim pursued. This evaluation is essentially the same as that adopted by the courts in the United Kingdom in relation to article 8(2) of the ECHR, in which the courts ask themselves (a) whether the measure is in accordance with the law, (ii) whether it pursues a legitimate aim, and (iii) whether the measure will give rise to interferences with fundamental rights which are disproportionate, having regard to the legitimate aim pursued. In relation to (iii), the courts ask themselves: (a) whether the objective is sufficiently important to justify a limitation of the protected right, (b) whether the measure is rationally connected to the objective, (c) whether a less intrusive measure could have been used without compromising the achievement of the objective (in other words, whether the limitation on the fundamental right was one which it was reasonable for the legislature to impose), and (d) whether the impact of the infringement of the protected rights is disproportionate to the likely benefit of the measure”

The Committee reproduced the Mauritian Supreme Court’s holding that the

provisions of the Act which enforced the compulsory taking and recording of

fingerprints interfered with the Appellant’s rights guaranteed under section

9(1) of the Constitution,401 but that the law was justifiable on grounds of public

interest and public order:

“We find that it can hardly be disputed that the taking of fingerprints within the applicable legal framework pursues the legitimate purpose of establishing a sound and secure identity protection system for the nation and thus answers a pressing social need affording indispensable protection against identity fraud. Such a purpose, as has been amply demonstrated, is vital for proper law enforcement in Mauritius. Furthermore, taking into consideration the appropriate safeguards in the taking of fingerprints for their insertion in the cards, and the relatively limited degree of interference involved, we are led to conclude that such interference is proportionate to the legitimate aim pursued.”402

401 Maharajah Madhewoo v. The State of Mauritius & Anr., 2015 SCJ 177, at page 23 402 [2016] UKPC 30, at page 10

294 PART H

Thus, the Mauritian Supreme Court upheld provisions of the Act which

provided for the compulsory taking of fingerprints. The Appellant also

challenged Section 3 of the Act, which provided for biometric data to be stored

in a register. The Supreme Court, after taking into consideration witness

testimonies on the purpose of data collection, noted that though there may

have been a legitimate aim for storing and collecting this data, “sufficiently

strong reasons…to establish that such storage and retention of data for an

indefinite period is proportionate to the legitimate aim pursued” were not

established.403 Thus, the Court held that:

“… it is inconceivable that there can be such uncontrolled access to personal data in the absence of the vital safeguards afforded by judicial control. The potential for misuse or abuse of the exercise of the powers granted under the law would be significantly disproportionate to the legitimate aim which the defendants have claimed in order to justify the retention and storage of personal data under the Data Protection Act.”404

Thus, while the Supreme Court noted that the law providing for the storage

and retention of personal biometric data constituted a permissible derogation

under Section 9(2) of the Constitution,405 it held that since the Respondent had

not established that provisions dealing with storage and retention were

reasonably justifiable in a democratic society, they were unconstitutional.

403 Ibid, at page 31 404 Ibid, at page 33 405 Article 9. Protection of privacy of home and other property: (2) Nothing contained in or done under the authority of any law shall be held to be consistent with or in contravention of this section to the extent that the law in question makes provision - (a) in the interests of defence, public safety, public order, public morality, public health, town and country planning, the development or utilisation of mineral resources or the development or utilisation of any other property in such a manner as to promote the public benefit; (b) for the purpose of protecting the rights or freedoms of other persons; (c) to enable an officer or agent of the government or a local authority, or a body corporate established by law for public purpose, to enter on the premises of any person in order to value those premises for the purpose of any tax, rate or due, or in order to carry out work connected with any property that is lawfully on those premises and that belongs to the government, the local authority or that body corporate, as the case may be; or (d) to authorise, for the purpose of enforcing the judgement or order of a court in any civil proceedings, the search of any person or property by order of a court or the entry upon any premises by such order, Except so far as that provision or, as the case may be, the thing done under its authority is shown not to be reasonably justifiable in a democratic society

295 PART H

The Judicial Committee did not interfere with the Supreme Court’s decision.

However, it noted an inconsistency in the Supreme Court’s order wherein it

held that the law providing for the storage and retention of fingerprints and

other biometric data constitutes a permissible derogation under section 9(2) of

the Constitution, whilst simultaneously holding the same provisions to be

unconstitutional. The Committee reconciled the holding to be:

“A law providing for the storage and retention of fingerprints and other personal biometric data regarding the identity of a person in principle constitutes a permissible derogation, in the interests of public order, under section 9(2) of the Constitution.” (Emphasis supplied)

215 The learned Attorney General has relied on cases from other

jurisdictions to buttress his contention that the collection and use of biometric

information for various services have been found to be legal. ‘Biometric

data406’ is defined in the General Data Protection Regulation thus:

“personal data resulting from specific technical processing relating to the physical, physiological or behavioural characteristics of a natural person, which allow or confirm the unique identification of that natural person, such as facial images or dactyloscopic data.”

The learned Attorney General cited the following judgments of the US

Supreme Court: Vernonia School District 47J v Acton (“Acton”),407 Skinner

v Railway Labor Executives’ Association (“Skinner”),408 Whalen v Roe

(“Whalen”),409 United States v Dionisio (“Dionisio”)410 and Bowen v Roy

406 Article 4(14) 407 515 U.S. 646 (1995) 408 489 U.S. 602 (1989) 409 429 U.S. 589 (1977) 410 410 U.S. 1 (1973) 296 PART H

(“Bowen”).411 Only Acton, Skinner and Dionisio were decided in the context

of biometrics, which as we have found before, forms the bedrock of the

Aadhaar program. In Acton, the court held that the action of the authorities

conducting random drug testing of high school athletes was legal since the

conditions of collection were nearly identical to those typically encountered in

public restrooms. As a result, it was found that, privacy interests of the

students were negligibly affected. In Skinner, the court found the actions of

the Federal Railroad Administration (“FRA”) requiring mandatory blood and

urine testing of employees involved in train accidents to be constitutional. The

court observed that railroad accidents, if not prevented, could cause massive

loss of life and property. Further, it was held that FRA’s regulations fulfilled a

“special need” because of the interest of the government in ensuring safety of

railroads and were therefore, not “an undue infringement on the justifiable

expectations of privacy of covered employees”. In Whalen, the Court found

that retention of patients’ information such as their name, address and age,

under the New York State Controlled Substances Act, 1972, was not in

violation of the constitutional right to privacy as the Court was satisfied that the

statute provided for proper safeguards and redressal against theft and loss of

information. In Dionisio, the Court found no constitutional infirmity with the

issuance of a subpoena to procure voice recording exhibits by tapping

telephones in order to investigate crimes. The Court held that “neither the

summons to appear before the grand jury, nor its directive to make a voice

recording, infringed upon any interest protected by the Fourth Amendment”. 411 476 U.S. 693 (1986)

297 PART H

The Court observed that a compelled display of identifiable physical

characteristics does not infringe upon an “interest protected by the privilege

against compulsory self-incrimination”. In Bowen, the Court upheld the

provisions of a welfare scheme which required citizens to furnish their social

security number, rejecting the argument that the use of a social security

number violated the Appellant’s Native American beliefs. The Court held that

the Free Exercise Clause of the First Amendment could not be construed to

place a requirement on the government to conduct its internal affairs in

consonance with the religious beliefs of particular citizens.

In In re Crawford,412 the Ninth Circuit upheld provisions of the Bankruptcy

Code which mandated public disclosure of a Bankruptcy Petition Preparers’

Social Security Number on documents submitted to the Court, noting that the

provision had been enacted to serve governmental interests of preventing

fraud and providing public access to judicial proceedings.

216 Some decisions of lower courts in the US which have considered the

validity of laws or actions of the State deploying biometrics and which have

been cited by the respondents are: Haskell v Harris (“Haskell”),413 Utility

Workers Union of America v Nuclear Regulatory Commission

(“UWUA”),414 Nicholas A Iacobucci v City of Newport (“Iacobucci”),415

412 194 F.3d 954 (9th Cir. 1999) 413 669 F.3d 1049 (9th Cir. 2012) 414 664 F. Supp. 136 (S.D.N.Y. 1987) 415 785 F.2d 1354 (6th Cir. 1986)

298 PART H

Thom v New York Stock Exchange (“Thom”),416 Perkey v Department of

Motor Vehicles (“Perkey”),417 Buchanan v Wing (Buchanan),418 People v

Stuller (“Stuller”),419 United States v Kelly (“Kelly”)420 and Brown v

Brannon (“Brannon”).421 At first blush, it does seem that these cases support

the Respondents’ stand, however, we cannot lose sight of the context in which

the courts came to the conclusion emphasised by the respondents in support

of their submissions. In Haskell, the Ninth Circuit found a Californian law

which authorized law enforcement officers to collect DNA in the form of a

sample from the buccal swab of the mouth of felony arrestees, who had not

been convicted, to be constitutional. The Court noted that the arrestees had

reduced privacy interests; the physical intrusion of collecting a buccal swab

was de minimis in nature; there were stringent limits on the manner in which

the information was to be used; and the interest of the State in deterring future

criminal acts to exculpate innocent arrestees aided in prison administration

and law enforcement. For the above reasons, the Court found that the

infringement of privacy of the felony arrestees was justified. In UWUA, the

Ninth Circuit ruled that a law requiring individuals working in nuclear power

facilities to submit their fingerprints for identification and criminal history record

checks was not unconstitutional. In Iacobucci, an ordinance which required

employees of liquor selling establishments which permitted nude dancing, to

be fingerprinted and photographed by the police department, was held

416 306 F. Supp. 1002 (S.D.N.Y. 1969) 417 (1986) 42 Cal. 3d 185 418 N.Y.S.2d 865 419 10 Cal. App.3d 582 (1970) 420 55 F.2d 67 (2d Cir. 1932) 421 399 F. Supp. 133 (M.D.N.C. 1975)

299 PART H

constitutional. The Court observed that fingerprinting and photographing of

employees of retail liquor establishments bore a rational relationship to the

legitimate aim of elimination of crime. In Thom, a New York statute, which as

a condition of employment, required all the employees of member firms of

national stock exchanges to be fingerprinted, was upheld. The Court ruled that

fingerprinting was a necessary means of verifying the existence or non-

existence of a prior criminal record, in order to avert any threat posed by an

employee who was in a position to commit theft of securities. In Perkey, the

Californian Supreme Court upheld the actions of the state mandating an

individual to provide a fingerprint in order to obtain a driver’s license. The

Court held that fingerprint technology was the only reliable means of ensuring

the integrity of the records of the department of motor vehicles as other

methods such as handwriting specimens and photographs were not reliable.

Thus, the submission of fingerprints as part of the license application process,

bore a rational relationship to the State’s goal of promoting safe and lawful

use of highways. In Buchanan, the Court upheld the eligibility requirement for

a welfare aid scheme which mandated participation in an identity verification

procedure known as Automated Finger Imaging System (AFIS), rejecting the

challenge based on religious beliefs of the Petitioner. The Court held that the

Petitioner had failed to prove that the AFIS involved any invasive procedures,

noting that she had acknowledged that she had never seen finger imaging

performed and had no idea whether a laser was involved. In Stuller, the

constitutionality of a law which required “temporary and itinerant classes of

300 PART H

employees” to undergo fingerprinting in order to protect “visitors and

residents” of a resort city from crime and loss, both against people and against

property, was upheld. In Kelly, the Circuit Court of Appeals rejected a claim

for return of fingerprints of the defendant which had been obtained after he

had been arrested by prohibition agents, holding that there was no reason to

interfere with a method of identifying persons “charged with a crime”. In

Brannon, the court held that a law requiring “massagists” to submit their

fingerprints, photographs and reports of their medical examinations in order to

obtain licenses was valid, noting that the fingerprints and photographs would

aid in their identification as well as in the enforcement of criminal statutes

relating to public morality and decency.

217 The cases cited by the learned Attorney General would not be

applicable in the context of the Aadhaar program. The cases cited dealt with

narrowly tailored legislations set out to achieve very specific objectives. For

instance, courts upheld statutes aimed at protecting a nuclear facility or to

prevent theft of securities, where incidents of sabotage or breach of security

would have led to national disasters. These national disasters in turn would

have resulted in the immediate loss of human life or in a situation of financial

emergency. Such laws, were therefore, enacted in order to assuage security

concerns which, if not implemented, could lead to incidents of massive losses

of life and property.

301 PART H

Some of the statutes upheld, permitted collection of DNA samples, fingerprints

and photographs for identification. The objective behind these laws was

prevention of crime, albeit on a comparatively smaller scale. Moreover, the

courts in these cases were also satisfied that the procedures involved in

collecting biometrics were not invasive enough to strike them down as

unconstitutional or that there were adequate safeguards to prevent misuse.

The aforementioned cases will not apply in the backdrop of the Aadhaar

program because they were rendered broadly in the context of prevention of

crime. It needs no reiteration that an entire population cannot be presumed to

be siphoning huge sums of money in welfare schemes or viewed through the

lens of criminality, and therefore, considered as having a diminished

expectation of privacy. The judgments cited by the respondents which were

decided in the context of crime, require the State to at least form a reasonable

belief about the criminal antecedents of individuals or their potential to commit

crimes. On the contrary, by collecting identity information, the Aadhaar

program treats every citizen as a potential criminal without even requiring the

State to draw a reasonable belief that a citizen might be perpetrating a crime

or an identity fraud. When the State is not required to have a reasonable belief

and judicial determination to this effect, a program like Aadhaar, which

infringes on the justifiable expectations of privacy of citizens flowing from the

Constitution, is completely disproportionate to the objective sought to be

achieved by the State.

302 PART H

218 The fundamental precepts of proportionality, as they emerge from

decided cases can be formulated thus:

1. A law interfering with fundamental rights must be in pursuance of a

legitimate state aim;

2. The justification for rights-infringing measures that interfere with or limit the

exercise of fundamental rights and liberties must be based on the

existence of a rational connection between those measures, the situation in

fact and the object sought to be achieved;

3. The measures must be necessary to achieve the object and must not

infringe rights to an extent greater than is necessary to fulfil the aim;

4. Restrictions must not only serve a legitimate purposes; they must also be

necessary to protect them; and

5. The State must provide sufficient safeguards relating to the storing and

protection of centrally stored data. In order to prevent arbitrary or abusive

interference with privacy, the State must guarantee that the collection and

use of personal information is based on the consent of the individual; that it

is authorised by law and that sufficient safeguards exist to ensure that the

data is only used for the purpose specified at the time of collection.

Ownership of the data must at all times vest in the individual whose data is

collected. The individual must have a right of access to the data collected

and the discretion to opt out.

303 PART H

219 Privacy and proportionality are two interlocking themes that recur

consistently in the above judgements. Privacy, also construed as

“informational self-determination”, is a fundamental value. There is a

consistent emphasis on the impact on personal dignity if private information is

widely available and individuals are not able to decide upon its disclosure and

use. This right of controlling the extent of the availability and use of one’s

personal data is seen as a building block of data protection - especially in an

environment where the state of technology facilitates ease of collection,

analysis and dissemination of information.

220 The blanket and indiscriminate collection of information is seen as a

violation of privacy, which is a constituent of the right to liberty. An extensive

power to retain collected data is also seen as a disproportionate interference

with the right to privacy and not necessary in a democratic society. The

judgments hold that unlimited data retention and unrestricted state access

both constitute a disproportionate interference with privacy and data

protection. They also emphasize the need to clearly stipulate the nature of the

data being collected and ensure its confidentiality. Provisions where these

principles are not respected cannot be regarded as valid. While courts do

recognize the need for public order and security, they emphasize the need to

strike a balance between safeguarding public order and the right to privacy.

304 PART H

221 The principle of proportionality also recurs through these judgments,

which note that the collection and use of information must be limited to the

purpose specified by law and to the extent indispensable for the protection of

public interest. The striking of a balance between public and private interests

is crucial to proportionality. The judgments hold that there must be a

protection against unauthorized use and clearly defined conditions for

processing of data collected. Those conditions must not be excessive and

must be justified on grounds of public interest and implemented in a manner

proportionate to the objective. Too broad a scope of data collected and

retained, the lack of limits imposed on access to data by authorities and a

failure to distinguish between the treatment of data based on its usefulness

and relevance are seen by Courts as constituting grounds for striking down

the measure. While the State's imperatives are seen as relevant, emphasis is

laid on retention and access requirements being proportionate to those

imperatives and the need to prevent against abuse. Courts have upheld

regulations that are necessary to achieve the legitimate aims and not

excessive in their nature or impact.

The issue is whether the Aadhaar project and the Act, Rules and Regulations

meet the test of proportionality.

305 PART H

H.4 Aadhaar: the proportionality analysis

222 Under Aadhaar, the State has put forth an objective of transferring

subsidies and entitlements to its citizens. The aim was to curb leakages and

to increase transparent and efficient “targeted delivery of subsidies, benefits

and services”. However, the Act in the present form has surpassed a tailored

objective and has sought to administer every facet of the citizen-state

engagement through mandatory biometric-enabled Aadhaar linking. The

violations of fundamental rights that result from the operation of the Aadhaar

scheme will have to be evaluated on the touchstone of legitimate state

interest and proportionality.

Since biometric systems have been employed, it is fundamental to understand

that the right to privacy and its protection must be at the centre of the debate,

from the very onset of the decision to use biometric data. It is vital that

adequate safeguards are set down for every step of the process from

collection to retention of biometric data. At the time of collection, individuals

must be informed about the collection procedure, the intended purpose of the

collection, the reason why the particular data set is requested and who will

have access to their data. Additionally, the retention period must be justified

and individuals must be given the right to access, correct and delete their data

at any point in time, a procedure familiar to an opt-out option. The intended

purpose should always act as a shining light and adequate caution must be

306 PART H

taken to ensure that there is no function creep with the lapse of time, in order

to prevent the use of the data for new, originally unintended purposes.

Measures to protect privacy would include enacting more entrenched and

specific legislation so that the right to privacy is not only recognized but

protected in all its aspects. Meeting this obligation would necessarily mean

enactment of data protection legislation as well. The choice of particular

techniques and the role of components in the architecture of the technology

also have a strong impact on the privacy protections provided by the biometric

system.

During the course of the hearing, the CEO of UIDAI, Mr Ajay Bhushan Pandey

was permitted on the request of the learned Attorney General to make a

power-point presentation before the Court, explaining the architecture and

working of the Aadhaar project. On the basis of the presentation, Mr Shyam

Divan, counsel for the petitioners had served a list of questions to the

respondents. Responses to these questions have been filed by UIDAI.

Analysing the power-point presentation by the CEO, questions addressed by

Mr Divan and the responses filed by the respondents will facilitate an

understanding of the architecture of the Aadhaar project.

Our analysis indicates that the correctness of the documents submitted by an

individual at the stage of enrolment or while updating information is not

verified by any official of UIDAI or of the Government. UIDAI does not take

307 PART H

institutional responsibility for the correctness of the information entering its

database. It delegates this task to the enrolment agency or the Registrar. The

following response has been submitted by the respondents to the queries

addressed specifically on this aspect:

“As per UIDAI process, the verification of the documents is entrusted to the Registrar. For Verification based on Documents, the verifier present at the Enrolment Centre will verify the documents. Registrars/Enrolment agency must appoint personnel for the verification of documents.”

223 UIDAI does not identify the persons who enrol within the Aadhaar

system. Once the biometric information is stored in the CIDR during

enrolment, it is only matched with the information received at the time of

authentication. Biometric authentication of an Aadhaar number holder is

performed as a “one to one” biometric match against the biometric information

of the Aadhaar number holder in CIDR. Based on the match, UIDAI provides

a ‘yes’ or ‘no’response. Whether the information which is entering into CIDR is

correct or not is a task entrusted to the enrolling agency or the Registrars.

UIDAI does not assume responsibility for it.

The task of verifying whether a person is an illegal resident has also been left

to the enrolling agencies. At the stage of enrolment, a verification of whether a

person has been residing in India for 182 days or more in the past twelve

months is done on the basis of a ‘self-declaration’ of the individual. The

declaration which has been provided in the Aadhaar enrolment forms is thus:

308

PART H

“Disclosure under section 3(2) of The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Servìces Act, 2016 I confirm that I have been residing in India for at least 182 days in the preceding 12 months & information (including biometrics) provided by me to the UIDAI Ìs my own and is true, correct and accurate. I am aware that my information including biometrics will be tested for generation of Aadhaar and authentication. I understand that my identity information (except core biometric) may be provided to an agency only with my consent during authentication or as per the provisions of the Aadhaar Act. I have a right to access my identity information (except core biometrics) following the procedure laid down by UIDAI.”422

224 The petitioners have argued that persons who were enrolled under the

Aadhaar programme before the Act came into force on 12 September 2016

(more than a hundred crore) were not even required to make this declaration.

The authenticity of the documents submitted (along with the declaration) is not

checked by UIDAI.

The exception handling process permitting the use of alternative modes of

identification if the Aadhaar authentication fails, is also left to the discretion of

the Requesting Entity. On this aspect, the response which has been provided

to the Court is thus:

“As per Regulation 14(i) of Aadhaar (Authentication) Regulations 2016, requesting entities shall implement exception-handling mechanisms and back-up identity authentication mechanisms to ensure seamless provision of authentication services to Aadhaar number holders. Therefore, this exception handling mechanism is to be implemented and monitored by the requesting entities and in case of the government, their respective ministries.”

309 PART H

Forty-nine thousand enrolment operators have been blacklisted by UIDAI. In

reply to the question of the petitioners asking the reasons for blacklisting of

the enrolment operators, UIDAI has stated that a data quality check is done

during the enrolment process and if any Aadhaar enrolment is found to be not

to be compliant with the UIDAI process, the enrolment gets rejected and an

Aadhaar number is not generated. An operator who crosses a threshold

defined in the policy, is blacklisted/ removed from the UIDAI ecosystem.

UIDAI has provided information that forty-nine thousand operators were

blacklisted/removed from the UIDAI ecosystem for the following reasons: (a)

illegally charging residents for Aadhaar enrolment; (b) poor demographic data

quality; (c) invalid biometric exceptions; and (d) other process malpractices.

Once an operator is blacklisted or suspended, further enrolments cannot be

carried out by it until the order of blacklisting/suspension is valid.

225 The Aadhaar architecture incorporates the role of Authentication User

Agencies (AUAs) and Authentication Service Agencies (ASAs). ASAs, under

the Aadhaar (Authentication) Regulations, have been defined as entities

providing necessary infrastructure for ensuring secure network connectivity

and related services for enabling a requesting entity to perform authentication

using the authentication facility provided by UIDAI.423 AUAs have been

defined under the Aadhaar (Authentication) Regulations as requesting entities

that use the Yes/No authentication facility provided by UIDAI. 424 “Yes/No

423 Regulation 2(f), Aadhaar (Authentication) Regulations 424 Regulation 2(g), Aadhaar (Authentication) Regulations

310 PART H

authentication facility” is a type of authentication facility in which the identity

information and Aadhaar number securely submitted with the consent of the

Aadhaar number holder through a requesting entity, are matched against the

data available in the CIDR, and the Authority responds with a digitally signed

response containing a “Yes” or “No”, along with other technical details related

to the authentication transaction, excluding identity information.425 The other

type of authentication facility is the e-KYC authentication facility, in which the

biometric information and/or OTP and Aadhaar number securely submitted

with the consent of the Aadhaar number holder through a requesting entity,

are matched against the data available in the CIDR, and the Authority returns

a digitally signed response containing e-KYC data along with other technical

details related to the authentication transaction. A requesting entity which, in

addition to being an AUA, uses e-KYC authentication facility provided by

UIDAI is called a “e-KYC User Agency” or “KUA”.426 Under Regulation 15(2), a

requesting agency may permit any other agency or entity to perform Yes/ No

authentication by generating and sharing a separate license key for every

such entity through the portal provided by UIDAI to the said requesting entity.

It has also been clarified that sharing of a license key is only permissible for

performing Yes/ No authentication, and is prohibited in case of e-KYC

authentication.427

425 Regulation 2(p), Aadhaar (Authentication) Regulations 426 Regulation 2(l), Aadhaar (Authentication) Regulations 427 Regulation 15, Aadhaar (Authentication) Regulations

311 PART H

The petitioners have contended that the points of service (PoS) biometric

readers are capable of storing biometric information. The response which

UIDAI has provided is extracted below:

“UIDAI has mandated use of Registered Devices (RD) for all authentication requests. With Registered Devices biometric data is signed within the device/ RD service using the provider key to ensure it is indeed captured live. The device provider RD Service encrypts the PID block before returning to the host application. This RD Service encapsulates the biometric capture, signing and encryption of biometrics all within it. Therefore, introduction of RD in Aadhaar authentication system rules out any possibility of use of stored biometric and replay of biometrics captured from other source. Requesting entities are not legally allowed to store biometrics captured for Aadhaar authentication under Regulation 17(1)(a) of Aadhaar (Authentication) Regulations 2016.”

226 A PID block is defined in Regulation 2(n) of Aadhaar (Authentication)

Regulations, 2016 as the Personal Identity Data element, which includes

necessary demographic and/or biometric and/or OTP collected from the

Aadhaar number holder during authentication. Regulation 17(1)(c) allows the

requesting entity to store the PID block when “it is for buffered authentication

where it may be held temporarily on the authentication device for a short

period of time, and that the same is deleted after transmission”. Thus, under

the Aadhaar project, requesting entities can hold the identity information of

individuals, even if for a temporary period.

It was further contended by the petitioners that authentication entities in the

Aadhaar architecture are capable of recording the date and time of the

authentication, the client IP, the device ID and purpose of authentication. In

312 PART H

response, UIDAI stated that it does not ask requesting entities to maintain any

logs related to the IP address of the device, GPS coordinates of the device

and purpose of authentication. It was, however, admitted that in order to

ensure that their systems are secure and frauds are managed, AUAs like

banks and telecom providers may store additional information according to

their requirement to secure their system.

227 The process of sending authentication requests has been dealt with in

Regulation 9 of the Aadhaar (Authentication) Regulations. It provides that

after collecting the Aadhaar number or any other identifier provided by the

requesting entity which is mapped to the Aadhaar number and necessary

demographic and / or biometric information and/ or OTP from the Aadhaar

number holder, the client application immediately packages and encrypts the

input parameters into the PID block before transmission and sends it to the

server of the requesting entity using secure protocols. After validation, the

server of a requesting entity passes the authentication request to the CIDR,

through the server of the Authentication Service Agency. The Regulation

further provides that the authentication request must be digitally signed by the

requesting entity and/or by the Authentication Service Agency, pursuant to the

mutual agreement between them. Based on the mode of authentication

requested, the CIDR validates the input parameters against the data stored

and returns a digitally signed Yes or No authentication response, or a digitally

signed e-KYC authentication response with encrypted e-KYC data, as the

313 PART H

case may be, along with other technical details related to the authentication

transaction. In all modes of authentication, the Aadhaar number is mandatory

and is submitted along with the input parameters such that authentication is

always reduced to a 1:1 match. Clause (5) of Regulation 9 provides that a

requesting entity shall ensure that encryption of PID Block takes place at the

time of capture on the authentication device according to the processes and

specifications laid down by UIDAI. Regulation 18(1) provides that a requesting

entity would maintain logs of the authentication transactions processed by it,

containing the following transaction details:

(a) the Aadhaar number against which authentication is sought;

(b) specified parameters of authentication request submitted;

(c) specified parameters received as authentication response;

(d) the record of disclosure of information to the Aadhaar number holder at the

time of authentication; and

(e) record of consent of the Aadhaar number holder for authentication.

The provision excludes retention of PID information in any case. Regulations

18(2) and 18(3) allow the retention of the logs of authentication transactions

by the requesting entity for a period of two years. Upon the expiry of two years

the logs have to be archived for a period of five years or the number of years

required by the laws or regulations governing the entity, whichever is later.

Upon the expiry of this period, the logs shall be deleted except those records

which are required to be retained by a court or for any pending disputes.

Regulation 20(1) provides that an Authentication Service Agency would

314 PART H

maintain logs of the authentication transactions processed by it, containing

the following transaction details:

(a) identity of the requesting entity;

(b) parameters of authentication request submitted; and

(c) parameters received as authentication response.

The Regulation excludes retention of Aadhaar number, PID information,

device identity related data and e-KYC response data. Under Regulations

20(2) and 20(3), authentication logs shall be maintained by the ASA for a

period of two years, during which period the Authority and/or the requesting

entity may require access to such records for grievance redressal, dispute

redressal and audit in accordance with the procedure specified in the

regulations. The authentication logs shall not be used for any purpose other

than that stated. Upon the expiry of the period of two years, the authentication

logs shall be archived for a period of five years. Upon the expiry of five years

or the number of years required by the laws or regulations governing the

entity whichever is later, the authentication logs shall be deleted except those

logs which are required to be retained by a court or for pending disputes.

Section 2(d)428 of the Aadhaar Act allows storage of the record of the time of

authentication. These provisions permit the storage of logs of authentication

transactions for a specific time period.

The power-point presentation made by the CEO of UIDAI states that:

428Section 2(d) states: “authentication record” means the record of the time of authentication and identity of the requesting entity and the response provided by the Authority

315 PART H

“With registered devices every biometric device will have a unique identifier allowing traceability, analytics and fraud management and biometric data will be signed within the device.”

The response further indicates that UIDAI gets the AUA code, ASA code,

unique device code, registered device code used for authentication, and that

UIDAI would know from which device the authentication has happened and

through which AUA/ASA. The response provided by the respondents states:

“UIDAI does not get any information related to the IP address or the GPS location from where authentication is performed as these parameters are not the part of authentication (v2.0) and e-KYC (v2.1) API. UIDAI would only know from which device the authentication has happened, through which AUA/ASA etc. This is what the slides meant by traceability. UIDAI does not receive any information about at what location the authentication device is deployed, its IP address and its operator and the purpose of authentication. Further, the UIDAI or any entity under its control is statutorily barred from collecting, keeping or maintaining any information about the purpose of authentication under Section 32(3) of the Aadhaar Act.”

However, Regulation 26, which deals with the storage and maintenance of

Authentication Transaction Data clearly provides that UIDAI shall store and

maintain authentication transaction data, which shall contain the following

information:

(a) authentication request data received including PID block;

(b) authentication response data sent;

(c) meta data429 related to the transaction; and

(d) any authentication server side configurations430 as necessary.

429AUA code, ASA code, unique device code, registered device code used for authentication, and that UIDAI would know from which device the authentication has happened 430An important configuration could be IP address

316 PART H

The only data, which has been excluded from retention under this provision,

like Section 32(3) of the Aadhaar Act, is the purpose of authentication.

Regulation 27 provides that the authentication transaction data shall be

retained by UIDAI for a period of six months, and will thereafter be archived

for five years, upon which, the authentication transaction data shall be deleted

except when it is required to be maintained by a court or in connection with

any pending dispute. These provisions indicate that under the Aadhaar

architecture, UIDAI stores authentication transaction data. This is in violation

of the widely recognized data minimisation principles which seek that data

collectors and processors delete personal data records when the purpose for

which it has been collected is fulfilled. The lack of specification of security

standards and the overall lack of transparency and inadequate grievance

redressal mechanism under the Aadhaar program greatly exacerbate the

overall risk associated with data retention. In the Aadhaar regime, an

Authentication User Agency (AUA) connects to the CIDR and uses Aadhaar

authentication to validate a user and enable its services. The responsibility for

the logistics of service delivery rests with the AUAs. In this federated model,

Authentication Service Agencies (ASAs) transmit authentication requests to

CIDR on behalf of one or more AUAs. However, any device that

communicates via the Internet is assigned an IP address. Using the meta-

data related to the transaction, the location of the authentication can easily be

traced using the IP address.

317 PART H

228 The petitioners have also brought the attention of this Court to bear on

an expert report, with respect to security and Aadhaar, which was filed along

with an Additional Affidavit dated 09 March 2018. The report dated 4 March

2018 is titled as “Analysis of Major Concern about Aadhaar Privacy and

Security” and has been authored by Professor Manindra Agrawal. Professor

Agrawal is the N Ramarao Professor at IIT Kanpur and is a member of the

Technology and Architecture Review Board (TARB) and of the Security

Review Committee of UIDAI. Professor Agarwal’s Report deals with the notion

of differential privacy. Differential privacy makes it possible for tech entities to

collect and share aggregate information about user habits, while maintaining

the privacy of individual users. The Report states that differential privacy of a

protocol is the change in the privacy of people when the protocol is introduced

without altering any other protocol present. If the differential privacy of a

protocol is “non-negative”, the protocol does not compromise privacy in any

way. There are four existing Aadhaar databases:

(i) The ‘person database’ stores personal attributes of a person (name,

address, age, etc.) along with his/her Aadhaar number;

(ii) The reference database stores the Aadhaar number of a person along

with a unique reference number (which has no relationship with the

Aadhaar number of an individual);

(iii) The biometric database stores biometric information of a person along

with the unique reference number; and

318 PART H

(iv) The verification log records all ID verifications done in the past five years.

For each verification, it stores the biometric data, Aadhaar number, and

ID of the device on which verification was done.

The report analyses the situation if any of the databases gets leaked. The

report remarks:

“Finally, let us turn attention to Verification Log. Its leakage may affect both the security and the privacy of an individual as one can extract identities of several people (and hence can keep changing forged identities) and also locate the places of transactions done by an individual in the past five years. Note that differential privacy of this becomes negative since without access to this database it is not possible to track locations of an individual in past five years (as opposed to tracking current location which is possible). Therefore, Verification Log must be kept secure.”

The Report underlines the importance of ensuring the security of verification

logs in the Aadhaar database. The leakage of verification logs is capable of

damaging the security and privacy of individuals since the report notes that

from the verification log, it is possible to locate the places of transactions by

an individual in the past five years. A breach in verification log would allow a

third party to access the location of the transactions of an individual over the

past five years. The report indicates that it is possible through the Aadhaar

database to track the location of an individual. The Aadhaar database is

different from other databases such as PAN Card or driving license. The

Aadhaar database is universal and contains the biometrics of an individual.

The threshold to scrutinize the effects of this database is therefore much

higher as compared to that of other databases.

319 PART H

229 In Puttaswamy, Justice Kaul (in his concurring judgment) emphasized

upon the concerns regarding surveillance of individuals. The learned Judge

held:

“The growth and development of technology has created new instruments for the possible invasion of privacy by the State, including through surveillance, profiling and data collection and processing. Surveillance is not new, but technology has permitted surveillance in ways that are unimaginable… One such technique being adopted by States is ‘profiling’. The European Union Regulation of 2016 on data privacy defines ‘Profiling’ as any form of automated processing of personal data consisting of the use of personal data to evaluate certain personal aspects relating to a natural person, in particular to analyse or predict aspects concerning that natural person's performance at work, economic situation, health, personal preferences, interests, reliability, behaviour, location or movements. Such profiling can result in discrimination based on religion, ethnicity and caste.”431

Justice Kaul also dealt with the need to regulate the conduct of private entities

vis-a-vis profiling of individuals:

“The capacity of non-State actors to invade the home and privacy has also been enhanced. Technological development has facilitated journalism that is more intrusive than ever before…432 …[I]n this digital age, individuals are constantly generating valuable data which can be used by non-State actors to track their moves, choices and preferences. Data is generated not just by active sharing of information, but also passively… These digital footprints and extensive data can be analyzed computationally to reveal patterns, trends, and associations, especially relating to human behavior and interactions and hence, is valuable information. This is the age of ‘big data’. The advancement in technology has created not just new forms of data, but also new methods of analysing the data and has led to the discovery of new uses for data. The algorithms are more effective and the computational power has magnified exponentially.”433

431 Puttaswamy at para 585 432 Puttaswamy at para 587 433 Puttaswamy at para 588

320 PART H

230 Section 2(c) of the Aadhaar Act is capable of revealing the identity of an

individual to UIDAI. Section 2(d) permits storage of record of the time of

authentication. Through meta data and in the light of the observations made in

the Professor Manindra Agarwal Report, it can easily be concluded that it is

possible through the UIDAI database to track the location of an individual.

Further, the verification logs reveal the details of transactions over the past

five years. The verification logs are capable of profiling an individual. Details

of the transaction include what the transaction was (whether authentication

request was accepted/rejected), where it was sent from, and how it was sent.

The only thing not stored in the transaction is its purpose.

231 The threat to privacy arises not from the positive identification that

biometrics provide, but the ability of third parties to access this in an

identifiable form and link it to other information, resulting in secondary use of

that information without the consent of the data subject. This erodes the

personal control of an individual over the uses of his or her information. The

unauthorised secondary use of biometric data is perhaps the greatest risk that

biometric technology poses to informational privacy.434 The Manindra Agarwal

Report acknowledges that the biometric database in the CIDR is accessible

by third-party vendors providing biometric search and de-duplication

algorithms. The other three databases are stored, in encrypted form, by

UIDAI.

434Nancy Yue Liu, Bio-Privacy: Privacy Regulations and the Challenge of Biometrics, Routledge (2013) at page 76 321 PART H

In this regard, it would be necessary to deal with the Contract (dated 24

August 2010) signed between UIDAI and L1 Identity Solutions (the foreign

entity which provided the source code for biometric storage). It has been

submitted by the petitioners that the contract gives L1 Identity Solutions free

access to all personal information about all residents in India. The contract

specifies that UIDAI (‘the purchaser’) has the right in perpetuity to use all

original newly created processes “identified” by M/S L-1 Identity Solutions

“solely during execution” of the contract to the purchaser’s unique

specifications and which do not contain any pre-existing intellectual property

right belonging to L-1 Identity Solutions.435 UIDAI was provided the license of

the software (proprietary algorithms) developed by L-1 Identity Solutions.

However, it has been clarified in the Contract that:

“The Contract and the licenses granted herein are not a sale of a copy of the software and do not render Purchaser the owner of M/S L-1 Identity Solutions Operating Company’s proprietary ABIS and SDK software.”436

The Contract authorises L-1 Identity Solutions to retain proprietary ownership

of all intellectual property rights in and to goods, services and other

deliverables to the purchaser under the Contract that are modifications or

derivative works to their pre-existing technologies, software, goods, services

and other works. If a modification or derivative work made by L-1 Identity

Solutions or its consortium members contains unique confidential information

of the purchaser, then, the contract provides that the former shall not further

435 Clause 13.1 of the Contract 436 Ibid

322 PART H

license or distribute such modification or derivative to any other customer or

third party other than the purchaser without the purchaser’s prior written

permission.437 Clause 13.3 provides:

“M/S L-1 Identity Solutions Operating Company/ The team of M/S L-1 Identity Solutions Operating Company shall ensure that while it uses any software, hardware, processes, document or material in the course of performing the Services, it does not infringe the Intellectual Property Rights of any person and M/S L-1 Identity Solutions Operating Company shall keep the Purchaser indemnified against all costs, expenses and liabilities howsoever, arising out any illegal or unauthorized use (piracy) or in connections with any claim or proceedings relating to any breach or violation of any permission/license terms or infringement of any Intellectual Property Rights by M/S L-1 Identity Solutions Operating Company or the team of M/S L-1 Identity Solutions Operating Company during the course of performance of the Services. In case of infringement by M/S L-1 Identity Solutions Operating Company/ The team of M/S L-1 Identity Solutions Operating Company, M/S L-1 Identity Solutions Operating Company shall have sole control of the defense and all related settlement negotiations.”

Clause 13.4 deals with information privacy. It provides:

“M/S L-1 Identity Solutions Operating Company/ The team of M/S L-1 Identity Solutions Operating Company shall not carry any written/printed document, layout diagrams, floppy diskettes, hard disk, storage tapes, other storage devices or any other goods/material proprietary to Purchaser into/out of Datacenter Sites and UIDAI Locations without written permission from the Purchaser.”

Clause 15, titled as “data and hardware”, provides:

“15.1 By virtue of this Contract, M/s L-1 Identity Solutions Operating Company/The team of M/s L-1 Identity Solutions Operating Company may have access to personal information of the Purchaser [UIDAI] and/or a third party or any resident of India, any other person covered within the ambit of any legislation as may be applicable. The purchaser shall have the sole ownership of and the right to use all such data in

437 Ibid

323 PART H

perpetuity including any data or other information pertaining to the residents of India that may be in the possession of M/s L-1 Identity Solutions Operating Company or the Tram of M/s L-1 Identity Solutions Operating Company in the course of performing.

15.2 The purchaser shall have the sole ownership of and the right to use, proprietary Biometric templates of residents of India as created and maintained by M/S L-1 Identity Solutions Operating Company in the course of performing the Services under this Contract. In the event of termination or expiry of contract, M/S L-1 Identity Solutions Operating Company shall transfer all the proprietary templates to UIDAI in an electronic storage media in a form that is freely retrievable for reference and usage in future.

15.3 The Data shall be retained by M/S L-1 Identity Solutions Operating Company not more than a period of 7 years as per Retention Policy of Government of India or any other policy that UIDAI may adopt in future.”

Under the Contract, L-1 Identity Solutions retains the ownership of the

biometric software. UIDAI has been given only the license to use the software.

Neither the Central Government nor the UIDAI have the source code for the

de-duplication technology which is at the heart of the programme. The source

code belongs to a foreign corporation. UIDAI is merely a licensee. It has also

been provided that L-1 Identity Solutions can be given access to the database

of UIDAI and the personal information of any individual.

232 This Court in Puttaswamy had emphasized on the centrality of consent

in protection of data privacy:

“307…Apart from safeguarding privacy, data protection regimes seek to protect the autonomy of the individual. This is evident from the emphasis in the European data protection regime on the centrality of consent. Related to the issue of consent is the requirement of transparency which requires a disclosure by the data recipient of information pertaining to data transfer and use.”

324 PART H

Prior to the enactment of the Aadhaar Act, an individual had no right of

informed consent. Without the consent of individual citizens, UIDAI contracted

with L-1 Identity Solutions to provide any information to it for the performance

of the Contract. It has been provided in the Contract that L-1 Identity Solutions

would indemnify UIDAI against any loss caused to it. However, the leakage of

sensitive personal information of 1.2 billion citizens, cannot be remedied by a

mere contractual indemnity. The loss of data is irretrievable. In a digital

society, an individual has the right to protect herself by maintaining control

over personal information. The protection of data of 1.2 billion citizens is a

question of national security and cannot be indemnified by a Contract.

233 Mr Shyam Divan, learned senior counsel for the petitioners, has also

drawn the attention of this Court to the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)

signed between UIDAI and various entities for carrying out the process of

enrolment. Before the enactment of the Aadhaar Act, UIDAI existed as an

executive authority, under the erstwhile Planning Commission and then under

the Union Ministry of Communications and Information Technology. Mr. Divan

has argued that the activities of the private parties engaged in the process of

enrolment had no statutory or legal backing. It was his contention that MOUs

signed between UIDAI and Registrars are not contracts within the purview of

Article 299 of the Constitution, and therefore, do not cover the acts done by

325 PART H

the private entities engaged by the Registrars for enrolment. In Monnet Ispat

and Energy Ltd v Union of India438, this Court had held:

“290. What the appellants are seeking is in a way some kind of a specific performance when there is no concluded contract between the parties. An MOU is not a contract, and not in any case within the meaning of Article 299 of the Constitution of India.”439

The MoUs entered into by UIDAI do not fall within the meaning of Article 299

of the Constitution. There is no privity of contract between UIDAI and the

Enrolling agencies.

234 This Court held in Puttaswamy that any law which infringes the right to

privacy of an individual needs to have stringent inbuilt safeguards against the

abuse of the process. The Aadhaar Act envisages UIDAI as the sole authority

for the purpose of the Act. It entrusts UIDAI with a wide canvass of functions,

both administrative and adjudicatory. It performs the functions of appointing

enrolling agencies, registrars and requesting entities. Currently, there are 212

Registrars and 755 enrolling agencies in different states of the country. 440

Monitoring the actions of so many entities is not a task easily done.

Responsibility has also been placed on UIDAI to manage and secure the

central database of identity information of individuals. UIDAI is also required

to ensure that data stored in CIDR is kept secure and confidential. It has been

placed with the responsibility for the protection of the identity information of

1.2 billion citizens. UIDAI is entrusted with discretionary powers under the 438 (2012) 11 SCC 1 439 Ibid, at page 153 440 As submitted by Mr Rakesh Dwivedi, learned senior counsel for the State of Gujarat

326 PART H

architecture of Aadhaar, including the discretion to share the personal

information of any individual with the biometric service providers (BSPs) for

the performance of contracts with them.

235 The proviso to Section 28(5) provides only for a request to UIDAI for

access to information and does not make access to information a right of the

individual. This would mean that it would be entirely upon the discretion of the

UIDAI to refuse to grant access to the information once a request has been

made. It is also not clear how a person is supposed to know that the biometric

information contained in the database has changed if he/she does not have

access to it. UIDAI is also empowered to investigate any breach under the

Act, as a result of which any offence under the Act will be cognizable only if a

complaint is filed by UIDAI. UIDAI is not an independent monitoring agency.

Under the Aadhaar architecture, UIDAI is the only authority which carries out

all the functions, be it administrative, adjudicatory, investigative, or monitoring

of the project. While the Act confers such major functions on UIDAI, it does

not place any institutional accountability upon UIDAI to protect the database

of citizens’ personal information. The Act is silent on the liability of UIDAI and

its personnel in case of non-compliance of the provisions of the Act or the

regulations made under it. Under Section 23(2)(s) of the Act, UIDAI is

required to establish a grievance redressal mechanism. Making the authority

administering a project, also responsible for providing for the framework to

327 PART H

address grievances arising from the project, severely compromises the

independence of the grievance redressal body.441 Section 47 of the Act

violates the right to seek remedy. Under Section 47(1), a court can take

cognizance of an offence punishable under the Act only on a complaint made

by UIDAI or any officer or person authorised by it. There is no grievance

redressal mechanism if any breach or offence is committed by UIDAI itself.

The law must specify who is to be held accountable. The Act lacks a

mechanism through which any individual can seek speedy redressal for

his/her data leakage and identity theft. Compensation must be provided for

any loss of data of an individual. A stringent and independent redressal

mechanism and options for compensation must be incorporated in the law.

Section 47 is arbitrary as it fails to provide a mechanism to individuals to seek

efficacious remedies for violation of their right to privacy. Whether it is against

UIDAI or a private entity, it is critical that the individual retains the right to seek

compensation and justice. This would require a carefully designed

structure.442

236 An independent and autonomous authority is needed to monitor the

compliance of the provisions of any statute, which infringes the privacy of an

individual. A fair data protection regime requires establishment of an

independent authority to deal with the contraventions of the data protection

framework as well as to proactively supervise its compliance. The 441 The Centre for Internet & Society, Salient Points in the Aadhaar Bill and Concerns, available at https://cis- india.org/internet-governance/salient-points-in-the-aadhaar-bill-and-concerns. 442Shankkar Aiyar, Aadhaar: A Biometric History of India’s 12-Digit Revolution, Westland (2017), at pages 226-

227 328 PART H

independent monitoring authority must be required to prescribe the standards

against which compliance with the data protection norms is to be measured. It

has to independently adjudicate upon disputes in relation to the contravention

of the law. Data protection requires a strong regulatory framework to protect

the basic rights of individuals. The architecture of Aadhaar ought to have, but

has failed to embody within the law the establishment of an independent

monitoring authority (with a hierarchy of regulators), along with the broad

principles for data protection.443 The principles should include that the means

of collection of data are fair and lawful, the purpose and relevance is clearly

defined, user limitations accompanied by intelligible consent requirements are

specified and subject to safeguards against risks such as loss, unauthorised

access, modification and disclosure.444 The independent authority needs to be

answerable to Parliament. In the absence of a regulatory framework which

provides robust safeguards for data protection, the Aadhaar Act does not

pass muster against a challenge on the ground of Article 14. The law fails to

meet the norms expected of a data protection regime which safeguards the

data of 1.2 billion Indians. The absence of a regulatory framework leaves the

law vulnerable to challenge on the ground that it has failed to meet the

requirements of fair institutional governance under the rule of law.

237 The scheme of the Aadhaar Act is postulated on the norms enunciated

in Chapter VI for the protection of information and their enforcement under a 443Subhashis Banerjee, Architecture for privacy, The Indian Express (5 May 2018), available at https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/architecture-for-privacy-data-protection-facebook-india- united-states-5163819/ 444 Shankkar Aiyar, Aadhaar: A Biometric History of India’s 12-Digit Revolution, Westland (2017), at page 226

329 PART H

regime of criminal offences and penalties under Chapter VII. Providing a

regime under law for penalizing criminal wrongdoing is necessary. But,

criminal offences are not a panacea for a robust regulatory framework under

the auspices of an autonomous regulatory body. Violations in regard to the

integrity of data may be incremental. Millions of data transactions take place in

the daily lives of a community of individuals. Violations in regard to the

integrity of data are numerous. Some of them may appear to be trivial, if

looked at in isolation. However, cumulatively, these violations seriously

encroach on the dignity and autonomy of the individual. A regime of criminal

law may not in itself be adequate to deal with all these violations in terms of

their volume and complexity. It is hence necessary that the criminal law must

be supplemented by an independent regulatory framework. In its absence,

there is a grave danger that the regime of data protection, as well as the

administration of criminal justice will be rendered dysfunctional. Unfortunately,

a regulatory framework of the nature referred to above is completely absent.

UIDAI which is established and controlled by the Union Government

possesses neither the autonomy nor the regulatory authority to enforce the

mandate of the law in regard to the protection of data. The absence of a

regulatory framework renders the legislation largely ineffective in dealing with

data violations. Data protection cannot be left to an unregulated market place.

Nor can the law rest in the fond hope that organized structures within or

outside government will be self-compliant. The Aadhaar Act has manifestly

failed in its legislative design to establish and enforce an autonomous

330 PART H

regulatory mechanism. Absent such a mechanism, the state has failed to fulfil

the obligation cast upon it to protect the individual right to informational self-

determination.

238 Section 33(2), which permits disclosure of identity information and

authentication records in the interest of national security, specifies a

procedure for oversight by a committee. However, no substantive provisions

have been laid down as guiding principles for the oversight mechanism such

as the principle of data minimisation.

239 Privacy concerns relating to the Aadhaar project have been the subject

of wide ranging deliberation. Biometric data offers strong evidence of one’s

identity since it represents relatively unique biological characteristics which

distinguish one person from another. As biometric data can be usually linked

to only one individual it acts as a powerful, unique identifier that brings

together disparate pieces of personal information about an individual. As a

relatively unique identifier, biometric data not only allows individuals to be

tracked, but it also creates the potential for the collection of an individual’s

information and its incorporation into a comprehensive profile. Central

databases, data matching/linking and profiling are technical factors that

facilitate ‘function creep’ (the slippery slope according to which information

can be used for functions other than that for which it was collected). Privacy

advocates believe that any identification scheme can be carried out with a

331 PART H

hidden agenda and that the slippery slope effect can be relevant to several

factors such as motivations of governments and business, and on the

existence of safeguards. The special nature of biometric data makes function

creep more likely and even attractive. The legal measures possible to control

function creep are still limited. However, there are several ways in which

function creep can be curtailed. They include (i) limiting the amount of data

that is collected for any stated purpose; (ii) enabling regulation to limit

technological access to the system; (iii) concerted debates with all

stakeholders and public participation; (iv) dispersion of multiple enablers for a

system; and (v) enabling choices for user participation.

240 This Court held in Puttaswamy that a reasonable expectation of

privacy requires that data collection must not violate the autonomy of an

individual. The Court has held consent, transparency, and control over

information as the cornerstones over which the fundamentals of informational

privacy stand. The Court had made it clear that an individual has the right to

prevent others from using his or her image, name and other aspects of

personal life and identity for commercial purposes without consent. An

Aadhaar number is a unique attribute of an individual. It embodies unique

information associated with an individual. The manner in which it is to be used

has to be dependent on the consent of the individual.

332 PART H

241 Section 57 of the Aadhaar Act allows the use of an Aadhaar number for

establishing the identity of an individual “for any purpose” by the state, private

entities and persons. Allowing private entities to use Aadhaar numbers will

lead to commercial exploitation of an individual’s personal data without his/her

consent and could lead to individual profiling. The contention is that Section

57 fails to meet the requirements set out in the Puttaswamy judgment.

In this regard, reference must be drawn to a 2010 policy paper. A group of

officers was created by the Government of India to develop a framework for a

privacy legislation that would balance the need for privacy protection with

security and sectoral interests, and respond to the need for domain legislation

on the subject. An approach paper for the legal framework for a proposed

legislation on privacy was prepared by the group and was uploaded on the

website of the Government of India. The paper noted the repercussions of

having a project based on a database of unique individual IDs:

“Data privacy and the need to protect personal information is almost never a concern when data is stored in a decentralized manner. However, all this is likely to change with the implementation of the UID Project. One of the inevitable consequences of the UID Project will be that the UID Number will unify multiple databases. As more and more agencies of the government sign on to the UID Project, the UID Number will become the common thread that links all those databases together. Over time, private enterprise could also adopt the UID Number as an identifier for the purposes of the delivery of their services or even for enrolment as a customer...Once this happens, the separation of data that currently exists between multiple databases will vanish…

Such a vast interlinked public information database is unprecedented in India. It is imperative that appropriate steps be taken to protect personal data before the vast government

333 PART H

storehouses of private data are linked up and the threat of data security breach becomes real.”445

The Paper highlighted the potential of exploitation that the UID project

possessed. The potential was that the UID data could be used directly or

indirectly by market forces for commercial exploitation as well as for intrusions

by the State into citizens’ privacy. The Paper contained an incisive

observation in regard to the exploitation of citizens’ data by private entities:

“Similarly, the private sector entities such as banks, telecom companies, hospitals etc are collecting vast amount of private or personal information about individuals. There is tremendous scope for both commercial exploitation of this information without the consent/ knowledge of the individual consent and also for embarrassing an individual whose personal particulars can be made public by any of these private entities. The IT Act does provide some safeguards against disclosure of data / information stored electronically, but there is no legislation for protecting the privacy of individuals for all information that may be available with private entities In view of the above, privacy of individual is to be protected both with reference to the actions of Government as well as private sector entities.”446

The Paper highlighted the need for a stringent privacy protection mechanism,

which could prevent individual data from commercial exploitation as well as

individual profiling.

242 Reference must also be drawn to Chapter V of the National

Identification Authority of India Bill, 2010, which provided for the constitution of

445Government of India, Approach Paper for a Legislation on Privacy (2010), available at http://www.prsindia.org/uploads/media/UID/aproach_paper.pdf 446 Ibid

334 PART H

an Identity Review Committee. The proposed Committee was to be entrusted

to carry out the function of ascertaining the extent and pattern of usage of

Aadhaar numbers across the country. The Committee was required to prepare

a report annually in relation to the extent and pattern of usage of the Aadhaar

numbers along with its recommendations thereon and submit it to the Central

Government. The idea behind the establishment of such a Committee was to

limit the extent to which Aadhaar numbers could be used. These provisions

have not been included in the Aadhaar Act, 2016. Instead, the Act allows the

use of Aadhaar number for any purpose by the State as well as private

entities. This is a clear case of overbreadth and an instance of manifest

arbitrariness.

243 Section 57 indicates that the legislature has travelled far beyond its

stated object of ensuring targeted delivery of social welfare benefits. Allowing

the Aadhaar platform for use by private entities overreaches the purpose of

enacting the law. It leaves bare the commercial exploitation of citizens data

even in purported exercise of contractual clauses. This will result in a violation

of privacy and profiling of citizens.

335 PART H

An article titled “Privacy and Security of Aadhaar: A Computer Science

Perspective”447 underlines the risk of profiling and identification that is

possible by the use of Aadhaar numbers. It states:

“The Aadhaar number is at the heart of the Aadhaar scheme and is one of the biggest causes of concern. Recall that the Aadhaar number is a single unique identifier that must function across multiple domains. Given that the Aadhaar number must necessarily be disclosed for obtaining services, it becomes publicly available, not only electronically but also often in human readable forms as well, thereby increasing the risk that service providers and other interested parties may be able to profile users across multiple service domains. Once the Aadhaar number of an individual is (inevitably) known, that individual may be identified without consent across domains, leading to multiple breaches in privacy.”

244 The risks which the use of Aadhaar “for any purpose” carries is that

when it is linked with different databases (managed by the State or by private

entities), the Aadhaar number becomes the central unifying feature that

connects the cell phone with geo-location data, one’s presence and

movement with a bank account and income tax returns, food and lifestyle

consumption with medical records. This starts a “causal link” between

information which was usually unconnected and was considered trivial. 448

Thus, linking Aadhaar with different databases carries the potential of being

profiled into a system, which could be used for commercial purposes. It also

carries the capability of influencing the behavioural patterns of individuals, by

affecting their privacy and liberty. Profiling individuals could be used to create

co-relations between human lives, which are generally unconnected. If the

447 Shweta Agrawal, Subhashis Banerjee, and Subodh Sharma, Privacy and Security of Aadhaar: A Computer Science Perspective, Economic & Political Weekly (16 September 2017), Vol. 52, available at https://www.epw.in/journal/2017/37/special-articles/privacy-and-security-aadhaar.html 448 Nishant Shah, Digital Native: Cause an effect, The Indian Express (17 June 2018), available at

https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/social/digital-native-cause-an-effect-5219977/

336 PART H

traces of Aadhaar number are left in every facet of human life, it will lead to a

loss of privacy. The repercussions of profiling individuals were anticipated in

1966 by Alexander Solzhenitsyn in ‘Cancer Ward’449. His views are prescient

to our age:

“As every man goes through life he fills in a number of forms for the record, each containing a number of questions. A man’s answer to one question on one form becomes a little thread, permanently connecting him to the local centre of personnel records administration. There are thus hundreds of little threads radiating from every man, millions of threads in all. If these threads were suddenly to become visible, the whole sky would look like a spider’s web, and if they materialised as elastic bands, buses, trams and even people would all lose the ability to move, and the wind would be unable to carry torn newspapers or autumn leaves along the streets of the city. They are not visible, they are not material, but every man is constantly aware of their existence… Each man, permanently aware of his own invisible threads, naturally develops a respect for the people who manipulate the threads…”

The invisible threads of a society networked on biometric data have grave

portents for the future. Unless the law mandates an effective data protection

framework, the quest for liberty and dignity would be as ephemeral as the

wind.

245 A novelist’s vision is threatening to become a reality in our times.

Profiling can impact individuals and their behaviour. Since data collection

records the preferences of an individual based on the entities which requested

for proof of identity, any such pattern in itself is crucial data that could be used

to predict the emergence of future choices and preferences of individuals.

449 Aleksandr Solzhenitsyn, Cancer Ward, The Bodley Head (1968)

337 PART H

These preferences could also be used to influence the decision making of the

electorate in choosing candidates for electoral offices. Such a practice would

be unhealthy for the working of a democracy, where a citizen is deprived of

free choice. In the modern digital era, privacy protection does not demand that

data should not be collected, stored, or used, but that there should be

provable guarantees that the data cannot be used for any purpose other than

those that have been approved. In any of the programmes employed, it is

imperative that the state takes strong data privacy measures to prevent theft

and abuse. Moreover, it must be realized that an identification system like

Aadhaar, which is implemented nationwide, will always be more prone to

external threats. The State is always open to threat from its adversaries, and

a national level identification system can become an easy target for anyone

looking to cause serious damage as individuals’ biometric credentials are at

risk in the process. Therefore, it is vital that state action ascertain security

vulnerabilities while developing an identification system. These issues have

not been dealt with by the Aadhaar Act. There is currently limited legislative or

other regulatory guidance to specify whether private or public organisations

are prevented from sharing or selling biometric information to others. Section

57 cannot be applied to permit commercial exploitation of the data of

individuals or to affect their behavioural patterns. Section 57 does not pass

constitutional muster. It is manifestly arbitrary, suffers from overbreadth and

violates Article 14.

338 PART H

246 At its core, the Aadhaar Act attempts to create a method for

identification of individuals so as to provide services, subsidies and other

benefits to them. The Preamble of the Act explains that the architecture of the

Act seeks to provide “efficient, transparent and targeted delivery of subsidies,

benefits and services” for which the expenditure is incurred from the

Consolidated Fund to resident individuals. Section 7 of the Act makes the

proof of possession of Aadhaar number or Aadhaar authentication as a

mandatory condition for receipt of a subsidy, benefit or service, which incurs

expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India. The scope of Section 7 is

very wide. It leaves the door open for the government to route more benefits,

subsidies and services through the Consolidated Fund of India and expand

the scope of Aadhaar. Any activity of the government paid for from the

Consolidated Fund of India ranging from supply of subsidised grains and

LPG, to use of roads and civic amenities, healthcare, and even rebates to tax

payers could come under such an umbrella. The scope of Section 7 could

cover every basic aspect of the lives of citizens. The marginalized sections of

society, who largely depend upon government’s social security schemes and

other welfare programmes for survival could be denied basic living conditions

because of a mismatch in biometric algorithms. The notifications issued by

government under Section 7 of the Act, which require mandatory proof of

possession of an Aadhaar number or requiring authentication, cover 252

schemes, including schemes for children (such as benefits under the Sarva

Shiksha Abhiyan or getting meals under the Mid-day meal scheme, painting

339 PART H

and essay competitions for children, scholarships on merit), schemes relating

to rehabilitation of bonded labour and human trafficking, scholarship schemes

for SC/ST students, universal access to tuberculosis care, pensions, schemes

relating to labour and employment, skill development, personnel and training,

agriculture and farmers’ welfare, primary and higher education, social justice,

benefits for persons with disabilities, women and child development, rural

development, food distribution, healthcare, panchayati raj, chemicals &

fertilizers, water resources, petroleum and natural gas, science and

technology, sanitation, textiles, urban development, minority affairs, road

transport, culture, tourism, urban housing, tribal affairs and stipends for

internship for students. The list is ever expanding and is endless. These

notifications cover a large number of facilities provided by the government to

its citizens. Every conceivable facility can be brought under the rubric of

Section 7. From delivery to deliverance, almost every aspect of the cycle of

life would be governed by the logic of Aadhaar.

247 When Aadhaar is seeded into every database, it becomes a bridge

across discreet data silos, which allows anyone with access to this information

to re-construct a profile of an individual’s life. It must be noted while Section

2(k) of the Aadhaar Act excludes storage of individual information related to

race, religion, caste, tribe, ethnicity, language, income or medical history into

CIDR, the mandatory linking of Aadhaar with various schemes allows the

same result in effect. For instance, when an individual from a particular caste

340 PART H

engaged in manual scavenging is rescued and in order to take benefit of

rehabilitation schemes, she/he has to link the Aadhaar number with the

scheme, the effect is that a profile as that of a person engaged in manual

scavenging is created in the scheme database. The stigma of being a manual

scavenger gets permanently fixed to her/his identity. What the Aadhaar Act

seeks to exclude specifically is done in effect by the mandatory linking of

Aadhaar numbers with different databases, under cover of the delivery of

benefits and services.

Moreover, the absence of proof of an Aadhaar number would render a

resident non-existent in the eyes of the State, and would deny basic facilities

to such residents. Section 7 thus makes a direct impact on the lives of

citizens. If the requirement of Aadhaar is made mandatory for every benefit or

service which the government provides, it is impossible to live in

contemporary India without Aadhaar. It suffers from the vice of being

overbroad. The scope of subsidies provided by the government (which incur

expenditure from the Consolidated Fund) is not the same as that of other

benefits and services which the government provides to its citizens.

Therefore, benefits and services cannot be measured with the same yardstick

as subsidies. The inclusion of services and benefits in Section 7 is a pre-

cursor to the kind of function creep which is inconsistent with privacy and

informational self-determination. The broad definitions of the expressions

‘services and ‘benefits’ would enable government to regulate almost every

341 PART H

facet of its engagement with citizens under the Aadhaar platform. Section 7

suffers from clear overbreadth in its uncanalised application to services and

benefits.

248 The open-ended nature of the provisions of Section 7 is apparent from

the definition of ‘benefit’ in Section 2(f) and of ‘service’ in Section 2(w).

‘Benefit’ is defined to mean any advantage, gift, reward, relief or payment in

cash or kind provided to an individual or a group of individuals. ‘Service’ is

defined to mean any provision, facility, utility, or any other assistance provided

in any form to an individual or a group of individuals. These are broad and

unstructured terms under which the government can cover the entire gamut of

its activities involving an interface with the citizen. The provision has made no

requirement to determine whether in the first place biometric identification is

necessary in each case and whether a less intrusive modality should suffice.

Both the definitions include such other services as may be notified by the

Central government. The residuary clause is vague and ambiguous and

leaves it to the Central government at its uncharted discretion to expand on

what benefits and services would be covered by the legislation. The manner

in which these definitions have been expansively applied to cover a wide

range of activities is attributable to the vagueness implicit in Section 7.

Can the provisions of Section 7 be applied with any justification to pensions

payable on account of the past service rendered by a person to the state?

342 PART H

Pension, it is well settled, is not a largesse or bounty conferred by the state.

Pension, as a condition of service, attaches as a recompense for the long

years of service rendered by an individual to the state and its instrumentalities.

Pensioners grow older with passing age. Many of them suffer from the

tribulations of old age including the loss of biometrics. It is unfair and arbitrary

on the part of the state to deny pension to a person entitled to it by linking

pensionary payments to the possession of an Aadhaar number or to its

authentication. A right cannot be denied on the anvil of requiring one and only

one means of identification. The pension disbursing authority is entitled to lay

down regulations (which are generally speaking, already in place) to ensure

the disbursal of pension to the person who is rightfully entitled. This aim of the

government can be fulfilled by other less intrusive measures. The requirement

of insisting on an Aadhaar number for the payment of pensionary benefits

involves a breach of the principle of proportionality. Such a requirement would

clearly be contrary to the mandate of Article 14.

Similarly, the state as a part of its welfare obligations provides numerous

benefits to school going children, including mid-day meals or scholarships, to

children belonging to the marginalised segments of the society. Should the

disbursal of these benefits be made to depend upon a young child obtaining

an Aadhaar number or undergoing the process of authentication? The object

of the state is to ensure that the benefits which it offers are being availed of by

genuine students who are entitled to them. This legitimate aim can be fulfilled

343 PART H

by adopting less intrusive measures as opposed to the mandatory

enforcement of the Aadhaar scheme as the sole repository of identification.

The state has failed to demonstrate that a less intrusive measure other than

biometric authentication will not subserve its purposes. That the state has

been able to insist on adherence to the Aadhaar scheme without exception is

a result of the overbreadth of Section 7. Consequently, the inclusion of

benefits and services in Section 7 suffers from a patent ambiguity, vagueness

and overbreadth which renders the inclusion of services and benefits arbitrary

and violative of Article 14.

249 Various entities are involved in the Aadhaar project. Their inter-

dependencies require a greater onus to be put on them so as to match

privacy and security requirements. The architecture of Aadhaar treats

individuals as data. However, the core must be about personhood. The

architecture of Aadhaar is destroyed by a lack of transparency, accountability

and limitations. Safeguards for protection of individual rights ought to have

been explicitly guaranteed by design and default.450 The presence of

accountability and transparency within the Aadhaar architecture ought to be a

necessary requirement so as to overcome the fear of the loss of privacy and

liberty. Without these safeguards, the legislation and its architecture cannot

pass muster under proportionality.

450 Shankkar Aiyar, Aadhaar: A Biometric History of India’s 12-Digit Revolution, Westland (2017), at page 226

344 PART H

It is also important to highlight that identity is a vital facet of personality and

hence of the right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution. Identity is

essential and inalienable to human relationships and in the dealings of an

individual with the State. The notion that individuals possess only one, or at

the least, a dominant identity is not sound constitutional principle. The

Constitution has been adopted for a nation of plural cultures. It is accepting of

diversity in every walk of life. Diversity of identity is an expression of the

plurality which constitutes the essence of our social culture. Amartya Sen in

‘The Argumentative Indian’451 demonstrates the untenability of the notion

that identity is exclusive. He rejects the notion of an exclusive identity as

“preposterous”, observing that in different settings, individuals rely upon and

assert varying identities:

“Each of us invokes identities of various kinds in disparate contexts. The same person can be of Indian origin, a Parsee, a French citizen, a US resident, a woman, a poet, a vegetarian, an anthropologist, a university professor, a Christian, a bird watcher, and an avid believer in extra- terrestrial life and of the propensity of alien creatures to ride around the cosmos in multicoloured UFOs. Each of these collectivities, to all of which this person belongs, gives him or her a particular identity. They can all have relevance, depending on the context.”452

Sen’s logic, drawn from how individuals express their personalities in the real

world, has a strong constitutional foundation. In the protection which it grants

to a diverse set of liberties and freedoms, the Constitution allows for the

assertion of different identities. The exercise of each freedom may generate a

distinct identity. Combinations of freedoms are compatible with composite

451 Amartya Sen, The Argumentative Indian, Penguin (2005), at page 350 452 Ibid, at page 350

345 PART H

identities. Sen also rejects the notion that individuals “discover their identities

with little room for choice”. The support for such a notion, as he observes,

comes from communitarian philosophy, according to which identity precedes

choice:

“As Professor Michael Sandel has explained this claim (among other communitarian claims) : ‘community describes not just what they have as fellow citizens but also what they are, not a relationship they choose (as in a voluntary association) but an attachment they discover, not merely an attribute but a constituent of their identity In this view, identity comes before reasoning and choice.”453

Sen rejects the above idea on the ground that it does not reflect a universally

valid principle. Undoubtedly, some identities are ‘given’. But even here, as

Sen explains, the issue is not whether an identity can be selected by an

individual in all cases but whether the individual has a choice over the relative

weight to be ascribed to different identities:

“The point at issue is not whether any identity whatever can be chosen (that would be an absurd claim), but whether we have choices over alternative identities or combinations of identities, and perhaps more importantly, whether we have some freedom in deciding what priority to give to the various identities that we may simultaneously have. People’s choices may be constrained by the recognition that they are, say, Jewish or Muslim, but there is still a decision to be made by them regarding what importance they give to that particular identity over others that they may also have (related, for example, to their political beliefs, sense of nationality, humanitarian commitments or professional attachments).”454

Sen reasons that identity is a plural concept and the relevance of different

identities depends on the contexts in which they are asserted:

453 Ibid, at page 350 454 Ibid, at page 351

346 PART H

“Identity is thus a quintessentially plural concept, with varying relevance of different identities in distinct contexts. And, most importantly, we have choice over what significance to attach to our different identities. There is no escape from reasoning just because the notion of identity has been invoked. Choices over identities do involve constraints and connections, but the choices that exist and have to be made are real, not illusory. In particular, the choice of priorities between different identities, including what relative weights to attach to their respective demands, cannot be only a matter of discovery. They are inescapably decisional, and demand reason-not just recognition.”455

250 The Constitution recognizes, through the rights which it protects, a

multitude of identities and the myriad forms of its expression. Our political

identities as citizens define our relationship with the nation state. The rights

which the Constitution recognizes as fundamental liberties constitute a

reflection of the identity of the self. As we speak, so we profess who we are.

An artist who paints, the writer who shares a thought, the musician who

composes, the preacher who influences our spirituality and the demagogue

who launches into human sensibilities are all participants in the assertion of

identity. In this participative process, the identities of both the performer and

the audience are continuously engaged. Identity at a constitutional level is

reflected in the entitlement of every individual, protected by its values, to lead

a way of life which defines the uniqueness of our beings. The Constitution

recognizes a multitude of identities, based on the liberties which it recognizes

as an inseparable part of our beings. To be human is to have a multitude of

identities and be guaranteed the right to express it in various forms. The state

455 Ibid, at page 352

347 PART H

which must abide by a written Constitution cannot require any person to

forsake one or more identities. Constitutional freedoms compel the state to

respect them.

251 Technologies that affect how our identities function must be subject to

constitutional norms. The existence of individual identity is the core of a

constitutional democracy. Addressing the Constituent Assembly on 4th

November 1948, Dr B.R. Ambedkar had emphasised on the importance of

individual identity in our constitutional framework:

“I am glad that the Draft Constitution has… adopted the individual as its unit.”456

Having an individual identity is an important part of the human condition. The

negation of identity is the loss of personhood, which in turn affects the

freedom of choice and free will. Personhood constructs democracy. It

represents the quality of democracy. Our decided cases have recognized the

intimate relationship between human liberty and identity. The traveller in

Maneka Gandhi v Union of India457, the employee complaining of sexual

harassment in Vishaka v State of Rajasthan458, the guardian of the minor in

Githa Hariharan (Ms) v Reserve Bank of India459, the bar employee in Anuj

Garg v Hotel Association of India460, the transgender in National Legal

456 Constituent Assembly Debates (4 November, 1948) 457 (1978) 1 SCC 248 458 (1997) 6 SCC 241 459 (1999) 2 SCC 228 460 (2008) 3 SCC 1

348 PART H

Services Authority v Union of India461, the tribal worker in Madhu Kishwar

v State of Bihar462 and the oppressed victim of state violence in Nandini

Sundar v State of Chattisgarh463 are all engaged in the assertion of identity.

Puttaswamy recognizes the role of the individual as “the core of constitutional

focus” and “the focal point of the Constitution”. Justice Kaul’s concurring

opinion recognised that the individual has the right to control her identity.464

It was submitted by the petitioners that a unique identity number infringes the

identity of the individual since it reduces every resident to a number.

Ascribing to the holder of an Aadhaar card, a unique identity number must not

infringe constitutional identities. The Aadhaar Act indicates, in its Statement

of Objects and Reasons, that correct identification of targeted beneficiaries is

necessary and that a failure to establish the identity of an individual is a major

hindrance in the disbursal of welfare benefits. Section 3(1) recognizes the

entitlement of every resident to obtain an Aadhaar number. Section 4(3)

provides that an Aadhaar number may be accepted as proof of identity.

Section 7(1) indicates that its purpose is for establishing the identity of an

individual for the receipt of services, benefits or subsidies drawn from the

Consolidated Fund. These provisions cannot be allowed to displace

constitutional identities. Nor can the provisions of Section 7 reduce an

individual to a nameless or faceless person.

461 (2014) 5 SCC 438 462 (1996) 5 SCC 125 463 (2011) 7 SCC 547 464 Ibid

349 PART H

252 Aadhaar is about identification and is an instrument which facilitates a

proof of identity. It must not obliterate constitutional identity. The definition of

demographic information in Section 2(k) excludes race, religion, caste, tribe,

ethnicity, language, records of entitlement, income or medical history.

However, as has been specifically discussed before, the linking of the

Aadhaar number to different databases is capable of profiling an individual,

which could include information regarding her/his race, religion, caste, tribe,

ethnicity, language, records of entitlement, income or medical history. Thus,

the impact of technology is such that the scheme of Aadhaar can reduce

different constitutional identities into a single identity of a 12-digit number and

infringe the right of an individual to identify herself/himself with choice.

253 Social security schemes and programmes are a medium of existence of

a large segment of society. Social security schemes in India, such as the

PDS, were introduced to protect the dignity of the marginalized. Exclusion

from these schemes defeats the rationale for the schemes which is to

overcome chronic hunger and malnutrition. Exclusion is violative of human

dignity. As discussed previously in detail, the statistics recorded in

government records and the affidavits filed by the petitioners point out glaring

examples of exclusion due to technical errors in Aadhaar. The authentication

failures in the Aadhaar scheme have caused severe disruptions particularly in

rural India. Exclusion as a consequence of biometric devices has a

disproportionate impact on the lives of the marginalized and poor. This Court

350 PART H

cannot turn a blind eye to the rights of the marginalized. It may be the fashion

of the day to advance the cause of a digital nation. Technology is undoubtedly

an enabler. It has become a universal unifier of our age. Yet, the interface

between technology and basic human rights cannot be oblivious to social

reality. Compulsive linking of biometrics to constitutional entitlements should

not result in denial to the impoverished. There exists a digital divide. To

railroad those on one side of that divide unconcerned about social and

technical constraints which operate in society is to defeat the purpose of social

welfare. The Court has to be specifically conscious of the dignity of the

underprivileged. The Court must fulfill its role of protecting constitutional

values even if it affects a small percentage of the population. The exclusion

errors in this case have led to grave injustice to the marginalized. The Court,

therefore, has to play an active role in protecting their dignity.

254 The institution of rights places a heavy onus on the State to justify its

restrictions. No right can be taken away on the whims and fancies of the

State. The State has failed to justify its actions and to demonstrate why

facilitating the targeted delivery of subsidies, which promote several rights

such as the right to food for citizens, automatically entails a sacrifice of the

right to privacy when both these rights are protected by the Constitution. One

right cannot be taken away at the behest of the other especially when the

State has been unable to satisfy this Court that the two rights are mutually

exclusive. The State has been unable to respond to the contention of the

351 PART H

petitioners that it has failed to consider that there were much less rights-

invasive measures that could have furthered its goals. The burden of proof on

the State was to demonstrate that the right to food and other entitlements

provided through the Aadhaar scheme could not have been secured without

the violating the fundamental rights of privacy and dignity. Dworkin in his

classical book “Taking Rights Seriously”, while answering the question

whether some rights are so important that the State is justified in doing all it

can to maintain even if it abridges other rights, states that:

“But no society that purports to recognize a variety of rights, on the ground that a man’s dignity or equality may be invaded in a variety of ways, can accept such a principle… If rights make sense, then the degrees of their importance cannot be so different that some count not at all when others are mentioned.”465 (Emphasis supplied)

255 There is no antinomy between the right to privacy and the legitimate

goals of the State. An invasion of privacy has to be proportional to and

carefully tailored for achieving a legitimate aim. While the right to food is an

important right and its promotion is a constitutional obligation of the State, yet

the right to privacy cannot simply and automatically yield to it. No legitimate

goal of the State can be allowed at the cost of infringement of a fundamental

right without passing the test of constitutionality. While analysing the

architecture of Aadhaar, this Court has demonstrated how the purported

safeguards in the Aadhaar architecture are inadequate to protect the integrity

of personal data, the right of informational self-determination and above all

rights attributable to the privacy-dignity-autonomy trilogy. It is also concluded

465 Ronald Dworkin, Taking Rights Seriously (1977), at pages 203-204

352 PART H

that the Aadhaar scheme is capable of destroying different constitutional

identities. The financial exclusion caused due to errors in Aadhaar based

authentication violate the individual’s right to dignity. The Aadhaar scheme

causes an unwarranted intrusion into fundamental freedoms guaranteed

under the Indian Constitution since the respondents have failed to

demonstrate that these measures satisfy the test of necessity and

proportionality.

H.5 Dignity and financial exclusion

256 Our jurisprudence reflects a keen awareness of the need to achieve

dignity. The nine judge Bench decision in Puttaswamy also emphasized the

seminal value of dignity in our constitutional scheme. Human dignity is a

strengthening bond in the relationship between Parts III and IV of the

Constitution. Reading the Directive Principles contained in Part IV in the

context of the right to life (in Part III of the Constitution) has significant

implications both for the substantive content of the right and on the ability of

the state in pursuit of its positive obligation to secure conditions of a dignified

existence. Dignity is an integral element of natural law and an inalienable

constitutional construct. To lead a dignified life is a constitutional assurance to

an individual. Dr Ambedkar conceptualized four basic premises on which a

political democracy can rest:

“Political Democracy rests on four premises which may be set out in the following terms:

353 PART H

(i) The individual is an end in himself.

(ii) That the individual has certain inalienable rights which must be guaranteed to him by the Constitution.

(iii) That the individual shall not be required to relinquish any of his constitutional rights as a condition precedent to the receipt of a privilege.

(iv) That the State shall not delegate powers to private persons to govern others.”466 (Emphasis supplied)

Interpreting the words of Dr Ambedkar in a constitutional context, any action

on the part of the State which forces an individual to part with her or his dignity

or any other right under Part III will not be permissible.

257 The experience of living with chronic hunger; recurring uncertainty

about the availability of food; debt bondage; low and highly underpaid work;

self-denial; and sacrifice of other survival needs, being discriminated

against467 are instances of the loss of dignity for the marginalized. The State

has social security programmes and legislation to improve the living conditions

of the marginalized and to protect their dignity and means of livelihood.

However, as documented in the works of Sainath, Dreze, Sen and other

authors, India has “utterly poor standards of the social services provided to

common folk, whether it is the Mid-day Meal Scheme, the Sarva Shiksha

Abhiyan, Integrated Child Development Services, Public Distribution system,

healthcare at the primary health centres, district hospitals and even public

466Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar: Writings and Speeches (Vol. 1), Dr. Ambedkar Foundation (2014) 467Harsh Mander, Living with Hunger: Deprivation among the Aged, Single Women and People with Disability, Economic & Political Weekly (April 26, 2008), Vol. 43, available at https://www.epw.in/journal/2008/17/special-articles/living-hunger-deprivation-among-aged-single-women-and- people

354 PART H

hospitals in the state capitals”468. This manner of addressing the deprivations

faced by the marginalized crushes their dignity.

Any action or inaction on the part of the State which is insensitive to and

unconcerned about protecting the dignity of the marginalized is constitutionally

impermissible. Denial of benefits arising out of any social security scheme

which promotes socio-economic rights of the marginalized, would not be

legitimate under the Constitution, for the reason that such denial violates

human dignity. No individual can be made to part with his or her dignity.

Responsibility for protection of dignity lies not only with governments but also

with individuals, groups and entities.

It is in the above background that this Court must deal with the next contention

of the petitioners. The submission of the petitioners is that identity recognition

technology may be based on a system which is deterministic or probabilistic.

Biometric authentication systems work on a probabilistic model. For the

purposes of authentication, a comparison is through a template which reduces

the finger print to a scale and then, a minutea. The claim of the petitioners is

that as a result, identities are reduced from certainty to a chance.

468Dignity, Not Mere Roti, Economic & Political Weekly (10 August, 2013), Vol. 48, available at https://www.epw.in/journal/2013/32/editorials/dignity-not-mere-roti.html

355 PART H

258 Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act makes it mandatory for an individual to

undergo authentication or furnish proof of possession of an Aadhaar number

in order to avail a subsidy, benefit or service, which incurs expenditure from

the Consolidated Fund of India. In the Aadhaar based Biometric

Authentication, the Aadhaar number and biometric information submitted by

an Aadhaar number holder are matched with the biometric information stored

in the CIDR. This may be fingerprints-based or iris-based authentication or

other biometric modalities based on biometric information stored in the

CIDR.469

It has been submitted that failure of the authentication process results in

denial of a subsidy, benefit or service contemplated under Section 7 of the

Act. It has been contended that non-enrolment in the Aadhaar scheme and

non-linking of the Aadhaar number with the benefit, subsidy or service causes

exclusion of eligible beneficiaries. It is the submission of the petitioners that

authentication of biometrics is faulty, as biometrics are probabilistic in nature.

It is the case of the petitioners that Aadhaar based biometric authentication

often results in errors and thus leads to exclusion of individuals from

subsidies, benefits and services provided under Section 7. Across the country,

it has been urged, several persons are losing out on welfare entitlements

because of a biometric mis-match. Mr Divan has argued in his written

submissions, that “the project is not an ‘identity’ project but ‘identification’

469 UIDAI, Aadhaar Authentication, available at https://uidai.gov.in/authentication.html

356 PART H

exercise and unless the biometrics work, a person in flesh and blood, does not

exist for the state”.

In order to deal with this contention, it is necessary to understand whether

biometrics authentication can result in errors in matching. People are identified

by three basic means: “by something they know, something they have, or

something they are”.470 Biometrics fall within the last category, and, as such,

should presumably be less susceptible to being copied or forged. However,

various factors can reduce the probability of accurate human identification,

and this increases the probability of a mismatch. Human fallibility can produce

errors.471

259 In the United States of America, the National Academy of Science

published a report in 2010 on biometrics titled “Biometric Recognition:

Challenges & Opportunities”472. The report was based on a study carried out

by several reputed scientists and researchers under the aegis of the National

Research Council, the National Academy of Engineering and the Institute of

Medicine. This report highlights the nature of biometrics as follows:

“Biometric recognition systems are inherently probabilistic and their performance needs to be assessed within the context of this fundamental and critical characteristic. Biometric recognition involves matching, within

470United States General Accounting Office, Technology Assessment: Using Biometrics for Border Security (2002), available at http://www.gao.gov/new.items/d03174.pdf.

471Jeremy Wickins, The ethics of biometrics: the risk of social exclusion from the widespread use of electronic

identification, Science & Engineering Ethics (2007), at pages 45-54 472Biometric Recognition: Challenges & Opportunities (Joseph N. Pato and Lynette I. Millett eds.), National

Academy of Science- United States of America (2010), available at https://www.nap.edu/read/12720/chapter/1

357 PART H

a tolerance of approximation, of observed biometric traits against previously collected data for a subject. Approximate matching is required due to the variations in biological attributes and behaviors both within and between persons.”473 (Emphasis supplied)

The report also took note of how changes in an individual’s biometrics may

occur due to a number of factors:

“Biometric characteristics and the information captured by biometric systems can be affected by changes in age, environment, disease, stress, occupational factors, training and prompting, intentional alterations, socio- cultural aspects of the situation in which the presentations occurs, changes in human interface with the system, and so on. As a result, each interaction of the individual with the system (at enrolment, identification and so on) will be associated with different biometric information.

Individuals attempting to thwart recognition for one reason or another also contribute to the inherent uncertainty in biometric systems.”474 (Emphasis supplied)

The report had also stated that biometrics can result in exclusion of people if it

is used for claiming entitlement to a benefit:

“When used in contexts where individuals are claiming enrollment or entitlement to a benefit, biometric systems could disenfranchise people who are unable to participate for physical, social, or cultural reasons. For these reasons, the use of biometrics—especially in applications driven by public policy, where the affected population may have little alternative to participation—merits careful oversight and public discussion to anticipate and minimize detrimental societal and individual effects and to avoid violating privacy and due process rights.

Social, cultural, and legal issues can affect a system’s acceptance by users, its performance, or the decisions on whether to use it in the first place—so it is best to consider these explicitly in system design. Clearly, the behavior of those being enrolled and recognized can influence the accuracy and effectiveness of virtually any biometric system,

473 Ibid, at page 3 474 Ibid

358 PART H

and user behavior can be affected by the social, cultural, or legal context. Likewise, the acceptability of a biometric system depends on the social and cultural values of the participant populations.”475 (Emphasis supplied)

The report underlines that the relationship between an individual’s biometric

traits and data records has the potential to cause disenfranchisement, when a

section of the population is excluded from the benefits of positive claim

systems. The report thus states that:

“Policies and interfaces to handle error conditions such as failure to enroll or be recognized should be designed to gracefully avoid violating the dignity, privacy, or due process rights of the participants.” (Emphasis supplied)

260 Els Kindt in a comprehensive research titled “Privacy and Data

Protection Issues of Biometric Applications: A Comparative Legal

Analysis”476, deals with the nature of biometrics. The book notes that error

rates in biometric systems lead to a situation where entitled data subjects will

be falsely rejected from the process of database matching. This will adversely

affect the rights of individuals. It has been observed that:

“The error rates imply also that the system will allow impostors. This is equally important because the security of biometric systems should be questioned in case of high false accept rates. This element should be given sufficient weight in the decision to implement a biometric system for security purposes…

Other tests clearly indicated increased error rates for young persons, in case of aging, in particular for face and for disabled persons. Individuals with health problems may also be falsely rejected or no longer be recognized, although they

475Ibid, at pages 10-11 476 Els J. Kindt, Privacy and Data Protection Issues of Biometric Applications: A Comparative Legal Analysis, Springer (2013)

359 PART H

were previously enrolled. In some cases, (non-)enrolment will be a significant problem. It is clear that these data subjects need additional protection.”477

The book underlines the risk inherent in the limited accuracy of biometrics.478

261 A recently published book titled “Automating Inequality: How High-

Tech Tools Profile, Police, and Punish the Poor”479, authored by Virginia

Eubanks, deals with the impact of data mining, policy algorithms, and

predictive risk models on economic inequality and democracy in America.

Eubanks outlines the impacts of automated decision-making on public

services in the USA through three case studies relating to welfare provision,

homelessness and child protection services. Eubanks looks at these three

areas in three different parts of the United States: Indiana, Los Angeles and

Pittsburgh, to examine what technological automation has done in determining

benefits and the problems it causes. The author records that in Indiana, one

million applications for health care, food stamps, and cash benefits in three

years were denied, because a new authentication system interpreted any

application mistake as “failure to cooperate”. In Los Angeles, an algorithm

calculates the comparative vulnerability of thousands of homeless people so

as to prioritize them for an inadequate pool of housing resources. In

Pittsburgh, child services use an algorithm to predict future behaviour.

Statistics are used to predict which children might be future victims of abuse

477 Ibid, at page 363 478 Ibid 479 Virginia Eubanks, Automating Inequality: How High-Tech Tools Profile, Police, and Punish the Poor, St.

Martin's Press (2018)

360 PART H

or neglect. Eubanks shows how algorithms have taken over for human

interaction and understanding. She has argued that automated decision-

making is much wider in reach and is likely to have repercussions unknown to

non-digital mechanisms, such as nineteenth-century poorhouses in America.

Poorhouses were tax-supported residential institutions to which people were

required to go if they could not support themselves. 480 People who could not

support themselves (and their families) were put up for bid at public auction.

The person who got the contract (which was for a specific time-frame) got the

use of the labour of the poor individual(s) for free in return for feeding,

clothing, housing and providing health care for the individual and his/her

family. The practice was a form of indentured servitude and hardly had any

recourse for protection against abuse. Eubanks considers the technology

based decision-making for poverty management as the extension of the

poorhouses of the 19th century:

“America’s poor and working-class people have long been subject to invasive surveillance, midnight raids, and punitive public policy that increase the stigma and hardship of poverty. During the nineteenth century, they were quarantined in county poorhouses. During the twentieth century, they were investigated by caseworkers, treated like criminals on trial. Today, we have forged what I call a digital poorhouse from databases, algorithms, and risk models. It promises to eclipse the reach and repercussions of everything that came before.

Like earlier technological innovations in poverty management, digital tracking and automated decision-making hide poverty from the professional middle-class public and give the nation the ethical distance it needs to make inhuman choices: who gets food and who starves, who has housing and who remains homeless, and which families are broken by the state. The digital poorhouse is a part of a long American

480 Tommy L. Gardner, Spending Your Way to the Poorhouse, Authorhouse (2004), at page 221

361 PART H

tradition. We manage the individual poor in order to escape our shared responsibility for eradicating poverty.”481

The author further remarks:

“While poorhouses have been physically demolished, their legacy remains alive and well in the automated decision- making systems that encage and entrap today's poor. For all their high-tech polish, our modern systems of poverty management - automated decision-making, data mining, and predictive analysis - retain a remarkable kinship with the poorhouses of the past. Our new digital tools spring from punitive, moralistic views of poverty and create a system of high-tech containment and investigation. The digital poorhouse deters the poor from accessing public resources; polices their labor, spending, sexuality, and parenting; tries to predict their future behavior; and punishes and criminalizes those who do not comply with its dictates. In the process, it creates ever-finer moral distinctions between the 'deserving' and 'undeserving' poor, categorizations that rationalize our national failure to care for one another.”482 (Emphasis supplied)

Eubanks builds the argument that automated decision-making technology

does not act as a facilitator for welfare schemes for the poor and only acts as

a gatekeeper:

“New high-tech tools allow for more precise measuring and tracking, better sharing of information, and increased visibility of targeted populations. In a system dedicated to supporting poor and working-class people's self-determination, such diligence would guarantee that they attain all the benefits they are entitled to by law. In that context, integrated data and modernized administration would not necessarily result in bad outcomes for poor communities. But automated decision- making in our current welfare system acts a lot like older, atavistic forms of punishment and containment. It filters and diverts. It is a gatekeeper, not a facilitator.”483

481 Virginia Eubanks, Automating Inequality: How High-Tech Tools Profile, Police, and Punish the Poor, St. Martin's Press (2018), at pages 12-13 482 Ibid, at page 16 483 Ibid, at pages 81-82

362 PART H

The crux of the book is reflected in the following extract:

“We all live in the digital poorhouse. We have always lived in the world we built for the poor. We create a society that has no use for the disabled or the elderly, and then are cast aside when we are hurt or grow old. We measure human worth based only on the ability to earn a wage, and suffer in a world that undervalues care and community. We base our economy on exploiting the labor of racial and ethnic minorities, and watch lasting inequities snuff out human potential. We see the world as inevitably riven by bloody competition and are left unable to recognize the many ways we cooperate and lift each other up.

But only the poor lived in the common dorms of the county poorhouse. Only the poor were put under the diagnostic microscope of scientific clarity. Today, we all live among the digital traps we have laid for the destitute.”484 (Emphasis supplied)

Automating Inequality demonstrates the problems with authentication and

algorithmic technology and indicates that the system, which was intended to

provide assistance for the short term and help people out of poverty, has

become a system to perpetuate poverty and injustice.

262 Errors in biometrics matching imply that an individual will not be

considered a part of the biometrics database. If a benefit or service is subject

to the matching of biometrics, then any mismatch would result in a denial of

that benefit or service. Exclusion based on technological errors, with no fault

of the individual, is a violation of dignity. The fate of individuals cannot be left

to the vulnerabilities of technological algorithms or devices. ‘To live is to live

484 Ibid, at page 188

363 PART H

with dignity’.485 Arbitrary exclusion from entitled benefits or subsidies is a

violation of dignity. If any such project has to survive, then it has to be ensured

that individual dignity is protected. These concerns have to be addressed.

As mentioned earlier, concerns regarding the application of biometrics in the

Aadhaar project were discussed in 2009 by the Biometrics Standards

Committee of UIDAI486, which was of the view that the large magnitude of the

Aadhaar project raised uncertainty about the accuracy of biometrics. 487 The

Strategy Overview488 published by UIDAI, in 2010, had discussed the risks

associated with biometrics perceived by UIDAI itself. Under the heading of

‘Project Risk’, the overview stated the UID project does face certain risks in its

implementation, which have to be addressed through its architecture and in

the design of its incentives. It stated:

“1) Adoption Risks: There will have to be sufficient, early demand from residents for the UID number. Without critical mass among key demographic groups (the rural and the poor) the number will not be successful in the long term. To ensure this, the UIDAI will have to model de-duplication and authentication to be both effective and viable for participating agencies and service providers…

3) Enrolment Risks: The project will have to be carefully designed to address risks of low enrolment – such as creating sufficient touch points in rural areas, enabling and motivating Registrars, ensuring that documentary requirements don't derail enrolment in disadvantaged communities – as well as managing difficulties in address verification, name standards, lack of information on date of birth, and hard to record fingerprints.

485 Puttaswamy, at para 119 486 UIDAI Committee on Biometrics, Biometrics Design Standards For UID Applications, at page 4 487 Ibid 488 UIDAI, UIDAI Strategy Overview, (2010), available at

http://www.prsindia.org/uploads/media/UID/UIDAI%20STRATEGY%20OVERVIEW.pdf

364 PART H

4) Risks of Scale: The project will have to handle records that approach one billion in number. This creates significant risks in biometric de-duplication as well as in administration, storage, and continued expansion of infrastructure.

5) Technology risks: Technology is a key part of the UID program, and this is the first time in the world that storage, authentication and de-duplication of biometrics are being attempted on this scale. The authority will have to address the risks carefully – by choosing the right technology in the architecture, biometrics, and data management tools; managing obsolescence and data quality; designing the transaction services model and innovating towards the best possible result.

6) Privacy and security risks: The UIDAI will have to ensure that resident data is not shared or compromised.”489 (Emphasis supplied)

Technological error would result in authentication failures. The concerns

raised by UIDAI ought to have been resolved before the implementation of the

Aadhaar project. Poor connectivity in rural India was a major concern. The

majority of the Indian population lives in rural areas. Even a small percentage

of error results in a population of crores being affected. Denial of subsidies

and benefits to them due to the infirmities of biometric technology is a threat to

good governance and social parity.

263 The issue of exclusion needs to be considered at three different levels:

(i) before the implementation of the Aadhaar Act, when biometrics were being

used since 2009; (ii) under the provisions of the Act; and (iii) at the practical

level during the implementation of the Aadhaar programme.

489 Ibid, at page 38

365 PART H

Before the enactment of the Aadhaar Act in 2016, the Standing Committee on

Finance, which examined the NIA Bill, was concerned about the impact of

Aadhaar on marginalized sections of society. Since the availing of subsidies

and benefits was to depend upon Aadhaar based authentication, any error in

the authentication would result in a denial of the benefits of social security

schemes for the marginalized. In 2011, the report of the Standing Committee

noted, thus:

“The full or near full coverage of marginalized sections for issuing Aadhaar numbers could not be achieved mainly owing to two reasons viz. (i) the UIDAI doesn’t have the statistical data relating to them; and (ii) estimated failure of biometrics is expected to be as high as 15% due to a large chunk of population being dependent on manual labour.”490 (Emphasis supplied)

The Economic Survey 2016-17 has adverted to authentication failures while

discussing the concept of Universal Basic Income (UBI). The Survey, which is

an official document of the Union government, states that UBI is premised on

the idea that a just society needs to guarantee to each individual a minimum

income which they can count on, and which provides the necessary material

foundation for a life with access to basic goods and a life of dignity.491 UBI was

to be implemented by providing cash transfers (for availing benefits of social

security schemes) to the bank accounts of beneficiaries. The implementation

of UBI was to be undertaken through what is described as the JAM trinity:

490 Forty-Second Report of the Standing Committee on Finance (2011), available at http://www.prsindia.org/uploads/media/UID/uid%20report.pdf, at page 30 491 Government of India, Economic Survey 2016-17, available at

https://www.thehinducentre.com/multimedia/archive/03193/Economic_Survey_20_3193543a.pdf, at page 173

366 PART H

Jan-Dhan Bank Accounts, Aadhaar data and Mobile phones. However, the

Survey noted that while Aadhaar is designed to solve the identification

problem, it cannot solve the “targeting problem” on its own. The Survey

emphasized the need to build state capacity and that “the state will still have

to enhance its capacities to provide a whole range of public goods”.492 The

Survey has recorded the statistics of authentication failures of Aadhaar in

several regions of the country:

“While Aadhaar coverage speed has been exemplary, with over a billion Aadhaar cards being distributed, some states report authentication failures: estimates include 49 percent failure rates for Jharkhand, 6 percent for Gujarat, 5 percent for Krishna District in Andhra Pradesh and 37 percent for Rajasthan. Failure to identify genuine beneficiaries results in exclusion errors.”493

No failure rate in the provision of social welfare benefits can be regarded as

acceptable. Basic entitlements in matters such as foodgrain, can brook no

error. To deny food is to lead a family to destitution, malnutrition and even

death.

264 A recent Office Memorandum dated 19 December 2017 issued by the

Cabinet Secretariat of the Union government494 acknowledges that the

Aadhaar enrolment process has not been completed and that infrastructure

constraints are capable of posing difficulties in online authentication. The

Memorandum provides that those beneficiaries who do not possess Aadhaar,

492 Ibid, at page 174 493 Ibid, at page 194 494 Office Memorandum dated 19 December 2017, available at

https://dbtbharat.gov.in/data/om/Office%20Memorandum_Aadhaar.pdf

367 PART H

shall be provided a subsidy, benefit or service based on alternate identification

documents as contemplated by Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act. It also requires

efforts to be made to ensure that all beneficiaries are facilitated to get

enrolment under the Aadhaar programme. The Memorandum creates a

mechanism for availing subsidies, benefits or services in cases where

Aadhaar authentication fails:

(i) Departments and Bank Branches may make provisions for IRIS scanners

along with fingerprint scanners wherever feasible;

(ii) In cases of failure due to lack of connectivity, offline authentication

systems such as QR code based coupons, Mobile based OTP or TOTP

may be explored; and

(iii) In all cases where online authentication is not feasible, the benefit/service

may be provided on the basis of possession of Aadhaar, after duly

recording the transaction in a register, to be reviewed and audited

periodically.

The figures from the Economic Survey of India indicate that there are millions

of eligible beneficiaries across India who have suffered financial exclusion.

The Cabinet Secretariat has pro-actively acknowledged the need to address

matters of exclusion by implementing alternate modalities, apart from those

set out in Section 7. Options (i) and (ii) above were to be implemented in

future. This exercise should have been undertaken by the government in

advance. Problems have to be anticipated when a project is on the drawing

368 PART H

board, not after severe deprivations have been caused by the denial of social

welfare benefits.

265 Exclusion of citizens from availing benefits of social security schemes

because of failures or errors in Aadhaar based biometric authentication has

also been documented in research studies and academic writings published

by members of civil society, including Reetika Khera and Jean Dreze. Similar

testimonies have been recorded in affidavits submitted before this Court by

civil society activists. Hearing the voices of civil society must be an integral

part of the structural design of a project, such as Aadhaar. In the absence of a

credible mechanism to receive and respond to feed-back, the state has to

depend on its own personnel who may not always provide reliable and candid

assessments of performance and failure.

266 ABBA (Aadhaar based biometric authentication) refers to the practice of

installing a Point of Sale (PoS) machine equipped with a fingerprint reader and

authenticating a person each time she accesses her entitlements.495 Dreze

has stated that for successful authentication in PDS outlets, several

technologies need to work simultaneously.496 These are497:

495Reetika Khera, Impact of Aadhaar on Welfare Programmes, Economic & Political Weekly, Vol. 52 (16 December 2017), available at https://www.epw.in/journal/2017/50/special-articles/impact-aadhaar-welfare- programmes.html 496Jean Dreze, Dark clouds over the PDS, The Hindu (10 September 2016), available at

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/Dark-clouds-over-the-PDS/article14631030.ece 497 Anmol Somanchi, Srujana Bej, and Mrityunjay Pandey, Well Done ABBA? Aadhaar and the Public Distribution

System in Hyderabad, Economic & Political Weekly (18 February 2017), Vol. 52, available at https://www.epw.in/journal/2017/7/web-exclusives/well-done-abba.html

369 PART H

(a) Seeding of Aadhaar numbers: An eligible individual can become a

beneficiary and access the PDS system only if her Aadhaar number is

correctly seeded onto the PDS database and added to the household

ration card;

(b) Point of Sale (PoS) machines: The process at the PDS outlet is

dependent on the PoS machine. If it malfunctions, no transaction can be

made. The first step in the process requires the dealer to enter the ration

card number of the beneficiary’s household onto the PoS machine;

(c) Internet connection: Successful working of the PoS machine depends on

internet connectivity as verification of the ration card number and the

beneficiary’s biometric fingerprint is carried out over the internet;

(d) Remote Aadhaar servers: Remote Aadhaar servers verify the ration card

number and initiate fingerprint authentication; and

(e) Fingerprint recognition software: The beneficiary proves her identity by

submitting to fingerprint recognition in the PoS machine. Upon verification,

the PoS machine indicates that the beneficiary is genuine and that

foodgrains can be distributed to her household.

The above procedure requires that at the time of purchase of PDS grains each

month, any one person listed on the ration card needs to authenticate

themselves. Similarly, for pensions, elderly persons must go to the point of

delivery to authenticate themselves. Reetika Khera has observed that since

ABBA on PoS machines is currently a monthly activity, so each of its

370 PART H

associated technologies (correct Aadhaar-seeding, mobile connectivity,

electricity, functional PoS machines and UIDAI servers and fingerprint

recognition) needs to work for a person to get their entitlement.498 Dreze has

referred to the above procedure as “a wholly inappropriate technology for rural

India”499. Network failures and other glitches routinely disable this sort of

technology. Dreze has further observed that in villages with poor connectivity,

it is a “recipe for chaos”500.

267 A government-commissioned sample study501 in Andhra Pradesh to

ascertain the efficiency of Aadhaar-based social programmes in the case of

subsidised grains indicated that technical deficiencies are depriving the poor

of their access to food. The study was commissioned by the state government

after it was found that 22% of the PDS beneficiaries did not take the ration in

the month of May 2015. The sample study, which covered five PDS outlets in

three districts, found that half of the beneficiaries of PDS in the surveyed

areas could not access their ration quota due to glitches, lack of training and

mismatches linked to Aadhaar. In the survey, a majority of beneficiaries

reported fingerprint mismatches and the inability of fair-price shop owners to

498 Reetika Khera, Impact of Aadhaar on Welfare Programmes, Economic & Political Weekly, Vol. 52 (16 December 2017), available at https://www.epw.in/journal/2017/50/special-articles/impact-aadhaar-welfare- programmes.html 499Jean Dreze, Dark clouds over the PDS, The Hindu (10 September 2016), available at

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/Dark-clouds-over-the-PDS/article14631030.ece 500Ibid 501Society for Social Audit, Accountability and Transparency, FP Shops Left Over Beneficiaries Report, available

at http://www.socialaudit.ap.gov.in/SocialAudit/LoadDocument?docName=Fair%20Price%20Work%20%20Shops %20(Ration%20Card%20Holders)%20-%20Beneficiaries%20Report.pdf&type=application. See also Aadhaar- based projects failing the poor, says Andhra govt study, Hindustan Times (7 October 2015), available at https://www.hindustantimes.com/india/aadhaar-based-projects-failing-the-poor-says-andhra-govt-study/story- 7MFBCeJcfl85Lc5zztON6L.html

371 PART H

operate point-of-sale (POS) devices correctly as major hurdles. Aadhaar

numbers did not match with ration card numbers in many cases.

Another survey502 of 80 households conducted in Hyderabad finds that despite

the introduction of technology-intensive authentication and payment systems,

a significant number of those vulnerable and dependent on Public Distribution

System (PDS) for food grains are failing to realise their right to food. The

survey revealed that among 80 surveyed households, 89% reported receiving

full entitlements at correct prices even before the introduction of Aadhaar-

based biometric authentication (ABBA). In contrast, 10% of households were

excluded due to authentication failures due to reported errors with one or

more of its five technological components.

268 An article titled “Aadhaar and Food Security in Jharkhand: Pain

without Gain?”503, based on a household survey in rural Jharkhand,

examines various issues related to compulsory ABBA for availing PDS

benefits. The article notes the impact of PDS on the lives of the rural poor,

who visit the ration shop every month. In “their fragile and uncertain lives”, the

PDS provides a “modicum of food and economic security”. The article notes

that in ABBA, the failure of authentication results in denial of food from ration

shops. The household is unable to get food rations for no fault of its own. The 502Anmol Somanchi, Srujana Bej, and Mrityunjay Pandey, Well Done ABBA? Aadhaar and the Public Distribution System in Hyderabad, Economic & Political Weekly, Vol. 52 (18 February 2017), available at https://www.epw.in/journal/2017/7/web-exclusives/well-done-abba.html 503Jean Drèze, Nazar Khalid, Reetika Khera, and Anmol Somanchi, Aadhaar and Food Security in Jharkhand:

Pain without Gain?, Economic & Political Weekly, Vol. 52 (16 December 2017).

372 PART H

article comes to the conclusion that the imposition of ABBA on the PDS in

Jharkhand is a case of “pain without gain”, as it has led to serious problems of

exclusion (particularly for vulnerable groups such as widows, the elderly and

manual workers). The article further notes that ABBA has neither failed to

reduce quantity fraud (which is the main form of PDS corruption in

Jharkhand), nor has it helped to address other critical shortcomings of the

PDS in Jharkhand, such as the problem of missing names in ration cards, the

identification of Antyodaya (poorest of the poor) households, or the arbitrary

power of private dealers. The article identifies poor internet connectivity as

one of the reasons for authentication failures and eventual exclusion:

“Sporadic internet connectivity is another major hurdle. Sometimes, light rain is enough to disrupt connectivity or the electricity supply. Every step in the ABBA process—ration card verification, biometric authentication, electronic upload of transactions, updating NFSA [National Food Security Act] lists and entitlements on the PoS504 [Point of Sale] machine— depends on internet connectivity. Further, even with stable connectivity, biometric authentication is not always easy. Biometric failures are especially common for two groups: the elderly, and manual labourers. Both are particularly vulnerable to food insecurity.”505

The article regards the denial of basic services to the poor due to failure of

ABBA as a form of grave injustice:

504 Ibid, at page 51. The article states: “[PoS] is a handheld device installed at every PDS outlet (“ration shop”) and connected to the Internet. The list of ration cards attached to that outlet, and their respective entitlements, are stored in the PoS machine and updated every month. When a cardholder turns ups, the PoS machine first “authenticates” her by matching her fingerprints with the biometric data stored against her Aadhaar number in the Central Identities Data Repository (CIDR). The machine then generates a receipt with the person’s entitlements, which are also audible from a recorded message... The transaction details are also supposed to be entered by the dealer in the person’s ration card.” 505 Ibid, at page 55

373 PART H

“Imposing a technology that does not work on people who depend on it for their survival is a grave injustice.”506 (Emphasis supplied)

As we have noted in an earlier part of this judgment, even the Economic

Survey of India 2016-17 found a 49% failure rate for beneficiaries in

Jharkhand and 37% in Rajasthan. Those at the receiving end are the poorest

of the poor.

Reetika Khera looks at the impact of Aadhaar-integration with security

schemes (primarily in MGNREGA, PDS and social security pensions). 507 The

author also discusses briefly the impact of Aadhaar on liquefied petroleum gas

(LPG) subsidy and the application of Aadhaar in the mid-day meal (MDM)

scheme. In coming to its conclusions, the article has relied upon quantitative

data from primary field studies, secondary data from government portals,

figures obtained through queries made under the Right to Information (RTI)

Act, and responses to questions in Parliament. In Khera’s words, Aadhaar is

becoming a “tool of exclusion”:

“Savings or exclusion? The government claimed that Aadhaar integration saved 399 crore up to 31 December 2016 (GoI 2017c). At a given level of benefits, a reduction in government expenditure in any particular transfer scheme can be on two counts: removal of ghosts and duplicates (“efficiency”); and a fall in the number of genuine beneficiaries (“shrinkage”), for instance, if they do not link their Aadhaar numbers when required. Across welfare schemes, the government has been treating any reduction in expenditure as “savings,” even when it comes from shrinkage. This is true

506Ibid, at page 58 507 Reetika Khera, Impact of Aadhaar on Welfare Programmes, Economic & Political Weekly, Vol. 52 (16 December 2017), available at https://www.epw.in/journal/2017/50/special-articles/impact-aadhaar-welfare-

programmes.html

374 PART H

for SSP [social security pension] as well. For instance, in Rajasthan, pensioners were “mistakenly” recorded as dead and this was presented as Aadhaar-enabled savings (Yadav 2016f). In Jharkhand too, pensioners’ names have been deleted because they did not complete Aadhaar-seeding formalities or pensions stopped due to seeding errors (Sen 2017a). Studying 100 pensioners, selected from 10 randomly- selected villages from five blocks of Ranchi district in February 2017, Biswas (2017) finds that 84% of her respondents receive pensions but irregularity in payments was a big issue. The remaining 16% were not receiving it due to Aadhaar-related issues.”508

Puja Awasthi documents the plight of individuals suffering from leprosy, who

have been denied pensions due to not being able to get enrolled into the

Aadhaar system. Leprosy can damage fingerprints and thus make an

individual incapable of providing biometrics. Awasthi’s article509 notes that

Aadhaar is capable of causing a denial of benefits or services to 86,000

citizens, who suffer from leprosy.

These writings show how in most cases, an authentication failure means that

the individual/household was denied the benefit of a social security

programme for no fault of their own. Some have gone hungry. Some

reportedly lost their lives.510

508 Ibid, at page 66 509Puja Awasthi, Good enough to vote, not enough for Aadhaar, People’s Archive of Rural India, available at https://ruralindiaonline.org/articles/good-enough-to-vote-not-enough-for-aadhaar 510 Yet another Aadhaar-linked death? Denied rations for 4 months, Jharkhand woman dies of hunger, Scroll (3

Feb. 2018), available at: https://scroll.in/article/867352/yet-another-aadhaar-linked-death-jharkhand-woman- dies-of-hunger-after-denial-of-rations; Denied food because she did not have Aadhaar-linked ration card, Jharkhand girl dies of starvation, Scroll (16 Oct 2017), available at: https://scroll.in/article/854225/denied-food- because-she-did-not-have-aadhaar-linked-ration-card-jharkhand-girl-dies-of-starvation

375 PART H

269 A person’s biometrics change over time. For persons, who are engaged

in manual labour, and persons who are disabled or aged, fingerprints actually

cannot be captured by biometric devices. The material which has been relied

upon in this segment originates from government’s official documents as well

as from distinguished academics and researchers from civil society. There

exist serious issues of financial exclusion. Pensions for the aged particularly

in cases where a pension is earned for past service – are not charity or doles.

They constitute legal entitlements. For an old age pensioner, vicissitudes of

time and age obliterate fingerprints. Hard manual labour severely impacts

upon fingerprints. The elderly, the disabled and the young are the most

vulnerable and a denial of social welfare entitlements verily results in a

deprivation of the right to life. Should the scholarship of a girl child or a mid-

day meal for the young be made to depend on the uncertainties of biometric

matches? Our quest for technology should not be oblivious to the country’s

real problems: social exclusion, impoverishment and marginalisation. The

Aadhaar project suffers from crucial design flaws which impact upon its

structural probity. Structural design in delivering welfare entitlements must be

compliant with structural due process, to be in accord with Articles 14 and 21.

The Aadhaar project has failed to account for and remedy the flaws in its

framework and design which lead to serious issues of exclusion. Dignity and

rights of individuals cannot be based on algorithms or probabilities.

Constitutional guarantees cannot be subject to the vicissitudes of technology.

376 PART H

270 Structural due process imposes requirements on public institutions and

projects at the macro level. Structural due process requires that the delivery

of social welfare benefits must be effective and timely. Those who are eligible

for the benefits must not face exclusion. Procedures for the disbursal of

benefits must not be oppressive. They must be capable of compliance both by

those who disburse and by those who receive the benefits. Deployment of

technology must factor in the available of technological resources in every part

of the coverage area and the prevailing levels of literacy and awareness.

Above all, the design of the project will be compliant with structural due

process only if it is responsive to deficiencies, accountable to the beneficiaries

and places the burden of ensuring that the benefits reach the marginalised on

the state and its agencies.

H.6 Constitutional validity of Section 139AA of the Income Tax Act 1961

271 Section 139AA of the Income Tax Act 1961 which was inserted by the

Finance Act 2017, mandates the quoting of an Aadhaar number in the application

for a Permanent Account Number (PAN) and in the return of income tax. Failure

to intimate an Aadhaar number results in the PAN being deemed invalid

retrospectively.

Section 139AA reads thus:

“Quoting of Aadhaar number.- (1) Every person who is eligible to obtain Aadhaar number shall, on or after the 1st day of July, 2017, quote Aadhaar number-

(i) in the application form for allotment of permanent account number;

377 PART H

(ii) in the return of income:

Provided that where the person does not possess the Aadhaar Number, the Enrolment ID of Aadhaar application form issued to him at the time of enrolment shall be quoted in the application for permanent account number or, as the case may be, in the return of income furnished by him.

(2) Every person who has been allotted permanent account number as on the 1st day of July, 2017, and who is eligible to obtain Aadhaar number, shall intimate his Aadhaar number to such authority in such form and manner as may be prescribed, on or before a date to be notified by the Central Government in the Official Gazette:

Provided that in case of failure to intimate the Aadhaar number, the permanent account number allotted to the person shall be deemed to be invalid and the other provisions of this Act shall apply, as if the person had not applied for allotment of permanent account number.

(3) The provisions of this Section shall not apply to such person or class or classes of persons or any State or part of any State, as may be notified by the Central Government in this behalf, in the Official Gazette.

Explanation. - For the purposes of this section, the expressions –

(i) “Aadhaar number”, “Enrolment” and “resident” shall have the same meanings respectively assigned to them in Clauses (a), (m) and (v) of Section 2 of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016 (18 of 2016);

(ii) “Enrolment ID” means a 28 digit Enrolment Identification Number issued to a resident at the time of enrolment.”

272 In Binoy Viswam v Union of India (“Binoy Viswam”),511 a two judge

Bench (consisting of Dr Justice AK Sikri and Justice Ashok Bhushan) upheld

the constitutional validity of Section 139AA. Since the issue of whether privacy

is a constitutionally guaranteed right was pending before a Bench of nine

judges (the decision in Puttaswamy was still to be delivered), the two judge

511 (2017) 7 SCC 59

378 PART H

Bench did not dwell on the challenge to the legislation on the ground of

privacy and under Article 21. The Bench examined other submissions based

on Articles 14 and 19 and on the competence of Parliament to enact the law.

273 The decision in Binoy Viswam holds that in assessing the

constitutional validity of a law, two grounds of judicial review are available:

(i) The legislative competence of the law-making body which has enacted

the law, over the subject of legislation; and

(ii) Compliance with Part III of the Constitution, which enunciates the

fundamental rights, and with the other provisions of the Constitution.

Holding that a third ground of challenge – that the law in question is arbitrary –

is not available, the decision in Binoy Viswam placed reliance on the

enunciation of law by a three judge Bench in State of A P v McDowell & Co

(Mcdowell).512 McDowell ruled that while a challenge to a statute on the

ground that it violates the principle of equality under Article 14 is available, a

statute cannot be invalidated on the ground that it is arbitrary:

“43…In other words, say, if an enactment is challenged as violative of Article 14, it can be struck down only if it is found that it is violative of the equality clause/equal protection clause enshrined therein… No enactment can be struck down by just saying that it is arbitrary or unreasonable. Some or other constitutional infirmity has to be found before invalidating an Act.”513

512 (1996) 3 SCC 709 513 Ibid, at page 124

379 PART H

In Binoy Viswam, the two judge Bench observed that the “contours” of

judicial review had been spelt out in State of Madhya Pradesh v Rakesh

Kohli,514 and more recently in Rajbala v State of Haryana.515 Reiterating the

same position, Binoy Viswam holds:

“81.Another aspect in this context, which needs to be emphasised, is that a legislation cannot be declared unconstitutional on the ground that it is “arbitrary” inasmuch as examining as to whether a particular Act is arbitrary or not implies a value judgment and the courts do not examine the wisdom of legislative choices and, therefore, cannot undertake this exercise.”516

274 In the decision of the Constitution Bench in Shayara Bano v Union of

India (“Shayara Bano”),517 Justice Rohinton Nariman speaking for himself

and Justice Uday U Lalit noticed that the dictum in McDowell, to the effect

that “no enactment can be struck down by just saying it is arbitrary or

unreasonable” had failed to notice the judgment of the Constitution Bench in

Ajay Hasia v Khalid Mujib Sehravardi (“Ajay Hasia”),518 and a three judge

Bench decision in Dr K R Lakshmanan v State of T N (“Lakshmanan”).519

In Ajay Hasia, the Constitution Bench traced the evolution of the doctrine of

equality beyond its origins in the doctrine of classification. Ajay Hasia ruled

that since the decision in E P Royappa v State of Tamil Nadu,520 it had been

held that equality had a substantive content which, simply put, was the

antithesis of arbitrariness. Consequently:

514 (2012) 6 SCC 312 515 (2016) 2 SCC 445 516 Ibid, at page 125 517 (2017) 9 SCC 1 518 (1981) 1 SCC 722 519 (1996) 2 SCC 226 520 (1974) 4 SCC 3

380 PART H

“16...Wherever therefore there is arbitrariness in State action whether it be of the legislature or of the executive or of an “authority” under Article 12, Article 14 immediately springs into action and strikes down such State action. In fact, the concept of reasonableness and non-

arbitrariness pervades the entire constitutional scheme and is a golden thread which runs through the whole of the fabric of the Constitution.”521 (Emphasis supplied)

The principle of arbitrariness was applied for invalidating a State law by the

three judge Bench decision in Lakshmanan. It was, in this context that Justice

Nariman speaking for two Judges in the Constitution Bench in Shayara Bano

held that manifest arbitrariness is a component of Article 14. Hence, a law

which is manifestly arbitrary would violate the fundamental right to equality:

“87. The thread of reasonableness runs through the entire fundamental rights chapter. What is manifestly arbitrary is obviously unreasonable and being contrary to the rule of law, would violate Article 14. Further, there is an apparent contradiction in the three-Judge Bench decision in McDowell when it is said that a constitutional challenge can succeed on the ground that a law is “disproportionate, excessive or unreasonable”, yet such challenge would fail on the very ground of the law being “unreasonable, unnecessary or unwarranted”. The arbitrariness doctrine when applied to legislation obviously would not involve the latter challenge but would only involve a law being disproportionate, excessive or otherwise being manifestly unreasonable. All the aforesaid grounds, therefore, do not seek to differentiate between State action in its various forms, all of which are interdicted if they fall foul of the fundamental rights guaranteed to persons and citizens in Part III of the Constitution.”522

Justice Nariman has observed that even after McDowell, challenges to the

validity of legislation have been entertained on the ground of arbitrariness

521 Ajay Hasia at page 741 522 Ibid, at pages 91-92

381 PART H

(Malpe Vishwanath Acharya v State of Maharashtra,523 Mardia Chemicals

Ltd. v Union of India,524 State of Tamil Nadu v K Shyam Sunder,525

Andhra Pradesh Dairy Development Corporation Federation v B

Narasimha Reddy526 and K T Plantation Private Limited v State of

Karnataka527).

275 In Shayara Bano, Justice Nariman has adverted to the decisions which

have followed McDowell including the two judge Bench decision in Binoy

Viswam. These decisions, in the view of Justice Nariman, are therefore no

longer good law:

“99. However, in State of Bihar v. Bihar Distillery Ltd., SCC at para 22, in State of M.P. v. Rakesh Kohli, SCC at paras 17 to 19, in Rajbala v. State of Haryana, SCC at paras 53 to 65 and in Binoy Viswam v. Union of India, SCC at paras 80 to 82, McDowell was read as being an absolute bar to the use of “arbitrariness” as a tool to strike down legislation under Article

14. As has been noted by us earlier in this judgment, McDowell itself is per incuriam, not having noticed several judgments of Benches of equal or higher strength, its reasoning even otherwise being flawed. The judgments, following McDowell are, therefore, no longer good law.”528

In the above extract, Justice Nariman has specifically held that the McDowell

test which barred a challenge to a law on the ground of arbitrariness ignored a

binding Constitution Bench view in Ajay Hasia and that of a three judge

Bench in Lakshmanan. Moreover, the above extract from Shayara Bano

523 (1998) 2 SCC 1 524 (2004) 4 SCC 311 525 (2011) 8 SCC 737 526 (2011) 9 SCC 286 527 (2011) 9 SCC 1 528 Ibid, at page 97

382 PART H

disapproves of the restriction on judicial review in Binoy Viswam, which

follows McDowell. Justice Kurian Joseph, in the course of his decision has

specifically agreed with the view expressed by Justice Nariman:

“5…However, on the pure question of law that a legislation, be it plenary or subordinate, can be challenged on the ground of arbitrariness, I agree with the illuminating exposition of law by Nariman J. I am also of the strong view that the constitutional democracy of India cannot conceive of a legislation which is arbitrary.”

276 In Puttaswamy, the judgment delivered on behalf of four Judges

expressly recognized the impact of Article 14 in determining whether a law

which is challenged on the ground that it violates Article 21 meets both the

procedural as well as the substantive content of reasonableness. The Court

held:

“291… the evolution of Article 21, since the decision in Cooper indicates two major areas of change. First, the fundamental rights are no longer regarded as isolated silos or watertight compartments. In consequence, Article 14 has been held to animate the content of Article 21. Second, the expression “procedure established by law” in Article 21 does not connote a formalistic requirement of a mere presence of procedure in enacted law. That expression has been held to signify the content of the procedure and its quality which must be fair, just and reasonable. The mere fact that the law provides for the deprivation of life or personal liberty is not sufficient to conclude its validity and the procedure to be constitutionally valid must be fair, just and reasonable. The quality of reasonableness does not attach only to the content of the procedure which the law prescribes with reference to Article 21 but to the content of the law itself. In other words, the requirement of Article 21 is not fulfilled only by the enactment of fair and reasonable procedure under the law and a law which does so may yet be susceptible to challenge on the ground that its content does not accord with the requirements of a valid law. The law is open to substantive challenge on the ground that it violates the fundamental right.”529

529 Ibid, at page 495

383 PART H

The same principle has been emphasized in the following observations:

“294…Article 14, as a guarantee against arbitrariness, infuses the entirety of Article 21. The interrelationship between the guarantee against arbitrariness and the protection of life and personal liberty operates in a multi-faceted plane. First, it ensures that the procedure for deprivation must be fair, just and reasonable. Second, Article 14 impacts both the procedure and the expression “law”. A law within the meaning of Article 21 must be consistent with the norms of fairness which originate in Article 14. As a matter of principle, once Article 14 has a connect with Article 21, norms of fairness and reasonableness would apply not only to the procedure but to the law as well.”530

277 In Binoy Viswam, the two judge Bench held that while enrolment

under the Aadhaar Act is voluntary, it was legitimately open to the Parliament,

while enacting Section 139AA of the Income Tax Act to make the seeding of

the Aadhaar number with the PAN card mandatory. The court held that the

purpose of making it mandatory under the Income Tax Act was to curb black

money, money laundering and tax evasion. It was open to Parliament to do so

and its legislative competence could not be questioned on that ground. The

court held that the legislative purpose of unearthing black money and curbing

money laundering furnished a valid nexus with the objective sought to be

achieved by the law:

“105. Unearthing black money or checking money laundering is to be achieved to whatever extent possible. Various measures can be taken in this behalf. If one of the measures is introduction of Aadhaar into the tax regime, it cannot be denounced only because of the reason that the purpose would not be achieved fully. Such kind of menace, which is deep-rooted, needs to be tackled by taking multiple actions and those actions may be initiated at the same time. It is the combined effect of these actions which may yield results and

530 Ibid, at page 496

384 PART H

each individual action considered in isolation may not be sufficient. Therefore, rationality of a particular measure cannot be challenged on the ground that it has no nexus with the objective to be achieved. Of course, there is a definite objective. For this purpose alone, individual measure cannot be ridiculed. We have already taken note of the recommendations of SIT on black money headed by Justice M.B. Shah. We have also reproduced the measures suggested by the Committee headed by Chairman, CBDT on “Measures to Tackle Black Money in India and Abroad”. They have, in no uncertain terms, suggested that one singular proof of identity of a person for entering into finance/business transactions, etc. may go a long way in curbing this foul practice. That apart, even if solitary purpose of de-duplication of PAN cards is taken into consideration, that may be sufficient to meet the second test of Article 14. It has come on record that 11.35 lakh cases of duplicate PAN or fraudulent PAN cards have already been detected and out of this 10.52 lakh cases pertain to individual assessees. Seeding of Aadhaar with PAN has certain benefits which have already been enumerated. Furthermore, even when we address the issue of shell companies, fact remains that companies are after all floated by individuals and these individuals have to produce documents to show their identity. It was sought to be argued that persons found with duplicate/bogus PAN cards are hardly 0.4% and, therefore, there was no need to have such a provision. We cannot go by percentage figures. The absolute number of such cases is 10.52 lakhs, which figure, by no means, can be termed as miniscule, to harm the economy and create adverse effect on the nation. The respondents have argued that Aadhaar will ensure that there is no duplication of identity as biometrics will not allow that and, therefore, it may check the growth of shell companies as well.

106. Having regard to the aforesaid factors, it cannot be said that there is no nexus with the objective sought to be achieved.”531

The court observed that it was a harsh reality of our times that the benefit of

welfare measures adopted by the State does not reach the segments of

society for whom they are intended:

“125.1.3… However, for various reasons including corruption, actual benefit does not reach those who are supposed to receive such benefits. One of the main reasons is failure to

531 Ibid, at pages 134-135

385 PART H

identify these persons for lack of means by which identity could be established of such genuine needy class.

Resultantly, lots of ghosts and duplicate beneficiaries are able to take undue and impermissible benefits. A former Prime Minister of this country has gone on record to say that out of one rupee spent by the Government for welfare of the downtrodden, only 15 paisa thereof actually reaches those persons for whom it is meant. It cannot be doubted that with UID/Aadhaar much of the malaise in this field can be taken care of.”532

In this context, the court also noted that as a result of de-duplication

exercises, 11.35 lakh cases of duplicate PANs / fraudulent PANs had been

detected out of which 10.52 lakh cases pertained to individual assesses. The

court upheld the decision of Parliament as the legislating body of seeding

PANs with Aadhaar as “the best method, and the only robust method of de-

duplication of PAN database”.

278 The edifice of Section 139AA is based on the structure created by the

Aadhaar Act. Section 139AA of the Income Tax Act 1962 is postulated on the

requirement of Aadhaar having been enacted under a valid piece of

legislation. The validity of the legislation seeding Aadhaar to PAN is

dependent upon and cannot be segregated from the validity of the parent

Aadhaar legislation. In fact, that is one of the reasons why in Binoy Viswam,

the Article 21 challenge was not adjudicated upon since that was pending

consideration before a larger Bench. The validity of seeding Aadhaar to PAN

under Section 139AA must therefore depend upon the constitutional validity of

the Aadhaar Act as it is determined by this Court. Further Rule 114B of the

532 Ibid, at page 146

386 PART H

Income Tax Rules 1962 provides for a list of transactions for which a person

must quote a PAN card number. Rule 114B requires that a person must

possess a PAN card for those transactions. These are summarized below:

• “Sale or purchase of a motor vehicle or vehicle, as defined in clause (28) of section 2 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 (59 of 1988) which requires registration by a registering authority under Chapter IV of that Act, other than two wheeled vehicles.

• Opening an account [other than a time-deposit and a Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account] with a banking company or a co-operative bank to which the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (10 of 1949), applies (including any bank or banking institution referred to in section 51 of that Act).

• Making an application to any banking company or a co- operative bank to which the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (10 of 1949), applies (including any bank or banking institution referred to in section 51 of that Act) or to any other company or institution, for issue of a credit or debit card.

• Opening of a demat account with a depository, participant, custodian of securities or any other person registered under sub-section (1A) of section 12 of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 (15 of 1992).

• Payment to a hotel or restaurant against a bill or bills at any one time.

• Payment in connection with travel to any foreign country or payment for purchase of any foreign currency at any one time.

• Payment to a Mutual Fund for purchase of its units. • Payment to a company or an institution for acquiring debentures or bonds issued by it.

• Payment to the Reserve Bank of India, constituted under section 3 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (2 of 1934) for acquiring bonds issued by it.

• Deposit with,— • banking company or a co-operative bank to which the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (10 of 1949), applies (including any bank or banking institution referred to in section 51 of that Act);

• Post Office.

• Purchase of bank drafts or pay orders or banker's cheques from a banking company or a co-operative bank to which the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (10 of 1949),

387 PART H

applies (including any bank or banking institution referred to in section 51 of that Act).

• A time deposit with, — • a banking company or a co-operative bank to which the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (10 of 1949), applies (including any bank or banking institution referred to in section 51 of that Act);

• a Post Office;

• a Nidhi referred to in section 406 of the Companies Act, 2013 (18 of 2013); or • a non-banking financial company which holds a certificate of registration under section 45-IA of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (2 of 1934), to hold or accept deposit from public.

• Payment for one or more pre-paid payment instruments, as defined in the policy guidelines for issuance and operation of pre-paid payment instruments issued by Reserve Bank of India under section 18 of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 (51 of 2007), to a banking company or a co-operative bank to which the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (10 of 1949), applies (including any bank or banking institution referred to in section 51 of that Act) or to any other company or institution.

• Payment as life insurance premium to an insurer as defined in clause (9) of section 2 of the Insurance Act, 1938 (4 of 1938).

• A contract for sale or purchase of securities (other than shares) as defined in clause (h) of section 2 of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 (42 of 1956). • Sale or purchase, by any person, of shares of a company not listed in a recognised stock exchange.

• Sale or purchase of any immovable property. • Sale or purchase, by any person, of goods or services of any nature other than those specified above.”

The decision in Puttaswamy has recognised that protection of the interests of

the revenue constitutes a legitimate state aim in the three-pronged test of

proportionality. The circumstances which have been adverted to in the

decision in Binoy Viswam are a sufficient indicator of the legitimate concerns

of the revenue to curb tax evasion, by embarking upon a programme for de-

duplication of the Pan data base. A legitimate state aim does exist. However,

388 PART H

that in itself is not sufficient to uphold the validity of the law, which must meet

the other parameters of proportionality spelt out in Puttaswamy. The

explanation to Section 139AA adopts the definition of the expressions

‘Aadhaar number’, ‘enrolment’ and ‘resident’ from the parent Aadhaar

legislation. The seeding of Aadhaar with Pan cards must depend for its validity

on the constitutional validity of the Aadhaar legislation. Hence, besides

affirming that the object of the measure in Section 139AA constitutes a

legitimate state aim, the decision of this Court in regard to the validity of

Aadhaar will impact upon the seeding of PAN with Aadhaar, which Section

139AA seeks to achieve.

H.7 Linking of SIM cards and Aadhaar numbers

279 In Avishek Goenka v Union of India533, a three judge Bench of this

Court dealt with a public interest litigation seeking to highlight the non-

observance of norms, regulations and guidelines relating to subscriber

verification by Telecom Service Providers (TSPs). The Department of

Telecommunications (DoT), in the course of the proceedings, filed its

instructions stating its position in regard to the verification of prepaid and

postpaid mobile subscribers. While concluding the proceedings, this Court

directed the constitution of an expert committee comprising of representatives

of TRAI and DoT. The court mandated that the following issues should be

examined by the Committee:

533 (2012) 5 SCC 275

389 PART H

“(a) Whether re-verification should be undertaken by the service provider/licensee, DoT itself or any other central body?

(b) Is there any need for enhancing the penalty for violating the instructions/guidelines including sale of pre- activated SIM cards?

(c) Whether delivery of SIM cards may be made by post? Which is the best mode of delivery of SIM cards to provide due verification of identity and address of a subscriber?

(d) Which of the application forms i.e. the existing one or the one now suggested by TRAI should be adopted as universal application form for purchase of a SIM card?

(e) In absence of Unique ID card, whether updating of subscriber details should be the burden of the licensee personally or could it be permitted to be carried out through an authorised representative of the licensee?

(f) In the interest of national security and the public interest, whether the database of all registered subscribers should be maintained by DoT or by the licensee and how soon the same may be made accessible to the security agencies in accordance with law?”534

In pursuance of the above directive, DoT issued instructions on the verification

of new mobile subscribers on 9 August 2012. On 6 January 2016, TRAI

addressed a communication to DoT recommending that the new procedure for

subscriber verification was “cumbersome and resource intensive” and hence

should be replaced by an Aadhaar linked e-KYC mechanism. Following this,

DoT issued a directive on 16 August 2016 to launch an Aadhaar e-KYC

service across all licenced service areas for issuance of mobile connections.

However, it was stated that the e-KYC process was an alternative, in addition

to the existing process of issuing mobile connections to subscribers and would

not be applicable for bulk, outstation and foreign customers.

534 Ibid, at page 283

390 PART H

280 A public interest litigation was filed before this Court under Article 32 in

Lokniti Foundation v Union of India535. The relief which claimed was that

there should be a definite mobile phone subscriber verification to ensure a

hundred per cent verification of subscribers. Responding to the petition, the

Union Government informed this Court that DoT had launched an Aadhaar

based e-KYC for issuing mobile connections on 16 August 2016, by which

customers as well as point of sale agents of TSPs will be authenticated by

UIDAI. A statement was made by the learned Attorney General that an

effective programme for verification of prepaid connections would be devised

within one year. In view of the statement of the AG, the petition was disposed

of by a two judge Bench in terms of the following directions:

“5. In view of the factual position brought to our notice during the course of hearing, we are satisfied, that the prayers made in the writ petition have been substantially dealt with, and an effective process has been evolved to ensure identity verification, as well as, the addresses of all mobile phone subscribers for new subscribers. In the near future, and more particularly, within one year from today, a similar verification will be completed, in the case of existing subscribers. While complimenting the petitioner for filing the instant petition, we dispose of the same with the hope and expectation, that the undertaking given to this Court, will be taken seriously, and will be given effect to, as soon as possible.”536

Following the decision, DoT issued a directive on 23 March 2017 to all

licensees stating that a way forward had been found to implement the

directions of the Supreme Court. Based on the hypothesis that this Court had

directed an E-KYC verification, DoT proceeded to implement it on 23 March

2017.

535 (2017) 7 SCC 155 536 Ibid, at page 156

391 PART H

281 Mr Rakesh Dwivedi, learned Senior Counsel appearing on behalf of

UIDAI and the State of Gujarat supported the measure. He submitted that the

licences of all TSPs are issued under Section 4 of the Indian Telegraph Act

1885. Since the Central Government has the exclusive privilege of

establishing, maintaining and working telegraphs, TSPs, it was urged, have to

operate the telegraph under a license and the Central Government is entitled

to impose conditions on the licensee. The instruction issued by DoT on 23

March 2017 has, it is urged, the sanction of Section 4 of the Indian Telegraph

Act 1885.

282 We must at the outset note the ambit of the proceedings before this

Court in Lokniti Foundation. In response to the public interest litigation, it

was the Union Government which relied on its decision of 16 August 2016 to

implement e-KYC verification for mobile subscribers. The petition was

disposed of since the prayers were substantially dealt with and the court

perceived that an effective process had been adopted to ensure identity

verification together with verification of addresses. Existing subscribers were

directed to be verified in a similar manner within one year. The issue as to

whether the seeding of Aadhaar with mobile SIM cards was constitutionally

valid did not fall for consideration.

283 The decision to link Aadhaar numbers with SIM cards and to require e-

KYC authentication of mobile subscribers has been looked upon by the Union

392 PART H

government purely as a matter of efficiency of identification. TRAI’s letter

dated 6 January 2016 states that the new procedure for subscriber verification

which it had adopted was “cumbersome and resource intensive”. The issue as

to whether Aadhaar linked e-KYC authentication would seriously compromise

the privacy of mobile subscribers did not enter into the decision making

calculus. In applying the test of proportionality, the matter has to be addressed

not just by determining as to whether a measure is efficient but whether it

meets the test of not being disproportionate or excessive to the legitimate aim

which the state seeks to pursue. TRAI and DoT do have a legitimate concern

over the existence of SIM cards obtained against identities which are not

genuine. But the real issue is whether the linking of Aadhaar cards is the least

intrusive method of obviating the problems associated with subscriber

verification. The state cannot be oblivious to the need to protect privacy and of

the dangers inherent in the utilization of the Aadhaar platform by telecom

service providers. In the absence of adequate safeguards, the biometric data

of mobile subscribers can be seriously compromised and exploited for

commercial gain. While asserting the need for proper verification, the state

cannot disregard the countervailing requirements of preserving the integrity of

biometric data and the privacy of mobile phone subscribers. Nor can we

accept the argument that cell phone data is so universal that one can become

blasé about the dangers inherent in the revealing of biometric information.

393 PART H

284 The submission that a direction of this nature could have been given to

TSPs under Section 4 of the Indian Telegraph Act 1885 does not answer the

basic issue of its constitutional validity, which turns upon the proportionality of

the measure. Having due regard to the test of proportionality which has been

propounded in Puttaswamy and as elaborated in this judgment, we do not

find that the decision to link Aadhaar numbers with mobile SIM cards is valid

or constitutional. The mere existence of a legitimate state aim will not justify

the means which are adopted. Ends do not justify means, at least as a matter

of constitutional principle. For the means to be valid, they must be carefully

tailored to achieve a legitimate state aim and should not be either

disproportionate or excessive in their encroachment on individual liberties.

285 Mobile technology has become a ubiquitous feature of our age. Mobile

phones are not just instruments to facilitate a telephone conversation. They

are a storehouse of data reflecting upon personal preferences, lifestyles and

individual choices. They bear upon family life, the workplace and personal

intimacies. The conflation of biometric data with SIM cards is replete with

grave dangers to personal autonomy. A constitution based on liberal values

cannot countenance an encroachment of this nature. The decision to link

Aadhaar numbers to SIM cards and to enforce a regime of e-KYC

authentication clearly does not pass constitutional muster and must stand

invalidated. All TSPs shall be directed by the Union government and by TRAI

to forthwith delete the biometric data and Aadhaar details of all subscribers

394 PART I

within two weeks. The above data and Aadhaar details shall not be used or

purveyed by any TSP or any other person or agency on their behalf for any

purpose whatsoever.

I Money laundering rules

286 Parliament enacted a law on money-laundering as part of a concerted

effort by the international community to deal with activities which constitute a

threat to financial systems and to the integrity and sovereignty of nations. The

Statement of Objects and Reasons accompanying the introduction of the Bill

contains an elucidation of the reasons for the enactment:

“Introduction Money-laundering poses a serious threat not only to the financial systems of countries, but also to their integrity and sovereignty. To obviate such threats international community has taken some initiatives. It has been felt that to prevent money-laundering and connected activities a comprehensive legislation is urgently needed. To achieve this objective the Prevention of Money-laundering Bill, 1998 was introduced in the Parliament. The Bill was referred to the Standing Committee on Finance, which presented its report on 4th March 1999 to the Lok Sabha. The Central Government broadly accepted the recommendation of the Standing Committee and incorporated them in the said Bill along with some other desired changes.

Statement of Objects and Reasons It is being realized, world over, that money-laundering poses a serious threat not only to the financial systems of countries, but also to their integrity and sovereignty. Some of the initiatives taken by the international community to obviate such threat are outlined below:-

(a) the United Nations Convention Against Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances, to which India is a party, calls for prevention of laundering of proceeds of drug crimes and other connected activities and confiscation of proceeds derived from such offence.

(b) the Basle Statement of Principles, enunciated in 1989, outlined basic policies and procedures that banks should

395 PART I

follow in order to assist the law enforcement agencies in tackling the problem of money laundering.

(c) the Financial Action Task Force established at the summit of seven major industrial nations, held in Paris from 14th to 16th July 1989, to examine the problem of money-

laundering has made forty recommendations, which provide the foundation material for comprehensive legislation to combat the problem of money-laundering. The recommendations were classified under various heads. Some of the important heads are-

(i) declaration of laundering of monies carried through serious crimes a criminal offence;

(ii) to work out modalities of disclosure by financial institutions regarding reportable transactions;

(iii) confiscation of the proceeds of crime;

(iv) declaring money-laundering to be an extraditable offence; and

(v) promoting international co-operation in investigation of money-laundering.

(d) the Political Declaration and Global Programme of Action adopted by United Nations General Assembly by its Resolution No. S-17/2 of 23rd February 1990, inter alia, calls upon the member States to develop mechanism to prevent financial institutions from being used for laundering of drug related money and enactment of legislation to prevent such laundering.

(e) the United Nations in the Special Session on countering World Drug Problem Together concluded on the 8th to the 10th June 1998 has made another declaration regarding the need to combat money-laundering. India is a signatory to this declaration.”

287 The expressions “beneficial owner, reporting entity and intermediary”

are defined respectively in clauses (fa), (wa) and (n) of the Act thus:

“(fa) “beneficial owner” means an individual who ultimately owns or controls a client of a reporting entity or the person on whose behalf a transaction is being conducted and includes a person who exercises ultimate effective control over a juridical person.

(wa) “reporting entity” means a banking company, financial institution, intermediary or a person carrying on a designated business or profession.

(n) “intermediary” means,-

(i) a stock-broker, sub-broker share transfer agent, banker to an issue, trustee to a trust deed, registrar to an issue,

396 PART I

merchant banker, underwriter, portfolio manager, investment adviser or any other intermediary associated with securities market and registered under section 12 of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 (15 of 1992); or

(ii) an association recognised or registered under the Forward Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1952 (74 of 1952) or any member of such association; or

(iii) intermediary registered by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority; or

(iv) a recognised stock exchange referred to in clause (f) of section 2 of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 (42 of 1956).”

The Prevention of Money-Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules 2005

were amended by the Prevention of Money-Laundering (Maintenance of

Records) Second Amendment Rules 2017. By the amendment, several

definitions were introduced with reference to the provisions of the Aadhaar

Act. These are:

“‘(aaa) “Aadhaar number” means an identification number as defined under sub-section (a) of section 2 of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016;

(aab) “authentication” means the process as defined under sub-section (c) of section 2 of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016;

(aac) “Resident” means an individual as defined under sub-

section (v) of section 2 of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016;

(aad) “identity information” means the information as defined in sub-section (n) of section 2 of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016;

(aae) “e – KYC authentication facility” means an authentication facility as defined in Aadhaar (Authentication) Regulations, 2016;

(aaf) “Yes/No authentication facility” means an authentication facility as defined in Aadhaar (Authentication) Regulations, 2016…”

397 PART I

Similarly, the expression “officially valid document” was amended to read as

follows:

“(d) “officially valid document” means the passport, the driving licence, the Permanent Account Number (PAN) Card, the Voter’s Identity Card issued by [Election Commission of India, job card issued by NREGA duly signed by an officer of the State Government, the letter issued by the Unique Identification Authority of India containing details of name, address and Aadhaar number or any other document as notified by the Central Government in consultation with the [Regulator]:

[Provided that where simplified measures are applied for verifying the identity of the clients the following documents shall be deemed to be officially valid documents:-

(a) identity card with applicant’s Photograph issued by the Central/State Government Departments, Statutory/ Regulatory Authorities, Public Sector Undertakings, Scheduled Commercial Banks and Public Financial Institutions;

(b) letter issued by a gazette officer, with a duly attested photograph of the person].”

288 Rule 9 of the 2005 Rules requires every reporting entity to carry out

client due diligence at the time of the commencement of an account-based

relationship. Due diligence requires a verification of the identity of the client

and a determination of whether the client is acting on behalf of a beneficial

owner, who then has to be identified. Rule 9(3) defines the expression

“beneficial owner” for the purpose of sub-rule 1. Rule 9(4) requires an

individual client to submit an Aadhaar number. Rule 9(3) and Rule 9(4) are

extracted below:

“9. Client Due Diligence.—(1) Every reporting entity shall— xxxxx xxxxx (3) The beneficial owner for the purpose of sub-rule (1) shall be determined as under—

(a) where the client is a company, the beneficial owner is the natural person(s), who, whether acting alone or

398 PART I

together, or through one or more juridical person, has a controlling ownership interest or who exercises control through other means.

Explanation.—For the purpose of this sub-clause-

1. "Controlling ownership interest" means ownership of or entitlement to more than twenty-five per cent. of shares or capital or profits of the company;

2. "Control" shall include the right to appoint majority of the directors or to control the management or policy decisions including by virtue of their shareholding or management rights or shareholders agreements or voting agreements;

(b) where the client is a partnership firm, the beneficial owner is the natural person(s) who, whether acting alone or \ together, or through one or more juridical person, has I ownership of/ entitlement to more than fifteen per cent. of capital or profits of the partnership;

(c) where the client is an unincorporated association or body of individuals, the beneficial owner is the natural person(s), who, whether acting alone or together, or through one or more juridical person, has ownership of or entitlement to more than fifteen per cent. of the property or capital or profits of such association or body of individuals;

(d) where no natural person is identified under (a) or (b) or (c) above, the beneficial owner is the relevant natural person who holds the position of senior managing official;

(e) where the client is a trust, the identification of beneficial owner(s) shall include identification of the author of the trust, the trustee, the beneficiaries with fifteen per cent. or more interest in the trust and any other natural person exercising ultimate effective control over the trust through a chain of control or ownership; and

(f) where the client or the owner of the controlling interest is a company listed on a stock exchange, or is a subsidiary of such a company, it is not necessary to identify and verify the identity of any shareholder or beneficial owner of such companies.

(4) Where the client is an individual, who is eligible to be enrolled for an Aadhaar number, he shall for the purpose of sub-rule (1) submit to the reporting entity, -

(a) the Aadhaar number issued by the Unique Identification Authority of India; and

(b) the Permanent Account Number or Form No. 60 as defined in Income-tax Rules, 1962, and such other documents including in respect of the nature of business and financial status of the client as may be required by the reporting entity:

Provided that where an Aadhaar number has not been assigned to a client, the client shall furnish proof of application of enrolment for Aadhaar and in case the

399 PART I

Permanent Account Number is not submitted, one certified copy of an 'officially valid document' shall be submitted. Provided further that photograph need not be submitted by a client falling under clause (b) of sub-rule (1).” (Emphasis supplied)

Sub-rule 15 of Rule 9 requires the reporting entity to carry out authentication

at the time of receipt of the Aadhaar number:

“(15) Any reporting entity, at the time of receipt of the Aadhaar number under provisions of this rule, shall carry out authentication using either e-KYC authentication facility or Yes/No authentication facility provided by Unique Identification Authority of India.”

Sub-rule 17 allows a period of six months for a client who is eligible to be

enrolled for Aadhaar and to obtain a PAN to submit it upon the

commencement of the account-based relationship. Failure to do so, would

result in the account ceasing to be operational until the Aadhaar number and

PAN are submitted. Clauses a and c of sub-rule 17 provide as follows :

“(17) (a) In case the client, eligible to be enrolled for Aadhaar and obtain a Permanent Account Number, referred to in sub- rules (4) to (9) of rule 9 does not submit the Aadhaar number or the Permanent Account Number at the time of commencement of an account based relationship with a reporting entity, the client shall submit the same within a period of six months from the date of the commencement of the account based relationship:

Provided that the clients, eligible to be enrolled for Aadhaar and obtain the Permanent Account Number, already having an account based relationship with reporting entities prior to date of this notification, the client shall submit the Aadhaar number and Permanent Account Number by 31st December, 2017.

(c) In case the client fails to submit the Aadhaar number and Permanent Account Number within the aforesaid six months period, the said account shall cease to be operational till the time the Aadhaar number and Permanent Account Number is submitted by the client:

400 PART I

Provided that in case client already having an account based relationship with reporting entities prior to date of this notification fails to submit the Aadhaar number and Permanent Account Number by 31st December, 2017, the said account shall cease to be operational till the time the Aadhaar number and Permanent Account Number is submitted by the client.”

289 The statutory mandate for the framing these rules is contained in

Sections 12, 15 and 73 of the PMLA. Insofar as is material, Section 12

provides as follows:

“12. Reporting entity to maintain records:- (1) Every reporting entity shall-

(a) maintain a record of all transactions, including information relating to transactions covered under clause (b), in such manner as to enable it to reconstruct individual transactions;

(b) furnish to the Director within such time as may be prescribed, information relating to such transactions, whether attempted or executed, the nature and value of which may be prescribed;

(c) verify the identity of its clients in such manner and subject to such conditions, as may be prescribed;

(d) identify the beneficial owner, if any, of such of its clients, as may be prescribed;

(e) maintain record of documents evidencing identity of its clients and beneficial owners as well as account files and business correspondence relating to its clients.

(2) Every information maintained, furnished or verified, save as otherwise provided under any law for the time being in force, shall be kept confidential.

(3) The records referred to in clause (a) of sub-section (1) shall be maintained for a period of five years from the date of transaction between a client and the reporting entity. (4) The records referred to in clause (e) of sub-section (1) shall be maintained for a period of five years after the business relationship between a client and the reporting entity has ended or the account has been close, whichever is later.

(5) The Central Government may, by notification, exempt any reporting entity or class of reporting entities from any obligation under this Chapter.” (Emphasis supplied)

401 PART I

Section 12 imposes a statutory obligation on reporting entities to maintain

records and to verify the identity of their clients and beneficial owners in the

manner prescribed. The procedure for and manner in which information is

furnished by reporting entities is specified under sub-section 1 of Section 12

by the Central Government in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India.

Section 15 provides as follows:

“15. Procedure and manner of furnishing information by reporting entities:-

The Central Government may, in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India, prescribe the procedure and the manner of maintaining and furnishing information by a reporting entity under sub-section (1) of Section 12 for the purpose of implementing the provisions of this Act.” (Emphasis supplied)

The rule making power is referable to the provisions of Section 73, which

insofar as is material, provides as follows:

“73. Power to make rules-

(1) The Central Government may, by notification, make rules for carrying out the provisos of this Act.

(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power, such rules may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely-

(j) the manner and the conditions in which identity of clients shall be verified by the reporting entities under clause (c) of sub-section (1) of Section 12; (jj) the manner of identifying beneficial owner, if any, from the clients by the reporting entities under clause (d) of sub-section (1) of Section 12;

(k) the procedure and the manner of maintaining and furnishing information under sub-section (1) of Section 12 as required under Section 15;

(x) any other matter which is required to be, or may be, prescribed.”

Section 12(1)(c) requires the reporting entity to verify the identity of its clients

“in such manner and subject to such conditions” as may be prescribed. The

402 PART I

provisions of the rules, including sub-rule 17(c) of Rule 9 have been

challenged on the ground that they suffer from the vice of excessive

delegation.

290 In Bombay Dyeing and Mfg v Bombay Environmental Action

Group537, this Court has re-affirmed the well-settled legal test which

determines the validity of delegated legislation. The court held:

“104…By reason of any legislation, whether enacted by the legislature or by way of subordinate legislation, the State gives effect to its legislative policy. Such legislation, however, must not be ultra vires the Constitution. A subordinate legislation apart from being intra vires the Constitution, should not also be ultra vires the parent Act under which it has been made. A subordinate legislation, it is trite, must be reasonable and in consonance with the legislative policy as also give effect to the purport and object of the Act and in good faith.”

The essential legislative function consists in the determination of legislative

policy and of formally enacting it into a binding rule of conduct. Once this is

carried out by the legislature, ancillary or subordinate functions can be

delegated. Having laid down legislative policy, the legislation may confer

discretion on the executive to work out the details in the exercise of the rule

making power, though, in a manner consistent with the plenary enactment (J

K Industries Ltd v Union of India538).

291 The Reserve Bank of India had issued a Master Circular dated 25

February 2016 in exercise of its statutory powers under Section 35A of the 537 (2006) 3 SCC 434 538 (2007) 13 SCC 673

403 PART I

Banking Regulation Act 1949 (read with Section 56) and Rule 9(14) of the

Prevention of Money-Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules 2005.

Following the amendment of the PMLA Rules, the Master Circular of the

Reserve Bank has been updated on 20 April 2018.

The basic issue which needs to be addressed is whether the amendments

which were brought about to the PMLA Rules in 2017 meet the test of

proportionality.

292 In 2005, the Central Government in consultation with the Reserve Bank

of India notified the Prevention of Money-Laundering (Maintenance of

Records) Rules 2005 under Section 73 of the parent Act. The expression

‘officially valid document’ was defined in Rule 2(d) in the following terms :

“(d) “officially valid document” means the passport, the driving licence, the Permanent Account Number (PAN) Card, the Voter’s Identity Card issued by539 [Election Commission of India, job card issued by NREGA duly signed by an officer of the State Government, the letter issued by the Unique Identification Authority of India540 [or the National Population Register] containing details of name, address and Aadhaar number or any other document as notified by the Central Government in consultation with the [Regulator];”

Rule 9(4) required the submission to the reporting entity, where the client is an

individual, a certified copy of an officially valid document containing details of

identity and address. Rule 9(4) read as follows :

“(4) Where the client is an individual, he shall for the purpose of sub-rule (1), submit to the reporting entity, one certified

539 Substituted by G.S.R. 980(E), dated 16-12-2010 (w.e.f. 16-12-2010) 540 Inserted by G.S.R. 544(E)

404 PART I

copy of an “officially valid document” containing details of his identity and address, one recent photograph and such other documents including in respect of the nature of business and financial status of the client as may be required by the reporting entity:”

Under Rule 9(14), the regulator was empowered to issue guidelines, in terms

of the provisions of the rule, and to prescribe enhanced or simplified measures

to verify the identity of a client, taking into consideration the type of client,

business relationship, and the nature and value of transactions based on the

overall money-laundering and terrorist financing risks involved. Under the

above rules there were six ‘officially valid documents’ : the passport, driving

licence, Permanent Account Number (PAN) Card, NREGA job card, Voter’s

Identity Card and a letter of UIDAI containing details of name, address and

details of Aadhaar number. or any other document notified by the Central

Government in consultation with the Regulator.

293 In the Master Circular issued by the Reserve Bank of India on 25

February 2016, a provision was made for the submission by customers, at

their option, of one of the six officially valid documents (OVDs) for proof of

identity and address. Rule 3(vi) defined the expression ‘officially valid

document’ in similar terms:

“(vi) “officially valid document” means the passport, the driving licence, the Permanent Account Number (PAN) Card, the Voter’s Identity Card issued by the Election Commission of India, job card issued by NREGA duly signed by an officer of the State Government, letter issued by the Unique Identification Authority of India containing details of name, address and Aadhaar number.

405 PART I

Explanation: Customers, at their option, shall submit one of the six OVDs for proof of identity and proof of address.”

Customer due diligence and on-going due diligence were defined thus:

“Customer Due Diligence (CDD)” means indemnifying and verifying the customer and the beneficial owner using ‘Officially Valid Documents’ as a ‘proof of identity’ and a ‘proof of address’.

“On-going Due Diligence” means regular monitoring of transactions in accounts to ensure that they are consistent with the customers’ profile and source of funds.”

294 Chapter III of the Master Circular provided for regulated entities

(including banks) to specify a customer acceptance policy. Clause 15 of the

Master Circular inter alia specified that customers shall not be required to

furnish additional OVDs if the OVD already submitted, contained both proof of

identity and address. Chapter VI which provided for a due diligence procedure

allowed customers to submit one of the six OVDs for proof of identity and

address. Under Part V of Chapter VI, banks were required to conduct on-

going due diligence particularly in regard to large and complex transactions

above a threshold. Clause 39 of the Circular provided for a partial freezing and

closure of accounts:

“39. Partial freezing and closure of accounts

(a) Where REs are unable to comply with the CDD requirements mentioned at Part I to V above, they shall not open accounts, commence business relations or perform transactions. In case of existing business relationship which is not KYC compliant, banks shall ordinarily take step to terminate the existing business relationship after giving due notice.

(b) As an exception to the Rule, banks shall have an option to choose not to terminate business relationship straight away and instead opt for a phased closure of operations in this account as explained below:

406 PART I

i. The option of ‘partial freezing’ shall be exercise after giving due notice of three months to the customers to comply with KYC requirements. ii. A reminder giving a further period of three months shall also be given.

iii. Thereafter, ‘partial freezing’ shall be imposed by allowing credits and disallowing all debits with the freedom to close the accounts in case of the account being KYC non-compliant after six months of issue first notice.

iv. All debits and credits from/to the accounts shall be disallowed, in case of the account being KYC non- compliant after six months of imposing ‘partial freezing’, v. The account holders shall have the option, to revive their accounts by submitting the KYC documents.

(c) When an account is closed whether without ‘partial freezing’ or after ‘partial freezing’, the reason for that shall be communicated to account holder.”

Chapter VIII provided for reporting requirements to the Financial Intelligence

Unit. Chapter IX dealt with compliance with requirements/obligations under

international agreements. Clause 58 of Chapter X stipulated reporting

requirements under the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) and

Common Reporting Standards (CRS).

295 As a result of the amendment to the Rules brought about in 2017, Rule

9(4) mandates that in the case of a client who is an individual, who is eligible

to be enrolled for an Aadhaar number, submission of the Aadhaar number is

mandatory. Instead of furnishing an option to submit one of six OVDs,

submission of Aadhaar number alone is mandated. Where an Aadhaar

number has not been assigned, proof of an application for enrolment is

required to be submitted. Under Rule 9(15), the reporting entity at the time of

407 PART I

receipt of an Aadhaar number is under an obligation to carry out

authentication using either the e-KYC authentication facility or the yes/no

authentication provided by UIDAI. If a client who is eligible to be enrolled for

Aadhaar and to obtain a PAN card does not submit its details while

commencing an account based relationship, there is a period of six months

reserved for submission. Those who already have accounts are required to

submit their Aadhaar numbers by a stipulated date. Failure to do so, renders

the account subject to the consequence that it shall cease to be operational

until compliance is effected.

Following the amendments to the rules, the Reserve Bank has updated its

Master Circular on 20 April 2018 to bring it into conformity with the amended

rules.

296 In deciding whether the amendment brought about in 2017 to the rules

is valid, it is necessary to bear in mind what has already been set out earlier

on the aspect of proportionality. Does the requirement of the submission or

linking of an Aadhaar number to every account- based relationship satisfy the

test of proportionality?

The state has a legitimate aim in preventing money-laundering. In fact, it is

with a view to curb and deal with money-laundering that the original version of

the Master Circular as well as its updated version impose conditions for initial

408 PART I

and on-going due diligence. The Reserve Bank has introduced several

reporting requirements including those required to comply with FATCA norms.

The existence of a legitimate state aim satisfies only one element of

proportionality. In its submissions, the Union government has dealt only with

legitimate aim, leaving the other elements of proportionality unanswered.

Requiring every client in an account based relationship to link the Aadhaar

number with a bank account and to impose an authentication requirement, is

excessive to the aim and object of the state. There can be no presumption

that all existing account holders as well as every individual who seeks to open

an account in future is a likely money-launderer. The type of client, the nature

of the business relationship, the nature and value of the transactions and the

terrorism and laundering risks involved may furnish a basis for distinguishing

between cases and clients. The rules also fail to make a distinction between

opening an account and operating an account. If an account has been opened

in the past, it would be on the basis of an established identity. The

consequences of the non-submission of an Aadhaar number are draconian.

Non-submission within the stipulated period will result in a consequence of the

account ceasing to be operational. A perfectly genuine customer who is

involved in no wrongdoing would be deprived of the use of the moneys and

investments reflected in the account, in violation of Article 300A of the

Constitution purely on an assumption that he or she has indulged in money-

laundering. The classification is over-inclusive: a uniform requirement of such

a nature cannot be imposed on every account based relationship irrespective

409 PART I

of the risks involved to the financial system. The account of a pensioner or of

a salaried wage earner cannot be termed with the same brush as a high net-

worth individual with cross-border inflows and outflows. Treating every

account holder with a highly intrusive norm suffers from manifest arbitrariness.

Moreover, there is no specific provision in the Act warranting a consequence

of an account holder being deprived of the moneys standing in the account,

even if for a temporary period. Section 12(1)(c) empowers a reporting entity

to verify the entity or its client in such a manner and “subject to such

conditions” as may be prescribed. This does not envisage a consequence of

an account ceasing to be operational. Blocking an account is a deprivation of

property under Article 300A. The Union Government has been unable to

discharge the burden of establishing that this was the least intrusive means of

achieving its aim to prevent money-laundering or that its object would have

been defeated if it were not to impose the requirement of a compulsory linking

of Aadhaar numbers with all account based relationships with the reporting

entity. Money-laundering is indeed a serious matter and the Union

Government is entitled to take necessary steps including by classifying

transactions and sources which give rise to reasonable grounds for suspecting

a violation of law. But, to impose a uniform requirement of linking Aadhaar

numbers with all account based relationships is clearly disproportionate and

excessive. It fails to meet the test of proportionality and suffers from manifest

arbitrariness. While we have come to the above conclusion, we clarify that this

would not preclude the Union Government in the exercise of its rule making

410 PART J

power and the Reserve Bank of India as the regulator to re-design the

requirements in a manner that would ensure due fulfillment of the object of

preventing money-laundering, subject to compliance with the principles of

proportionality as outlined in this judgment.

J Savings in Section 59 297 Section 59 of the Aadhaar Act provides:

“Anything done or any action taken by the Central Government under the Resolution of the Government of India, Planning Commission bearing notification number A- 43011/02/2009-Admin. I, dated the 28th January, 2009, or by the Department of Electronics and Information Technology under the Cabinet Secretariat Notification bearing notification number S.O. 2492(E), dated the 12th September, 2015, as the case may be, shall be deemed to have been validly done or taken under this Act.”

298 The petitioners have submitted that all acts done pursuant to the

Notifications dated 28 January 2009 and 12 September 2015, under which the

Aadhaar programme was created and implemented, violate fundamental

rights and were not supported by the authority of law. It has been submitted

that the collection, storage and use of personal data by the State and private

entities, which was done in a legislative vacuum as the State failed to enact

the Aadhaar Act for six years, is now being sought to be validated by Section

59. It has been contended that since the acts done prior to the enactment of

the Aadhaar Act are in breach of fundamental rights, Section 59 is invalid.

Moreover, Section 59 does not operate to validate the collection of biometric

data prior to the enforcement of the Aadhaar Act.

411 PART J

It has been submitted that a validating law must remove the cause of invalidity

of previous acts: it would not be effective if it simply deems a legal

consequence without amending the law from which the consequence could

follow. In the present case, it has been contended, Section 59 does not create

a legal fiction where the Aadhaar Act is deemed to have been in existence

since 2009 and that it only declares a legal consequence of the acts done by

the Union since 2009.

It has also been submitted that Section 59 is invalid and unconstitutional

inasmuch as for Aadhaar enrolments done before 2016, there was neither

informed consent nor were any procedural guarantees and safeguards

provided under a legal framework. Section 59, it is contended, cannot cure the

absence of consent and other procedural safeguards, provided under the

Aadhaar Act, to the enrolments done prior to the enactment of the Act.

299 The respondents have submitted that Section 59 protects the actions

taken by the Central government. It does not contemplate the maintenance of

any data base, containing identity information, by the State governments. The

State governments, it is urged, have destroyed the biometric data collected

during Aadhaar enrolments before the Act came into force, from their server.

It has been contended that Section 59 is retrospective in nature as it states

that it shall operate from an earlier date.

412 PART J

The Respondents have relied upon the judgments of this Court in West

Ramnad Electric Distribution Co. Ltd. v State of Madras541 (“West

Ramnad”), State of Mysore v D. Achiah Chetty, Etc542 (“Chetty”), and Hari

Singh v Military Estate Officer543 (“Hari Singh”) to contend that the

legislature can, by retrospective operation, cure the invalidity of actions taken

under a law which is void for violating fundamental rights.

It has also been contended that before the advent of the Aadhaar Act, no

individual has been enrolled under compulsion, and since all enrolments were

voluntary, they cannot be considered to be in breach of Article 21 or any other

fundamental right. It is further submitted that non-adjudication of the issue of

whether collection of identity information violates the right to privacy, does not

prevent the Parliament from enacting a validating clause. Reliance has also

been placed on State of Karnataka v State of Tamil Nadu544 to submit that

Section 59 creates a deemed fiction as a result of which one has to imagine

that all actions taken under the notifications were taken under the Act.

300 Section 7 provides that the Central Government or the State

Governments may require proof of an Aadhaar number as a necessary

condition for availing a subsidy, benefit or service for which the expenditure is

incurred from the Consolidated Fund of India. Section 3 provides that the

Aadhaar number shall consist of demographic and biometric information of an 541 (1963) 2 SCR 747 542 (1969) 1 SCC 248 543 (1972) 2 SCC 239 544 (2017) 3 SCC 362

413 PART J

individual. “Biometric information”, under Section 2(g), means a photograph,

finger print, Iris scan, or such other biological attributes of an individual as

may be specified by regulations. Section 4(3) provides that an Aadhaar

number may be used as a proof of identity “for any purpose”. Section 57

authorizes a body corporate or person to use the Aadhaar number for

establishing the identity of an individual “for any purpose”. The proviso to

Section 57 provides that the use of an Aadhaar number under the Section

shall be subject to the procedure and obligations under Section 8 and Chapter

VI of the Act. Section 8 sets out the procedure for authentication. It states that

for authentication, a requesting entity shall obtain the consent of an individual

before collecting identity information and shall ensure that the identity

information is only used for submission to the Central Identities Data

Repository for authentication. It does not envisage collection of identity

information for any other purpose. Chapter VI of the Act, which deals with

protection of information, provides for security and confidentiality of identity

information collected under the Act, imposes restrictions on sharing that

information and classifies biometrics as sensitive personal information.

301 The scheme of the Aadhaar Act creates a system of identification

through authentication of biometric information and authorises the Central and

State governments to assign the task of collecting individual biometric

information for the purpose of generation of Aadhaar numbers to private

entities. The Act authorises the use of Aadhaar numbers by the Central

414 PART J

government, state governments and the private entities for establishing the

identity of a resident for any purpose. The Act also contains certain

safeguards regarding storage and use of biometric information. The actions

taken before the enactment of the Aadhaar Act have to be tested upon the

touchstone of the legal framework provided under the Act.

302 Section 59 is a validating provision. It seeks to validate all the actions of

the Central Government prior to the Aadhaar Act, which were done under the

notifications of 28 January 2009 and 12 September 2015. Section 59 does not

validate actions of the state governments or of private entities. Acts

undertaken by the State governments and by private entities are not saved by

Section 59.

303 The Planning Commission’s notification dated 28 January 2009 created

UIDAI, while giving it the responsibility of laying down a plan and policies to

implement a unique identity (UID) scheme. UIDAI was only authorized to own

and operate the UID database, with a further responsibility for the updation

and maintenance of the database on an ongoing basis. Significantly, the 2009

notification did not contain any reference to the use of biometrics for the

purpose of the generation of Aadhaar numbers. The notification gave no

authority to collect biometrics. Biometrics, finger prints or iris scans were not

within its purview. There was no mention of the safeguards and measures

relating to the persons or entities who would collect biometric data, how the

415 PART J

data would be collected and how it would be used. The website of the Press

Information Bureau of the Government of India states that, by the time

Aadhaar Act was notified by the Central government, UIDAI had generated

about 100 crore Aadhaar numbers.545 The collection of biometrics from

individuals prior to the enactment of the Aadhaar Act does not fall within the

scope of the 2009 notification. Having failed to specify finger prints and iris

scans in the notification, the validating provision does not extend to the

collection of biometric data before the Act. The 2009 notification did not

provide authority to any government department or to any entity to collect

biometrics. Since the collection of biometrics was not authorised by the 2009

notification, Section 59 of the Aadhaar Act does not validate these actions.

304 The collection of the biometrics of individuals impacts their privacy and

dignity. Informed consent is crucial to the validity of a state mandated

measure to collect biometric data. Encroachment on a fundamental right

requires the enacting of a valid law by the legislature.546 The law will be valid

only if it meets the requirements of permissible restrictions relating to each of

the fundamental rights on which there is an encroachment. Privacy animates

Part III of the Constitution.547 The invasion of any right flowing from privacy

places a heavy onus upon the State to justify its actions. Nine judges of this

545Press Information Bureau, UIDAI generates a billion (100 crore) Aadhaars A Historic Moment for India, available at http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=138555 546A Constitution Bench of this Court in State of Madhya Pradesh v. Thakur Bharat Singh (AIR 1967 SC 1170)

held: “All executive action which operates to the prejudice of any person must have the authority of law to support it… Every Act done by the Government or by its officers must, if it is to operate to the prejudice of any person, be supported by some legislative authority.” 547Puttaswamy, at para 272

416 PART J

Court in Puttaswamy categorically held that there must be a valid law in

existence to encroach upon the right to privacy. An executive notification does

not satisfy the requirement of a valid law contemplated in Puttaswamy. A

valid law, in this case, would mean a law enacted by Parliament, which is just,

fair and reasonable. Any encroachment upon the fundamental right to privacy

cannot be sustained by an executive notification.

There is also no merit in the submission of the Respondents that prior to the

enactment of the Aadhaar Act, no individual has been enrolled under

compulsion, and since all enrolments were voluntary, these cannot be

considered to be in breach of Article 21 or any other fundamental right. The

format of the first two enrolment forms used by UIDAI, under which around 90

crore enrolments were done, had no mention of informed consent or the use

of biometrics. Hence, this submission is rejected.

Apart from the existence of a valid law which authorises an invasion of

privacy, Puttaswamy requires that the law must have adequate safeguards

for the collection and storage of personal data. Data protection, which is

intrinsic to privacy, seeks to protect the autonomy of the individual. The

judgment noted the centrality of consent in a data protection regime. The

Aadhaar Act provides certain safeguards in Section 3(2) and Section 8(3) for

the purposes of ensuring informed consent, and in terms of Section 29 read

with Chapter VII in the form of penalties. The safeguards provided under the

417 PART J

Act were not in existence before the enactment of the Act. The collection of

biometrics after the 2009 notification and prior to the Aadhaar Act suffers from

the absence of adequate safeguards. While a legislature has the power to

legislate retrospectively, it cannot retrospectively create a deeming fiction

about the existence of safeguards in the past to justify an encroachment on a

fundamental right. At the time when the enrolments took place prior to the

enactment of the Aadhaar Act in September 2016, there was an absence of

adequate safeguards. Section 59 cannot by a deeming fiction, as it were,

extend the safeguards provided under the Act to the enrolments done earlier.

This will be impermissible simply because the informed consent of those

individuals, whose Aadhaar numbers were generated in that period cannot be

retrospectively legislated by an assumption of law. Moreover, it is a principle

of criminal law that it cannot be applied retrospectively to acts which were not

offences at the time when they took place. Article 20(1) of the Constitution

provides that “No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation

of the law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an

offence”. The application of the criminal provisions of the Act, provided under

Chapter VII of the Act which deals with “Offences and Penalties”, cannot be

extended to the period prior to the enactment of the Aadhaar Act.

305 The Respondents submit that the collection of biometrics prior to the

Aadhaar Act was adequately safeguarded by the provisions of the Information

418 PART J

Technology Act 2000; specifically those provisions, which were inserted or

amended by the Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008.

Section 43A of the Act provides for compensation for failure to protect data:

“Where a body corporate, possessing, dealing or handling any sensitive personal data or information in a computer resource which it owns, controls or operates, is negligent in implementing and maintaining reasonable security practices and procedures and thereby causes wrongful loss or wrongful gain to any person, such body corporate shall be liable to pay damages by way of compensation to the person so affected.

Explanation: For the purposes of this section,-

(i) “body corporate” means any company and includes a firm, sole proprietorship or other association of individuals engaged in commercial or professional activities;

(ii) “reasonable security practices and procedures” means security practices and procedures designed to protect such information from unauthorised access, damage, use, modification, disclosure or impairment, as may be specified in an agreement between the parties or as may be specified in any law for the time being in force and in the absence of such agreement or any law, such reasonable security practices and procedures, as may be prescribed by the Central Government in consultation with such professional bodies or associations as it may deem fit.

(iii) “sensitive personal data or information” means such personal information as may be prescribed by the Central Government in consultation with such professional bodies or associations as it may deem fit.” (Emphasis supplied)

306 Rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security Practices

and Procedures and Sensitive Personal Data or Information) Rules, 2011

made by the Central government under Section 43A, defines “sensitive

personal data or information”:

“Sensitive personal data or information of a person means such personal information which consists of information relating to;—

(i) password;

419 PART J

(ii) financial information such as Bank account or credit card or debit card or other payment instrument details ;

(iii) physical, physiological and mental health condition;

(iv) sexual orientation; (v) medical records and history; (vi) Biometric information;

(vii) any detail relating to the above clauses as provided to body corporate for providing service; and

(viii) any of the information received under above clauses by body corporate for processing, stored or processed under lawful contract or otherwise.

Provided that, any information that is freely available or accessible in public domain or furnished under the Right to Information Act, 2005 or any other law for the time being in force shall not be regarded as sensitive personal data or information for the purposes of these rules.”

Section 66C provides a punishment for identity theft:

“66C. Punishment for identity theft.-

Whoever, fraudulently548 or dishonestly549 make use of the electronic signature, password or any other unique identification feature of any other person, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years and shall also be liable to fine which may extend to rupees one lakh.” (Emphasis supplied)

Section 66E provides for punishment for the violation of the privacy of an

individual:

“Whoever, intentionally or knowingly captures, publishes or transmits the image of a private area of any person without his or her consent, under circumstances violating the privacy of that person, shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to three years or with fine not exceeding two lakh rupees, or with both.”

The explanation to the Section provides that “transmit” means to electronically

send a visual image with the intent that it be viewed by a person or persons.

548Section 25, Indian Penal Code states: ““Fraudulently”.—A person is said to do a thing fraudulently if he does that thing with intent to defraud but not otherwise” 549Section 24, Indian Penal Code states: ““Dishonestly”- Whoever does anything with the intention of causing

wrongful gain to one person or wrongful loss to another person, is said to do that thing “dishonestly”

420 PART J

“Capture”, with respect to an image, has been defined to mean videotaping,

photographing, filming or recording by any means. “Private area” means the

“naked or undergarment clad genitals, pubic area, buttocks or female breast.”

“Publishes” has been defined as reproduction in the printed or electronic form

and making it available for public.

Section 72A provides for punishment for disclosure of information in breach of

a lawful contract:

“Save as otherwise provided in this Act or any other law for the time being in force, any person including an intermediary who, while providing services under the terms of lawful contract, has secured access to any material containing personal information about another person, with the intent to cause or knowing that he is likely to cause wrongful loss or wrongful gain discloses, without the consent of the person concerned, or in breach of a lawful contract, such material to any other person shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years, or with a fine which may extend to five lakh rupees, or with both.” (Emphasis supplied)

Section 43A applies only to bodies corporate and has no application to

government or to its departments. Explanation (i) defines body corporate to

mean any company and to include a firm, sole proprietorship or other

association of individuals engaged in professional or commercial activities.

Personal information leaked or lost by government agencies will not be

covered under Section 43A. The scope of Section 66E is limited. It only deals

with the privacy of the “private area” of any person. It does not deal with

informational privacy. The scope of Section 72A is also limited. It only

penalises acts of disclosing personal information about a person obtained

421 PART J

while providing services under a lawful contract. Section 66C deals with

identity theft and punishes the dishonest or fraudulent use of the unique

identification feature of a person. The Information Technology Act also does

not penalise unauthorised access to the Central Identities Data Repository.

Many of the safeguards which were introduced by the Aadhaar Act were not

comprehended in the provisions of the Information Technology Act. Indeed, it

was the absence of those safeguards in the Information Technology Act which

required their introduction in the Aadhaar Act. Hence, the Attorney General is

not correct in submitting that India operated under a regime of comprehensive

safeguards governing biometric data during the period when the Aadhaar

project was governed by an executive notification, in the absence of a

legislative framework. The absence of a legislative framework rendered the

collection of biometric data vulnerable to serious violations of privacy. There

are two distinct facets here. First, the absence of a legislative framework for

the Aadhaar project between 2009 and 2016 left the biometric data of millions

of Indian citizens bereft of the kind of protection which a law, as envisaged in

Puttaswamy, must provide to comprehensively protect and enforce the right

to privacy. Second, the notification of 2009 does not authorise the collection of

biometric data. Consequently, the validation of actions taken under the 2009

notification by Section 59 does not save the collection of biometric data prior

to the enforcement of the Act. Privacy is of paramount importance. No

invasion of privacy can be allowed without proper, adequate and stringent

422 PART J

safeguards providing not only penalties for misuse or loss of one’s personal

information, but also for protection of that person.

307 The Respondents have relied upon several judgments where this Court

has upheld validating statutes, which, they contend, are similar to Section 59.

The first decision which needs to be discussed is the judgment of the

Constitution Bench in West Ramnad, which dealt with a validating statute of

the Madras Legislature. Act 43 of 1949 of the Madras Legislature which

sought to acquire electricity undertakings in the state was struck down for

want of legislative competence. In the meantime, the Constitution came into

force, and under the Seventh Schedule, the State acquired legislative

competence. A fresh law was enacted in 1954. Section 24 sought to validate

actions done and taken under the 1949 Act. Section 24 provided thus:

“Orders made, decisions or directions given, notifications issued, proceedings taken and acts or things done, in relation to any undertaking taken over, if they would have been validly made, given, issued, taken or done, had the Madras Electricity Supply Undertakings (Acquisition) Act 1949 (Madras Act 43 of 1949), and the rules made thereunder been in force on the date on which the said orders, decisions or directions, notifications, proceeding, acts or things were made, given, issued, taken or done are hereby declared to have been validly made, given, issued, taken or done, as the case may be, except to the extent to which the said orders, decisions, directions, notifications, proceedings, acts or things are repugnant to the provisions of this Act.” (Emphasis supplied)

Section 24 was held to be a provision, which saved and validated actions

validly taken under the provisions of the earlier Act, which was invalid from the

423 PART J

inception. Justice Gajendragadkar, speaking for the Court, interpreted Section

24 thus:

“12. The first part of the section deals, inter alia, with notifications which have been validly issued under the relevant provisions of the earlier Act and it means that if the earlier Act had been valid at the relevant time, it ought to appear that the notifications in question could have been and had in fact been made properly under the said Act. In other words, before any notification can claim the benefit of Section 24, it must be shown that it was issued properly under the relevant provisions of the earlier Act, assuming that the said provisions were themselves valid and in force at that time. The second part of the section provides that the notifications covered by the first part are declared by this Act to have been validly issued; the expression “hereby declared” clearly means “declared by this Act” and that shows that the notifications covered by the first part would be treated as issued under the relevant provisions of the Act and would be treated as validly issued under the said provisions. The third part of the section provides that the statutory declaration about the validity of the issue of the notification would be subject to this exception that the said notification should not be inconsistent with or repugnant to the provisions of the Act. In other words, the effect of this section is that if a notification had been issued properly under the provisions of the earlier Act and its validity could not have been impeached if the said provisions were themselves valid, it would be deemed to have been validly issued under the provisions of the Act, provided, of course, it is not inconsistent with the other provisions of the Act. The section is not very happily worded, but on its fair and reasonable construction, there can be no doubt about its meaning or effect.” (Emphasis supplied)

308 The second decision is a four judge Bench judgment in Chetty, which

dealt with the competence of a legislature to remedy a discriminatory

procedure retrospectively. There were two Acts in Mysore for acquisition of

private land for public purposes − the Mysore Land Acquisition Act, 1894 and

the City of Bangalore Improvement Act, 1945. The respondent challenged a

notification which was issued under the 1894 Act for the acquisition of his land

424 PART J

in Bangalore, on the ground that recourse to the provisions of the Land

Acquisition Act was discriminatory because in other cases the provisions of

the Improvement Act were applied. The High Court accepted the contention,

against which there was an appeal to this Court. During the pendency of the

appeal, the Bangalore Acquisition of Lands (Validation) Act, 1962 was

passed. The 1962 Act contained two provisions. Section 2 provided:

“2. Validation of certain acquisition of lands and proceedings and orders connected therewith.-

(1) Notwithstanding anything contained in the City of Bangalore Improvement Act, 1945 (Mysore Act 5 of 1945), or in any other law, or in any judgment, decree or order of any court:

(a) every acquisition of land for the purpose of improvement, expansion or development of the City of Bangalore or any area to which the City of Bangalore Improvement Act, 1945, extends, made by the State Government acting or purporting to act under the Mysore Land Acquisition Act, 1894 (Mysore Act 7 of 1894), at any time before the commencement of this Act, and every proceeding held, notification issued and order made in connection with the acquisition of land for the said purpose shall be deemed for all purposes to have been validly made, held to issue, as the case may be, and any acquisition proceeding commenced under the Mysore Land Acquisition Act, 1894, for the said purpose before the commencement of this Act but not concluded before such commencement, may be continued under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894 (Central Act 1 of 1894), as extended to the State of Mysore by the Land Acquisition (Mysore Extension and Amendment) Act, 1961, and accordingly no acquisition so made, no proceeding held, no notification issued and no order made by the State Government or by any authority under the Mysore Land Acquisition Act, 1894, or the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, in connection with any such acquisition shall be called in question on the ground that the State Government was not competent to make acquisition of land for the said purpose under the said Act or on any other ground whatsoever;

(b) any land to the acquisition of which the provisions of clause (a) are applicable shall, after it has vested in the State Government, be deemed to have been

425 PART J

transferred, or stand transferred, as the case may be, to the Board of Trustees for the improvement of the City of Bangalore.” (Emphasis supplied)

The Act of 1962 validated all acquisitions made, proceedings held,

notifications issued or orders made under the Mysore Land Acquisition Act

before the validating law came into force. The Validation Act was challenged

on the ground that it was discriminatory to provide two Acts which prescribed

two different procedures under the acquisition laws in the same field. This

Court found that the legislature retrospectively made a single law for the

acquisition of properties and upheld the validating Act. It was held:

“15. If two procedures exist and one is followed and the other discarded, there may in a given case be found discrimination. But the Legislature has still the competence to put out of action retrospectively one of the procedures leaving one procedure only available, namely, the one followed and thus to make disappear the discrimination. In this way a Validating Act can get over discrimination. Where, however, the legislative competence is not available, the discrimination must remain for ever, since that discrimination can only be removed by a legislature having power to create a single procedure out of two and not by a legislature which has not that power.”

309 In West Ramnad, the validation depended upon the condition that a

notification or act ought to have been validly issued or done under the earlier

statute, presuming that the earlier Act was itself valid at that time. In the

present case, there was no earlier law governing the actions of the

government for the collection of biometric data. The Aadhaar Act was notified

in 2016. The Planning Commission’s notification of 2009 and the Ministry of

Information and Technology’s notification of 2015 were not issued under any

426 PART J

statute. Therefore, the validating law in West Ramnad was clearly of a

distinct genre. West Ramnad will be of no assistance to the Union of India.

310 The decision in Chetty in fact brings out the essential attributes of a

validating law. The existence of two legislations governing the field of land

acquisition had been found to be discriminatory and hence violative of Article

14 by the High Court (on the basis of the position in law as it then stood).

During the pendency of the appeal before this Court, the legislature enacted a

validating law which removed the cause for invalidity. The reason the state

law had been invalidated by the High Court was the existence of two laws

governing the same field. This defect was removed. To use the words of this

Court, the legislature “put out of action retrospectively one of the procedures”

as a result of which only one procedure was left in the field. The decision in

Chetty thus brings out the true nature of a validating law. A validating law

essentially removes the deficiency which is found to exist in the earlier

enactment. By curing the defect, it validates actions taken under a previous

enactment.

311 The third judgment of seven judges is in Hari Singh. The

constitutionality of the Public Premises (Eviction of Unauthorised Occupants)

Act, 1958 was challenged on the ground that Section 5(1) contravened Article

14. Section 5(1) conferred power on the Estate Officer to make an order of

eviction against persons who were in unauthorised occupation of public

427 PART J

premises. During the pendency of the appeal before this Court, the Public

Premises (Eviction of Unauthorised Occupants) Act, 1971 was enacted, which

validated all actions taken under the Act of 1958. The constitutional validity of

the 1971 Act was also challenged. Section 20 of the later Act provided:

“Notwithstanding any judgment, decree or order of any court, anything done or any action taken (including rules or orders made, notices issued, evictions ordered or effected, damages assessed, rents or damages or costs recovered and proceedings initiated) or purported to have been done or taken under the Public Premises (Eviction of Unauthorised Occupants) Act, 1958 shall be deemed to be as valid and effective as if such thing or action was done or taken under the corresponding provisions of this Act which, under Sub-section (3) of Section 1 shall be deemed to have come into force on the 16th day of September, 1958 ...” (Emphasis supplied)

The Court held that the legislature has the power to validate actions under an

earlier law by removing its infirmities. In that case, validation was achieved by

enacting the 1971 Act with retrospective effect from 1958 and legislating that

actions taken under the earlier law will be deemed to be as valid and effective

as if they were taken under the 1971 Act. The Court held:

“24. The 1958 Act has not been declared by this Court to be unconstitutional… The arguments on behalf of the appellants therefore proceeded on the footing that the 1958 Act will be presumed to be unconstitutional. It was therefore said that the 1971 Act could not validate actions done under the 1958 Act. The answer is for the reasons indicated above that the Legislature was competent to enact this legislation in 1958 and the Legislature by the 1971 Act has given the legislation full retrospective operation. The Legislature has power to validate actions under an earlier Act by removing the infirmities of the earlier Act. The 1971 Act has achieved that object of validation.”

428 PART J

The Court approved the Constitution Bench decision in West Ramnad:

“16. The ruling of this Court in West Ramnad Electric Distribution Co. Ltd. case establishes competence of the legislature to make laws retrospective in operation for the purpose of validation of action done under an earlier Act which has been declared by a decision of the court to be invalid. It is to be appreciated that the validation is by virtue of the provisions of the subsequent piece of legislation.”

In Hari Singh, the validating Act retrospectively authorised the actions

undertaken under the previous Act, which had been invalidated by a court

decision. The validating law of 1971 was enacted with retrospective effect

from 1958.

312 Reliance was placed by the Respondents on the judgments of this

Court in Jaora Sugar Mills (P) Ltd. v State of Madhya Pradesh550 (Jaora

Sugar Mills), SKG Sugar Ltd. v State of Bihar551 (“SKG Sugar”) and

Krishna Chandra Gangopadhyaya v Union of India552 (“Krishna

Chandra”), to contend that in the case of fiscal legislation, where an

enactment was struck down for violating Article 265 or the fundamental

rights, of a citizen, validating Acts were enacted after removing the flaw and

that in cases where the state Legislature was held to be incompetent to enact

a taxing measure, a validating law was enacted by Parliament by making a

substantive provision.

550 (1966) 1 SCR 523 551 (1974) 4 SCC 827 552 (1975) 2 SCC 302

429 PART J

313 In Jaora Sugar Mills, a state law imposing cess was struck down for

want of legislative competence. Parliament enacted the Sugarcane Cess

(Validation) Act, 1961 to validate the imposition of cess under the invalidated

state law. Section 3(1) of the 1961 Act provided:

“12…Notwithstanding any judgment, decree or order of any Court, all cesses imposed, assessed or collected or purporting to have been imposed, assessed or collected under any State Act before the commencement of this act shall be deemed to have been validly imposed, assessed or collected in accordance with law, as if the provisions of the State Acts and of all notifications, orders and rules issued or made thereunder, in so far as such provisions relate to the imposition, assessment and collection of such cess had been included in and formed part of this section and this section had been in force at all material times when such cess was imposed, assessed or collected; ….” (Emphasis supplied)

The Section was upheld. Speaking for the Constitution Bench, Chief Justice

Gajendragadkar held:

“14... What Parliament has done by enacting the said section is not to validate the invalid State Statutes, but to make a law concerning the cess covered by the said Statutes and to provide that the said law shall come into operation retrospectively. There is a radical difference between the two positions. Where the legislature wants to validate an earlier Act which has been declared to be invalid for one reason or another, it proceeds to remove the infirmity from the said Act and validates its provisions which are free from any infirmity.” (Emphasis supplied)

The state law was held to be invalid for want of legislative competence.

Parliament, which was competent to enact a law on the subject, did so with

retrospective effect and validated actions which were taken under the invalid

state law.

430 PART J

314 In SKG Sugar, a state law - Bihar Sugar Factories Control Act, 1937 -

was declared unconstitutional. In 1969, during President's Rule in Bihar,

Parliament enacted the Bihar Sugarcane (Regulation of Supply and

Purchase) Act, 1969. Section 66(1) of the Act provided:

“12…Notwithstanding any judgment, decree or order of any court, all cesses and taxes imposed, assessed or collected or purporting to have been imposed, assessed or collected under any State law, before the commencement of this Act, shall be deemed to have been validly imposed, assessed or collected in accordance with law as if this Act had been in force at all material times when such cess or tax was imposed, assessed or collected and accordingly....” 553 (Emphasis supplied)

The Constitution Bench held:

“32… By virtue of the legal fiction introduced by the validating provision in Section 66(1), the impugned notification will be deemed to have been issued not necessarily under the Ordinance No. 3 of 1968 but under the President's Act, itself, deriving its legal force and validity directly from the latter.”554

315 In Krishna Chandra, provisions of the Bihar Land Reforms Act, 1950

were struck down for want of legislative competence. Parliament enacted the

Mines and Minerals (Regulation and Development) Act, 1957 to validate those

provisions with retrospective effect. Section 2 provided that:

“1…(2). Validation of certain Bihar State laws and action taken and things done connected therewith.-

(1) The laws specified in the schedule shall be and shall be deemed always to have been, as valid as if the provisions contained therein had been enacted by Parliament.

(2) Notwithstanding any judgment, decree or order of any court, all actions taken, things done, rules made, notifications issued or purported to have been taken, done,

553 Ibid, at page 831 554 Ibid, at page 835

431 PART J

made or issued and rents or royalties realised under any such laws shall be deemed to have been validly taken, done, made, issued or realised, as the case may be, as if this section had been in force at all material times when such action was taken, things were done, rules were, made, notifications were issued, or rents or royalties were realised, and no suit or other proceedings shall be maintained or continued in any court for the refund of rents or royalties realised under any such laws.

(3) For the removal of doubts, it is hereby declared that nothing in Sub-section (2) shall be construed as preventing any person from claiming refund of any rents or royalties paid by him in excess of the amount due from him under any such laws.”555 (Emphasis supplied)

The central issue in the case was whether a statute and a rule earlier

declared to be unconstitutional or invalid, can be retroactively enacted through

fresh validating legislation by the competent Legislature. The Court held that it

could be.

316 Section 59 of the Aadhaar Act is different from the validating provisions

in Jaora Sugar Mills, SKG Sugar and Krishna Chandra. In those cases,

state laws were invalid for want of legislative competence. Parliament, which

undoubtedly possessed legislative competence, could enact a fresh law with

retrospective effect and protect actions taken under the state law. The

infirmity being that the earlier laws were void for absence of competence in

the legislature, the fresh laws cured the defect of the absence of legislative

competence.

555 Ibid, at page 306

432 PART J

317 Parliament and the State Legislatures have plenary power to legislate

on subjects which fall within their legislative competence. The power is

plenary because the legislature can legislate with prospective as well as with

retrospective effect. Where a law suffers from a defect or has been

invalidated, it is open to the legislature to remove the defect. While doing that,

the legislature can validate administrative acts or decisions made under the

invalid law in the past. The true test of a validation is that it must remove the

defects in the earlier law. It is not enough for the validating law to state that

the grounds of invalidity of the earlier law are deemed to have been removed.

The validating law must remove the deficiencies. There were several

deficiencies in the collection of biometric data during the period between 2009

and 2016, before the Aadhaar Act came into force. The first was the absence

of enabling legislation. As a result, the collection of sensitive personal

information took place without the authority of law. Second, the notification of

2009 did not authorize the collection of biometric data. Third, the collection of

biometric data was without an enabling framework of the nature which the

Aadhaar Act put into place with effect from 2016. The Aadhaar Act introduced

a regime for obtaining informed consent, securing the confidentiality of

information collected from citizens, penalties and offences for breach and

regulated the uses to which the data which was collected could be put. In the

absence of safeguards, the collection of biometric data prior of the enactment

of Aadhaar Act 2016 is ultra vires.

433 PART J

318 Section 59 does not remove the cause for invalidity. First, Section 59

protects actions taken under the notification of 2009. The notification does not

authorize the collection of biometric data. Hence, Section 59 would not

provide legal authority for the collection of biometrics between 2009 and 2016.

Second, it was through the Aadhaar Act, that safeguards were sought to be

introduced for ensuring informed consent, confidentiality of information

collected, restrictions on the use of the data and through a regime of penalties

and offences for violation. Section 59 does not cure the absence of these

safeguards between 2009 and 2016. Section 59 fails to meet the test of a

validating law for the simple reason that the absence of safeguards and of a

regulatory framework is not cured merely by validating what was done under

the notifications of 2009 and 2016. There can be no dispute about the

principle that the legislature is entitled to cure the violation of a fundamental

right. But in order to do so, it is necessary to cure the basis or the foundation

on which there was a violation of the fundamental right. The deficiency must

be demonstrated to be cured by the validating law. Section 59 evidently fails

to do so. It fails to remedy the deficiencies in regard to the conditions under

which the collection of biometric data took place before the enforcement of the

Aadhaar Act in 2016.

The Respondents submitted that Section 59 creates a deemed fiction and

cited a few judgments in support of this contention. In Bishambhar Nath

434 PART J

Kohli v State of Uttar Pradesh556, an Ordinance repealed another

Ordinance. Section 58(3) of the repealing Ordinance stated:

“6…The repeal by this Act of the Administration of Evacuee Property Ordinance, 1949 or the Hyderabad Administration of Evacuee Property Regulation or of any corresponding law shall not affect the previous operation of that Ordinance, Regulation or corresponding law, and subject thereto, anything done or any action taken in the exercise of any power conferred by or under that Ordinance, Regulation or corresponding law, shall be deemed to have been done or taken in the exercise of the powers conferred by or under this Act as if this Act were in force on the day on which such thing was done or action was taken.” (Emphasis supplied)

319 A Constitution Bench of this Court held that by virtue of Section 58, all

things done and actions taken under the repealed ordinance are deemed to

be done or taken in exercise of the powers conferred by the repealing Act, as

if that Act were in force on the day on which that thing was done or action was

taken. The things done or actions taken under the repealed ordinance are to

be deemed by fiction to have been done or taken under the repealing Act. The

actions were validated because the Act, in this case, was deemed to be “in

force on the day on which such thing was done or action was taken”. Section

59 of the Aadhaar Act does not create this fiction. The Aadhaar Act does not

come in force on the date on which the actions, which this Section seeks to

validate, were taken.

320 A three judge Bench headed by one of us, Hon’ble Mr Justice Dipak

Misra (as the learned Chief Justice then was) in State of Karnataka v State

556 (1966) 2 SCR 158

435 PART J

of Tamil Nadu557, was dealing with a batch of civil appeals filed against a final

order of the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal constituted under the Inter-

State River Water Disputes Act, 1956. Section 6(2) of the 1956 Act provides:

“72…6(2).The decision of the Tribunal, after its publication in the Official Gazette by the Central Government under Sub- section (1), shall have the same force as an order or decree of the Supreme Court.”558

Relying on Section 6(2), it was contended that the jurisdiction of this Court is

ousted as it cannot sit in appeal on its own decree. The Court did not accept

the submission and held:

“74. The language employed in Section 6(2) suggests that the decision of the tribunal shall have the same force as the order or decree of this Court. There is a distinction between having the same force as an order or decree of this Court and passing of a decree by this Court after due adjudication. The Parliament has intentionally used the words from which it can be construed that a legal fiction is meant to serve the purpose for which the fiction has been created and not intended to travel beyond it. The purpose is to have the binding effect of the tribunal's award and the effectiveness of enforceability. Thus, it has to be narrowly construed regard being had to the purpose it is meant to serve…559

81…it is clear as crystal that the Parliament did not intend to create any kind of embargo on the jurisdiction of this Court. The said provision was inserted to give the binding effect to the award passed by the tribunal. The fiction has been created for that limited purpose.”560 (Emphasis supplied)

The judgment makes it clear that a deeming fiction cannot travel beyond what

was originally intended. As stated earlier, the action of collecting and

authentication of biometrics or the requirement of informed consent finds no

557 (2017) 3 SCC 362 558 Ibid, at page 405 559 Ibid, at page 406 560 Ibid, at page 408

436 PART J

mention in the 2009 notification. Therefore, Section 59 cannot be held to

create a deeming fiction that all the actions taken under the notifications

issued were done under the Act and not under the aforesaid notifications.

321 This Court must also deal with the Respondents’ submission that

Parliament is not debarred from enacting a validation law even though the

Court did not have the opportunity to rule on the validity of the notifications

which are purported by Section 59 to have been validated. The Respondents

have placed reliance on a two judge Bench decision in Amarendra Kumar

Mohapatra v State of Orissa.561 This case involved a challenge to the

constitutional validity of the Orissa Service of Engineers (Validation of

Appointment) Act, 2002 enacted to regularise ad hoc appointments of

employees. The issue before the Court was whether the Orissa Act was in

effect a validation statute to validate any illegality or defect in a pre-existing

Act or rule in existence. The Court held that since the Orissa Act merely

regularised the appointment of graduate Stipendiary Engineers working as ad

hoc Assistant Engineers as Assistant Engineers, it could not be described as

a validating law. It was held the legislation did not validate any such non-

existent act, but simply appointed the ad hoc Assistant Engineers as

substantive employees of the State by resort to a fiction. This Court held:

“31…a prior judicial pronouncement declaring an act, proceedings or rule to be invalid is not a condition precedent for the enactment of a Validation Act. Such a piece of legislation may be enacted to remove even a perceived invalidity, which the Court has had no opportunity to adjudge.

561 (2014) 4 SCC 583

437 PART J

Absence of a judicial pronouncement is not, therefore, of much significance for determining whether or not the legislation is a validating law.”562

The Court further held that:

“25. … when the validity of any such Validation Act is called in question, the Court would have to carefully examine the law and determine whether (i) the vice of invalidity that rendered the act, rule, proceedings or action invalid has been cured by the validating legislation (ii) whether the legislature was competent to validate the act, action, proceedings or rule declared invalid in the previous judgments and (iii) whether such validation is consistent with the rights guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution. It is only when the answer to all these three questions is in the affirmative that the Validation Act can be held to be effective and the consequences flowing from the adverse pronouncement of the Court held to have been neutralised.” (Emphasis supplied)

322 The two judge Bench relied upon the Constitution Bench decision of

this Court in Shri Prithvi Cotton Mills Ltd v Broach Borough

Municipality563 to formulate the following pre-requisites of a piece of

legislation that purports to validate any act, rule, action or proceedings:

“(a) The legislature enacting the Validation Act should be competent to enact the law and;

(b) the cause for ineffectiveness or invalidity of the Act or the proceedings needs to be removed.”

These judgments suggest that while there can be no disagreement with the

proposition that a legislature has the power, within its competence, to make a

law to validate a defective law, the validity of such a law would depend upon

whether it removes the cause of ineffectiveness or invalidity of the previous

562 Ibid, at page 604 563 (1969) 2 SCC 283

438 PART K

Act or proceedings. Parliament has the power to enact a law of validation to

cure an illegality or defect in the pre-existing law, with or without a judicial

determination. But that law should cure the cause of infirmity or invalidity.

Section 59 fails to cure the cause of invalidity prior to the enactment of the

Aadhaar Act.

K Rule of law and violation of interim orders

323 The rule of law is the cornerstone of modern democratic societies and

protects the foundational values of a democracy. When the rule of law is

interpreted as a principle of constitutionalism, it assumes a division of

governmental powers or functions that inhibits the exercise of arbitrary State

power. It also assumes the generality of law: the individual's protection from

arbitrary power consists in the fact that her personal dealings with the State

are regulated by general rules, binding on private citizens and public officials

alike.564

It envisages a fundamental separation of powers among different organs of

the State. Separation of power supports the accountability aspect of the rule of

law. Separation of the judicial and executive powers is an essential feature of

the rule of law. By entrusting the power of judicial review to courts, the

doctrine prevents government officials from having the last word on whether

564T. R. S. Allan, Constitutional Justice: A Liberal Theory of the Rule of Law (2001), available at http://www.oxfordscholarship.com/view/10.1093/acprof:oso/9780199267880.001.0001/acprof-9780199267880- chapter-2

439 PART K

they have acted illegally. The separation of judicial power provides an

effective check on the executive branch.565

324 The concepts of the rule of law and separation of powers have been

integral to Indian constitutional discourse. While both these concepts have not

been specified in as many words in the Constitution, they have received

immense attention from this Court in its judgments. Though the Indian

Constitution does not follow the doctrine of separation of powers in a rigid

sense, the following statement of the law by Chief Justice Mukherjea in Ram

Sahib Ram Jawaya Kapur v State of Punjab566 is widely regarded as

defining the core of its content:

“12…The Indian Constitution has not indeed recognised the doctrine of separation of powers in its absolute rigidity but the functions of the different parts or branches of the Government have been sufficiently differentiated and consequently it can very well be said that our Constitution does not contemplate assumption, by one organ or part of the State, of functions that essentially belong to another...”

Separation of powers envisages a system of checks and balances, which

ensures governance by law and not by the caprice of those to whom

governance is entrusted for the time being. By curbing excesses of power, it

has a direct link with the preservation of institutional rectitude and individual

liberty. In S G Jaisinghani v Union of India567, this Court held that:

“14. In this context it is important to emphasize that the absence of arbitrary power is the first essential of the rule of

565Denise Meyerson, The Rule of Law and the Separation of Powers (2004), available at http://www5.austlii.edu.au/au/journals/MqLJ/2004/1.html 566 (1955) 2 SCR 225 567 (1967) 2 SCR 703

440 PART K

law upon which our whole constitutional system is based. In a system governed by rule of law, discretion, when conferred upon executive authorities, must be confined within clearly defined limits. The rule of law from this point of view means that decisions should be made by the application of known principles and rules and, in general, such decisions should be predictable and the citizen should know where he is. If a decision is taken without any principle or without any rule it is unpredictable and such a decision is the antithesis of a decision taken in accordance with the Rule of law…”

The separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the

judiciary has been declared to be part of the basic structure of the

Constitution. In Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala568, Chief Justice

Sikri held that:

“292…The basic structure may be said to consist of the following features:

(1) Supremacy of the Constitution;

(2) Republican and Democratic form of Government; (3) Secular character of the Constitution; (4) Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary;

(5) Federal character of the Constitution.”569 (Emphasis supplied)

Justice HR Khanna held that the rule of law meant “supremacy of the

Constitution and the laws as opposed to arbitrariness”570. The same view is

expressed in subsequent decisions of this Court.571 In Smt Indira Nehru

Gandhi v Shri Raj Narain572, Chief Justice AN Ray held the rule of law to be

the basis of democracy.

568 (1973) 4 SCC 225 569 Ibid, at page 366 570 Ibid, at para 1529 571Smt. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Shri Raj Narain, 1975 (Supp.) SCC 1; State of Bihar v. Bal Mukund Sah, (2000) 4

SCC 640]; I .R. Coelho (Dead) by L.Rs. v. State of Tamil Nadu, (2007) 2 SCC 1. 572 1975 Supp SCC 1

441 PART K

The functional relationship between separation of powers and the rule of law

was discussed by a Constitution Bench of this Court in State of Tamil Nadu v

State of Kerala573, as follows:

“98. Indian Constitution, unlike the Constitution of United States of America and Australia, does not have express provision of separation of powers. However, the structure provided in our Constitution leaves no manner of doubt that the doctrine of separation of powers runs through the Indian Constitution. It is for this reason that this Court has recognized separation of power as a basic feature of the Constitution and an essential constituent of the rule of law. The doctrine of separation of powers is, though, not expressly engrafted in the Constitution, its sweep, operation and visibility are apparent from the Constitution. Indian Constitution has made demarcation without drawing formal lines between the three organs--legislature, executive and judiciary.”

This Court has consistently held judicial review to be an essential component

of the separation of powers as well as of the rule of law. Judicial review

involves determination not only of the constitutionality of law but also of the

validity of administrative action. It protects the essence of the rule of law by

ensuring that every discretionary power vested in the executive is exercised in

a just, reasonable and fair manner.

325 In a reference574 under Article 143 of the Constitution, a seven judge

Bench held that irrespective of “whether or not there is distinct and rigid

separation of powers under the Indian Constitution”, the judicature has been

entrusted the task of construing the provisions of the Constitution and of

safeguarding the fundamental rights of citizens. It was held:

573 (2014)12 SCC 696 574 (1965) 1 SCR 413

442 PART K

“41…When a statute is challenged on the ground that it has been passed by Legislature without authority, or has otherwise unconstitutionally trespassed on fundamental rights, it is for the courts to determine the dispute and decide whether the law passed by the legislature is valid or not… If the validity of any law is challenged before the courts, it is never suggested that the material question as to whether legislative authority has been exceeded or fundamental rights have been contravened, can be decided by the legislatures themselves. Adjudication of such a dispute is entrusted solely and exclusively to the Judicature of this country…”

In his celebrated dissent in Additional District Magistrate, Jabalpur v

Shivakant Shukla575, Justice HR Khanna, while referring to the rule of law as

the “antithesis of arbitrariness”, held:

“527…Rule of law is now the accepted norm of all civilised societies... [E]verywhere it is identified with the liberty of the individual. It seeks to maintain a balance between the opposing notions of individual liberty and public order. In every State the problem arises of reconciling human rights with the requirements of public interest. Such harmonising can only be attained by the existence of independent courts which can hold the balance between citizen and State and compel Governments to conform to the law.”576

326 Judicial review has been held to be one of the basic features of the

Constitution. A seven judge Bench of this Court, in L Chandra Kumar v

Union of India577, declared:

“78… the power of judicial review over legislative action vested in the High Courts under Article 226 and in the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution is an integral and essential feature of the Constitution, constituting part of its basic structure.”578

575 (1976) 2 SCC 521 576 Ibid, at page 748 577 (1997) 3 SCC 261 578 Ibid, at page 301

443 PART K

The complementary relationship between judicial review, the rule of law and

the separation of powers is integral to working of the Constitution. This Court

in I R Coelho v State of Tamil Nadu579 held thus:

“129… Equality, rule of law, judicial review and separation of powers form parts of the basic structure of the Constitution. Each of these concepts are intimately connected. There can be no rule of law, if there is no equality before the law. These would be meaningless if the violation was not subject to the judicial review. All these would be redundant if the legislative, executive and judicial powers are vested in one organ. Therefore, the duty to decide whether the limits have been transgressed has been placed on the judiciary.”580

Judicial review, by protecting individual rights, promotes the foundational

values of the Constitution and the rule of law. This Court took note of this

aspect in Puttaswamy:

“295. Above all, it must be recognized that judicial review is a powerful guarantee against legislative encroachments on life and personal liberty. To cede this right would dilute the importance of the protection granted to life and personal liberty by the Constitution. Hence, while judicial review in constitutional challenges to the validity of legislation is exercised with a conscious regard for the presumption of constitutionality and for the separation of powers between the legislative, executive and judicial institutions, the constitutional power which is vested in the Court must be retained as a vibrant means of protecting the lives and freedoms of individuals.”581

327 Constitutional adjudication facilitates answers to the silences of the

Constitution. The task of interpretation is to foster the spirit of the Constitution

as much as its text. This role has exclusively been conferred on the Supreme

Court and the High Courts to ensure that its values are not diminished by the

579 (2007) 2 SCC 1 580 Ibid, at page 58 581 Ibid, at page 497

444 PART K

legislature or the executive. Our Court has been conscious of this role. In

Krishna Kumar Singh v State of Bihar582, while dealing with the question

whether an ordinance (promulgated by the Governor) which has a limited life

can bring about consequences for the future (in terms of the creation of rights,

privileges, liabilities and obligations) which will enure beyond its life, a seven

judge Bench held that:

“91…The silences of the Constitution must be imbued with substantive content by infusing them with a meaning which enhances the Rule of law. To attribute to the executive as an incident of the power to frame ordinances, an unrestricted ability to create binding effects for posterity would set a dangerous precedent in a parliamentary democracy. The court's interpretation of the power to frame ordinances, which originates in the executive arm of government, cannot be oblivious to the basic notion that the primary form of law making is through the legislature...”583 (Emphasis supplied)

The Court held that the ordinance making power must be carefully structured

to ensure that it remains what the framers of our Constitution intended it to be:

an exceptional power to meet a constitutional necessity.

328 In a constitutional democracy, the power of government, is defined,

limited, and distributed by the fundamental norms of the Constitution. A

constitutional democracy holds its political regime accountable, responsible, or

answerable for its decisions and actions while in public office. 584 A

582 (2017) 3 SCC 1 583 Ibid, at page 76 584 Almon Leroy Way, Jr., Constitutional Democracy & Other Political Regimes, available at

http://www.proconservative.net/CUNAPolSci201PartTWOA.shtml

445 PART K

constitutional democracy determines the degree and manner of distribution of

political authority among the major organs or parts of the government. The

limits of each institution are set by the Constitution. No institution which has

been created by the Constitution can have absolute power. Separation of

powers, envisaged by the Constitution between different institutions acts as a

check and balance among the institutions and promotes the rule of law by

ensuring that no institution can act in an arbitrary manner. Judicial review as

a part of the basic structure of the Indian Constitution and as an essential

component of the rule of law and separation of powers, is intended to ensure

that every institution acts within its limits. Judicial review promotes

transparency, consistency and accountability in the administration of law, and

notions of equity, justice and fairness585. Constitutionalism thus puts a legal

limitation on the government. It envisages the existence of limited

government. Discretion conferred upon an institution of governance, be it the

legislature or the executive, is confined within clearly defined limits of the

Constitution. Not only are the organs of the State required to operate within

their defined legitimate spheres; they are bound to exercise their powers

within these spheres without violating the Constitution.586 Judicial review is a

sanction and agency to enforce the limitations imposed by the Constitution

upon the authority of the organs of the State.

585In Sheela Barse v. State of Maharashtra ((1983) 2 SCC 96), the Supreme Court insisted on fairness to women in police lock-up and also drafted a code of guidelines for the protection of prisoners in police custody, especially female prisoners. In Veena Sethi v. State of Bihar (AIR 1982 S.C. 1470), the Supreme Court extended the reach of rule of law to the poor who constitute the bulk of India by ruling that rule of law does not merely for those who have the means to fight for their rights and expanded the locus standi principle to help the poor 586Durga Das Basu, Limited Government and Judicial Review, LexisNexis, (2016) at pages 123-124

446 PART K

This formulation of the limited power of political authority has been recognized

in several judgments of this Court. In State of M P v Thakur Bharat Singh587,

a Constitution Bench held:

“5…Our federal structure is founded on certain fundamental principles: (1) the sovereignty of the people with limited Government authority i.e. the Government must be conducted in accordance with the will of the majority of the people. The people govern themselves through their representatives, whereas the official agencies of the executive Government possess only such powers as have been conferred upon them by the people; (2) There is a distribution of powers between the three organs of the State — legislative, executive and judicial — each organ having some check direct or indirect on the other; and (3) the rule of law which includes judicial review of arbitrary executive action…” (Emphasis supplied)

329 In a decision rendered by a Constitution Bench, in S P Sampath Kumar

v Union of India588, Chief Justice P.N. Bhagwati, in his concurring opinion,

held:

“3…It is a fundamental principle of our constitutional scheme that every organ of the State, every authority under the Constitution, derives its power from the Constitution and has to act within the limits of such power. It is a limited government which we have under the Constitution and both the executive and the legislature have to act within the limits of the power conferred upon them under the Constitution… The judiciary is constituted the ultimate interpreter of the Constitution and to it is assigned the delicate task of determining what is the extent and scope of the power conferred on each branch of government, what are the limits on the exercise of such power under the Constitution and whether any action of any branch

587(1967) 2 SCR 454 588 (1987) 1 SCC 124

447 PART K

transgresses such limits. It is also a basic principle of the rule of law which permeates every provision of the Constitution and which forms its very core and essence that the exercise of power by the executive or any other authority must not only be conditioned by the Constitution but also be in accordance with law and it is the judiciary which has to ensure that the law is observed and there is compliance with the requirements of law on the part of the executive and other authorities…”589 (Emphasis supplied)

330 In I R Coelho v State of Tamil Nadu590, a nine judge Bench held that

control over government power ensures that the foundational values of a

democracy are not damaged:

“43…The principle of constitutionalism advocates a check and balance model of the separation of powers; it requires a diffusion of powers, necessitating different independent centres of decision-making… The role of the judiciary is to protect fundamental rights. A modern democracy is based on the twin principles of majority rule and the need to protect fundamental rights. According to Lord Steyn, it is job of the judiciary to balance the principles ensuring that the Government on the basis of number does not override fundamental rights.”

The rule of law is an implied limitation on the authority of any institution in a

constitutional democracy.591

331 Interim orders of courts are an integral element of judicial review.

Interim directions issued on the basis of the prima facie findings in a case are

589 Ibid, at pages 128-129 590 (2007) 2 SCC 1 591 K.T. Plantation (P) Ltd. v. State of Karnataka, (2011) 9 SCC 1

448 PART K

temporary arrangements till the matter is finally decided. Interim orders ensure

that the cause which is being agitated does not become infructuous before the

final hearing.592 The power of judicial review is not only about the writs issued

by superior courts or the striking down of governmental action. Entrustment of

judicial review is accompanied by a duty to ensure that judicial orders are

complied with. Unless orders are enforced, citizens will lose faith in the

efficacy of judicial review and in the legal system.

It is in the background of the above constitutional position that this Court must

deal with the contention that the interim orders passed by this Court, during

the adjudication of the present dispute were not observed. This Court has

consistently insisted, through its interim orders, on a restraint on the

mandatory use of Aadhaar. It has been submitted that the interim orders have

been violated and several contempt petitions are pending593 before this Court.

332 Prior to the enactment of the Aadhaar Act, the scheme was challenged

before this Court. By its interim order dated 23 September 2013 594, a two

judge Bench directed:

“All the matters require to be heard finally. List all matters for final hearing after the Constitution Bench is over. In the meanwhile, no person should suffer for not getting the Aadhaar card in spite of the fact that some authority had issued a circular making it mandatory and when any person applies to get the Aadhaar Card voluntarily, it may be checked whether that person is entitled for it

592State of Assam v. Barak Upatyaka DU Karmachari Sanstha, (2009) 5 SCC 694 593Contempt Petition (Civil) No. 144/2014 in WP (C) No. 494/2012; Contempt Petition (Civil) No. 674/2014 in WP (C) No. 829/2013; Contempt Petition (Civil) No 444/2016 in WP (C) No. 494/2012 594The interim order was in WP (Civil No. 494 of 2012)

449 PART K

under the law and it should not be given to any illegal immigrant.” (sic)

This was followed by an order dated 26 November 2013 where the earlier

order was continued:

“After hearing the matter at length, we are of the view that all the States and Union Territories have to be impleaded as respondents to give effective directions. In view thereof notice be issued to all the States and Union Territories through standing counsel… Interim order to continue, in the meantime.”

While considering another petition, Unique Identification Authority of India

v Central Bureau of Investigation595, this Court directed in an interim order

dated 24 March 2014:

“In the meanwhile, the present petitioner is restrained from transferring any biometric information of any person who has been allotted the Aadhaar number to any other agency without his consent in writing… More so, no person shall be deprived of any service for want of Aadhaar number in case he/she is otherwise eligible/entitled. All the authorities are directed to modify their forms/circulars/likes so as to not compulsorily require the Aadhaar number in order to meet the requirement of the interim order passed by this Court forthwith… Tag and list the matter with main matter i.e. WP(C) No.494/2012.”

On 16 March 2015, while considering WP (Civil) 494 of 2012, this Court noted

a violation of its earlier order dated 23 September 2013 and directed thus:

“The matters require considerable time for hearing… In the meanwhile, it is brought to our notice that in certain quarters, Aadhaar identification is being insisted upon by the various authorities. We do not propose to go into the specific instances. Since Union of India is represented by learned Solicitor General and all the States are represented through their respective counsel, we expect

595 SLP (Crl.) No. 2524/2015 450 PART K

that both the Union of India and States and all their functionaries should adhere to the Order passed by this Court on 23rd September, 2013.”

By an order dated 11 August 2015, a three judge Bench referred the issue as

to whether privacy is a fundamental right to a bench of a larger strength of

judges. The following interim directions were issued:

“Having considered the matter, we are of the view that the balance of interest would be best served, till the matter is finally decided by a larger Bench if the Union of India or the UIDAI proceed in the following manner:-

1. The Union of India shall give wide publicity in the electronic and print media including radio and television networks that it is not mandatory for a citizen to obtain an Aadhaar card;

2. The production of an Aadhaar card will not be condition for obtaining any benefits otherwise due to a citizen;

3. The Unique Identification Number or the Aadhaar card will not be used by the respondents for any purpose other than the PDS Scheme and in particular for the purpose of distribution of foodgrains, etc. and cooking fuel, such as kerosene. The Aadhaar card may also be used for the purpose of the LPG Distribution Scheme;

4. The information about an individual obtained by the Unique Identification Authority of India while issuing an Aadhaar card shall not be used for any other purpose, save as above, except as may be directed by a Court for the purpose of criminal investigation.”

On 15 October 2015, a Constitution Bench of this Court partially modified the

order dated 11 August 2015, thus:

“3…we are of the view that in paragraph 3 of the Order dated 11.08.2015, if we add, apart from the other two Schemes, namely, P.D.S. Scheme and the L.P.G. Distribution Scheme, the Schemes like The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS), National Social Assistance Programme (Old Age Pensions, Widow Pensions, Disability Pensions), Prime Minister’s Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) and Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) for the present, it would not dilute earlier order passed by this Court. Therefore, we now include the aforesaid Schemes apart from the other two Schemes that this Court has permitted in its earlier order dated 11.08.2015.

451 PART K

4. We impress upon the Union of India that it shall strictly follow all the earlier orders passed by this Court commencing from 23.09.2013.

5. We will also make it clear that the Aadhaar card Scheme is purely voluntary and it cannot be made mandatory till the matter is finally decided by this Court one way or the other.”

After the Aadhaar Act was enacted there was a challenge in All Bengal

Minority Students Council v Union of India596, to a letter written to the Chief

Secretaries/Administrators of all State Governments/Union territory

Administrations by the Under Secretary to the Government of India, by which

the requirement of the submission of Aadhaar for claiming benefits under a

scheme was made mandatory. By an order dated 14 September 2016, a two

judge Bench directed as follows:

“…we stay the operation and implementation of letters dated 14.07.2006 (i.e. Annexure P-5, P-6 and P-7) for Pre-Matric Scholarship Scheme, Post-Matric Scholarship Scheme and Merit-cum-Means Scholarship Scheme to the extent they have made submission of Aadhaar mandatory and direct the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, Government of India i.e. Respondent No.2 to remove Aadhaar number as a mandatory condition for student Registration form at the National Scholarship Portal of Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, Government of India at the website http://scholarships.gov.in/newStudentRegFrm and stay the implementation of clause (c) of the 'Important Instructions' of the advertisement dated 20.08.2016 for the Pre-Matric Scholarship Scheme, Post-Matric Scholarship Scheme and Merit-cum-Means Scholarship Scheme, during the pendency of this writ petition.”

It has been submitted that the notifications and circulars, which make the

application of Aadhaar mandatory, are contrary to the interim orders passed

by this Court. It has been contended that the Respondents have flouted the

596 WP (Civil) No. 686/2016 452 PART K

most elementary norms of good governance and have disrespected judicial

orders. This contention requires serious consideration.

333 The legislature cannot simply declare that the judgment of a court is

invalid or that it stands nullified. In Kalpana Mehta, a Constitution Bench of

this Court held:

“255…If the legislature were permitted to do so, it would travel beyond the boundaries of constitutional entrustment. While the separation of powers prevents the legislature from issuing a mere declaration that a judgment is erroneous or invalid, the law-making body is entitled to enact a law which remedies the defects which have been pointed out by the court. Enactment of a law which takes away the basis of the judgment (as opposed to merely invalidating it) is permissible and does not constitute a violation of the separation doctrine. That indeed is the basis on which validating legislation is permitted.”597

Where a final judgment or order of this Court is sought to be undone by an Act

of Parliament, it is imperative that the basis of the Court’s judgment or order is

removed. It has been held by this Court in Bhubaneshwar Singh v Union of

India598:

“11. From time to time controversy has arisen as to whether the effect of judicial pronouncements of the High Court or the Supreme Court can be wiped out by amending the legislation with retrospective effect. Many such Amending Acts are called Validating Acts, validating the action taken under the particular enactments by removing the defect in the statute retrospectively because of which the statute or the part of it had been declared ultra vires. Such exercise has been held by this Court as not to amount to encroachment on the judicial power of the courts. The exercise of rendering ineffective the judgments or orders of competent courts by changing the very basis by legislation is a well-known device of validating legislation. This Court has repeatedly pointed out

597 Ibid, at page 126 598 (1994) 6 SCC 77

453 PART K

that such validating legislation which removes the cause of the invalidity cannot be considered to be an encroachment on judicial power. At the same time, any action in exercise of the power under any enactment which has been declared to be invalid by a court cannot be made valid by a Validating Act by merely saying so unless the defect which has been pointed out by the court is removed with retrospective effect. The validating legislation must remove the cause of invalidity. Till such defect or the lack of authority pointed out by the court under a statute is removed by the subsequent enactment with retrospective effect, the binding nature of the judgment of the court cannot be ignored.”599 (Emphasis supplied)

When the Aadhaar Act was notified on 25 March 2016, the interim directions

issued by this court were in operation. Was it then open to government to

launch upon a virtual spree of administrative notifications making Aadhaar a

mandatory requirement of virtually every aspect of human existence from birth

until death?

The position which the Union government has adopted before this court is

simply this: interim directions were issued by this court when the Aadhaar

project was governed by executive instructions. Once a law was enacted by

Parliament, a statutory authorisation was brought into existence to enable

government to issue administrative instructions. Hence, compliance with the

interim orders stands obviated upon the enactment of the law.

334 This defence of government can be scrutinized at two levels – the first

as a matter of statutory interpretation and the second, on a broader

foundation which engages the judicial power of this court. As a matter of 599 Ibid at pages 83-84

454 PART K

statutory interpretation, the Aadhaar Act did not, as it could not have, merely

nullified the interim orders of this court. Section 59 has no provision which

gives it overriding effect notwithstanding any judgment, decree or order of a

court. The interim orders do not stand superseded. Apart from approaching

the issue purely as a matter of statutory interpretation, there are broader

concerns which arise from the manner in which the authorities proceeded,

oblivious to the interim directions. Interim directions were issued by this court

in a situation where a constitutional challenge was addressed in a batch of

petitions on the ground that the Aadhaar project was offensive to fundamental

rights, including the right to privacy. So significant was the nature of the

challenge that it was referred initially to a Constitution Bench and thereafter,

to a bench of nine-judges of this Court for resolving the question as to

whether privacy is a protected fundamental right. The collection and storage

of biometric data and its use for the purpose of authentication is the subject of

a constitutional challenge. Noting the nature of the challenge and after

considering the serious issues which have arisen in the case, successive

benches of this Court issued a series of interim directions. The purport of

those directions is that Aadhaar could not be made mandatory except for

specified schemes which were listed by the court. Moreover, in the context of

the serious grievance of financial exclusion, the court directed that no

individual should be excluded from the receipt of welfare entitlements, such as

food-grains, for want of an Aadhaar number. The constitutional challenge was

not obviated merely on the enactment of the Aadhaar Act. The law gave a

455 PART K

statutory character to a project which since 2009 was possessed of an

administrative or executive nature. The constitutional challenge to some of the

basic features underlying the collection of biometric data still remained to be

addressed by the court. The proceedings before this Court are testimony to

the fact that the issue of constitutionality was indeed live. That being the

position, the issuance of a spate of administrative notifications is in defiance

of the interim orders passed by this Court. Judicial orders, be they interim or

final, cannot simply be wished away. If governments or citizens were allowed

to ignore judicially enforceable directions, that would negate the basis of the

rule of law. Both propriety and constitutional duty required Union government

to move this Court after the enactment of the Aadhaar Act for variation of the

interim orders. Such an application would have required this Court to weigh

on the one hand the subsequent development of the law being passed

(something which would be relied upon by government) with the constitutional

concerns over the entire biometric project. It is not as if that the mere

enactment of the law put an end to the constitutional challenge. The existence

of law (post 2016) is only one aspect to be considered in deciding the interim

arrangement which would hold the field when the constitutional challenge was

pending adjudication before this Court. Institutions of governance are bound

by a sense of constitutional morality which requires them to abide by judicial

orders. What seems to emerge from the course of action which has been

followed in the present case by government is a perception that judicial

directions can be ignored on a supposed construction of the statute. Besides

456 PART K

the fact that this construction is erroneous in law, it is above all, the

fundamental duty of this Court to ensure that its orders are not treated with

disdain. If we were not to enforce a punctilious compliance with our own

directions by government, that would ring a death – knell of the institutional

position of the Supreme Court. If governments were free to ignore judicial

directions at will, could a different yardstick be applied to citizens? The

obligation to comply with judicial orders is universal to our polity and admits of

no exception. Confronted with a brazen disregard of our interim orders, I

believe that we have no course open except to stand firm.

335 The power of judicial review conferred on an independent judiciary

requires that other organs of the State respect the authority of Courts. This

Court in P Sambamurthy v State of Andhra Pradesh600, while highlighting

the importance of judicial review in the rule of law regime, held thus:

“4… it is a basic principle of the rule of law that the exercise of power by the executive or any other authority must not only be conditioned by the Constitution but must also be in accordance with law and the power of judicial review is conferred by the Constitution with view to ensuring that the law is observed and there is compliance with the requirement of law on the part of the executive and other authorities. It is through the power of judicial review conferred on an independent institutional authority such as the High Court that the rule of law is maintained and every organ of the State is kept within the limits- of the law. Now if the exercise of the power of judicial review can be set at naught by the State Government by overriding the decision given against it, it would sound, the death-knell of the rule of law. The rule of law would cease to have any meaning, because then it would be open to the State Government to defy the law and yet get away with it.”601 (Emphasis supplied)

600 (1987) 1 SCC 362 601 Ibid, at page 369

457 PART K

336 A Bench of two judges in Re: Arundhati Roy602 held that for the courts

to protect the rule of law, it is necessary that the dignity and authority of the

courts have to be respected and protected. It was held:

“‘Rule of Law’ is the basic rule of governance of any civilised democratic policy. Our Constitutional scheme is based upon the concept of Rule of Law which we have adopted and given to ourselves. Everyone, whether individually or collectively is unquestionably under the supremacy of law. Whoever the person may be, however high he or she is, no-one is above the law notwithstanding how powerful and how rich he or she may be. For achieving the establishment of the rule of law, the Constitution has assigned the special task to the judiciary in the country. It is only through the courts that the rule of law unfolds its contents and establishes its concept. For the judiciary to perform its duties and functions effectively and true to the spirit with which it is sacredly entrusted, the dignity and authority of the courts have to be respected and protected at all costs.”603 (Emphasis supplied)

The accountability of power, as a component of the rule of law, requires that

the power vested in any organ of the State, and its agents, can only be used

for promotion of constitutional values and vision.604 Governmental authority

may only be exercised in accordance with written laws which are adopted

though an established procedure. No action of the legislature or the executive

can undermine the authority of the courts, except according to established

principles. Disrespect of court orders results in impairment of the dignity of the

courts.

602 (2002) 3 SCC 343 603 Ibid, at page 346 604 Nandini Sundar v State of Chhattisgarh, (2011) 7 SCC 547

458 PART K

337 Constitutional morality requires a government not to act in a manner

which would become violative of the rule of law.605 Constitutional morality

requires that the orders of this Court be complied with, faithfully. This Court is

the ultimate custodian of the Constitution. The limits set by the Constitution

are enforced by this Court. Constitutional morality requires that the faith of the

citizens in the constitutional courts of the country be maintained. The

importance of the existence of courts in the eyes of citizens has been

highlighted in Harper Lee’s classic “To Kill a Mockingbird”:

“But there is one way in this country in which all men are created equal—there is one human institution that makes a pauper the equal of a Rockefeller, the stupid man the equal of an Einstein, and the ignorant man the equal of any college president. That institution, gentlemen, is a court. It can be the Supreme Court of the United States or the humblest J.P. court in the land, or this honorable court which you serve. Our courts have their faults, as does any human institution, but in this country our courts are the great levelers, and in our courts all men are created equal.” (Emphasis supplied)

Many citizens, although aggrieved, are not in a condition to reach the highest

Court. The poorest and socially neglected lack resources and awareness to

reach this Court. Their grievances remain unaddressed. Such individuals

suffer injury each day without remedy. Disobedience of the interim orders of

this Court and its institutional authority, in the present case, has made a

societal impact. It has also resulted in denial of subsidies and other benefits

essential to the existence of a common citizen. Constitutional morality

therefore needs to be enforced as a valid response to these arbitrary acts.

Non-compliance of the interim orders of this Court is contrary to constitutional

605 Manoj Narula v Union of India, (2014) 9 SCC 1

459 PART K

morality. Constitutional morality, as an essential component of the rule of law,

must neutralise the excesses of power by the executive. The brazen manner

in which notifications have been issued making Aadhaar mandatory, despite

the interim order of this Court is a matter of serious concern. Deference to the

institutional authority of the Supreme Court is integral to the values which the

Constitution adopts. The postulate of a limited government is enforced by the

role of the Supreme Court in protecting the liberties of citizens and holding

government accountable for its transgressions. The authority of this Court is

crucial to maintaining the fine balances of power on which democracy thrives

and survives. The orders of the Court are not recommendatory – they are

binding directions of a constitutional adjudicator. Dilution of the institutional

prestige of this Court can only be at the cost of endangering the freedom of

over a billion citizens which judicial review seeks to safeguard.

338 Courts – as it is often said- have neither the power of the purse nor the

sword. Our authority lies in constitutional legitimacy as much as in public

confidence. Combined together they impart moral and institutional authority to

the Court. That sense of legitimacy and duty have required me to assert once

again the norms of a written Constitution and the rule of law. This judgment

has taken a much wider postulation. Having held the Aadhaar Act prior to its

passage not to be a Money Bill, I have delved into the merits of the

constitutional challenge for two reasons:

460

PART L

i. Merits have been argued in considerable detail both by petitioners and the

Union of India; and

ii. As a logical consequence of the view that the Aadhaar legislation is not a

Money Bill, it would be open to the government to reintroduce fresh

legislation. The principles governing a law regulating the right to data

protection and informational privacy have hence been delineated.

L Conclusion

339 The present dispute has required this Court to analyze the provisions of

the Aadhaar Act and Regulations, along with the framework as it existed prior

to the enactment of the Act, through the prism of the Constitution and the

precedents of this Court. My conclusions are outlined below:

(1) In order to deal with the challenge that the Aadhaar Act should not have

been passed as a Money Bill, this Court was required to adjudicate

whether the decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha to certify a Bill as a

Money Bill, can be subject to judicial review. The judgment has analyzed

the scope of the finality attributed to the Speaker’s decision, by looking at

the history of Article 110(3) of the Constitution, by comparing it with the

comparative constitutional practices which accord finality to the Speaker’s

decision, by analyzing other constitutional provisions which use the phrase

461 PART L

“shall be final”, and by examining the protection granted to parliamentary

proceedings under Article 122. This judgment holds that:

(a) The phrase “shall be final” used under Article 110(3) aims at avoiding

any controversy on the issue as to whether a Bill is a Money Bill, with

respect to the Rajya Sabha and before the President. The language

used in Article 110(3) does not exclude judicial review of the Speaker’s

decision. This also applies to Article 199(3).

(b) The immunity from judicial review provided to parliamentary

proceedings under Article 122 is limited to instances involving

“irregularity of procedure”. The decisions of this Court in Special

Reference, Ramdas Athawale and Raja Ram Pal hold that the validity

of proceedings in Parliament or a State Legislature can be subject to

judicial review when there is a substantive illegality or a constitutional

violation. These judgments make it clear that the decision of the

Speaker is subject to judicial review, if it suffers from illegality or from a

violation of constitutional provisions.

(c) Article 255 has no relation with the decision of the Speaker on whether

a Bill is a Money Bill. The three Judge Bench decision in Mohd Saeed

Siddiqui erroneously interpreted the judgment in Mangalore Beedi to

apply Articles 212 (or Article 122) and 255 to refrain from questioning

the conduct of the Speaker (under Article 199 or 110). The two judge

462 PART L

Bench decision in Yogendra Kumar followed Mohd Saeed Siddiqui.

The correct position of law is that the decision of the Speaker under

Articles 110(3) and 199(3) is not immune from judicial review. The

decisions in Mohd Saeed Siddiqui and Yogendra Kumar are

accordingly overruled.

(d) The existence of and the role of the Rajya Sabha, as an institution of

federal bicameralism in the Indian Parliament, constitutes a part of the

basic structure of the Constitution. The decision of the Speaker of the

Lok Sabha to certify a Bill as a Money Bill has a direct impact on the

role of the Rajya Sabha, since the latter has a limited role in the passing

of a Money Bill. A decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha to declare

an ordinary Bill to be a Money Bill limits the role of the Rajya Sabha.

The power of the Speaker cannot be exercised arbitrarily in violation of

constitutional norms and values, as it damages the essence of federal

bicameralism, which is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.

Judicial review of the Speaker’s decision, on whether a Bill is a Money

Bill, is therefore necessary to protect the basic structure of the

Constitution.

(2) To be certified a Money Bill, a Bill must contain “only provisions” dealing

with every or any one of the matters set out in sub-clauses (a) to (g) of

Article 110(1). A Bill, which has both provisions which fall within sub-

clauses (a) to (g) of Article 110(1) and provisions which fall outside their

463 PART L

scope, will not qualify to be a Money Bill. Thus, when a Bill which has

been passed as a Money Bill has certain provisions which fall beyond the

scope of sub-clauses (a) to (g) of Article 110(1), these provisions cannot

be severed. If the bill was not a Money Bill, the role of the Rajya Sabha in

its legislative passage could not have been denuded. The debasement of

a constitutional institution cannot be countenanced by the Court.

Democracy survives when constitutional institutions are vibrant.

(3) The Aadhaar Act creates a statutory framework for obtaining a unique

identity number, which is capable of being used for “any” purpose, among

which availing benefits, subsidies and services, for which expenses are

incurred from the Consolidated Fund of India, is just one purpose provided

under Section 7. Clause (e) of Article 110(1) requires that a Money Bill

must deal with the declaring of any expenditure to be expenditure charged

on the Consolidated Fund of India (or increasing the amount of the

expenditure). Section 7 fails to fulfil this requirement. Section 7 does not

declare the expenditure incurred to be a charge on the Consolidated

Fund. It only provides that in the case of such services, benefits or

subsidies, Aadhaar can be made mandatory to avail of them. Moreover,

provisions other than Section 7 of the Act deal with several aspects

relating to the Aadhaar numbers: enrolment on the basis of demographic

and biometric information, generation of Aadhaar numbers, obtaining the

consent of individuals before collecting their individual information,

464 PART L

creation of a statutory authority to implement and supervise the process,

protection of information collected during the process, disclosure of

information in certain circumstances, creation of offences and penalties for

disclosure or loss of information, and the use of the Aadhaar number for

“any purpose”. All these provisions of the Aadhaar Act do not lie within the

scope of sub-clauses (a) to (g) of Article 110(1). Hence, in the alternate,

even if it is held that Section 7 bears a nexus to the expenditure incurred

from the Consolidated Fund of India, the other provisions of the Act fail to

fall within the domain of Article 110(1). Thus, the Aadhaar Act is declared

unconstitutional for failing to meet the necessary requirements to have

been certified as a Money Bill under Article 110(1).

(4) The argument that the Aadhaar Act is in pith and substance a Money Bill,

with its main objective being the delivery of subsidies, benefits and

services flowing out of the Consolidated Fund of India and that the other

provisions are ancillary to the main purpose of the Act also holds no

ground, since the doctrine of pith and substance is used to examine

whether the legislature has the competence to enact a law with regard to

any of the three Lists in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. The

doctrine cannot be invoked to declare whether a Bill satisfies the

requirements set out in Article 110 of the Constitution to be certified a

Money Bill. The argument of the Union of India misses the point that a Bill

465 PART L

can be certified as a Money Bill “only” if it deals with all or any of the

matters contained in clauses (a) to (g) of Article 110(1).

(5) Having held that the Aadhaar Act is unconstitutional for having been

passed as a Money Bill this judgment has also analysed the merits of the

other constitutional challenges to the legislation as well as to the

framework of the project before the law was enacted.

(6) The architecture of the Aadhaar Act seeks to create a unique identity for

residents on the basis of their demographic and biometric information. The

Act sets up a process of identification by which the unique identity

assigned to each individual is verified with the demographic and biometric

information pertaining to that individual which is stored in a centralised

repository of data. Identification of beneficiaries is integral and essential to

the fulfilment of social welfare schemes and programmes, which are a part

of the State’s attempts to ensure that its citizens have access to basic

human facilities. This judgment accepts the contention of the Union of

India that there is a legitimate state aim in maintaining a system of

identification to ensure that the welfare benefits provided by the State

reach the beneficiaries who are entitled, without diversion.

(7) The Aadhaar programme involves application of biometric technology,

which uses an individual’s biometric data as the basis of authentication or

identification and is therefore intimately connected to the individual. While

466 PART L

citizens have privacy interests in personal or private information collected

about them, the unique nature of biometric data distinguishes it from other

personal data, compounding concerns regarding privacy protections

safeguarding biometric information. Once a biometric system is

compromised, it is compromised forever. Therefore, it is imperative that

concerns about protecting privacy must be addressed while developing a

biometric system. Adequate norms must be laid down for each step from

the collection to retention of biometric data. At the time of collection,

individuals must be informed about the collection procedure, the intended

purpose of the collection, the reason why the particular data set is

requested and who will have access to their data. Additionally, the

retention period must be justified and individuals must be given the right to

access, correct and delete their data at any point in time, a procedure

familiar to an opt-out option.

(8) Prior to the enactment of the Aadhaar Act, no mandatory obligation was

imposed upon the Registrars or the enrolling agencies, to obtain informed

consent from residents before recording their biometric data, to inform

them how the biometric data would be stored and used and about the

existence of adequate safeguards to secure the data. Moreover, prior to

the enactment of the Act, while UIDAI had itself contemplated that an

identity theft could occur at the time of enrollment for Aadhaar cards, it

467 PART L

had no solution to the possible harms which could result after the identity

theft of a person.

(9) The Regulations framed subsequently under the Aadhaar Act also do not

provide a robust mechanism on how informed consent is to be obtained

from residents before collecting their biometric data. The Aadhaar Act and

Regulations are bereft of the procedure through which an individual can

access information related to his or her authentication record. The

Aadhaar Act clearly has no defined options that should be made available

to the Aadhaar number holders in case they do not wish to submit identity

information during authentication, nor do the regulations specify the

procedure to be followed in case the Aadhaar number holder does not

provide consent for authentication.

(10) Sections 29(1) and (2) of the Act create a distinction between two classes

of information (core biometric information and identity information), which

are integral to individual identity and require equal protection. Section

29(4) suffers from overbreadth as it gives wide discretionary power to

UIDAI to publish, display or post core biometric information of an individual

for purposes specified by the regulations.

(11) Sections 2(g), (j), (k) and (t) suffer from overbreadth, as these can lead to

an invasive collection of biological attributes. These provisions give

468 PART L

discretionary power to UIDAI to define the scope of biometric and

demographic information and empower it to expand on the nature of

information already collected at the time of enrollment, to the extent of

also collecting any “such other biological attributes” that it may deem fit.

(12) There is no clarity on how an individual is supposed to update his/her

biometric information, in case the biometric information mismatches with

the data stored in CIDR. The proviso to Section 28(5) of the Aadhaar Act,

which disallows an individual access to the biometric information that

forms the core of his or her unique ID, is violative of a fundamental

principle that ownership of an individual’s data must at all times vest with

the individual. UIDAI is also provided wide powers in relation to removing

the biometric locking of residents. With this analysis of the measures

taken by the Government of India prior to the enactment of the Aadhaar

Act as well as a detailed analysis of the provisions under the Aadhaar Act,

2016 and supporting Regulations made under it, this judgment concludes

that the Aadhaar programme violates essential norms pertaining to

informational privacy, self-determination and data protection.

(13) The State is under a constitutional obligation to safeguard the dignity of

its citizens. Biometric technology which is the core of the Aadhaar

programme is probabilistic in nature, leading to authentication failures.

These authentication failures have led to the denial of rights and legal

469 PART L

entitlements. The Aadhaar project has failed to account for and remedy

the flaws in its framework and design which has led to serious instances

of exclusion of eligible beneficiaries as demonstrated by the official

figures from Government records including the Economic Survey of India

2016-17 and research studies. Dignity and the rights of individuals cannot

be made to depend on algorithms or probabilities. Constitutional

guarantees cannot be subject to the vicissitudes of technology. Denial of

benefits arising out of any social security scheme which promotes socio-

economic rights of citizens is violative of human dignity and impermissible

under our constitutional scheme.

(14) The violations of fundamental rights resulting from the Aadhaar scheme

were tested on the touchstone of proportionality. The measures adopted

by the respondents fail to satisfy the test of necessity and proportionality

for the following reasons:

(a) Under the Aadhaar project, requesting entities can hold the identity

information of individuals, for a temporary period. It was admitted by

UIDAI that AUAs may store additional information according to their

requirement to secure their system. ASAs have also been permitted to

store logs of authentication transactions for a specific time period. It has

been admitted by UIDAI that it gets the AUA code, ASA code, unique

device code and the registered device code used for authentication,

and that UIDAI would know from which device the authentication took

470 PART L

place and through which AUA/ASA. Under the Regulations, UIDAI

further stores the authentication transaction data. This is in violation of

widely recognized data minimisation principles which mandate that data

collectors and processors delete personal data records when the

purpose for which it has been collected is fulfilled. Moreover, using the

meta-data related to the transaction, the location of the authentication

can easily be traced using the IP address, which impacts upon the

privacy of the individual.

(b) From the verification log, it is possible to locate the places of

transactions by an individual in the past five years. It is also possible

through the Aadhaar database to track the current location of an

individual, even without the verification log. The architecture of Aadhaar

poses a risk of potential surveillance activities through the Aadhaar

database. Any leakage in the verification log poses an additional risk of

an individual’s biometric data being vulnerable to unauthorised

exploitation by third parties.

(c) The biometric database in the CIDR is accessible to third-party vendors

providing biometric search and de-duplication algorithms, since neither

the Central Government nor UIDAI have the source code for the de-

duplication technology which is at the heart of the programme. The

source code belongs to a foreign corporation. UIDAI is merely a

licensee. Prior to the enactment of the Aadhaar Act, without the consent

471 PART L

of individual citizens, UIDAI contracted with L-1 Identity Solutions (the

foreign entity which provided the source code for biometric storage) to

provide to it any personal information related to any resident of India.

This is contrary to the basic requirement that an individual has the right

to protect herself by maintaining control over personal information. The

protection of the data of 1.2 billion citizens is a question of national

security and cannot be subjected to the mere terms and conditions of a

normal contract.

(d) Before the enactment of the Aadhaar Act, MOUs signed between UIDAI

and Registrars were not contracts within the purview of Article 299 of

the Constitution, and therefore, do not cover the acts done by the

private entities engaged by the Registrars for enrolment. Since there is

no privity of contract between UIDAI and the Enrolling agencies, the

activities of the private parties engaged in the process of enrolment

before the enactment of the Aadhaar Act have no statutory or legal

backing.

(e) Under the Aadhaar architecture, UIDAI is the sole authority which

carries out all administrative, adjudicatory, investigative, and monitoring

functions of the project. While the Act confers these functions on UIDAI,

it does not place any institutional accountability upon UIDAI to protect

the database of citizens’ personal information. UIDAI also takes no

institutional responsibility for verifying whether the data entered and

472 PART L

stored in the CIDR is correct and authentic. The task has been

delegated to the enrolment agency or the Registrar. Verification of data

being entered in the CIDR is a highly sensitive task for which the UIDAI

ought to have taken responsibility. The Aadhaar Act is also silent on the

liability of UIDAI and its personnel in case of their non-compliance of

the provisions of the Act or the regulations.

(f) Section 47 of the Act violates citizens’ right to seek remedies. Under

Section 47(1), a court can take cognizance of an offence punishable

under the Act only on a complaint made by UIDAI or any officer or

person authorised by it. Section 47 is arbitrary as it fails to provide a

mechanism to individuals to seek efficacious remedies for violation of

their right to privacy. Further, Section 23(2)(s) of the Act requires UIDAI

to establish a grievance redressal mechanism. Making the authority

which is administering a project, also responsible for providing a

grievance redressal mechanism for grievances arising from the project

severely compromises the independence of the grievance redressal

body.

(g) While the Act creates a regime of criminal offences and penalties, the

absence of an independent regulatory framework renders the Act

largely ineffective in dealing with data violations. The architecture of

Aadhaar ought to have, but has failed to embody within the law the

establishment of an independent monitoring authority (with a hierarchy 473 PART L

of regulators), along with the broad principles for data protection. This

compromise in the independence of the grievance redressal body

impacts upon the possibility and quality of justice being delivered to

citizens. In the absence of an independent regulatory and monitoring

framework which provides robust safeguards for data protection, the

Aadhaar Act cannot pass muster against a challenge on the ground of

reasonableness under Article 14.

(h) No substantive provisions, such as those providing data minimization,

have been laid down as guiding principles for the oversight mechanism

provided under Section 33(2), which permits disclosure of identity

information and authentication records in the interest of national

security.

(i) Allowing private entities to use Aadhaar numbers, under Section 57, will

lead to commercial exploitation of the personal data of individuals

without consent and could also lead to individual profiling. Profiling

could be used to predict the emergence of future choices and

preferences of individuals. These preferences could also be used to

influence the decision making of the electorate in choosing candidates

for electoral offices. This is contrary to privacy protection norms. Data

cannot be used for any purpose other than those that have been

approved. While developing an identification system of the magnitude

of Aadhaar, security concerns relating to the data of 1.2 billion citizens

474 PART L

ought to be addressed. These issues have not been dealt with by the

Aadhaar Act. By failing to protect the constitutional rights of citizens,

Section 57 violates Articles 14 and 21.

(j) Section 57 is susceptible to be applied to permit commercial

exploitation of the data of individuals or to affect their behavioural

patterns. Section 57 cannot pass constitutional muster. Since it is

manifestly arbitrary, it suffers from overbreadth and violates Article 14.

(k) Section 7 suffers from overbreadth since the broad definitions of the

expressions ‘services and ‘benefits’ enable the government to regulate

almost every facet of its engagement with citizens under the Aadhaar

platform. If the requirement of Aadhaar is made mandatory for every

benefit or service which the government provides, it is impossible to live

in contemporary India without Aadhaar. The inclusion of services and

benefits in Section 7 is a pre-cursor to the kind of function creep which

is inconsistent with the right to informational self-determination. Section

7 is therefore arbitrary and violative of Article 14 in relation to the

inclusion of services and benefits as defined.

(l) The legitimate aim of the State can be fulfilled by adopting less intrusive

measures as opposed to the mandatory enforcement of the Aadhaar

scheme as the sole repository of identification. The State has failed to

demonstrate that a less intrusive measure other than biometric

475 PART L

authentication would not subserve its purposes. That the state has

been able to insist on an adherence to the Aadhaar scheme without

exception is a result of the overbreadth of Section 7.

(m) When Aadhaar is seeded into every database, it becomes a bridge

across discreet data silos, which allows anyone with access to this

information to re-construct a profile of an individual’s life. This is

contrary to the right to privacy and poses severe threats due to potential

surveillance.

(n) One right cannot be taken away at the behest of the other. The State

has failed to satisfy this Court that the targeted delivery of subsidies

which animate the right to life entails a necessary sacrifice of the right

to individual autonomy, data protection and dignity when both these

rights are protected by the Constitution.

(15) Section 59 of the Aadhaar Act seeks to retrospectively validate the

actions of the Central Government done prior to the Aadhaar Act

pursuant to Notifications dated 28 January 2009. and 12 September

2015. Section 59 does not validate actions of the state governments or of

private entities. Moreover, the notification of 2009 did not authorise the

collection of biometric data. Consequently, the validation of actions taken

under the 2009 notification by Section 59 does not save the collection of

biometric data prior to the enforcement of the Act. While Parliament

476 PART L

possesses the competence to enact a validating law, it must cure the

cause of infirmity or invalidity. Section 59 fails to cure the cause of

invalidity prior to the enactment of the Aadhaar Act. The absence of a

legislative framework for the Aadhaar project between 2009 and 2016 left

the biometric data of millions of Indian citizens bereft of the kind of

protection which must be provided to comprehensively protect and

enforce the right to privacy. Section 59 therefore fails to meet the test of

a validating law since the complete absence of a regulatory framework

and safeguards cannot be cured merely by validating what was done

under the notifications of 2009 and 2016.

(16) The decision in Puttaswamy recognised that revenue constitutes a

legitimate state aim in the three-pronged test of proportionality. However,

the existence of a legitimate aim is insufficient to uphold the validity of the

law, which must also meet the other parameters of proportionality spelt out

in Puttaswamy.

(17) The seeding of Aadhaar with PAN cards depends on the constitutional

validity of the Aadhaar legislation itself. Section 139AA of the Income Tax

Act 1962 is based on the premise that the Aadhaar Act itself is a valid

legislation. Since the Aadhaar Act itself is now held to be unconstitutional

for having been enacted as a Money Bill and on the touchstone of

proportionality, the seeding of Aadhaar to PAN under Article 139AA does

not stand independently.

477 PART L

(18) The 2017 amendments to the PMLA Rules fail to satisfy the test of

proportionality. The imposition of a uniform requirement of linking Aadhaar

numbers with all account based relationships proceeds on the

presumption that all existing account holders as well as every individual

who seeks to open an account in future is a potential money-launderer. No

distinction has been made in the degree of imposition based on the client,

the nature of the business relationship, the nature and value of the

transactions or the actual possibility of terrorism and money- laundering.

The rules also fail to make a distinction between opening an account and

operating an account. Moreover, the consequences of the failure to submit

an Aadhaar number are draconian. In their present form, the rules are

clearly disproportionate and excessive. We clarify that this holding would

not preclude the Union Government in the exercise of its rule making

power and the Reserve Bank of India as the regulator to re-design the

requirements in a manner that would ensure due fulfillment of the object of

preventing money-laundering, subject to compliance with the principles of

proportionality as outlined in this judgment.

(19) Mobile phones have become a ubiquitous feature of the lives of people

and the linking of Aadhaar numbers with SIM cards and the requirement of

e-KYC authentication of mobile subscribers must necessarily be viewed in

this light. Applying the proportionality test, the legitimate aim of subscriber

verification, has to be balanced against the countervailing requirements of

478 PART L

preserving the integrity of biometric data and the privacy of mobile phone

subscribers. Mobile phones are a storehouse of personal data and reflect

upon individual preferences, lifestyle and choices. The conflation of

biometric information with SIM cards poses grave threats to individual

privacy, liberty and autonomy. Having due regard to the test of

proportionality which has been propounded in Puttaswamy and as

elaborated in this judgment, the decision to link Aadhaar numbers with

mobile SIM cards is neither valid nor constitutional. The mere existence of

a legitimate state aim will not justify the disproportionate means which

have been adopted in the present case. The biometric information and

Aadhaar details collected by Telecom Service Providers shall be deleted

forthwith and no use of the said information or details shall be made by

TSPs or any agency or person or their behalf.

(20) Defiance of judicial orders (both interim and final) be it by the government

or by citizens negates the basis of the rule of law. Both propriety and

constitutional duty required the Union government to move this Court after

the enactment of the Aadhaar Act for variation of this Court’s interim

orders. Institutions of governance are bound by a sense of constitutional

morality which requires them to abide by judicial orders.

(21) Identity is necessarily a plural concept. The Constitution also recognizes

a multitude of identities through the plethora of rights that it safeguards.

479 PART L

The technology deployed in the Aadhaar scheme reduces different

constitutional identities into a single identity of a 12-digit number and

infringes the right of an individual to identify herself/himself through a

chosen means. Aadhaar is about identification and is an instrument which

facilitates a proof of identity. It must not be allowed to obliterate

constitutional identity.

(22) The entire Aadhaar programme, since 2009, suffers from constitutional

infirmities and violations of fundamental rights. The enactment of the

Aadhaar Act does not save the Aadhaar project. The Aadhaar Act, the

Rules and Regulations framed under it, and the framework prior to the

enactment of the Act are unconstitutional.

(23) To enable the government to initiate steps for ensuring conformity with

this judgment, it is directed under Article 142 that the existing data which

has been collected shall not be destroyed for a period of one year. During

this period, the data shall not be used for any purpose whatsoever. At the

end of one year, if no fresh legislation has been enacted by the Union

government in conformity with the principles which have been enunciated

in this judgment, the data shall be destroyed.

Creating strong privacy protection laws and instilling safeguards may address

or at the very least assuage some of the concerns associated with the

Aadhaar scheme which severely impairs informational self-determination,

480 PART L

individual privacy, dignity and autonomy. In order to uphold the democratic

values of the Constitution, the government needs to address the concerns

highlighted in this judgment which would provide a strong foundation for digital

initiatives, which are imminent in today’s digital age. However, in its current

form, the Aadhaar framework does not sufficiently assuage the concerns that

have arisen from the operation of the project which have been discussed in

this judgment.

……....................................................J [Dr Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud]

New Delhi;

September 26, 2018.

481 1

REPORTABLE

IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA CIVIL ORIGINAL JURISDICTION

WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 494 OF 2012

JUSTICE K.S.PUTTASWAMY (RETD.) AND ANR. ...PETITIONERS

VERSUS

UNION OF INDIA AND ORS. ... RESPONDENTS

WITH

T.C.(C) No.151/2013, T.C.(C) No.152/2013, W.P.(C) No.833/2013 (PIL­W), W.P.(C) No.829/2013 (PIL­W), T.P. (C) No.1797/2013, W.P.(C) No.932/2013 (PIL­W), T.P.(C) No.1796/2013, CONMT. PET.(C) No.144/2014 In W.P.(C) No.494/2012 (PIL­W), T.P.(C) No.313/2014, T.P.(C) No.312/2014, SLP(Crl.) No.2524/2014, W.P.(C) No.37/2015 (PIL­W), W.P.(C) No.220/2015 (PIL­W), CONMT. PET.(C) No.674/2015 In W.P.(C) No.829/2013 (PIL­W), T.P.(C) No.921/2015, CONMT. PET.(C) No.470/2015 In W.P.(C) No.494/2012 (PIL­W), W.P.(C) No.231/2016 (PIL­W), CONMT. PET.(C) No.444/2016 In W.P.(C) No.494/2012 (PIL­W), CONMT. PET.(C) No.608/2016 In W.P.(C) No.494/2012 (PIL­W), W.P.(C) No.797/2016 (PIL­W), CONMT. PET.(C) No.844/2017 In W.P.(C) No.494/2012 (PIL­W), W.P.(C) No.342/2017 (PIL­ W), W.P.(C) No.372/2017, W.P.(C) No.841/2017, W.P.(C) No.1058/2017 (PIL­W), W.P.(C) No.966/2017 (PIL­W), W.P.(C) No. 1014/2017 (PIL­W), W.P. (C) No.1002/2017 (PIL­W), W.P.(C) No.1056/2017 and CONMT. PET.(C) No.34/2018 in W.P.(C) No.1014/2017 (PIL­W)

J U D G M E N T

ASHOK BHUSHAN, J.

The challenge in this batch of cases can be 2

divided in two parts, firstly, the challenge to

Executive's Scheme dated 28.01.2009 notified by the

Government of India, by which the Unique

Identification Authority of India (hereinafter

referred to as “UIDAI”) was constituted to implement

the UIDAI Scheme, and secondly challenge to The

Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other

Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016

(hereinafter referred to as “Act, 2016”).

2. The group of cases can be divided into four broad

heads. First head consists of the sixteen Writ

Petitions filed under Article 32 of the Constitution

of India in this Court challenging the notification

dated 28.01.2009 and/or the Act, 2016.

Second group consists of seven Transfer

Cases/Transfer petitions to be heard alongwith Writ

Petitions filed under Article 32.

Group three consists of only one Special Leave

Petition (Criminal) No. 2524 of 2014 filed by UIDAI

and Anr. Fourth group consists of seven Contempt 3

Petitions, which have been filed alleging violation of

the interim orders passed by this Court in Writ

Petitions and SLP (Criminal) as noted above.

3. Before we come to the different prayers made in

the Writ Petitions wherein Executive Scheme dated

28.01.2009 as well as Act, 2016 has been challenged,

it is useful to notice certain background facts, which

lead to issuance of notification dated 28.01.2009 as

well as the Act, 2016.

4. India is a country, which caters a sea of

population. When the British left our country in

1947, total population of the country was only 330

million, which has rapidly increased into enormous

figure of 1.3 billion as on date. The Citizenship

Act, 1955 was enacted by the Parliament for the

acquisition and determination of Indian Citizenship.

Our constitutional framers have provided for adult

franchise to every adult citizens. Election Commission

of India had taken steps to provide for an identity 4

card to each person to enable him to exercise his

franchise. The Citizenship Act, 1955 was amended by

the Act 6 of 2004 whereas Section 14A was inserted

providing that Central Government may compulsorily

register every citizen of India and issue national

identity card to him. The Planning Commission of the

Government of India conceived a Unique Identification

Project for providing a Unique Identity Number for

each resident across the country, which was initially

envisaged primarily as the basis for the efficient

delivery of welfare services.

5. At first, in the year 2006, administrative

approval was granted for the project “Unique Identity

for BPL Families”. A Process Committee was

constituted, which prepared a strategic vision on the

Unique Identification Project. The Process Committee

furnished a detailed proposal to the Planning

Commission in the above regard. The Prime Minister

approved the constitution of an empowered Group of

Ministers to collate the two spheres, the national 5

population register under the Citizenship Act, 1955

and the Unique Identification Number Project of the

Department of Information Technology. The empowered

Group of Ministers recognised the need for creating an

identity related resident database and to establish an

institutional mechanism, which shall own the database

and shall be responsible for its maintenance and

updations on ongoing basis. The empowered Group of

Ministers held various meetings to which inputs were

provided from different sources including Committee of

Secretaries. The recommendation of empowered Group of

Ministers to constitute Unique Identification

Authority of India (hereinafter referred to as

“UIDAI”) was accepted with several guidelines laying

down the roles and responsibilities of the UIDAI. The

UIDAI was constituted under the aegis of Planning

Commission of India. The Notification dated

28.01.2009 was issued constituting the UIDAI,

providing for its composition, roles and

responsibilities.

6

6. In the year 2010, a bill namely the National

Identification Authority of India Bill, 2010 providing

for the establishment of the National Identification

Authority of India for the purpose of issuing

identification numbers to individuals residing in

India and to certain other classes of individuals,

manner of authentication of such individuals to

facilitate access to benefits and services to which

they are entitled and for matters connected therewith

or incidental thereto was introduced. The Bill was

pending in the Parliament when the first Writ Petition

i.e. Writ Petition (C) No. 494 of 2012 – Justice K.S.

Puttaswamy (Retd.) & Anr. Vs. Union of India & Ors.

Was filed. The Writ Petition under Article 32 was

filed on the ground that fundamental rights of the

innumerable citizens of India namely Right to Privacy

falling under Article 21 of the Constitution of India

are adversely affected by the Executive action of the

Central Government proceeding to implement an

Executive order dated 28.01.2009 and thereby issuing

Aadhaar numbers to both citizens as also illegal 7

immigrants presently illegally residing in the

country. While the Bill namely “National

Identification Authority of India Bill, 2010”, which

had already been introduced in the Rajya Sabha on

03.12.2010 and referred to the Standing Committee, had

been rejected. The Writ Petition prayed for following

reliefs:­

(A) ISSUE a writ in the nature of mandamus restraining the respondents Nos. 1 to 3 from issuing Aadhaar Numbers by way of implementing its Executive order dated 28.01.2009 (Annexure “P­1”) which tentamount to implementing the provisions of the National Identification Authority of India Bill, 2010 pending before the Parliament until and unless the said Bill is considered and passed by the Parliament and becomes an Act of Parliament.

(B) Pass such other order/s as this Hon'ble Court may deem fit and proper in the circumstances of the case.

7. Writ Petition (C) No. 829 of 2013 ­ Mr. S.G.

Vombatkere & Anr. Vs. Union of India & Ors., was filed

by Mr. S.G. Vombatkere and Bezwada Wilson questioning

the UID Project and Aadhaar Scheme. The UID Project

and Aadhaar Scheme were contended to be illegal and 8

violative of fundamental rights. It was also contended

that the Scheme has no legislative sanction. Various

other grounds for attacking the Scheme were enumerated

in the Writ Petition. Writ Petition (C) No. 833 of

2013 – Ms. Aruna Roy & Anr. Vs. Union of India & Ors.,

was also filed challenging the UID Scheme. Other Writ

Petitions being Writ Petition (C) No. 932 of 2013 and

Writ Petition (C) No. 37 of 2015 came to be filed

challenging the UID Scheme.

8. S.G. Vombatkere and Bezwada Wilson filed another

Writ Petition (C) No. 220 of 2015 challenging the

exercise of preparation of the National Population

Register. Section 14A of the Citizenship Act, 1955 was

also challenged as void and ultra vires. Petitioners

have referred to earlier Writ Petition (C) No. 829 of

2013 and adopted the grounds already raised in the

earlier Writ Petition. Writ petitioner had also

challenged the collection of confidential biometric

informations, which is neither sanctioned nor

authorised under any Act or Rules.

9

9. The Parliament enacted the Act, 2016, which

contains following preamble:­

“An Act to provide for, as a good governance, efficient, transparent, and targeted delivery of subsidies, benefits and services, the expenditure for which is incurred from the Consolidated Fund of India, to individuals residing in India through assigning of unique identity numbers to such individuals and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.”

10. The Writ Petition (C) No. 231 of 2016­ Shri Jairam

Ramesh Vs. Union of India & Ors., was filed by Shri

Jairam Ramesh seeking a direction declaring the Act,

2016 as unconstitutional, null and void and ultra

vires. Writ Petition (C) No. 797 of 2016 ­ S.G.

Vombatkere & Ors. Vs. Union of India & Ors., was also

filed by S.G. Vombatkere and Bezwada Wilson

challenging the Act, 2016. The petitioners have also

referred to earlier Writ Petition (C) No. 829 of 2013

and Writ Petition (C) No. 220 of 2015. The writ

petitioners alleged various grounds for challenging

the Act, 2016. Apart from seeking a direction to

declare the Act, 2016 ultra vires, unconstitutional

and null and void, prayers for declaring various 10

Sections of Act, 2016 as ultra vires, unconstitutional

and null and void were also made. The writ petitioners

claimed lots of reliefs from a to w, it is useful to

quote the reliefs a to d, which are to the following

effect:­

"a) Issue a Writ, order or direction in the nature of Certiorari or any other appropriate writ/order/direction declaring that the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016 is ultra vires, unconstitutional, null and void and in particular violate Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Constitution of India;

b) Issue a Writ, order or direction in the nature of Certiorari or any other appropriate writ/order/direction declaring that sections 2(h), 2(l), 2(m), 2(v), 3, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, Chapter IV, Section 23 read with Section 54, Section 29, Section 30, Section 33, Section 47, Section 57 and Section 59 of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016 are ultra vires, unconstitutional, null and void and in particular violate Articles 14, 19, 20(3) and 21 of the Constitution of India;

c) Issue a Writ, order or direction in the nature of Certiorari or any other appropriate writ/order/direction declaring that the right to privacy is a fundamental right guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution of India;

11

d) Issue a Writ, order or direction in the nature of Certiorari or any other appropriate writ/order/direction declaring that no person may be deprived of receiving any financial subsidy or other subsidy or benefit or services from the State on the ground that he or she does not have an Aadhaar number;”

11. Writ Petition (C) No. 342 of 2017 ­ Shantha Sinha

& Anr. Vs. Union of India & Anr. Was filed challenging

the Act, 2016. Apart from seeking a direction to

declare various Sections of Act, 2016 as null and

void, writ petitioners also prayed for a direction

declaring Sections 2(h), 2(l), 2(m), 2(v), 3, 5, 6, 7,

8, 9, 10, Chapter IV, Section 23 read with Section 54,

Section 29, Section 30, Section 33, Section 47,

Section 57 and Section 59 of the Act, 2016 as ultra

vires, unconstitutional and null and void. Writ

Petition (Civil) NO. 372 of 2017 ­ Shankar Prasad

Dangi Vs. Bharat Cooking Coal Limited & Another, was

filed by Shankar Prasad Dangi, who claims to be

employed under the Bharat Cooking Coal Limited.

Petitioner filed the writ petition seeking a mandamus

directing the respondents not to compel the petitioner 12

to submit the Aadhaar Card copy. The petitioner

placed reliance on Order of this Court dated

14.09.2016 in Writ Petition (C) No. 686 of 2016.

Writ Petition (C) No. 841 of 2017 has also been filed

by State of West Bengal challenging various

notifications issued under Section 7 of the Act, 2016.

The petitioner also sought a direction declaring that

no person may be deprived of receiving any benefit or

services from the State on the ground that he or she

does not have an Aadhaar number or Aadhaar enrolment. Writ Petition (C) No. 1058 of 2017 – Mathew Thomas Vs.

Union of India & Ors. has been filed challenging the

Act, 2016. The writ petitioner also prayed for

declaring Prevention of Money Laundering Rules (Second

Amendment) 2017 as violative of Articles 14, 19 and 21

of the Constitution. Section 139AA of the Income Tax

Act, 1961 was also prayed to be declared as violative

of Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Constitution.

12. Writ Petition (C) No. 966 of 2017 – Raghav Tankha

Vs. Union of India through its Secretary & Ors. has

been filed seeking following prayers:­ 13

"a) Issue a Writ of Mandamus or any other appropriate writ, order or direction under Article 32 of the Constitution of India, directing the Respondents to declare that Aadhaar is not mandatory for the purpose of authentication while obtaining a mobile connection; or the re­ verification of Subscribers, being completely illegal, arbitrary and mala fide; and/or

b) Issue a Writ of Mandamus or any other appropriate writ, order or direction under Article 32 of the Constitution of India, directing the Respondents Number 2 to 6, to take immediate steps in the present situation, for restraining and banning the transfer of data from UIDAI to Private Telecom Service Providers and Aadhaar being made the only option of authentication; and/or”

13. Writ Petition (C) No. 1014 of 2017 – M.G.

Devasahayam and Ors. Vs. Union of India & Anr. has

been filed, where following prayers have been made:­

“a) This Hon'ble Court may be pleased to issue an appropriate writ, order or direction declaring Rule 9 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Rules, 2017 as amended by the Prevention of Money Laundering (Second Amendment) Rules, 2017 as ultra vires, unconstitutional, null and void and in particular violate Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Constitution of India;

b) This Hon'ble Court may be pleased to issue an appropriate writ, order or 14

direction declaring that bank accounts will not be denied or ceased on the basis that he or she does not have an Aadhaar number;

c) This Hon'ble Court may be pleased to issue an appropriate writ, order or direction in the nature of mandamus against the Respondents directing them to forthwith forbear from implementing or acting pursuant to or in implementation of Rule 9 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Rules, 2017 as amended by the Prevention of Money Laundering (Second Amendment) Rules, 2017;

d) This Hon'ble Court may be pleased to issue an appropriate writ, order or direction in the nature of mandamus against the Respondents directing them to forthwith clarify by issuing appropriate announcements, circulars and/or directions that no citizen of India is required to obtain an Aadhaar number/Aadhaar card and that the program under the Aadhaar Act is entirely voluntary even for opening or maintaining the bank accounts and carrying financial transactions;

e) This Hon'ble Court may be pleased to award costs relating to the present petition to the petitioners; and

f) This Hon'ble Court may be pleased to issue any other writ/order/direction in the nature of mandamus as this Hon'ble Court may deem fit an proper in the circumstances of the case.”

14. Writ Petition (C) No. 1002 of 2017 – Dr. Kalyani 15

Menon Sen Vs. Union of India and Others, also sought

declaration that Rule 2(b) of the Prevention of Money

Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Second Amendment

Rules, 2017 is ultra vires. Circular dated 23.03.2017

issued by the Department of Telecommunication was also

sought to be declared as ultra vires,

unconstitutional, null and void. A further direction

was sought declaring that pursuant to the Circular

dated 23.03.2017, the mobile phone numbers of

subscribers will not be made in­operational, and

future applicants will not be coerced to submit their

Aadhaar numbers. Certain other reliefs have also been

claimed in the writ petition. Writ Petition (C) No.

1056 of 2017 – Nachiket Udupa & Anr. Vs. Union of

India & Ors. has been filed challenging the Act, 2016

and with other prayers, which is as follows:­

A. Issue a Writ of Declaration and Mandamus or any other appropriate Writ, Direction, Order or such other appropriate remedy to declare the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016 [ACT No. 18 of 2016] as illegal and violative of Articles 14, 19(1)(a) and 21 of the Constitution of India;

16

B. In the alternative to Prayer (A), issue a Writ of Declaration and Mandamus or any other appropriate Writ, Direction, Order or such other appropriate remedy against Respondent No. 3 to provide 'opt­out' or process to delete identity information from Central Identities Data Repository at the option of Aadhaar Number Holders;

C Issue a Writ of Declaration and Mandamus or any other appropriate Writ, Direction, Order or such other appropriate remedy to declare the Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update) Regulations, 2016 being illegal, and ultra vires the Aadhaar Act and violative of Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution of India;

D. Issue a Writ of Declaration and Mandamus or any other appropriate Writ, Direction, Order or such other appropriate remedy to declare the Aadhaar (Authentication) Regulations, 2016 as being illegal and ultra vires the Aadhaar Act and violative of Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution of India;

E. Issue a Writ of Declaration and Mandamus or any other appropriate Writ, Direction, Order or such other appropriate remedy to declare the Aadhaar (Data Security) Regulations, 2016 as being illegal, and ultra vires the Aadhaar Act and violative of Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution of India;

F. Issue a Writ of Declaration and 17

Mandamus or any other appropriate Writ, Direction, Order or such other appropriate remedy to declare the Aadhaar (Sharing of Information) Regulations, 2016 as being illegal, and ultra vires the Aadhaar Act and violative of Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution of India;

G. Issue a Writ of Declaration and Mandamus or any other appropriate Writ, Direction, Order or such other appropriate remedy to declare the Direction issued by Respondent No. 2 on 23.03.2017 vide File No. 800­262/2016­ AS.II, as being illegal, ultra vires the Aadhaar Act and violative the Articles 14, 19(1)(a) and 21, of the Constitution;

H. In the alternative to Prayer (G) above, issue a Writ of Declaration and Mandamus or any other appropriate Writ, Direction, Order or such other appropriate remedy to Respondent No. 2 to prohibit all Telecom Service Providers from storing, retaining, making copies or in any manner dealing with Aadhaar Number, biometric information or any demographic information received from Respondent No. 3 in the process of authentication and/or identity verification of mobile numbers;

I. Pass such further and other orders as this Hon'ble Court may deem fit and proper in the instant facts and circumstances.”

15. There are seven Transfer Cases/Transfer Petitions 18

to be heard alongwith the Writ Petitions filed under

Article 32, where the issues pertaining to UID Scheme

and other related issues were also raised before

different High Courts. Four Transfer Applications

have been filed by Indian Oil Corporation Limited

praying for transfer of different writ petitions

pending in different High Courts to be heard alongwith

Writ Petition (C) No. 494 of 2012 – Justice K.S.

Puttaswamy (Retd.) & Anr. Vs. Union of India & Ors.,

which was considering the same issues. This Court had

passed order in few transfer petitions allowing the

same and issued certain directions, rest of transfer

petitions are also allowed.

16. One Transfer Petition has also been filed by Union

of India for transferring Writ Petition (C) No. 2764

of 2013 – Sri V. Viswanandham Vs. Union of India &

Ors., pending in the High Court of Hyderabad. It is

not necessary to notice various issues in the pending

different writ petitions, which were sought to be

transferred by above transfer petitions/transfer 19

cases. Issues pending in different High Courts were

more or less same, which have been raised in leading

Writ Petition (C) No. 494 of 2012 ­ Justice K.S.

Puttaswamy (Retd.) & Anr. Vs. Union of India & Ors.

and other writ petitions, which were entertained and

pending in this Court. Special Leave Petition (Crl.) No. 2524 of 2014 has been filed by UIDAI and Anr.

challenging the interim order dated 18.03.2014 passed

by High Court of Bombay at Goa in Criminal Writ

Petition No. 10 of 2014 – Unique Identification

Authority of India Through its Director General & Anr.

Vs. Central Bureau of Investigation. On an application

filed by the Central Bureau of Investigation, a

Magistrate passed an order on 22.10.2013 directing the

UIDAI to provide certain data with regard to a case of

a rape of seven years old child. The Bombay High

Court at Goa passed an order dated 18.03.2014 issuing

certain interim directions, which were challenged by

UIDAI in the aforesaid special leave petition. This

Court passed an interim order on 24.03.2014 staying

the order passed by Bombay High Court at Goa. This 20

Court also by the interim order restrained the UIDAI

to transfer any biometric information of any person

who has been allotted the Aadhaar number to any other

agency without his consent in writing. This special

leave petition was directed to be listed alongwith

Writ Petition (C) No. 494 of 2012.

17. This Court in Writ Petition (C) No. 494 of 2012

has issued various Interim Orders dated 23.09.2013,

24.03.2014, 16.03.2015, 11.08.2015 and 15.10.2015.

18. Seven Contempt Petitions have been filed. Out of

seven, five contempt petitions have been filed

alleging violation of the aforesaid interim orders and

praying for issuing proceedings against the

respondents contemnor for willful disobeying the

interim orders. One Contempt Petition (C) No. 674 of

2015 in W.P.(C) No.829 of 2013 has been filed for

issuing proceedings against the respondents contemnor

for wilfully disobeying the orders dated 23.09.2013,

24.03.2014 and 16.03.2015 passed by this Court. The 21

other Contempt Petition (C) No. 34 of 2018 in W.P.(C)

No. 1014 of 2017 has been filed against the respondent

contemnors for wilfully disobeying the order dated

03.11.2017 passed by this Court in the aforesaid writ

petition. All the contempt applications are pending

without any order of issuing notice in the contempt

petitions.

19. Writ Petition (C) No.494 of 2012 : Justice K.S.

Puttaswamy(Retd.) and another vs. Union of India and

others, has been treated as leading petition wherein

various orders and proceedings have been taken, few of

such orders and proceedings also need to be noted. An

interim order dated 23.09.2013 was passed in Writ

Petition (C) No.494 of 2012 which is to the following

effect:

“Issue notice in W.P.(C) No. 829/2013.

Application for deletion of the name of petitioner no. 1 in T.P.(C) Nos. 47 of 2013 is allowed.

T.P.(C)nos. 47­48 of 2013 and T.P.(C) No. 476 of 2013 are allowed in terms of the signed order.

22 All the matters require to be heard finally. List all matters for final hearing after the Constitution Bench is over.

In the meanwhile, no person should suffer for not getting the Aadhaar card inspite of the fact that some authority had issued a circular making it mandatory and when any person applies to get the Aadhaar Card voluntarily, it may be checked whether that person is entitled for it under the law and it should not be given to any illegal immigrant.”

20. By order dated 26.11.2013 all the States and Union

Territories were impleaded as respondents to give

effective directions. Interim order passed earlier was

also continued. On 24.03.2014 following order was

passed in SLP(Crl.) No.2524 of 2014:

“Issue notice.

In addition to normal mode of service, dasti service, is permitted.

Operation of the impugned order shall remain stayed.

In the meanwhile, the present petitioner is restrained from transferring any biometric information of any person who has been allotted the Aadhaar number to any other agency without his consent in writing.

More so, no person shall be deprived of any service for want of Aadhaar number in case he/she is otherwise eligible/entitled. All the authorities are directed to modify their forms/circulars/likes so as to not compulsorily require the Aadhaar number in 23

order to meet the requirement of the interim order passed by this Court forthwith.

Tag and list the matter with main matter i.e. WP(C) No.494/2012.”

21. This court on 16.03.2015 in Writ Petition (C)

No.494 of 2012 directed both the Union of India and

the States and all their functionaries should adhere

to the order dated 23.09.2013.

22. A three­Judge Bench on 11.08.2015 passed an order

referring the matter to a Bench of appropriate

strength. After reference was made on a prayer made by

the petitioners, following interim directions were

also passed by the Bench :

“Having considered the matter, we are of the view that the balance of interest would be best served, till the matter is finally decided by a larger Bench if the Union of India or the UIDA proceed in the following manner:­

1. The Union of India shall give wide publicity in the electronic and print media including radio and television networks that it is not mandatory for a citizen to obtain an Aadhaar card;

2. The production of an Aadhaar card will not be condition for obtaining any benefits otherwise due to a citizen;

24 3. The Unique Identification Number or the Aadhaar card will not be used by the respondents for any purpose other than the PDS Scheme and in particular for the purpose of distribution of food grains, etc. and cooking fuel, such as kerosene. The Aadhaar card may also be used for the purpose of the LPG Distribution Scheme;

4. The information about an individual obtained by the Unique 15 Identification Authority of India while issuing an Aadhaar card shall not be used for any other purpose, save as above, except as may be directed by a Court for the purpose of criminal investigation. Ordered accordingly.”

23. A Constitution Bench of five Judges on 15.10.2015

passed an order after hearing application filed by the

Union of India for seeking certain

clarification/modification in the earlier order dated

11.08.2015, part of order, which is relevant for the

present case is as follows:

“3. After hearing the learned Attorney General for India and other learned senior counsels, we are of the view that in paragraph 3 of the Order dated 11.08.2015, if we add, apart from the other two Schemes, namely, P.D.S. Scheme and the L.P.G. Distribution Scheme, the Schemes like The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme 12 (MGNREGS), National Social Assistance Programme (Old Age Pensions, Widow Pensions, Disability Pensions) Prime Minister’s Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) and Employees’ Provident Fund 25

Organisation (EPFO) for the present, it would not dilute earlier order passed by this Court. Therefore, we now include the aforesaid Schemes apart from the other two Schemes that this Court has permitted in its earlier order dated 11.08.2015.

5. We will also make it clear that the Aadhaar card Scheme is purely voluntary and it cannot be made mandatory till the matter is finally decided by this Court one way or the other.”

24. A three­Judge Bench of this Court in its reference

order dated 11.08.2015 noticed that these cases raise

far­reaching questions of importance, which involves

interpretation of the Constitution. Two earlier

decisions of this Court, i.e., M.P. Sharma & Others

Vs. Satish Chandra & Others, 1954 AIR SC 300, rendered

by eight Judges and another judgment rendered by six­

Judges Bench in Kharak Singh Vs. State of U.P. &

Others, AIR 1963 SC 1295 were noticed and it was

observed that in the event the observations made in

the above two judgments are to be read literally and

accepted as the law of this country, the fundamental

rights guaranteed under the Constitution of India and

more particularly right to liberty under Article 21

would be denuded of vigour and vitality. The three­ 26

Judge Bench observed that to give quietus to the kind

of controversy raised in this batch of cases once for

all, it is better that the ratio decidendi of M.P.

Sharma (supra) and Kharak Singh (supra) is scrutinized

and the jurisprudential correctness of the subsequent

decisions of this Court where the right to privacy is

either asserted or referred be examined and

authoritatively decided by a Bench of appropriate

strength.

25. By order dated 18.07.2017, a Constitution Bench

considered it appropriate that the issue be resolved

by a Bench of Nine Judge. Following order was passed

on 18.07.2017 by a Constitution Bench:

“During the course of the hearing today, it seems that it has become essential for us to determine whether there is any fundamental right of privacy under the Indian Constitution. The determination of this question would essentially entail whether the decision recorded by this Court in M.P. Sharma and Ors. vs. Satish Chandra, District Magistrate, Delhi and Ors. ­ 1950 SCR 1077 by an eight­Judge Constitution Bench, and also, in Kharak Singh vs. The State of U.P. and Ors. ­ 1962 (1) SCR 332 by a six­Judge Constitution Bench, that there is no such fundamental right, is the correct expression of the constitutional position.

27 Before dealing with the matter any further, we are of the view that the issue noticed hereinabove deserves to be placed before the nine­Judge Constitution Bench. List these matters before the Nine­Judge Constitution Bench on 19.07.2017.

Liberty is granted to the learned counsel appearing for the rival parties to submit their written briefs in the meantime.”

26. A nine­Judge Constitution Bench proceeded to hear

and decide all aspects of right of privacy as

contained in the Constitution of India.

27. Dr. D.Y. Chandrachud delivered opinion on his

behalf as well as on behalf of Khehar, CJ., Agrawal,

J. and Nazeer, J. Jasti Chelameswar, J., Bobde, J.,

Sapre, J. and Kaul, J. also delivered concurring, but

separate opinions. The opinion of all the nine Judges

delivered in above cases held that right of privacy is

a right which is constitutionally protected and it is

a part of protection guaranteed under Article 21 of

the Constitution of India. Explaining the essential

nature of privacy, Dr. D.Y. Chandrachud, J. in

paragraphs 297 and 298 laid down following:

“297. What, then, does privacy postulate? Privacy postulates the reservation of a 28

private space for the individual, described as the right to be let alone. The concept is founded on the autonomy of the individual. The ability of an individual to make choices lies at the core of the human personality. The notion of privacy enables the individual to assert and control the human element which is inseparable from the personality of the individual. The inviolable nature of the human personality is manifested in the ability to make decisions on matters intimate to human life. The autonomy of the individual is associated over matters which can be kept private. These are concerns over which there is a legitimate expectation of privacy. The body and the mind are inseparable elements of the human personality. The integrity of the body and the sanctity of the mind can exist on the foundation that each individual possesses an inalienable ability and right to preserve a private space in which the human personality can develop. Without the ability to make choices, the inviolability of the personality would be in doubt. Recognising a zone of privacy is but an acknowledgment that each individual must be entitled to chart and pursue the course of development of personality. Hence privacy is a postulate of human dignity itself. Thoughts and behavioural patterns which are intimate to an individual are entitled to a zone of privacy where one is free of social expectations. In that zone of privacy, an individual is not judged by others. Privacy enables each individual to take crucial decisions which find expression in the human personality. It enables individuals to preserve their beliefs, thoughts, expressions, ideas, ideologies, preferences and choices against societal demands of homogeneity. Privacy is an intrinsic recognition of heterogeneity, of the right of the individual to be different 29

and to stand against the tide of conformity in creating a zone of solitude. Privacy protects the individual from the searching glare of publicity in matters which are personal to his or her life. Privacy attaches to the person and not to the place where it is associated. Privacy constitutes the foundation of all liberty because it is in privacy that the individual can decide how liberty is best exercised. Individual dignity and privacy are inextricably linked in a pattern woven out of a thread of diversity into the fabric of a plural culture.

298. Privacy of the individual is an essential aspect of dignity. Dignity has both an intrinsic and instrumental value. As an intrinsic value, human dignity is an entitlement or a constitutionally protected interest in itself. In its instrumental facet, dignity and freedom are inseparably intertwined, each being a facilitative tool to achieve the other. The ability of the individual to protect a zone of privacy enables the realisation of the full value of life and liberty. Liberty has a broader meaning of which privacy is a subset. All liberties may not be exercised in privacy.

Yet others can be fulfilled only within a private space. Privacy enables the individual to retain the autonomy of the body and mind.

The autonomy of the individual is the ability to make decisions on vital matters of concern to life. Privacy has not been couched as an independent fundamental right. But that does not detract from the constitutional protection afforded to it, once the true nature of privacy and its relationship with those fundamental rights which are expressly protected is understood. Privacy lies across the spectrum of protected freedoms. The guarantee of equality is a guarantee against arbitrary State action. It prevents the State 30

from discriminating between individuals. The destruction by the State of a sanctified personal space whether of the body or of the mind is violative of the guarantee against arbitrary State action. Privacy of the body entitles an individual to the integrity of the physical aspects of personhood. The intersection between one’s mental integrity and privacy entitles the individual to freedom of thought, the freedom to believe in what is right, and the freedom of self­ determination. When these guarantees intersect with gender, they create a private space which protects all those elements which are crucial to gender identity. The family, marriage, procreation and sexual orientation are all integral to the dignity of the individual. Above all, the privacy of the individual recognises an inviolable right to determine how freedom shall be exercised. An individual may perceive that the best form of expression is to remain silent. Silence postulates a realm of privacy. An artist finds reflection of the soul in a creative endeavour. A writer expresses the outcome of a process of thought. A musician contemplates upon notes which musically lead to silence.

The silence, which lies within, reflects on the ability to choose how to convey thoughts and ideas or interact with others. These are crucial aspects of personhood. The freedoms under Article 19 can be fulfilled where the individual is entitled to decide upon his or her preferences. Read in conjunction with Article 21, liberty enables the individual to have a choice of preferences on various facets of life including what and how one will eat, the way one will dress, the faith one will espouse and a myriad other matters on which autonomy and self­determination require a choice to be made within the privacy of the mind. The constitutional right 31

to the freedom of religion under Article 25 has implicit within it the ability to choose a faith and the freedom to express or not express those choices to the world. These are some illustrations of the manner in which privacy facilitates freedom and is intrinsic to the exercise of liberty. The Constitution does not contain a separate article telling us that privacy has been declared to be a fundamental right. Nor have we tagged the provisions of Part III with an alpha­suffixed right to privacy: this is not an act of judicial redrafting. Dignity cannot exist without privacy. Both reside within the inalienable values of life, liberty and freedom which the Constitution has recognised. Privacy is the ultimate expression of the sanctity of the individual. It is a constitutional value which straddles across the spectrum of fundamental rights and protects for the individual a zone of choice and self­determination.”

28. Privacy has been held to be an intrinsic element

of the right to life and personal liberty Under

Article 21 and has a constitutional value which is

embodied in the fundamental freedoms embedded in Part

III of the Constitution. It was further held that like

the right to life and liberty, privacy is not

absolute. The limitations which operate on the right

to life and personal liberty would operate on the

right to privacy. Any curtailment or deprivation of

that right would have to take place under a regime of 32

law. The procedure established by law must be fair,

just and reasonable.

29. The nine­Judge Constitution Bench also noticed the

context of right of privacy under the international

covenants. The protection of right of privacy as

developed in U.K. decision, decisions of US Supreme

Court, constitutional right to privacy in South

Africa, constitutional right to privacy in Canada,

privacy under European convention on human rights and

under Charter of fundamental rights of European Union

were considered with reference to decision rendered by

foreign courts.

30. Justice D.Y. Chandradhud in his judgment traced

the right of privacy from the judgments of this Court

which were rendered for the last five decades.

Referring to International Law on the subject,

following observations were made by Justice D.Y.

Chandradhud, J.:

“103...In the view of this Court, international law has to be construed as a 33

part of domestic law in the absence of legislation to the contrary and, perhaps more significantly, the meaning of constitutional guarantees must be illuminated by the content of international conventions to which India is a party. Consequently, as new cases brought new issues and problems before the Court, the content of the right to privacy has found elaboration in these diverse contexts.”

31. All contours of the right of privacy having been

noticed with all its dimensions, precautions and

safeguards to be applied to protect fundamental rights

guaranteed under the Constitution of India, we while

proceeding to decide the issues raised herein have to

proceed in the light of nine­Judge Constitution Bench

of this Court as noticed above.

32. We have been manifestly benefited by able and

elaborate submissions raised before us by many eminent

learned senior counsel appearing for both the parties.

Learned counsel for both the parties have advanced

their submissions with clarity, conviction and lot of

persuasions. On occasions very passionate arguments

were advanced to support the respective submissions. 34

33. Different aspects of the case have been taken up

and advanced by different counsel as per understanding

between them which enlightened the Court on varied

aspects of the case. The submissions have been

advanced on behalf of the petitioners by learned

senior Advocates, namely, Shri Kapil Sibal, Shri Gopal

Subramanium, Shri P. Chidambaram, Shri Shyam Divan,

Shri K.V. Viswanathan, Shri Neeraj Kishan Kaul, Ms.

Meenakshi Arora, Shri C.U. Singh, Shri Anand Grover,

Shri Sanjay R. Hegde, Shri Arvind P. Datar, Shri

V.Giri, Shri Sajan Poovayya and Shri P.V. Surendra

Nath. A large number of other counsel also assisted

us including Mr. Gopal Sankaranarayanan. On behalf of

respondents arguments were led by the learned Attorney

General, Shri K.K. Venugopal. We have also heard Shri

Tushar Mehta, Additional Solicitor General, Shri

Rakesh Dwivedi, learned senior counsel and Shri Zohaib

Hossain.

34. We also permitted Dr. Ajay B. Pandey, Chief

Executive Officer, UIDAI to give a power presentation 35

to explain actual working of the system. After the

power presentation was presented by Dr. Pandey in the

presence of the learned counsel for the parties,

learned counsel have also thereafter raised certain

questions in respect of the power presentation, which

the respondents during submissions have tried to

explain. In view of the enormity of submissions raised

by the different learned counsel appearing for the

petitioners, we proceed to notice different part of

submissions together. As noted above writ petitions

have been filed at two stages, firstly, when UIDAI

Scheme was being impleaded by the Executive order

dated 28.01.2009. Secondly, challenge was raised when

Act, 2016 was enacted. The challenge to the Scheme

dated 24.01.2009 contained almost same grounds on

which Act, 2016 has been attacked. Additional ground

to challenge the Scheme was that Scheme having not

been backed by law, the entire exercise was

unconstitutional and violative of fundamental rights

guaranteed under the Constitution of India and

deserved to be set aside. The Act, 2016 having enacted 36

and now statutory scheme is in place, we shall first

proceed to notice the submissions attacking the Act,

2016 which challenge has been substantial and

elaborately raised before us.

Petitioner's Submissions

35. The submissions advanced by different learned

counsel for the petitioners instead of noticing

individually are being noted together in seriatim,

which are as follows:­

36. The Aadhaar project initiated by Executive

notification dated 28.01.2009 as well as impugned Act,

2016 violates Article 21. The constitutional rights

of a person protected under Articles 19 and 21 of the

Constitution is violated as individuals are compelled

to part with their demographic and biometric

information at the point of collection. Biometric

data is part of one's body and control over one's body

lies on the very centre of the Right of Privacy.

Decisional privacy allows individual to make a 37

decision about their own body and is an aspect of

right of self­determination. The Aadhaar Project

including the Aadhaar Act violate the informational

privacy. Data collection at the enrolment centres,

the Data retention at Central Identities Data

Repositories (CIDR), usage and sharing of data

violates Right of Privacy. There is complete absence

of safeguards at the stage of collection, retention

and use of data. Act, 2016 and Regulations framed

thereunder lack safeguards to secure sensitive

personal data of a person.

37. The Aadhaar project including Act, 2016 creates an

architecture for pervasive surveillance, which again

violate fundamental Right to Privacy. Personal data

collected under the Executive scheme dated 28.01.2009

was without any individual's consent. The Act, 2016

although contemplate that enrolment under Aadhaar is

voluntary but in actual working of the Act, it becomes

defacto compulsory. The Act, 2016 does not pass the

three­fold test as laid down by Nine Judges Bench in 38

Privacy Judgment ­ K.S. Puttaswamy Vs. Union of India,

(2017) 10 SCC 1, hereinafter referred to as

“Puttaswamy case”. The Three­fold test laid down in

Puttaswamy's case are:­

(i) legality, which postulates the

existence of law;

(ii) need, defined in terms of a legitimate

state aim; and

(iii) proportionality which ensures a

rational nexus between the objects and

the means adopted to achieve them;

38. It is submitted that a law to pass under Article

21 should be a law according to procedure established

by law. The Act, 2016 violates both Article 14 and

Article 21 of the Constitution of India. A legitimate

State aim, which ensure that nature and content of the

law, which imposes the restriction falls within the

reasonable restrictions mandated by Article 14 is also

not fulfilled. State has not been able to discharge

its burden that Aadhaar project has been launched for 39

a legitimate State aim. The third requirement, which

require that the means that are adopted by the

legislature are proportional to the object sought to

be fulfilled by the law is also not fulfilled since

the provisions of the Act and Regulations framed

thereunder does not satisfy the Proportionality Test.

The various provisions of Act, 2016 and Regulations

framed thereunder are unconstitutional. Section 6 of

the Act, 2016 is unconstitutional inasmuch as it

enable the respondents to continually compel residents

to periodically furnish demographic and biometric

information. Section 7 of the Act, 2016 is

unconstitutional inasmuch as it seeks to render the

constitutional and statutory obligations of the State

to provide benefits, subsidies and services,

conditional upon an individual bartering his or her

biometric and demographic information. Section 8 is

unconstitutional since it enables tracking, tagging

and profiling of individuals through the

authentication process. Section 8 delineate a regime

of surveillance, which enables persons' physical 40

movements to be traced. Section 9 of the Act, 2016 is

also unconstitutional inasmuch as the Aadhaar number

is de facto serving as proof of citizenship and

domicile. The provisions of Chapter IV, i.e.,

Sections 11 to 33 are ultra vires and

unconstitutional. The Constitution does not permit

the establishment of an authority that in turn through

an invasive programme can claim every Indian

citizen/resident to a central data bank and maintain

lifelong records and logs of that individual.

Sections 23 and 54 of the Act, 2016 are also

unconstitutional on the ground of excessive

delegation. Section 29 of the Act, 2016 is also

liable to be struck down inasmuch as it permits

sharing of identity information. Section 33 is

unconstitutional inasmuch as it provides for the use

of the Aadhaar data base for police investigation

pursuant to an order of a competent court. Section 33

violates the protection against self­incrimination as

enshrined under Article 20(3) of the Constitution of

India. Furthermore, Section 33 does not afford an 41

opportunity of hearing to the concerned individual

whose information is sought to be released by the

UIDAI pursuant to the court's order. This is contrary

to the principles of natural justice. Section 47 is

also unconstitutional inasmuch as it does not allow an

individual citizen who finds that there is a violation

of the Act, 2016 to initiate the criminal process.

Section 48, which empowers the Central Government to

supersede UIDAI is vague and arbitrary.

39. Elaborating submission with regard to Section 7,

it is submitted that Section 7 is unconstitutional and

violative of Article 14 making Aadhaar mandatory,

which has no nexus with the subsidies, benefits and

services. A person cannot be forced into parting with

sensitive personal information as a condition for

availing benefits or services. Section 7 also falls

foul of Article 14 since firstly such mandatory

authentication has caused, and continues to cause,

exclusion of the most marginalised sections of

society; and secondly, this exclusion is not simply a

question of poor implementation that can be 42

administratively resolved, but stems from the very

design of the Act, i.e. the use of biometric

authentication as the primary method of

identification. There is large scale exclusion to the

mostly marginalised society not being able to identify

themselves by identification process. There is

sufficient material on record to indicate general

deprivation, which itself is sufficient to struck down

Section 7 of the Act.

40. Elaborating submission on unconstitutionality of

Section 57, it is contended that Section 57 allows an

unrestricted extension of the Aadhaar information to

users who may be Government agencies or private sector

operators. Section 57 enables commercial exploitation

of an individual's biometrics and demographic

information by the respondents as well as private

entities. The provision also ensures creation of a

surveillance society, where every entity assists the

State to snoop upon an Aadhaar holder. The use of

Aadhaar infrastructure by private entities is

unconstitutional.

43

41. Elaborating submissions on Section 59, it is

contended that Section 59 is unconstitutional inasmuch

as it seeks to validate all action undertaken by the

Central Government pursuant to the notification dated

28.01.2009. Enrolment in pursuance of notification

dated 28.01.2009 having been done without an informed

consent amounts to deprivation of the intimate

personal information of an individual violating the

fundamental Right of Privacy. All steps taken under

the notification dated 28.01.2009 were not backed by

any law, hence unconstitutional and clearly violate

Article 21, which cannot be cured in a manner as

Section 59 pretend to do.

42. The Act is unconstitutional since it collects the

identify information of children between five to

eighteen years without parental consent. The Aadhaar

architecture adopts foreign technologies, on which

UIDAI does not have any control, exposing data leak

endangering life of people and security of nation.

43. Rule 9 as amended by PMLA Rules, 2017 is 44

unconstitutional being violative of Articles 14,

19(1)(g), 21 and 300A of the Constitution of India.

Rule 9 also violates Sections 3, 7 and 51 of the Act,

2016 and ultra vires to the provisions of PMLA Act,

2002.

44. Section 139AA of the Income Tax Act, 1961 is

liable to be struck down as violative of Articles 14,

19(1)(g) and 21 of the Constitution in view of Privacy

Judgment – Puttaswamy (supra).

45. The Mobile Linking Circular dated 23.03.2017

issued by Ministry of Communications, Department of

Telecommunications is ultra vires.

46. The Aadhaar Act, 2016 has wrongly been passed as a

Money Bill. The Aadhaar Act, 2016 is not a Money

Bill. The Speaker of Lok Sabha wrongly certified the

bill as a Money Bill under Article 110 of the

Constitution of India virtually excluding the Rajya

Sabha from legislative process and depriving the

Hon'ble President of his power of return. Clauses

23(2)(g), Section 54(2)(m) and Section 57 of The 45

Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other

Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Bill, 2016 and the

corresponding Sections of the Act, 2016 as notified

clearly do not fall under any of the Clauses of

Article 110 of the Constitution. The Act of Speaker

certifying the bill as a Money Bill is clearly

violation of constitutional provisions. Judicial

Review of decision of Speaker certifying it as Money

Bill is permissible on the ground of illegality. The

Aadhaar Bill being not a money bill and having been

passed by Parliament as a Money Bill, this ground

alone is sufficient to strike down the entire Act,

2016.

47. Learned Attorney General replying the above

submissions of the counsel for the petitioners

submits:­

48. In the Privacy Judgment P.S. Puttaswamy case

(supra) all nine Judges uniformly agreed that privacy

is a fundamental right traceable to the right to

liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution and hence 46

subject to the same limitations as applicable to the

said Article. It has further been held that right of

privacy is not absolute and is subject to limitations.

Justice D.Y. Chandrachud in his lead judgment laid

down that following three tests are required to be

satisfied for judging the permissible limits of the

invasion of privacy under Article 21 of the

Constitution:

(a) The existence of a law

(b) A legitimate State interest; and

(c) The said Law should pass the test of proportionality.

49. The above tests have also been agreed by other

Judges who have delivered the separate judgment.

Justice J. Chelameswar and Justice A.N. Sapre have

used the test of compelling State interest whereas

Justice R.F. Nariman stated that if this test is

applied, the result is that one would be entitled to

invoke larger public interest in lieu of legitimate

State aim. The legitimate State aim obviously will

lead to public interest, hence in the event test of 47

legitimate State aim is fulfilled, the test of public

interest stands fulfilled. After enactment of Act,

2016, the first condition in regard to the existence

of a law stands satisfied. The Act requires only the

bare demographic particulars, while eschewing most

other demographic particulars. The Act further

contains adequate safeguards for protection of

information and preventing abuse through a catena of

offences and penalties. The provisions of Act ensure

that the law is a just, fair and reasonable and not

fanciful, oppressive or arbitrary.

50. The legitimate State interest or a larger public

interest permeates through the Act, 2016 which is

clearly indicated by the following:

A. Preventing the dissipation of subsidies and social welfare benefits which is covered by Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act;

B. Prevention of black money and money laundering by imposing a requirement by law for linking Aadhaar for opening bank accounts;

C. To prevent income tax evasion by requiring, through an amendment to the Income Tax Act, that the Aadhaar number be linked with the PAN; and 48

D. To prevent terrorism and protect national security by requiring that Aadhaar be linked to SIM cards for mobile phones.”

51. The Aadhaar Act, 2016 was enacted with prolonged

deliberations and study. The petitioners have failed

to establish any arbitrariness in the Act. The right

to life under Article 21 is not the right to a mere

animal existence, but the right to live with human

dignity which would include the right to food, the

right to shelter, the right to employment, the right

to medical care, education etc. If these rights are

juxtaposed against the right to privacy, the former

will and prevail over the latter. In so far as

implementation of Aadhaar project prior to coming into

force of Act, 2016, since obtaining an Aadhaar number

or an enrolment number was voluntary, especially

because of the interim orders passed by this Court, no

issue of violation of any right, leave alone a

fundamental right, could arise. The judgments of this

Court in M.P. Sharma and Kharak Singh (supra) being

those of eight Judges and six Judges respectively,

holding that the right to privacy is not a fundamental 49

right, the judgments of smaller benches delivered

during the period upto 2016 would be per incuriam, as

a result of which the State need not to have proceeded

on the basis that a law was required for the purpose

of getting an Aadhaar number or an enrolment number.

As a result, the Executive instructions issued for

this purpose would be valid as well as the receipt of

benefits and subsidies by the beneficiaries. In any

view of the matter, Section 59 of the Act protects all

actions taken during the period 2010 until the passing

of the Aadhaar Act in 2016.

52. Learned Attorney General submitted that Aadhaar

Act has rightly been characterised as Money Bill as

understood under Article 110 of the Constitution. The

heart of the Aadhaar Act is Section 7. It is not the

creation of Aadhaar number per se which is the core of

the Act, rather, that is only a means to identify the

correct beneficiary and ensure ‘targeted delivery of

subsidies, benefits and services’, the expenditure for

which is incurred from the Consolidated Fund of India. 50

The decision of the Speaker incorporated into a

certificate sent to the President is final and cannot

be the subject matter of judicial review.

53. The decision and certification of the Speaker

being a matter of procedure is included in the Chapter

under the head ‘Legislative Procedure’ which clearly

excluded judicial review. The present issue is

squarely covered by the decisions of this Court.

54. Section 57, which has been attacked as being

untraceable to any of the sub­clauses of (a) to (f) of

Article 110 cannot be looked at in isolation. The Bill

in its pith and substance should pass the test of

being a Money Bill and not isolated provisions.

55. Learned Additional Solicitor General of India,

Shri Tushar Mehta, also advanced submissions on few

aspects of the matter. On Section 139AA of Income Tax

Act, 1961 it is submitted that petitioners can succeed

only when they demonstrate that Section 139AA is

violative of right to privacy on the following tests 51

as laid down by nine­Judge Constitution Bench in

Puttaswamy case:

(i) absence of a law;

(ii) absence of legitimate State interest”

(iii) provisions being hit by lack of proportionality; (iv) the provisions being manifestly arbitrary.

56. It is submitted that two­Judge Bench judgment of

this Court in Binoy Biswam Vs. Union of India and

others, (2017) 7 SCC 59, had upheld the vires of

Section 139AA subject to issue of privacy which at

that point of time was pending consideration. It is

further submitted that provision pertaining to

Permanent Account Number (PAN) was inserted in the

Income Tax Act by Section 139A with effect from

01.04.1989 which obliged every person to quote PAN for

different purposes as enumerated in Section 139A. The

Petitioners or anyone else never felt aggrieved by

requirement of getting PAN under Section 139A and

Parliament on considering the legitimate State

interest has introduced Section 139AA which is only an 52

extension of Section 139A which requires linking of

PAN with Aadhaar number.

57. The Income Tax Act was amended by the Parliament

by inserting Section 139AA in the legitimate State

interest and in larger public interest. The object of

linking was to remove bogus PAN cards by linking with

Aadhaar, expose shell companies and thereby curb the

menace of black money, money laundering and tax

evasion. Problem of multiple PAN cards to same

individuals and PAN cards in the name of fictitious

individuals are common medium of money laundering, tax

evasion, creation and channeling of black money.

58. Linking of Aadhaar with PAN is consistent with

India’s international obligations and Goals. India has

signed the Inter­Governmental Agreement (IGA) with the

USA on July, 9, 2015, for improving International Tax

Compliance and implementing the Foreign Account Tax

Compliance Act. It is submitted that prior to

01.07.2017 already 1.75 crore tax payers had linked

their PAN with Aadhaar on a voluntary basis. Replying 53

the arguments based on the interim orders passed by

this Court in the present group of petitions, it is

submitted that enactment of Aadhaar Act, 2016 has

taken away and cured the basis of the interim order

passed by this Court since one of the submissions

which was made before this Court in passing the

interim orders was that there was no law, that Aadhaar

project was being implemented without backing of any

law and during the said period the interim orders were

passed. The Aadhaar Act addresses the concern of this

Court as reflected in the interim orders passed before

enactment of the Act.

59. Shri Mehta further contended that there is

presumption to the constitutionality of a statute and

unless one attacking the statute satisfies the Court

that the statute is unconstitutional, the presumption

will be there that statute is constitutional. Shri

Mehta has further submitted that there is no

presumption of criminality or guilt on the requirement

to link Aadhaar.

54

60. Elaborating the doctrine of proportionality,

Additional Solicitor General submits that Section 139A

fully satisfies the aforesaid test of proportionality.

61. Additional Solicitor General in support of

Prevention of Money­laundering (Maintenance of

Records) Second Amendment Rules, 2017 submits that the

State has sought to make the provisions of PMLA more

robust and ensure that the ultimate object of the Act

is achieved. The Amendment Rules, 2017 place an

obligation on part of the reporting entity to seek the

details with regard to Aadhaar number of every client.

It is submitted that the said Rules have to be read in

consonance with the object of the PMLA and the

principles of “beneficial owner” behind the corporate

veil of shell companies, etc. It is submitted that the

PMLA empowers the State to utilise the uniqueness of

Aadhaar in order to tackle the problem of money

laundering. It is submitted that the PMLA Act, with a

clear emphasis on the investigation of the biological

persons behind the corporate entities, establishes a

mechanism wherein receiving benefits through benami or 55

shell companies through related/connected Directors,

fictitious persons or other personnel is eliminated.

62. Section 139AA and PMLA Rules amended in 2017 are

co­ordinated in their operation. The PMLA Rules are

not ultra vires. Mr. Mehta has also referred to

international Conventions declaring money laundering

to be a very serious offence. He submits that

Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 was enacted

in the context of concrete international efforts to

tackle the menace of money laundering. Shri Mehta has

also emphasised on the necessity of verification of

bank accounts with Aadhaar number. He submits that the

verification of bank account by way of Aadhaar is done

for the reason that often bank accounts are opened in

either fictitious names or in the name of wrong

persons on the basis of forged identity documents and

financial crimes are committed. It is seen that

accommodation entries are mostly provided through the

banking channels by bogus companies to convert black

money into white. Benami transactions routinely take

place through banking channels. All of the above, can 56

to a large extent be checked by verifying Aadhaar with

bank accounts to ensure that the account belongs to

the person who claims to be the account holder and

that he or she is a genuine person. Verification of

bank account with Aadhaar also ensures that the direct

benefit transfer of subsidies reach the Aadhaar

verified bank account and is not diverted to some

other account. Shell companies are often used to open

bank accounts to hold unaccounted money of other

entities under fictitious identities which will also

be curbed once Aadhaar verification is initiated.

63. Shri Mehta further contends that impugned PMLA

Rules do not violate Article 300A. Amendment Rules,

2017 also cannot be said to be ultra vires to the

parent Act since it advances the object of the Act and

is not ultra vires of any provision of the Act. The

Amendment Rules are required to be placed before the

Parliament which serve a purpose of check by the

Legislature. As per Section 159 of the Act any

notification under Section 29 is to be placed before

the Parliament and Parliament may amend or reject the 57

same. The Rules, 2017 are just, fair and reasonable

and in furtherance of the object of the Act and do not

provide for any arbitrary, uncanalised or unbridled

power.

64. Shri Rakesh Dwivedi, learned senior counsel,

appearing on behalf of UIDAI and State of Gujarat has

made elaborate submissions while replying the

arguments of petitioners. The right to privacy is part

of Article 21. The autonomy of individual is

associated over matters which can be kept private.

These are concerns over which there is a reasonable

expectation of privacy. The reasonable expectation

involves two aspects. Firstly, the individual or

individuals claiming a right to privacy must establish

that their claim involves a concern about some harm

likely to be inflicted upon them on account of the

alleged act. This concern should be real and not

imaginary or speculative. Secondly, the concern should

not be inflated.

58

65. The Act, 2016 operates in the relational sphere

and not in the core, private or personal sphere of

residents. It involves minimal identity information

for effective authentication. The purpose is limited

to authenticate for identification. The Act operates

in a public sphere. Section 29 of the Aadhaar Act,

2016 provides protection against disclosure of

identity information without the prior consent of the

Aadhaar Number holder concerned. Sharing is intended

only for authentication purposes.

66. It is submitted that by their very nature the

demographic information and photograph sought to be

collected cannot be said to be of such a nature as

would make it a part of a reasonable expectation

paradigm. Today, globally all ID cards and passports

contain photographs for identification along with

address, date of birth, gender etc. The demographic

information is readily provided by individuals

globally for disclosing identity while relating with

others; while seeking benefits whether provided by

government or by private entities. People who get 59

registered for engaging in a profession, who take

admissions in Schools/Colleges/university, who seek

employment in the government or private concerns and

those who engage in various trade and commerce are all

required to provide demographic information and even

photographs. There is no expectation of privacy in

providing those information for the above purposes.

67. There are lot of enactments which require

disclosure of demographic information comprising name,

address, email address etc., for example Central Motor

Vehicle Rules, 1989, Companies Act, 2013, Special

Marriage Act, The Registration of Electoral Rules,

1960, The Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and

Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2009 and the

Passports Act. However, there are certain special

contexts in which non­disclosure of demographic

information could be considered as raising a

reasonable expectation of privacy such as where

juveniles in conflict with law are involved or where a

rape victim’s identity or medical information is

involved. Thus, unless some such special context or 60

aggravating factor is established, there would not be

any reasonable expectation of privacy with respect to

demographic information.

68. As regards the core biometric information,

comprising finger prints and iris scans it would be

pertinent to bear in mind that the Aadhaar Act is not

dealing with the intimate or private sphere of the

individual. The core biometrics are being collected

from residents for authentication use in a public

sphere and in relational context in which regard there

is no reasonable expectation of privacy in relation to

fingerprints and iris scans. Iris scan is nothing but

a photograph of the eyes taken from a camera. From

fingerprints and iris scans nothing is revealed with

regard to a person.

69. Use of fingerprints with regard to registration of

documents is an accepted phenomena. The use of

mandatory requirement of biometric attendance is

increasing day by day both in public and private

sector. Thus, requirement of fingerprints and iris 61

scan would not attract the fundamental right of

privacy. The fingerprint and iris scan have been

considered to be most accurate and non­invasive mode

of identifying an individual.

70. The information collected under the Act, 2016 does

not involve processing for economic and sociological

purposes. Further, in the data center de­duplication

process is based on anonymization and what is stored

in the servers for authentication process are simply

templates and encrypted information of Aadhaar number

and demographics. The identity data collected is

stored offline. There is no internet connectivity.

Thus, there is more than a reasonable security

protection under the Act.

71. The rationale of Section 7 lies in ensuring

targeted delivery of services, benefits and subsidies

which are funded from the Consolidated Fund of India.

In discharge of its solemn Constitutional obligation

to enliven the Fundamental Rights of life and personal

liberty and to eliminate inequality with a view to 62

ameliorate the lot of the poor and the Dalits, the

Central Government has launched several welfare

schemes. Some of such schemes are PDS, scholarship,

mid day meals, LPG subsidies, free education,etc.

72. The requirement to undergo authentication on the

basis of Aadhaar number is made mandatory by

Section 7. This requirement is only for “undertaking

authentication”. However, if authentication fails,

despite more than one attempt then the possession of

Aadhaar number can be proved otherwise, i.e., by

producing the Aadhaar card, and those who do not have

Aadhaar number can make an application for enrolment

and produce the enrolment id number (EID). This takes

care of non­exclusion.

73. Aadhaar Act truly seeks to secure to the poor and

deprived persons an opportunity to live their life and

exercise their liberty. By ensuring targeted delivery

through digital identification, it not only provides

them a nationally recognised identity but also

attempts to ensure the delivery of benefits, service 63

and subsidies with the aid of public

exchequer/Consolidated Fund of India. And it does so

without impacting the Fundamental Right to Privacy of

the Indians or at best minimally impacting it with

adequate safeguards.

74. Regarding the numerization or numericalization of

individual argument, it is submitted that the Aadhaar

number does not convert the human being into a number.

The objective of the Aadhaar number is to enable

authentication which is done on a 1:1 matching basis,

i.e., to say when the requesting entity feeds the

Aadhaar number along with some identity information

then the CIDR picks up the template having that

Aadhaar number automatically and matches identity

information with the encrypted information in the

template. This Aadhaar number is, therefore,

absolutely essential for the technological success of

authentication. It is, therefore, a technology

requirement and it does not amount to numerization or

numericalisation. The contention of the petitioners

ignores the distinction between identity and 64

identification. The 12 digit Aadhaar number is not

given by UIDAI to alter the identity of the

individual. It is provided to the enrolled individual

to enable his identification through authentication.

Authentication is a multi dimensional identifying

process. The Aadhaar number is one element or one

identifier in the process of identification through

authentication. It is identificational in nature.

Section 2(a) of Aadhaar Act defines Aadhaar number to

mean “an identification number”. Section 2(c) defines

authentication as a process requiring submission of

Aadhaar number to CIDR for verification. Further,

Section 4(2) provides that the Aadhaar number shall be

a random number and shall bear no relation to the

attributes or identity of the Aadhaar number holder.

It is proof of identity and not identity itself.

75. Replying the submission of the petitioners that

fundamental right of privacy/dignity/autonomy under

Article 21 could not be waived. It is submitted that

Section 7 of Aadhaar Act does not involve any issue of

waiver. When an individual undergoes any 65

authentication to establish his identity to receive

benefits, services or subsidies, he does so to enliven

his fundamental right to life and personal liberty

under Article 21.

76. With regard to Section 57, it is submitted that

since an infrastructure for establishing identity of

residents is available, therefore, Parliament intends

to make the use of Aadhaar number available for other

purposes provided the need for the service of

authentication arises pursuant to any law or contract.

The rationale seems to be that due to liberalisation

and privatisation in many governmental and public

sector zones, private corporate bodies are operating

in parallel and in competition with public sector –

banking, insurance, defence, health etc. These are

vital core sectors absolutely essential for National

integrity, National economy and life of people. In

many areas private bodies operate under common

regulators such as TRAI, Airport Authority, IRDA etc.

Then there is rapidly growing e­commerce.

66

77. In Reply to the submission of Shri Kapil Sibal

that the real object of the Act was to provide data to

the digital giants like Google, Facebook and other

private players, it is contended that there is no

factual foundation for this submission in any writ

petition. In the Act there is a complete bar with

respect to sharing of core biometric information vide

Section 29(1). The non­core biometric information is

to be shared only as per the provisions of the Act and

Regulations and with prior consent and only for the

purpose of authentication.

78. On the submission of the petitioners that power of

UIDAI to add identity information by Regulation is

unguided and violative of Article 14, it is submitted

that clauses (g) and (j) of Section 2 use the

expression ‘such other biological attribute’. This

general expression needs to be construed by applying

the doctrine of ejusdem generis. The use of word

‘such’ implies similarity with what is specifically

mentioned before the general expression. The

Regulations framed by UIDAI are required to be laid 67

before the Parliament under Section 55. Section 55 is

a mandatory provision. The Parliament has power to

modify the Regulation and also to reject the

Regulation. This is a legislative check on the

Regulation making power.

79. Almost 3% of GDP amounting to trillions of rupees

is allocated by Governments towards subsidies,

scholarships, pensions, education, food and other

welfare programmes. But approximately half of it does

not reach the intended beneficiaries. A former Prime

Minister said only 15 out of 100 rupees reaches the

target person. This was confirmed by the Planning

Commission. In the Audit Report No.3 of 2000 CAG

stated in “Overview” that programmes suffered from

serious targeting problems. It noted that bogus ration

cards were being used for diversions (1.93 crores

bogus).

80. Even otherwise, there is no other identification

document which is widely and commonly possessed by the

residents of the country and most of the identity

documents do not enjoy the quality of portability. 68

They also do not lend assurance and accuracy on

account of existence of fake, bogus and ghost cards.

Therefore, there was need of a biometric Aadhaar

number which enables de­duplication and

authentication.

81. Shri Dwivedi submits that security and data

privacy is ensured in the following manner:­

(i) The data sent to ABIS is completely anonymised. The ABIS systems do not have access to resident’s demographic information as they are only sent biometric information of a resident with a reference number and asked to de­duplicate. The de­duplication result with the reference number is mapped back to the correct enrolment number by the Authorities own enrolment server.

(ii) The ABIS providers only provide their software and services. The data is stored in UIDAI storage and it never leaves the secure premises.

(iii) The ABIS providers do not store the biometric images (source). They only 69

store template for the purposes of de­ duplication (with reference number).

(iv) The encrypted enrolment packet sent by the enrolment client software to the CIDR is decrypted by the enrolment server but the decrypted packet is never stored.

(v) The original biometric images of fingerprints, iris and face are archived and stored offline. Hence, they cannot be accessed through an online network.

(vi) The biometric system provides high accuracy of over 99.86%. The mixed biometric have been adopted only to enhance the accuracy and to reduce the errors which may arise on account of some residents either not having biometrics or not having some particular biometric.

82. Biometrics are being used for unique

identification in e­passports by 120 countries. Out of

these many countries use fingerprints and/or iris

scans. Additionally 19 European Countries have smart

National Identity cards having chips containing 70

biometric information. A number of African and Asian

countries are also using biometrics for

identification. The ECHR and ECJ have not declared the

use of biometrics or the collection and storage of

data for the said purpose to be violative of Human

Rights. It has infact been upheld in the context of

passports, by the ECJ.

83. On the submissions that de­duplication/

authentication software has been received from three

foreign suppliers and since the source code of the

algorithm is with the foreign suppliers, therefore,

they can easily obtain the data in the CIDR merely by

manipulation of the algorithm, Shri Dwivedi submits

that foreign biometric solution providers only provide

the software, the server and hardware belongs to

UIDAI. So far the software is concerned UIDAI uses the

software as licensee. There is no free access to the

server room which is wholly secured by security

guards. The enrolment data packet, after being

received in the data center, is decrypted for a short

duration to enable extraction of minutiae and 71

preparation of templates. Once the template is

prepared the entire biometric data is stored offline

under the complete control of the UIDAI officials.

84. It is correct that the source code for the

algorithms provided are retained by the BSPs which

constitutes the intellectual property right of the

BSP, however, it does not introduce any insecurity of

data in the CIDR as the softwares operate

automatically in the servers located in the server

rooms and also because the software functions only on

the basis of the templates whilst the biometric data

is stored offline.

85. During the submissions, Shri Dwivedi also

emphasised on prohibition of sharing of core biometric

information. As per Section 29(1) read with Regulation

17(1) of the Aadhaar (Sharing of Information)

Regulations, 2016. Referring to various Regulations of

the above Regulations. Shri Dwivedi submitted that the

architecture of Aadhaar and its functioning does not

permit CIDR to note about parties of any transaction 72

or location of the individual seeking identification

of his Aadhaar number. Requesting Agency is strictly

restricted to sharing of only demographic information

plus photograph and for authentication only, and this

is also with express and separate prior consent of the

ANH. Requesting Entities cannot share authentication

logs with any person other than the ANH or for

grievance redressal and resolution of disputes or with

the Authority for audit and shall not be used for any

purpose other than stated in Regulation 18(5).

86. Elaborating on security Shri Dwivedi submitted

that Section 28(4) mandates that the UIDAI shall

ensure that the agencies appointed by it have in place

the appropriate technical and organizational security

measures for the information and ensure that the

agreements or arrangements entered into with such

agencies impose obligations equivalent to those

imposed on the Authority and require such agencies to

act only on instructions from the Authority.

87. RE shall ensure that the identity information of 73

the ANH or any other information generated during the

authentication is kept confidential, secure and

protected against access, use and disclosure not

permitted under the Act and regulations.[Regulation

17(1)(e)]. The private key used for digitally signing

the authentication request and the license keys are

kept secure and access controlled[Regulation 17(1)(f)

and 22(3)]. All relevant laws and regulations in

relation to data storage and data protection relating

to Aadhaar based identity information in their

systems, that of their agents and with authentication

devices are compiled with [Regulation 17(1)(g)].

88. Regulation 22(4) provides that RE shall adhere to

all regulations, information security policies,

processes, standards, specifications and guidelines

issued from time to time.

89. By virtue of Section 56 and 61 of the Aadhaar Act,

2016, the provisions of IT Act, 2000 are applicable

except where it is inconsistent with Aadhaar Act. The

regular regime under the IT Act with all its

provisions for punishment and penalty are attracted 74

since the biometric information is an electronic

record and the data is sensitive personal data or

information as defined in the IT Act, 2000. On

submission of the petitioner that there is no

mechanism for raising any grievance, Shri Dwivedi

submits that UIDAI has set up grievance redressal cell

as contemplated under Section 23(1)(s) of the Act. Any

ANH can make a complaint for redressal of grievance.

90. The petitioner's submission that Aadhaar Act

enables the State to put the entire population of the

country in an electronic leash and to track them all

the time and it has converted itself as the State into

a totalitarian State, it is submitted that none of the

four clauses of Regulation 26 entitle the authority to

store data about the purpose for which authentication

is being done. Section 32(3) of the Aadhaar Act

specifically prohibits the authority from collecting,

storing or maintaining, whether directly or indirectly

any information about the purpose of authentication.

The proviso to Regulation 26 is also to the same

effect. Here, “the purpose of authentication” means 75

the nature of activity being conducted by ANH in

relation to which the authentication is required and

is being done.

91. It is submitted that the devices which are used

for the purpose of authentication are not geared or

designed to record the nature of the activity being

done by the ANH which necessitates authentication. The

device can only tell the authority about the time of

authentication, the identity of the RE, the PID, the

time and nature of response, the code of the device

and the authentication server side configurations.

Hence, with the aid of authentication record it is not

possible for the UIDAI to track the nature of activity

being engaged into by the ANH. In fact, in

overwhelming majority of cases the authentication

record would not enable the authority to know even the

place/location where the activity is performed by the

ANH. The reason is that there are about 350 number of

REs. The REs alone can authenticate with the help of

CIDR and this is done by them through the ASA. In a

large number of cases, the organizations requiring 76

authentication would be doing so through some RE with

whom they have some agreements. To illustrate nic.in

is an RE which provides authentication service to

large number of government organizations who have

agreements with it. The authentication record would

only contain information about the identity about the

RE. It will give information only about the RE(nic.in)

and not about the organization which is requiring

authentication through the RE. In most cases the

authentication is one time.

92. It is submitted that biometrics is being

increasingly resorted to for identification purposes

by many countries. At least 19 countries in Europe are

using biometric smart cards where data is stored in

the chip. These smart cards are similar to the smart

cards which were used under the 2006 Act in U.K. The

important difference lies in the extent of data of the

individual which is stored in the smart card. The

European cards unlike the UK, do not store 50

categories of data which was being stored in the UK

card that came to be abolished in 2010 by the 77 Repealing Act, 2010. In some European countries the

smart cards are issued in a decentralized manner, as

in Germany. But in some other countries the smart

cards are issued in a centralized manner. In either

case, the State is possessed of all the information

which is stored in the chip of the smart card, though

it may not involve authentication. These smart cards

are considered to be property of the State and the

State can require the production of the smart card for

identification at any time. Estonia is considered to

be a pioneer and leader in the field of the use of

biometrics and it has a centralized data base.

93. It is submitted that the architecture of the

Aadhaar Act does not lead to any real possibility,

proximate or remote of mass surveillance in real time

by the State. This is not an Act for empowering

surveillance by the State. It merely empowers the

State to ensure proper delivery of welfare measures

mandated by Directive Principles of State Policy(Part

IV of the Constitution) which actually enliven the

Fundamental Rights under Article 14, 19 and 21 of the 78

Constitution for a vast majority of the poor and down

trodden in the country and thereby to bring about

their comprehensive emancipation. It seeks to ensure,

justice, social, economic and political for the little

Indians.

94. Responding on the arguments raised by the

petitioner on Section 47 of the Act, it is submitted

that Section 47 has rationale. The offences and

penalties under Chapter VII are all intended to

maintain the purity and integrity of CIDR which has

been established of the ANH. Secondly, the entire

enrolment, storage in CIDR and authentication exercise

is so vast and that any breach can be handled with

efficiency and effectively only by UIDAI. There are

similar enactments which contain similar provisions

which have been upheld by this Court. An individual

can make a complaint to UIDAI directly or through

grievance redressal cell. The authority would be

obliged to examine the complaints and to lodge the

complaint in the Court as per Section 47.

Additionally, the individual is generally likely to 79

have a complaint of identity theft, cheating or

disclosure. In such a situation he can always invoke

the provisions of Sections 66C, 66D and 72A of the IT

Act, 2000. The said offences carry identical

penalties.

95. Elaborating on Section 59 of the Act, it is

submitted that Section 59 purports to provide a

statutory basis to the resolution of the Government of

India, Planning Commission dated 28.01.2009 and also

to validate anything done or any action taken by the

Central Government under the said resolution. Section

59 of the Aadhaar Act seeks to continue what was done

and the actions which were taken under the Resolution

dated 28.01.2009. Section 59 is clearly extending its

protection retrospectively to that which was done

under the notification dated 28.01.2009.

96. Section 59 provides a deemed fiction. As a result

of this deemed fiction one has to imagine that all the

actions taken under the aforesaid notifications were

done under the Act and not under the aforesaid

notifications.

80

97. Replying the submission of the petitioner that

large scale of marginal section of the society is

deprived due to exclusion from getting the benefits

and the Act violates Article 14 of the Constitution,

it is submitted that there is no exclusion on account

of de­duplication. It cannot be denied that there may

be some cases where due to non­identification, a

person may have been put to some dis­advantage but on

failure of authentication the authorities have clear

discretion to accept other means of identification to

deliver the subsidies and benefits. In any view of the

matter on some administrative lapses and some mistakes

in implementation does not lead to conclude that Act

is unconstitutional and wrong implementation of the

Act does not effect the constitutionality of the

statutes.

98. Learned counsel for the parties have placed

reliance on several judgments of this Court and

Foreign Courts in support of their respective 81

submissions which we shall notice while considering

the respective submissions hereinafter.

99. Apart from hearing elaborate submissions made by

the learned counsel for the petitioners as well as the

respondents, we have also heard several learned

counsel for the intervener. The submission made by the

intervener has already been covered by learned counsel

for the petitioners as well as for the respondents,

hence it needs no repetition.

100. We have considered the submissions raised before

us. From the pleadings on record and the submissions

made following are the main issues which arise for

consideration:­

(1) Whether requirement under Aadhaar Act to give

one's demographic and biometric information is

violative of fundamental right of privacy ?

(2) Whether the provisions of Aadhaar Act requiring

demographic and biometric information from a

resident for Aadhaar number are unconstitutional

and do not pass three fold test as laid down in 82 Puttaswamy case ?

(3) Whether collection of data of residents, its

storage, retention and use violates fundamental

right of privacy ?

(4) Whether Aadhaar Act creates an architecture for

pervasive surveillance amounting to violation of

fundamental right of privacy ?

(5) Whether the Aadhaar Act provides protection and

safety of the data collected and received from

individual ?

(6) Whether Section 7 of Aadhaar Act is

unconstitutional since it requires that for

purposes of establishment of identity of an

individual for receipt of a subsidy, benefit or

service such individual should undergo

authentication or furnish proof of possession of

Aadhaar number or satisfy that such person has

made an application for enrolment ? Further the

provision deserves to be struck down on account 83

of large number of denial of rightful claims of

various marginalised section of society and down

trodden?

(7) Can the State while enlivening right to food,

right to shelter etc. envisaged under Article 21

encroach upon the rights of privacy of the

beneficiaries ?

(8) Whether Section 29 of the Aadhaar Act is liable

to be struck down inasmuch as it permits sharing

of identity information ?

(9) Whether Section 33 is unconstitutional inasmuch

as it provides for the use of Aadhaar data base

for Police investigation, which violates the

protection against self­incrimination as

enshrined under Article 20(3) of the

Constitution of India ?

(10) Whether Section 47 of Aadhaar Act is

unconstitutional inasmuch as it does not allow

an individual who finds that there is a 84

violation of Aadhaar Act to initiate a criminal

process ?

(11) Whether Section 57 of Aadhaar Act which allows

an unrestricted extension of Aadhaar information

of an individual for any purpose whether by the

State or any body, corporate or person pursuant

to any law or contact is unconstitutional ?

(12) Whether Section 59 is capable of validating all

actions taken by the Central Government under

notification dated 28.01.2009 or under

notification dated 12.09.2015 and all such

actions can be deemed to be taken under the

Aadhaar Act?

(13) Whether Aadhaar Act is unconstitutional since it

collects the identity information of children

between 5 to 18 years without parental consent ?

(14) Whether Rule 9 as amended by PMLA (Second

Amendment) Rules, 2017 is unconstitutional being

violative of Article 14, 19(1)(g), 21 and 300A 85

of Constitution of India and Section 3,7, 51 of

Aadhaar Act. Further, whether Rule 9 is ultra

vires to the PMLA Act, 2002. itself.

(15) Whether circular dated 23.02.2017 issued by the

Department of Telecommunications, Government of

India is ultra vires.

(16) Whether Aadhaar Act could not have been passed

as Money Bill ? Further, whether the decision of

Speaker of Lok Sabha certifying the Aadhaar

(Targeted Delivery of Financial and other

Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Bill, 2016 as

Money Bill is subject to judicial review ?

(17) Whether Section 139­AA of the Income Tax Act,

1961 is unconstitutional in view of the Privacy

judgment in Puttaswamy case?

(18) Whether Aadhaar Act violates the Interim Orders

passed by this Court in Writ Petition (C) No.

494 of 2012 & other connected cases?

86

Whether requirement under Aadhaar Act to give one's demographic and biometric information is violative of fundamental Issue Nos.1 right of privacy ? And and 2 Whether the provisions of Aadhaar Act requiring demographic and biometric information from a resident for Aadhaar number are unconstitutional and do not pass three fold test as laid down in Puttaswamy case ?

101. Before we answer the above issues we need to look

into the object and purpose for which Aadhaar Act was

enacted. The Statement of Objects and Reasons

particularly paragraph 5 of such Statement throws

light on the object for which Legislation came into

existence. Paragraph 5 of the Statement of Objects and

Reasons is as follows:

“5. The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Bill, 2016, inter alia, seeks to provide for—

(a) issue of Aadhaar numbers to individuals on providing his demographic and biometric information to the Unique Identification Authority of India;

(b) requiring Aadhaar numbers for identifying an individual for delivery of benefits, subsidies, and services the expenditure is incurred from or the receipt therefrom forms 87

part of the Consolidated Fund of India;

(c) authentication of the Aadhaar number of an Aadhaar number holder in relation to his demographic and biometric information;

(d) establishment of the Unique Identification Authority of India consisting of a Chairperson, two Members and a Member­Secretary to perform functions in pursuance of the objectives above;

(e) maintenance and updating the information of individuals in the Central Identities Data Repository in such manner as may be specified by regulations;

(f) measures pertaining to security, privacy and confidentiality of information in possession or control of the Authority including information stored in the Central Identities Data Repository; and

(g) offences and penalties for contravention of relevant statutory provisions.”

102. Preamble to any Act is a key to read and unfold

an enactment. The Preamble of Aadhaar Act reads:

“An Act to provide for, as a good governance, efficient, transparent, and targeted delivery of subsidies, benefits and services, the expenditure for which is incurred from the Consolidated Fund of India, to individuals residing in India through assigning of unique identity numbers to such individuals and for 88

matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.”

103. Section 2 of the Act is definition clause.

Section 2(a) defines “Aadhaar number” in the following

manner:

“2(a) “Aadhaar number” means an identification number issued to an individual under sub­section (3) of section 3;”

104. Sections 2(g) and 2(k) define “biometric

information” and “demographic information” which is to

the following effect:

“2(g) “biometric information” means photograph, finger print, Iris scan, or such other biological attributes of an individual as may be specified by regulations;

(k) “demographic information” includes information relating to the name, date of birth, address and other relevant information of an individual, as may be specified by regulations for the purpose of issuing an Aadhaar number, but shall not include race, religion, caste, tribe, ethnicity, language, records of entitlement, income or medical history;

105. Section 3 of the Act deals with Aadhaar

enrolment. Section 3 is as follows:

89

“3.(1) Every resident shall be entitled to obtain an Aadhaar number by submitting his demographic information and biometric information by undergoing the process of enrolment: Provided that the Central Government may, from time to time, notify such other category of individuals who may be entitled to obtain an Aadhaar number.

(2) The enrolling agency shall, at the time of enrolment, inform the individual undergoing enrolment of the following details in such manner as may be specified by regulations, namely:—

(a) the manner in which the information shall be used;

(b) the nature of recipients with whom the information is intended to be shared during authentication; and

(c) the existence of a right to access information, the procedure for making requests for such access, and details of the person or department in­charge to whom such requests can be made.

(3) On receipt of the demographic information and biometric information under sub­section (1), the Authority shall, after verifying the information, in such manner as may be specified by regulations, issue an Aadhaar number to such individual.”

106. The challenge in this batch of cases is challenge

to the Act and its various provisions on the ground

that the Act and its provisions violate right of

privacy which is now recognised as fundamental right. 90

All aspects of privacy right, which is accepted as a

fundamental right under Article 21, have been

elaborately and authoritatively dealt by nine­Judge

Constitution Bench of this Court in Puttaswamy case

(supra).

107. Alan F. Westin in his work “Privacy and Freedom”

defined privacy as “the desire of people to choose

freely under what circumstances and to what extent

they will expose themselves, their attitudes and their

behaviour to others”.

108. Dr. D.Y. Chandrachud, J., in his opinion (which

expresses majority opinion) in paragraph 3 of the

judgment while analysing the concept of privacy held:

“3. Privacy, in its simplest sense, allows each human being to be left alone in a core which is inviolable. Yet the autonomy of the individual is conditioned by her relationships with the rest of society. Those relationships may and do often pose questions to autonomy and free choice. The overarching presence of State and non­State entities regulates aspects of social existence which bear upon the freedom of the individual. The preservation of constitutional liberty is, so to speak, work in progress. Challenges have to be addressed to existing problems.

Equally, new challenges have to be dealt with 91

in terms of a constitutional understanding of where liberty places an individual in the context of a social order. The emergence of new challenges is exemplified by this case, where the debate on privacy is being analysed in the context of a global information based society. In an age where information technology governs virtually every aspect of our lives, the task before the Court is to impart constitutional meaning to individual liberty in an interconnected world. While we revisit the question whether our Constitution protects privacy as an elemental principle, the Court has to be sensitive to the needs of and the opportunities and dangers posed to liberty in a digital world.”

109. Dwelling on essential nature of privacy in

paragraphs 297 and 298 following has been laid down by

Dr. D.Y. Chandrachud, J.:

“297. What, then, does privacy postulate? Privacy postulates the reservation of a private space for the individual, described as the right to be let alone. The concept is founded on the autonomy of the individual. The ability of an individual to make choices lies at the core of the human personality. The notion of privacy enables the individual to assert and control the human element which is inseparable from the personality of the individual. The inviolable nature of the human personality is manifested in the ability to make decisions on matters intimate to human life. The autonomy of the individual is associated over matters which can be kept private. These are concerns over which there is a legitimate expectation of privacy. The body and the mind are inseparable elements of the human personality. The integrity of the 92

body and the sanctity of the mind can exist on the foundation that each individual possesses an inalienable ability and right to preserve a private space in which the human personality can develop. Without the ability to make choices, the inviolability of the personality would be in doubt. Recognising a zone of privacy is but an acknowledgment that each individual must be entitled to chart and pursue the course of development of personality. Hence privacy is a postulate of human dignity itself....

298. Privacy of the individual is an essential aspect of dignity. Dignity has both an intrinsic and instrumental value. As an intrinsic value, human dignity is an entitlement or a constitutionally protected interest in itself. In its instrumental facet, dignity and freedom are inseparably intertwined, each being a facilitative tool to achieve the other. The ability of the individual to protect a zone of privacy enables the realisation of the full value of life and liberty. Liberty has a broader meaning of which privacy is a subset. All liberties may not be exercised in privacy.

Yet others can be fulfilled only within a private space. Privacy enables the individual to retain the autonomy of the body and mind.

The autonomy of the individual is the ability to make decisions on vital matters of concern to life. Privacy has not been couched as an independent fundamental right. But that does not detract from the constitutional protection afforded to it, once the true nature of privacy and its relationship with those fundamental rights which are expressly protected is understood. Privacy lies across the spectrum of protected freedoms. The guarantee of equality is a guarantee against arbitrary State action. It prevents the State 93

from discriminating between individuals. The destruction by the State of a sanctified personal space whether of the body or of the mind is violative of the guarantee against arbitrary State action. Privacy of the body entitles an individual to the integrity of the physical aspects of personhood. The intersection between one’s mental integrity and privacy entitles the individual to freedom of thought, the freedom to believe in what is right, and the freedom of self­ determination. When these guarantees intersect with gender, they create a private space which protects all those elements which are crucial to gender identity. The family, marriage, procreation and sexual orientation are all integral to the dignity of the individual. Above all, the privacy of the individual recognises an inviolable right to determine how freedom shall be exercised.”

110. This Court has further held that like the right

to life and liberty, privacy is not absolute. Any

curtailment or deprivation of that right would have to

take place under a regime of law. In paragraph 313

following has been held:

“313. Privacy has been held to be an intrinsic element of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and as a constitutional value which is embodied in the fundamental freedoms embedded in Part III of the Constitution. Like the right to life and liberty, privacy is not absolute. The limitations which operate on the right to life and personal liberty would operate on the right to privacy. Any curtailment or deprivation of that right would have to take 94

place under a regime of law. The procedure established by law must be fair, just and reasonable. The law which provides for the curtailment of the right must also be subject to constitutional safeguards.”

111. Further elaboration of the core of privacy has

been stated in the following words in paragraphs 322,

323 and 326:

“322. Privacy is the constitutional core of human dignity. Privacy has both a normative and descriptive function. At a normative level privacy subserves those eternal values upon which the guarantees of life, liberty and freedom are founded. At a descriptive level, privacy postulates a bundle of entitlements and interests which lie at the foundation of ordered liberty.

323. Privacy includes at its core the preservation of personal intimacies, the sanctity of family life, marriage, procreation, the home and sexual orientation.

Privacy also connotes a right to be left alone. Privacy safeguards individual autonomy and recognises the ability of the individual to control vital aspects of his or her life.

Personal choices governing a way of life are intrinsic to privacy. Privacy protects heterogeneity and recognises the plurality and diversity of our culture. While the legitimate expectation of privacy may vary from the intimate zone to the private zone and from the private to the public arenas, it is important to underscore that privacy is not lost or surrendered merely because the individual is in a public place. Privacy attaches to the person since it is an 95

essential facet of the dignity of the human being.

326. Privacy has both positive and negative content. The negative content restrains the State from committing an intrusion upon the life and personal liberty of a citizen. Its positive content imposes an obligation on the State to take all necessary measures to protect the privacy of the individual.”

112. The first issue which is under consideration is

as to whether requirement under the Aadhaar Act to

give one’s biometric and demographic information is

violative of fundamental right of privacy. Demographic

and biometric information has been defined in

Section 2 as noted above. Biometric information and

demographic information are two distinct concepts as

delineated in the Act itself. We first take up the

demographic information which includes information

relating to the name, date of birth, address and other

relevant information of an individual, as may be

specified by regulations for the purpose of issuing an

Aadhaar number. There is also injunction in Section

2(k) that demographic information shall not include

race, religion, caste, tribe, ethnicity, language, 96

records of entitlement, income or medical history.

Thus, demographic information which are contemplated

to be given in the Act are very limited information.

The Regulations have been framed under Act, namely,

Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update) Regulations, 2016.

Regulation 4 enumerates demographic information which

shall be collected from individuals undergoing

enrolment. Regulation 4 is as follows:

“4. Demographic information required for enrolment. — (1) The following demographic information shall be collected from all individuals undergoing enrolment (other than children below five years of age):

(i) Name; (ii) Date of Birth; (iii) Gender; (iv) Residential Address.

(2) The following demographic information may also additionally be collected during enrolment, at the option of the individual undergoing enrolment:

(i) Mobile number; (ii) Email address.

(3) In case of Introducer­based enrolment, the following additional information shall be collected:

(i) Introducer name;

(ii) Introducer’s Aadhaar number.

97 (4) In case of Head of Family based enrolment, the following additional information shall be collected:

(i) Name of Head of Family;

(ii) Relationship;

(iii) Head of Family’s Aadhaar number;

(iv) One modality of biometric information of the Head of Family.

(5) The standards of the above demographic information shall be as may be specified by the Authority for this purpose.

(6) The demographic information shall not include race, religion, caste, tribe, ethnicity, language, record of entitlement, income or medical history of the resident.”

113. A perusal of Regulation 4 indicates that

information which shall be collected from individual

are his name, date of birth, gender and residential

address. The additional information which can be

collected at the option of the individual is mobile

number and e­mail address. Schedule I of the

Regulation contains format of enrolment form which

contains columns for information as contemplated under

Regulation 4.

98

114. The information contemplated under Regulation 4

are nothing but information relating to identity of

the person.

115. Every person born on earth takes birth at a place

at a time with a parentage. In the society person is

identified as a person born as son or daughter of such

and such. The identity of person from the time of

taking birth is an identity well known and generally

every person describes himself or herself to be son or

daughter of such and such person.

116. Every person, may be a child in school, a person

at his workplace, relates himself or herself with his

or her parent’s, place of birth etc., in interaction

with his near and dear and outside world a person

willingly and voluntarily reveals his identity to

others in his journey of life. The demographic

information are readily provided by individuals

globally for disclosing identity while relating with

others; while seeking benefits whether provided by

government or by private entities. People who get 99

registered for engaging in a profession, who take

admissions in schools/colleges/ university, who seek

employment in the government or private concerns, and

those who engage in various trade and commerce are all

required to provide demographic information. Hence, it

can be safely said that there cannot be a reasonable

expectation of privacy with regard to such

information. There are large number of statutes which

provide for giving demographic information by the

individuals. For inclusion of name of a person in the

Electoral List as per the Registration of Electoral

Rules, 1960 framed under the Representation of People

Act, 1950, a person is required to give similar

demographic information in Form II, i.e., name, date

of birth, gender, current address and permanent

address, which also contains optional particulars of

email address and mobile number. Under Central Motor

Vehicle Rules, 1989 person making an application for

driving licence is required to give name, parent,

permanent address, temporary address, date of birth,

place of birth, educational qualification, etc. 100

117. Under Special Marriage Act, name, condition,

occupation, age, dwelling place, age, etc. are to be

given. Thus, providing such demographic information in

most of the statutes clearly indicates that those

information are readily provided and no reasonable

expectation of privacy has ever been claimed or

perceived in above respect.

118. It is well settled that breach of privacy right

can be claimed only when claimant on the facts of the

particular case and circumstances have “reasonable

expectation of privacy”. In Court of Appeal in Regina

(Wood) v. Commissioner of Police of the Metropolis,

(2009) EWCA Civ 414: (2010) 1 WLR 123, following was

held:

“22. This cluster of values, summarised as the personal autonomy of every individual and taking concrete form as a presumption against interference with the individual's liberty, is a defining characteristic of a free society. We therefore need to preserve it even in little cases. At the same time it is important that this core right protected by Article 8, however protean, should not be read so widely that its claims become unreal and unreasonable. For this purpose I think there are three safeguards, or 101

qualifications. First, the alleged threat or assault to the individual's personal autonomy must (if Article 8 is to be engaged) attain "a certain level of seriousness". Secondly, the touchstone for Article 8(1)'s engagement is whether the claimant enjoys on the facts a "reasonable expectation of privacy" (in any of the senses of privacy accepted in the cases). Absent such an expectation, there is no relevant interference with personal autonomy. Thirdly, the breadth of Article 8(1) may in many instances be greatly curtailed by the scope of the justifications available to the State pursuant to Article 8(2). I shall say a little in turn about these three antidotes to the overblown use of Article 8.

24. As for the second ­ a "reasonable expectation of privacy" ­ I have already cited paragraph 51 of Von Hannover, with its reference to that very phrase, and also to a "legitimate expectation" of protection. One may compare a passage in Lord Nicholls' opinion in Campbell at paragraph 21:

"Accordingly, in deciding what was the ambit of an individual's 'private life' in particular circumstances courts need to be on guard against using as a touchstone a test which brings into account considerations which should more properly be considered at the later stage of proportionality.

Essentially the touchstone of private life is whether in respect of the disclosed facts the person in question had a reasonable expectation of privacy."

102 In the same case Lord Hope said at paragraph 99:

"The question is what a reasonable person of ordinary sensibilities would feel if she was placed in the same position as the claimant and faced with the same publicity."

In Murray v Big Pictures (UK) Ltd Sir Anthony Clarke MR referred to both of these passages, and stated:

"35... [S]o far as the relevant principles to be derived from Campbell are concerned, they can we think be summarised in this way. The first question is whether there is a reasonable expectation of privacy.

This is of course an objective question. ...

36. As we see it, the question whether there is a reasonable expectation of privacy is a broad one, which takes account of all the circumstances of the case. They include the attributes of the claimant, the nature of the activity in which the claimant was engaged, the place at which it was happening, the nature and purpose of the intrusion, the absence of consent and whether it was known or could be inferred, the effect on the claimant and the circumstances in which and the purposes for which the information came into the hands of the publisher."

103 119. The reasonable expectation of privacy test was

also noticed and approved in privacy judgment, Dr. D.Y

Chandrachud, J. has referred judgment of US Supreme

Court in Katz v. United States, 389 US 347 (1967),

following has been observed by this Court in K.S.

Puttaswamy (supra) in paragraph 185:

“The majority adopted the “reasonable expectation of privacy” test as formulated by Harlan, J. in Katz and held as follows:

“7. [The] inquiry, as Mr Justice Harlan aptly noted in his Katz66 concurrence, normally embraces two discrete questions. The first is whether the individual, by his conduct, has “exhibited an actual (subjective) expectation of privacy” … whether … the individual has shown that “he seeks to preserve [something] as private”. … The second question is whether the individual’s subjective expectation of privacy is “one that society is prepared to recognize as “reasonable” ” … whether … the individual’s expectation, viewed objectively, is “justifiable” under the circumstances. …

8. … Since the pen register was installed on telephone company property at the telephone company’s central offices, petitioner obviously cannot claim that his “property” was invaded or that 104

police intruded into a “constitutionally protected area”.”

Thus the Court held that the petitioner in all probability entertained no actual expectation of privacy in the phone numbers he dialed, and that, even if he did, his expectation was not “legitimate”. However, the judgment also noted the limitations of the Katz test:

“Situations can be imagined, of course, in which Katz66 two­pronged inquiry would provide an inadequate index of Fourth Amendment protection.

… In such circumstances, where an individual’s subjective expectations had been “conditioned” by influences alien to well­recognised Fourth Amendment freedoms, those subjective expectations obviously could play no meaningful role in ascertaining what the scope of Fourth Amendment protection was.” (emphasis supplied)

120. After noticing several judgments of US Supreme

Court, D.Y.Chandrachud, J. in K.S. Puttaswamy

(supra)has noted that the reasonable expectation of

privacy test has been relied on by various other

jurisdictions while developing the right of privacy.

In paragraph 195 following has been held:

“195. The development of the jurisprudence on the right to privacy in the United States of 105

America shows that even though there is no explicit mention of the word “privacy” in the Constitution, the courts of the country have not only recognised the right to privacy under various amendments to the Constitution but also progressively extended the ambit of protection under the right to privacy. In its early years, the focus was on property and protection of physical spaces that would be considered private such as an individual’s home. This “trespass doctrine” became irrelevant when it was held that what is protected under the right to privacy is “people, not places”. The “reasonable expectation of privacy” test has been relied on subsequently by various other jurisdictions while developing the right to privacy.”

121. As noted above an individual in interaction with

society or while interacting with his close relatives

naturally gives and reveals his several information

e.g. his name, age, date of birth, residential

address, etc. We are of the opinion that in giving of

those information there is no reasonable expectation

of privacy. Thus, we conclude that demographic

information required to be given in the process of

enrolment does not violate any right of privacy.

122. Every person born gets a name after his birth.

He strives throughout his life to establish himself to 106

be recognised by society. Recognition by fellow man

and society at large is cherished dream of all human

being, for fulfilling the above dream, he does not

hide himself from society rather takes pride in

reasserting himself time and again when occasion

arises. He proclaims his identity time and again.

123. The right to identity is an essential component

of an individual in her relationship with the State.

The identification is only the proof of identity and

everyone has right to prove his identity by an

acceptable means. Aadhaar is contemplated as one PAN

INDIA identity, which is acceptable proof of identity

in every nook and corner of the country.

124. Reference of International Declaration and

covenants have been made to assert that providing for

an identity to every resident is an international

obligation of India. In this reference following has

been referred to:­

Name of the Provision Convention [Date of Accession] 107

Universal Article 6: Everyone has the right to Declaration of recognition everywhere as a person Human before the law.

Rights,1948 [10.12.1948] International Article 16: Everyone shall have the Covenant on right to recognition everywhere as a Civil and person before the law. Political Rights, 1976 [10.04.1979] UN Convention Article 8: States Parties undertake to on the Rights respect the right of the child to of the Child, preserve his or her identity, 1989 including nationality, name and family [11.12.1992] relations as recognized by law without unlawful interference.

Article 29(1): States Parties agree that the education of the child shall be directed to:....(c) The development of respect for the child's parents, his or her own cultural identity, language and values, for the national values of the country in which the child is living, the country from which he or she may originate, and for civilizations different from his or her own;....

125. We may also notice one of the applications filed

by an organisation, namely, Swatantra, which works for

and represents the interests of the transgender and

sexual minorities communities in India. The submission

has been made on behalf of organisation that Aadhaar 108

Act and Rules making the Unique Identification Number

(UID) or the Aadhaar number mandatory and requiring

them to provide their personal demographic and

biometric information for enrolment is a serious

infringement of the constitutional right to privacy

and dignity of transgender persons. It is submitted

that the transgender community has experienced a

history of legally and socially sanctioned violence

and discrimination from private individuals and State

authorities. Reference of Criminal Tribes Act, 1871

and certain State legislations has been made in this

regard. The applicant also refers to judgment of this

Court in National Legal Services Authority and Union

of India and others, 2014 (5) SCC 438, where this

Court has held that the freedom of expression includes

one's right to expression of a self­identified gender

identity through dress, action behaviour etc. The

submission has been made that making the disclosure of

gender under Section 2 of the Aadhaar Act and

Regulation 4 of the Aadhaar (Enrolment & Update)

Regulations violates Article 14 of the Constitution. 109

126. Further, the Aadhaar Act amounts to

discrimination against transgender persons under

Article 15 of the Constitution on the ground of

gender. Further, it is contended that disclosure of

gender identity violates Article 21 and Article 19(1)

(a) of the transgender persons.

127. We having considered the provisions of the Act

and Enrolment and Update Regulations and having found

that disclosure of demographic information does not

violate any right of privacy, the said conclusion

shall also be fully applicable with regard to

transgender. This Court in NALSA (supra) has held that

Article 19(1)(a) which provides that all citizens

shall have the right to freedom of speech and

expression which includes one's right to expression

and his self­identified gender, it is the right of a

person to identify his gender. In paragraphs 69 and 72

of the judgment following has been laid down:

“69. Article 19(1) of the Constitution guarantees certain fundamental rights, subject to the power of the State to impose restrictions from exercise of those rights.

110 The rights conferred by Article 19 are not available to any person who is not a citizen of India. Article 19(1) guarantees those great basic rights which are recognized and guaranteed as the natural rights inherent in the status of the citizen of a free country. Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution states that all citizens shall have the right to freedom of speech and expression, which includes one's right to expression of his self­identified gender. Self­identified gender can be expressed through dress, words, action or behavior or any other form. No restriction can be placed on one's personal appearance or choice of dressing, subject to the restrictions contained in Article 19(2) of the Constitution.

72. Gender identity, therefore, lies at the core of one's personal identity, gender expression and presentation and, therefore, it will have to be protected Under Article 19(1)

(a) of the Constitution of India. A transgender's personality could be expressed by the transgender's behavior and presentation. State cannot prohibit, restrict or interfere with a transgender's expression of such personality, which reflects that inherent personality. Often the State and its authorities either due to ignorance or otherwise fail to digest the innate character and identity of such persons. We, therefore, hold that values of privacy, self­identity, autonomy and personal integrity are fundamental rights guaranteed to members of the transgender community Under Article 19(1)

(a) of the Constitution of India and the State is bound to protect and recognize those rights. ”

128. When this Court has already recognised the 111

constitutional right of transgenders of their self­

identification and it has been further held that self­

identification relates to their dignity. Dignity is a

human right which every human being possesses. Article

15 came for consideration in the said judgment where

this Court held that Article 15 has used the

expression 'citizen' and 'sex' which expressions are

'gender neutral'. The protection of fundamental rights

is equally applicable to transgenders. Paragraph 82

is as follows:

“82. Article 14 has used the expression "person" and the Article 15 has used the expression "citizen" and "sex" so also Article 16. Article 19 has also used the expression "citizen". Article 21 has used the expression "person". All these expressions, which are "gender neutral" evidently refer to human­beings. Hence, they take within their sweep Hijras/Transgenders and are not as such limited to male or female gender. Gender identity as already indicated forms the core of one's personal self, based on self identification, not on surgical or medical procedure. Gender identity, in our view, is an integral part of sex and no citizen can be discriminated on the ground of gender identity, including those who identify as third gender. ”

129. This Court having recognised the right of 112

transgenders to their self­identity in which

transgenders also feel pride as human being, the mere

fact that under Enrolment and Update Regulations they

are required to provide demographic information

regarding gender does not, in any manner, affect their

right of privacy. There is no expectation of right of

privacy with regard to gender. The aforesaid right

having been clearly recognised by this Court,

expression of those rights of self­identification

cannot, in any manner, be said to affect their right

to privacy. We, thus, conclude that with regard to

transgenders also no right of privacy is breached in

giving the demographic information. In so far as

biometric information as held above, ample

justification has been found which satisfied the three

fold test as laid down in Puttaswamy case, which is

equally applicable to transgender also.

130. Now, we come to the biometric information as

referred to in Section 2(g) and required to be given

in the process of enrolment by a person. Biometric

information means photographs, fingerprints, iris scan 113

and other such biometric attributes of an individual

as may be specified by the regulations. Biometric

informations are of physical characteristics of a

person. A person has full bodily autonomy and any

intrusion in the bodily autonomy of a person can be

readily accepted as breach of his privacy. In Regina

(Wood) Vs. Commissioner of Police of the Metropolis

(supra), in paragraph 21, following has been laid down

by Lord LJ.:­

“21. The notion of the personal autonomy of every individual marches with the presumption of liberty enjoyed in a free polity: a presumption which consists in the principle that every interference with the freedom of the individual stands in need of objective justification. Applied to the myriad instances recognised in the Article 8 jurisprudence, this presumption means that, subject to the qualifications I shall shortly describe, an individual's personal autonomy makes him ­ should make him ­ master of all those facts about his own identity, such as his name, health, sexuality, ethnicity, his own image, of which the cases speak; and also of the "zone of interaction" (the Von Hannover case 40 EHRR I, paragraph 50) between himself and others. He is the presumed owner of these aspects of his own self; his control of them can only be loosened, abrogated, if the State shows an objective justification for doing so.” 114

131. U.S. Supreme Court in United States Vs. Antonio

Dionisio, 35 L.Ed. 2D 67 had occasion to consider

physical characteristic of a person's voice in context

of violation of privacy rights. With regard to

fingerprints, it was noticed that the fingerprinting

itself involves none of the probing into an

individual's private life. In paragraph Nos. 21, 22

following was stated:­

“[21,22] In Katz v. United States, supra, we said that the Fourth Amendment provides no protection for what “a person knowingly exposes to the public, even in his own home or office . . ..” 389 U.S., at 351, 19 L Ed 2d 576. The physical characteristics of a person's voice, its tone and manner, as opposed to the content of a specific conversation, are constantly exposed to the public. Like a man's facial characteristics, or handwriting, his voice is repeatedly produced for others to hear. No person can have a reasonable expectation that others will not know the sound of his voice, any more than he can reasonably expect that his face will be a mystery to the world. As the Court of Appeals for the Second Circuit stated:

“Except for the rare recluse who chooses to live his life in complete solitude, in our daily lives we constantly speak and write, and while the content of a communication is entitled to Fourth Amendment protection . . . the underlying 115

identifying characteristics—the constant factor throughout both public and private communications—are open for all to see or hear. There is no basis for constructing a wall of privacy against the grand jury which does not exist in casual contacts with strangers. Hence no intrusion into an individual's privacy results from compelled execution of handwriting or voice exemplars;

nothing is being exposed to the grand jury that has not previously been exposed to the public at large.”' United States v. Doe (Schwartz), 457 F2d, at 898­899.

The required disclosure of a person's voice is thus immeasurably further removed from the Fourth Amendment protection than was the intrusion into the body effected by the blood extraction in Schmerber. “The interests in human dignity and privacy which the Fourth Amendment protects forbid any such intrusions on the mere chance that desired evidence might be obtained.” Schmerber v. California, 384 US, at 769­770, 16L Ed 2d 908. Similarly, a seizure of voice exemplars does not involve the “severe, though brief, intrusion upon cherished personal security,” effected by the “pat­down” in Terry—“surely . . . an annoying, frightening and perhaps humiliating experience.” Terry v. Ohio, 392 US, at 24­25, 20 L Ed 2d 889. Rather, this is like the fingerprinting in Davis, where, though the initial dragnet detentions were constitutionally impermissible, we noted that the fingerprinting itself “involves none of the probing into an individual's private life and thoughts that marks an interrogation or search.” Davis v. Mississippi, 394 US, at 727, 22 L Ed 2d 676: cf. Thom v. New York 116

Stock Exchange, 306 F Supp 1002, 1009.”

132. The petitioners have relied upon S. and Marper Vs.

The United Kingdom, a judgment of Grand Chamber of

European Court of Human Rights dated 04.12.2008.

European Court of Human Rights on an application

submitted by Mr. S and Mr. Marper allowed their claim

of violation of Article 8 of Convention. Applicants

had complained that the authorities had continued to

retain their fingerprints and cellular samples and DNA

profiles after the criminal proceedings against them

had ended with an acquittal or had been discontinued.

In the above context, nature of fingerprints and DNA

samples came to be examined in reference of breach of

Article 8 of the Convention. The retention of DNA

samples and fingerprints was held to be interference

with the right to respect for private life. In

paragraph 84, following was held:­

“84. The Court is of the view that the general approach taken by the Convention organs in respect of photographs and voice samples should also be followed in respect of fingerprints. The Government distinguished the latter by arguing that they constituted neutral, objective and irrefutable material 117

and, unlike photographs, were unintelligible to the untutored eye and without a comparator fingerprint. While true, this consideration cannot alter the fact that fingerprints objectively contain unique information about the individual concerned allowing his or her identification with precision in a wide range of circumstances. They are thus capable of affecting his or her private life and retention of this information without the consent of the individual concerned cannot be regarded as neutral or insignificant.”

133. One important observation, which has been made in

the above case was that on the question whether the

personal information retained by the authorities

involves any of the private­life aspects, due regard

has to be given to the specific context in which the

information at issue has been recorded. Following was

stated in paragraph 67:­

“67............... However, in determining whether the personal information retained by the authorities involves any of the private­ life aspects mentioned above, the Court will have due regard to the specific context in which the information at issue has been recorded and retained, the nature of the records, the way in which these records are used and processed and the results that may be obtained (see, mutatis mutandis, Friedl, cited above, §§49­51, and Peck v. the United Kingdom, cited above, §59).” 118

134. The biometric data as referred to in Section

2(g) thus may contain biological attributes of an

individual with regard to which a person can very well

claim a reasonable expectation of privacy but whether

privacy rights have been breached or not needs to be

examined in the subject context under which the

informations were obtained.

135. Having found that biometric information of a

person may claim a reasonable expectation of privacy,

we have to answer as to whether obtaining biometric

information in context of enrolment breaches the right

of privacy of individual or not.

136. D.Y. Chandrachud, J. in Puttaswamy (supra) held

that all restraints on privacy, i.e. whether a person

has reasonable expectation of privacy, must fulfill

three requirements before a restraint can be held to

be justified. In Paragraph 319, following has been

held:­

“310. While it intervenes to protect legitimate state interests, the state must nevertheless put into place a robust regime that ensures the fulfillment of a threefold 119

requirement. These three requirements apply to all restraints on privacy (not just informational privacy). They emanate from the procedural and content­based mandate of Article 21. The first requirement that there must be a law in existence to justify an encroachment on privacy is an express requirement of Article 21. For, no person can be deprived of his life or personal liberty except in accordance with the procedure established by law. The existence of law is an essential requirement. Second, the requirement of a need, in terms of a legitimate state aim, ensures that the nature and content of the law which imposes the restriction falls within the zone of reasonableness mandated by Article 14, which is a guarantee against arbitrary State action. The pursuit of a legitimate state aim ensures that the law does not suffer from manifest arbitrariness. Legitimacy, as a postulate, involves a value judgment.

Judicial review does not re­appreciate or second guess the value judgment of the legislature but is for deciding whether the aim which is sought to be pursued suffers from palpable or manifest arbitrariness. The third requirement ensures that the means which are adopted by the legislature are proportional to the object and needs sought to be fulfilled by the law. Proportionality is an essential facet of the guarantee against arbitrary State action because it ensures that the nature and quality of the encroachment on the right is not disproportionate to the purpose of the law.

Hence, the threefold requirement for a valid law arises out of the mutual inter­dependence between the fundamental guarantees against arbitrariness on the one hand and the protection of life and personal liberty, on the other. The right to privacy, which is an 120

intrinsic part of the right to life and liberty, and the freedoms embodied in Part III is subject to the same restraints which apply to those freedoms. ”

137. We, thus, have to test the provisions of Aadhaar

Act in light of three­fold test as have been laid down

above. The First requirement, which need to be

fulfilled is existence of law. Admittedly, Aadhaar

Act is a Parliamentary law, hence the existence of law

is satisfied. Mere existence of law may not be

sufficient unless the law is fair and reasonable. The

Aadhaar Act has been enacted with an object of

providing Aadhaar number to individuals for

identifying an individual for delivery of benefits,

subsidies and services. Several materials have been

brought on the record which reflect that in the

several studies initiated by the Government as well as

the World Bank and Planning Commission, it was

revealed that food grains released by the Government

for the beneficiaries did not reach the intended

beneficiaries and there was large scale leakages due

to the failure to establish identity. Reference to 121

Audit Report No. 3 of 2000 of Comptroller & Auditor

General of India is made in this regard. The Planning

Commission of India in its Performance Evaluation

Report titled “Performance Evaluation Report of

Targeted Public Distribution System(TPDS)” dated

March, 2005 found as follows:­

I. State­wise figure of excess Ration Cards in

various states and the existence of over 1.52

Crore excess Ration Cards issued.

II. Existence of fictitious households and

identification errors leading to exclusion of

genuine beneficiaries.

III. Leakage through ghost BPL Ration Cards found

to be prevalent in almost all the States

under study.

IV. The leakage of food grains through ghost

cards has been tabulated and the percentage

of such leakage on an All India basis has

been estimated at 16.67%.

V. It is concluded that a large part of the

subsidized food­grains were not reaching the 122

target group.

138. The Law, i.e., Aadhaar Act, which has been

brought to provide for unique identity for delivery of

subsidies, benefits or services was a dire necessity,

which decision was arrived at after several reports

and studies. Aadhaar Act was, thus, enacted for a

legitimate State aim and fulfills the criteria of a

law being fair and reasonable. Learned Attorney

General has also placed reliance on report of United

Nations titled “Leaving No One Behind: the imperative

of inclusive development”, which has stated as

follows:­

“The decision of India in 2010 to launch the Aadhaar programme to enrol the biometric identifying data of all its 1.2 billion citizens, for example, was a critical step in enabling fairer access of the people to government benefits and services. Programmes such as Aadhaar have tremendous potential to foster inclusion by giving all people, including the poorest and most marginalized, an official identify. Fair and robust systems of legal identity and birth registration are recognised in the new 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development as an important foundation for promoting inclusive societies.” 123

139. Learned Attorney General has also relied on

Resolution of the United Nations General Assembly

dated 25.09.2015 titled “Transforming our World: the

2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development”. It is

submitted that by the said resolution, the following

goal was adopted”­

“16.9 by 2030, provide legal identity for all, including birth registration”

140. In this context, judgment of U.S. Supreme Court in

Otis R. Bowen, Secretary of Health and Human Services,

et al. Vs. Stephen J. Roy et al., 476 U.S. 693 (1986)

is referred where the statutory requirement that an

applicant provide a social security number as a

condition of eligibility for the benefits in question

was held to be not violative. It was held that

requirement is facially neutral in religious terms,

applies to all applicants for the benefits involved,

and clearly promotes a legitimate and important public

interest. Chief Justice Burger writing the opinion of

the Court stated:­

“The general governmental interests involved here buttress this conclusion. Governments 124

today grant a broad range of benefits;

inescapably at the same time the administration of complex programs requires certain conditions and restrictions. Although in some situations a mechanism for individual consideration will be created, a policy decision by a government that it wishes to treat all applicants alike and that it does not wish to become involved in case­by­case inquiries into the genuineness of each religious objection to such condition or restrictions is entitled to substantial deference. Moreover, legitimate interests are implicated in the need to avoid any appearance of favoring religious over nonreligious applicants.

The test applied in cases like Wisconsin v.

Yoder, 406 U.S. 205, 92 S.Ct. 1526, 32 L.Ed.2d 15 (1972), is not appropriate in this setting. In the enforcement of a facially neutral and uniformly applicable requirement for the administration of welfare programs reaching many millions of people, the Government is entitled to wide latitude. The Government should not be put to the strict test applied by the District Court; that standard required the Government to justify enforcement of the use of Social Security number requirement as the least restrictive means of accomplishing a compelling state interest. Absent proof of an intent to discriminate against particular religious beliefs or against religion in general, the Government meets its burden when it demonstrates that a challenged requirement for governmental benefits, neutral and uniform in its application, is a reasonable means of promoting a legitimate public interest. ” 125

141. Repelling an argument that requirement of

providing social security account number for obtaining

financial aid to dependent children violates the right

to privacy, following was held in Doris McElrath Vs.

Joseph A. Califano, in Para 11 :­

“[11] The appellants' principal contention on appeal is that the federal and state regulations requiring dependent children to acquire and submit social security account numbers as a condition of eligibility for AFDC benefits are statutorily invalid as being inconsistent with and not authorized by the Social Security Act. We find the arguments advanced in support of this contention to be without merit and hold that the challenged regulations constitute a legitimate condition of eligibility mandated by the Congress under the Social Security Act. Accord, Chambers v. Klein, 419 F. Supp.

569 (D.N.J. 1976), aff'd mem., 564 F.2d 89 (3d Cir. 1977); Green v. Philbrook, 576 F.2d 440 (2d Cir. 1978); Arthur v. Department of Social and Health Services, 19 Wn. App. 542, 576 P.2d 921 (1978). We therefore conclude that the district court properly dismissed the appellants' statutory invalidity allegations for failure to state a claim upon which relief could be granted. ”

142. Now, we come to third test, i.e., test of

proportionality. D.Y. Chandrachud, J. in Puttaswamy

(supra) has observed “Proportionality is an essential

facet of the guarantee against arbitrary State action 126

because it ensures that the nature and quality of the

encroachment on the right is not disproportionate to

the purpose of the law”. In Modern Dental College and

Research Centre and Others Vs. State of Madhya Pradesh

and Others, (2016) 7 SCC 353, Dr. Sikri, J explaining

the concept of proportionality laid down following in

Paragraphs 64 and 65:­

“64. The exercise which, therefore, to be taken is to find out as to whether the limitation of constitutional rights is for a purpose that is reasonable and necessary in a democratic society and such an exercise involves the weighing up of competitive values, and ultimately an assessment based on proportionality i.e. balancing of different interests.

65. We may unhesitatingly remark that this doctrine of Proportionality, explained hereinabove in brief, is enshrined in Article 19 itself when we read Clause (1) along with Clause (6) thereof. While defining as to what constitutes a reasonable restriction, this Court in plethora of judgments has held that the expression “reasonable restriction” seeks to strike a balance between the freedom guaranteed by any of the sub­clauses of Clause (1) of Article 19 and the social control permitted by any of the clauses (2) to (6). It is held that the expression “reasonable” connotes that the limitation imposed on a person in the enjoyment of the right should not be arbitrary or of an excessive nature beyond what is required in the interests of public. Further, in order to be reasonable, the restriction must have a 127

reasonable relation to the object which the legislation seeks to achieve, and must not go in excess of that object {See P.P. Enterprises v. Union of India (1982) 2 SCC

33. At the same time, reasonableness of a restriction has to be determined in an objective manner and from the standpoint of the interests of the general public and not from the point of view of the persons upon whom the restrictions are imposed or upon abstract considerations {See Mohd. Hanif Quareshi v. State of Bihar 1959 SCR 629). In M.R.F. Ltd. v. State of Kerala (1998) 8 SCC 227, this Court held that in examining the reasonableness of a statutory provision one has to keep in mind the following factors:

(1) The directive principles of State Policy.

(2) Restrictions must not be arbitrary or of an excessive nature so as to go beyond the requirement of the interest of the general public.

(3) In order to judge the reasonableness of the restrictions, no abstract or general pattern or a fixed principle can be laid down so as to be of universal application and the same will vary from case to case as also with regard to changing conditions, values of human life, social philosophy of the Constitution, prevailing conditions and the surrounding circumstances.

(4) A just balance has to be struck between the restrictions imposed and the social control envisaged by Article 19(6).

128 (5) Prevailing social values as also social needs which are intended to be satisfied by the restrictions.

(6) There must be a direct and proximate nexus or reasonable connection between the restrictions imposed and the object sought to be achieved. If there is a direct nexus between the restrictions, and the object of the Act, then a strong presumption in favour the constitutionality of the Act will naturally arise. ”

143. One of the submissions of the petitioner to

contend that proportionality test is not fulfilled in

the present case is; State did not adopt an

alternative and more suitable and least intrusive

method of identification, i.e., smart card or other

similar devices. While examining the proportionality

of a Statute, it has to be kept in mind that the

Statute is neither arbitrary nor of an excessive

nature beyond what is required in the interest of

public. The Statutory scheme, which has been brought

in place has a reasonable relation to the object which

the legislation seeks to achieve and the legislation

does not exceed the object. The object of Aadhaar Act 129

as noticed above was to provide for unique identity

for purposes of delivery of benefits, subsidies and

services to the eligible beneficiaries and to ward of

misappropriation of benefits and subsidies, ward of

deprivation of eligible beneficiaries. European Court

of Justice has taken a view that the proportionality

merely involves an assessment that the measures taken

was not more than necessary. Reference is made to the

judgment of Digital Rights Ireland Ltd. Vs. Minister

for Communications [2015] QBECJ, wherein it was held:

“46 In that regard, according to the settled case law of the court, the principle of proportionality requires that acts of the EU institutions be appropriate for attaining the legitimate objectives pursued by the legislation at issue and do not exceed the limits of what is appropriate and necessary in order to achieve those objectives: see Afton Chemical Ltd v Secretary of State for Transport (Case C­343/09) [2010] ECR I­7027, para 45; the Volker case [2010] ECR I­11063, para 74; Nelson v Deutsche Lufthansa AG (Joined Cases C­581/10 and C­629/10) [2013] 1 All ER (Comm) 385, para 71; Sky Osterreich GmbH v Osterreichischer Rundfunk (Case C­ 283/11) [2013] All ER (EC) 633, para 50; and Schaible v Land Baden­ Wiirttemberg (Case C­ 101/12) EU:C:2013:66I; 17 October 2013, para

29.”

144. United Kingdom Supreme Court in AB Vs. Her 130

Majesty's Advocate, [2017] UK SC 25, held that it is

not for the Court to identify the alternative

measures, which may be least intrusive. In Para 37

and 39, following has been held:­

“37. I am not persuaded. It is important to recall that the question of whether the Parliament could have used a less intrusive measure does not involve the court in identifying the alternative measure which is least intrusive. The court allows the legislature a margin of discretion and asks whether the limitation on the article 8 right is one which it was reasonable for the Parliament to propose: Bank Mellat v HM Treasury (No 2) [2013] UKSC 38, [2014] AC 700, para 75 per Lord Reed;

39. The balance, which this court is enjoined to address, is different. It is the question of a fair balance between the public interest and the individual's right to respect for his or her private life under article 8. The question for the court is, in other words, whether the impact of the infringement of that right is proportionate, having regard to the likely benefit of the impugned provision.”

145. The biometric information which are obtained for

Aadhaar enrolment are photographs, fingerprints and

iris scan, which are least intrusion in physical

autonomy of an individual. U.S. Supreme Court in John

Davis Vs. State of Mississippi, 394 US 721 (1969), 131

indicated that Fingerprinting involves none of the

probing into an individual's private life and thoughts

that marks an interrogation or search. The physical

process by which the fingerprints are taken does not

require information beyond the object and purpose.

Therefore, it does not readily offend those principles

of dignity and privacy, which are fundamental to each

legislation of due process. One of the apprehension,

which was expressed by petitioners that since as per

definition of biometric information contained in

Section 2(g), further, biological attributes of an

individual may be specified by regulations, which may

be more intrusive. Section 2(g) use the word “such

biological attributes”. Thus, applying the principles

of ejusdem generis, the biological attributes can be

added by the regulations, has to be akin to one those

mentioned in Section 2(g), i.e. photographs,

fingerprints and iris scan. In event, such biological

attributes is added by regulations, it is always open

to challenge by appropriate proceedings but the mere

fact that by regulations any such biometric attributes 132

can be added, there is no reason to accept the

contention that biological attributes, which can be

added may be disproportionate to the objective of the

Act. Biometric information, thus, which is to be

obtained for enrolment are not disproportionate nor

the provisions of Aadhaar Act requiring demographic

and biometric information can be said to be not

passing three­fold test as laid down in Puttaswamy

(supra) case. We, thus, answer Issue Nos. 1 and 2 in

following manner:­

Ans.1 and 2:­ (i) requirement under Aadhaar Act

to give one's demographic and

biometric information does not violate

fundamental right of privacy.

(ii) The provisions of Aadhaar Act requiring

demographic and biometric information

from a resident for Aadhaar Number

pass three­fold test as laid down in Puttaswamy (supra) case, hence cannot

be said to be unconstitutional.

133

ISSUE NOS.3,4 COLLECTION, STORAGE, RETENTION, USE, AND 5 SHARING AND SURVEILLACE.

146. The Aadhaar Act provides complete architecture

beginning with enrolment. The enrolment means process

to collect demographic and biometric information from

individuals by enroling agencies. The enroling

agencies have to set up enrolment centers and have to

function in accordance with the procedure specified by

UIDAI. Section 8 contemplates for authentication for

Aadhaar number which authentication was done by

authority. When a request is made for identification

by any requesting entity in respect to biometric or

demographic information of Aadhaar number holder, the

authority may engage one or more entities to establish

and maintain central identity data repository. Section

28 provides for the security and confidentiality of

information which is to the following effect:

28. (1) The Authority shall ensure the security of identity information and authentication records of individuals.

134 (2) Subject to the provisions of this Act, the Authority shall ensure confidentiality of identity information and authentication records of individuals.

(3) The Authority shall take all necessary measures to ensure that the information in the possession or control of the Authority, including information stored in the Central Identities Data Repository, is secured and protected against access, use or disclosure not permitted under this Act or regulations made thereunder, and against accidental or intentional destruction, loss or damage.

(4) Without prejudice to sub­sections (1) and (2), the Authority shall—

(a) adopt and implement appropriate technical and organisational security measures;

(b) ensure that the agencies, consultants, advisors or other persons appointed or engaged for performing any function of the Authority under this Act, have in place appropriate technical and organisational security measures for the information; and

(c) ensure that the agreements or arrangements entered into with such agencies, consultants, advisors or other persons, impose obligations equivalent to those imposed on the Authority under this Act, and require such agencies, consultants, advisors and other persons to act only on instructions from the Authority.

(5) Notwithstanding anything contained in any other law for the time being in force, and 135

save as otherwise provided in this Act, the Authority or any of its officers or other employees or any agency that maintains the Central Identities Data Repository shall not, whether during his service or thereafter, reveal any information stored in the Central Identities Data Repository or authentication record to anyone:

Provided that an Aadhaar number holder may request the Authority to provide access to his identity information excluding his core biometric information in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

147. The Act contains specific provision providing that

no core biometric information collected under the Act

is shared to anyone for any reason whatsoever or use

for any purpose other than generation of Aadhaar

number or authentication under this Act. The statute

creates injunction for requesting entity to use

identity information data for any purpose other than

that specified to the individual at the time for

submitting any identification. Section 29 provides for

not sharing information collected or created under

this Act, which is to the following effect:

“29. (1) No core biometric information, collected or created under this Act, shall be— 136

(a) shared with anyone for any reason whatsoever; or

(b) used for any purpose other than generation of Aadhaar numbers and authentication under this Act.

(2) The identity information, other than core biometric information, collected or created under this Act may be shared only in accordance with the provisions of this Act and in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

(3) No identity information available with a requesting entity shall be—

(a) used for any purpose, other than that specified to the individual at the time of submitting any identity information for authentication; or Security and confidentiality of information.

(b) disclosed further, except with the prior consent of the individual to whom such information relates.

(4) No Aadhaar number or core biometric information collected or created under this Act in respect of an Aadhaar number holder shall be published, displayed or posted publicly, except for the purposes as may be specified by regulations.”

148. Section 30 itself contemplates that biometric

information are sensitive personal data or

information. There are strict conditions envisaged in

Section 33 for disclosure of information. The 137

disclosure of information is contemplated only on two

contingencies. Firstly, when an order is passed by a

Court not inferior to that of District Judge and

secondly when the disclosure is made in the interest

of national security in pursuance of a direction of

the officer not below the rank of Joint Secretary to

the Government of India.

149. Chapter VII of the Act deals with the offences

and penalties for impersonation at the time of

enrolment penalty for disclosing identity information

is provided under Sections 34 to 37. Section 38

provides for penalty who accesses or secures access to

the Central Identities Data Repository. Section 39

provides for penalty who uses or tampers with the

data in the Central Identities Data Repository.

Section 40 provides for penalty whoever, being a

requesting entity, uses the identity information of an

individual in contravention of sub­section (3) of

section 8. Section 41 deals with penalty for non­

compliance by an enrolling agency or requesting 138

entity. Section 42 deals with general penalty. Section

42 is as follows:

“42. Whoever commits an offence under this Act or any rules or regulations made thereunder for which no specific penalty is provided elsewhere than this section, shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year or with a fine which may extend to twenty­five thousand rupees or, in the case of a company, with a fine which may extend to one lakh rupees, or with both.”

150. Regulations have been framed under the Act,

namely, (1) The Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update)

Regulations, 2016, (2) The Aadhaar (Authentication)

Regulations, 2016, (3) The Aadhaar (Data Security)

Regulations, 2016 and (4) The Aadhaar (Sharing of

Information) Regulations, 2016.

151. We have already noticed the detailed submissions

of learned counsel for UIDAI. Following are the

measures by which Security Data of privacy is

ensured. The security and data privacy is ensured in

the following manner:­

i. The data sent to ABIS is completely anonymised. The ABIS systems do not have access to resident’s demographic 139

information as they are only sent biometric information of a resident with a reference number and asked to de­ duplicate. The de­duplication result with the reference number is mapped back to the correct enrolment number by the Authorities own enrolment server.

ii. The ABIS providers only provide their software and services. The data is stored in UIDAI storage and it never leaves the secure premises.

iii. The ABIS providers do not store the biometric images (source). They only store template for the purpose of de­ duplication (with reference number) iv. The encrypted enrolment packet sent by the enrolment client software to the CIDRis decrypted by the enrolment server but the decrypted packet is never stored.

v. The original biometric images of fingerprints, iris and face are archived and stored offline. Hence, they cannot be accessed through an online network.

vi. The biometric system provides high accuracy of over 99.86%. The mixed biometric have been adopted only to enhance the accuracy and to reduce the errors which may arise on account of some residents either not having biometrics or not having some particular biometric.

152. After the enrolment and allotting an Aadhaar

number to individual the main function of the

authority is authentication of an Aadhaar number 140

holder as and when request is made by the requesting

agency. The authentication facility provided by the

authority is under Section 3 of the Authentication

Regulations, 2016 which is to the following effect:

“3. Types of Authentication.— There shall be two types of authentication facilities provided by the Authority, namely—

(i) Yes/No authentication facility, which may be carried out using any of the modes specified in regulation 4(2);

and

(ii) e­KYC authentication facility, which may be carried out only using OTP and/ or biometric authentication modes as specified in regulation 4(2).”

153. Various modes of authentication are provided in

Regulation 4 of Authentication Regulations 2016, which

are: Demographic authentification; One time pin­based

authentication; Biometric­based authentification and

Multi­factor authentification. A requesting entity may

choose suitable mode of authentication for particular

function or business function as per its requirement.

141 154. Regulation 7 provides for capturing biometric

information by requesting entity which is to the

following effect:

“7. Capturing of biometric information by requesting entity.— (1) A requesting entity shall capture the biometric information of the Aadhaar number holder using certified biometric devices as per the processes and specifications laid down by the Authority.

(2) A requesting entity shall necessarily encrypt and secure the biometric data at the time of capture as per the specifications laid down by the Authority.

(3) For optimum results in capturing of biometric information, a requesting entity shall adopt the processes as may be specified by the Authority from time to time for this purpose.”

155. Regulation 9 deals with process of sending

authentification requests. Sub­Regulation (1) of

Regulation 9 contends the safe method of transmission

of the authentication requests.

156. The Aadhaar (Data Security) Regulations, 2016

contain detail provisions to ensuring data security.

Regulation 3 deals with measures for ensuring

information security. Regulation 5 provides security 142

obligations of the agencies, consultants, advisors and

other service providers engaged by the Authority for

discharging any function relating to its processes.

157. The Aadhaar (Sharing of Information) Regulations,

2016 also contain provisions providing for

restrictions on sharing identity information. Sub­

Regulation (1) of Regulation 3 provides that core

biometric information collected by the Authority under

the Act shall not be shared with anyone for any reason

whatsoever.

158. Sharing of Information Regulations, 2016 also

contain various other restrictions. Regulation 6

contains restrictions on sharing, circulating or

publishing of Aadhaar number which is to the following

effect:

“6. Restrictions on sharing, circulating or publishing of Aadhaar number. — (1) The Aadhaar number of an individual shall not be published, displayed or posted publicly by any person or entity or agency. (2) Any individual, entity or agency, which is in possession of Aadhaar number(s) of Aadhaar number holders, shall ensure security and confidentiality of the Aadhaar numbers 143

and of any record or database containing the Aadhaar numbers.

(3) Without prejudice to sub­regulations (1) and (2), no entity, including a requesting entity, which is in possession of the Aadhaar number of an Aadhaar number holder, shall make public any database or record containing the Aadhaar numbers of individuals, unless the Aadhaar numbers have been redacted or blacked out through appropriate means, both in print and electronic form.

(4) No entity, including a requesting entity, shall require an individual to transmit his Aadhaar number over the Internet unless such transmission is secure and the Aadhaar number is transmitted in encrypted form except where transmission is required for correction of errors or redressal of grievances.

(5) No entity, including a requesting entity, shall retain Aadhaar numbers or any document or database containing Aadhaar numbers for longer than is necessary for the purpose specified to the Aadhaar number holder at the time of obtaining consent.”

159. The scheme of the Aadhaar Act indicates that all

parts of the entire process beginning from enrolment

of a resident for allocation of Aadhaar number are

statutory regulated.

160. The Authentication Regulations, 2016 also limit

the period for retention of logs by requesting entity. 144 Regulation 18(1) which is relevant in this context is

as follows:

“18. Maintenance of logs by requesting entity.­ (1) A requesting entity shall maintain logs of the authentication transactions processed by it, containing the following transaction details, namely:—

(a) the Aadhaar number against which authentication is sought;

(b) specified parameters of authentication request submitted;

(c) specified parameters received as authentication response;

(d) the record of disclosure of information to the Aadhaar number holder at the time of authentication;

and

(e) record of consent of the Aadhaar number holder for authentication, but shall not, in any event, retain the PID information.”

161. The residents’ information in CIDR are also

permitted to be updated as per provisions of the

Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update) Regulations, 2016. An

over view of the entire scheme of functions under the

Aadhaar Act and Regulations made thereunder indicate

that after enrolment of resident, his informations 145

including biometric information are retained in CIDR

though in encrypted form. The major function of the

authority under Aadhaar Act is authentication of

identity of Aadhaar number holder as and when

requests are made by requesting agency, retention of

authentication data of requesting agencies are

retained for limited period as noted above. There are

ample safeguards for security and data privacy in the

mechanism which is at place as on date as noted above.

162. Shri Shyam Divan, learned senior counsel

appearing for the petitioners has passionately

submitted that entire process of authentication as is

clear from actual working of the Aadhaar programme

reveals that Aadhaar Act enables the State to put the

entire population of the country in an electronic

leash and they are tracked 24 hours and 7 days. He

submits that putting the entire population under

surveillance is nothing but converting the State into

a totalitarian State. Elaborating his submission,

Shri Divan submits that process of authentication

creates authentication records of (1) time of 146

authentication, (2) identity of the requesting entity.

Both requesting entity and UIDAI have authentication

transactions data which record the technical details

of transactions. The devices which are used by the

requesting entities have IP address which enables

knowledge about geographical information of Aadhaar

number holder with knowledge of his location, details

of transaction, every person can be tracked and by

aggregating the relevant data the entire population is

put on constant surveillance. Aadhaar programme

endeavours all time mass surveillance by the State

which is undemocratic and violates the fundamental

rights of individual.

163. The meta data regarding authentication

transactions which are stored with the authority are

potent enough to note each and every transaction of

resident and to track his activities is nothing but

surveillance. Regulation 26 of Authentication

Regulations, 2016 provides storage of meta data

related to the transaction. Regulation 26 which is

relevant is as follows:

147

“26. Storage and Maintenance of Authentication Transaction Data. — (1) The Authority shall store and maintain authentication transaction data, which shall contain the following information:—

(a) authentication request data received including PID block;

(b) authentication response data sent;

(c) meta data related to the transaction;

(d) any authentication server side configurations as necessary Provided that the Authority shall not, in any case, store the purpose of authentication.”

164. We may first notice as to what is meta data which

is referred to in Regulation 26 above. The UIDAI

receives the requests for authentication of ANH. The

request for authentication received by requesting

agency does not contain any information as to the

purpose of authentication neither requesting agency

nor UIDAI has any record pertaining to purpose for

which authentication has been sought by Aadhaar number

holder. The meta data referred to in Regulation 26(c)

is only limited technical meta data.

148

165. Shri Kapil Sibal had submitted that CIDR holds

the entire Aadhaar database retained by CIDR. It has

become a soft target for internal/external/ indigenous

/foreign attacks and single point of failure. Shri

Sibal has referred to a RBI report which states:

“Thanks to Aadhaar, for the first time in the history of India, there is now a readily available single target for cyber criminals as well as India’s external enemies. In a few years, attacking UIDAI data can potentially cripple Indian businesses and administration in ways that were inconceivable a few years ago. The loss to the economy and citizens in case of such an attack is bound to be incalculable.”

166. He has further submitted that a digital world is

far more susceptible to manipulation than the physical

world. No legislation can or should allow an

individual’s personal data to be put at risk, in the

absence of a technologically assured and safe

environment. Such level of assurance is impossible to

obtain in the digital space. Biometric, core biometric

and demographic information of an individual, once

part of the digital world is irretrievable: a genie

out of the bottle that cannot be put back. The digital

world is a vehicle to benefit the information economy. 149

A move from an information economy to creating an

architecture for an information polity has far

reaching consequences impacting the most personal

rights, protected by the right to privacy. The

technology acquired by the UIDAI has also been

criticised by the Opaque Foreign Technologies.

167. The above submissions have been strongly refuted

by learned Attorney General and learned counsel

appearing for the UIDAI. It is submitted by the

respondents that the above submissions regarding mass

surveillance have been made on misconception regarding

actual operation of the entire process.

168. The meta data which is aggregation of

authentication transactions does not contain any

detail of actual transaction done by ANH. In the

event, in a period of 30 days, 30 requesting agencies,

may be one or different, have requested for

authentication the UIDAI has only the recipient of

demographic/biometric of ANH authentication without

any information regarding purposes of authentication. 150

Thus, even if authentication details are aggregated,

there is no information with the UIDAI regarding

purpose of authentication nor authentication leaves

for any trail so as to keep any track by UiDAI to know

the nature of transaction or to keep any kind of

surveillance as alleged. Section 32 sub­section (3) of

the Aadhaar Act specifically prohibits the authority

from collecting or maintaining either directly or

indirectly any information for the purpose of

authentication.

169. Proviso to Regulation 26 is also to the same

effect i.e. provided that the authority shall not, in

any case, store the purpose of authentication.

170. Elaborating on CIDR, Shri Dwivedi submits that

CIDR is a centralised database which contains all

Aadhaar numbers issued with corresponding demographic

and biometric information. It is a “Protected System”

notified under Section 70 of Information Technology

Act, 2000. The storage involves end to end encryption,

logical partitioning, fire walling and anonymisation 151

of decrypted biometric data. The encryption system

follows a private key/public model and the private key

is available only with UIDAI at the processing

location. Hence even if data packets are lost or

stolen the biometric information regarding the same

cannot be accessed. At the CIDR there is multi­layer

technological security to afford protection from

hacking, and there is also deployment of armed forces

to prevent unauthorised physical access into the CIDR

Area. Additionally entry is electronically controlled.

There are CIDR at two location already and some other

locations are likely to be set up to ensure that data

is not lost even in the remote eventuality of a

disaster. The CIDR is centrally managed. The templates

of finger prints and iris data are generated in ISO

format and the same along with demographic data and

photo are stored securely in the authentication server

database. This database is used for authentication in

the manner provided in Aadhaar (Authentication)

Regulation 2016.

152

171. In view of above, the apprehension raised by

Shri Kapil Sibal that CIDR is a soft target is

misplaced.

172. To support his submission, Shri Shyam Divan,

learned counsel for the petitioner has placed reliance

on judgment of the United States Supreme Court in

United States vs. Antoine Jones, 132 S.Ct. 945 (2012).

173. A large number of foreign judgments touching

various aspects of accumulation of data, retention of

data, surveillance, has been cited by both the parties

to support their respective stand. It is necessary to

have an over view of the opinion expressed by various

Courts in other countries of the world. The present

age being the age of technology and information, the

issues pertaining to storage and retention of personal

data in different contexts have come up before several

Courts of different countries which also need to be

noted.

174. The petitioners have relied on European Court,

Human Rights in S. and Marper vs. The United Kingdom, 153

2008 (48)EHRR 50. The applicants, S and Marper had

submitted two applications against the United Kingdom,

Great Britain and Northern Ireland under Article 34 of

the Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and

Fundamental Freedoms (the Convention). The applicants

complained that the authorities had continued to

retain their fingerprints and cellular samples and DNA

profiles after the criminal proceedings against them

had ended with an acquittal or had been discontinued.

The applicants had applied for judicial review of the

police decisions not to destroy the fingerprints and

samples which application was rejected. The Court of

appeal upheld the decision of the Administrative

Court. The House of Lords had also dismissed the

appeal on 22nd July, 2004. The House of Lords had taken

the view that the mere retention of fingerprints and

DNA samples did not constitute an interference with

the right to respect for private life but stated that,

if he were wrong in that view, he regarded any

interference as very modest indeed.

154

175. BARONESS HALE disagreed with the majority

considering that the retention of both fingerprint and

DNA data constituted an interference by the State in a

person’s right to respect for his private life and

thus required justification under the Convention. The

application of the applicant was taken by European

Court of Human Rights (Strasbourg Court). The

Strasbourg Court noticed that majority of the Council

of Europe member States allow the compulsory taking of

fingerprints and cellular samples in the context of

criminal proceedings. The United Kingdom is the only

member State expressly to permit the systematic and

indefinite retention of DNA profiles and cellur

samples of persons who have been acquitted or in

respect of whom criminal proceedings have been

discontinued.

176. Strasbourg Court held that the mere storing of

data relating to the private life of an individual

amounts to an interference within the meaning of

Article 8. It was further held that in determining

whether the personal information retained by the 155

authorities involves any of the private­life aspects

mentioned above, the Court will have due regard to the

specific context in which the information at issue has

been recorded and retained. In paragraph 67 following

has been laid down:

“67....However, in determining whether the personal information retained by the authorities involves any of the private­life aspects mentioned above, the Court will have due regard to the specific context in which the information at issue has been recorded and retained, the nature of the records, the way in which these records are used and processed and the results that may be obtained (see, mutatis mutandis, Friedl, cited above, 49­51, and Peck v. The United Kingdom, cited above, 59).”

177. Following was laid down in paragraph 73 & 77:

“73. Given the nature and the amount of personal information contained in cellular samples, their retention per se must be regarded as interfering with the right to respect for the private lives of the individuals concerned. That only a limited part of this information is actually extracted or used by the authorities through DNA profiling and that no immediate detriment is caused in a particular case does not change this conclusion (see Aman cited above,

69).

77. In view of the foregoing, the Court concludes that the retention of both cellular samples and DNA profiles discloses an 156

interference with the applicants’ right to respect for their private lives, within the meaning of Article 8(1) of the Convention.”

178. The Court also considered the issue of retention

of fingerprints, and held that retention of

fingerprints may also give rise to important private

life concerns. The Court also held that the domestic

law must afford appropriate safeguards to prevent any

such use of personal data as may be inconsistent with

the guarantees of Article 8. Following was held in

paragraph 103:

“103. The protection of personal data is of fundamental importance to a person’s enjoyment of his or her right to respect for private and family life, as guaranteed by Article 8 of the Convention. The domestic law must afford appropriate safeguards to prevent any such use of personal data as may be inconsistent with the guarantees of this Article (see mutatis mutandis, Z., cited above, 95). The need for such safeguards is all the greater where the protection of personal data undergoing automatic processing is concerned, not least when such data are used for police purposes. The domestic law should notably ensure that such data are relevant and not excessive in relation to the purposes for which they are stored; and preserved in a form which permits identification of the data subjects for no 157

longer than is required for the purpose for which those data are stored.”

179. United Kingdom Supreme Court had occasion to

consider the issue of retention of data in Regina

(Catt) v. Association of Chief Police Officers of

England, Wales and Northern Ireland and another,(2015)

2 WLR 664 – (2015) UKSC 9. The UK Supreme Court in the

above case also noticed the judgment of Strasbourg in

S. and Marper v. The United Kingdom. The appeal before

UK Supreme Court was concerned with the systematic

collection retention by police authorities of

electronic data about individuals and whether it is

contrary to Article 8 of the European Convention. The

appellant before the Court had accepted that it was

lawful for the police to make a record of the events

in question as they occurred, but contends that the

police interfered with their rights under Article 8 of

the Convention by thereafter retaining the information

on a searchable database. After noticing the

jurisprudence of the European Court of Human Rights

Lord Sumption stated following in paragraph 33: 158

“33. Although the jurisprudence of the European Court of Human Rights is exacting in treating the systematic storage of personal data as engaging article 8 and requiring justification, it has consistently recognised that (subject always to proportionality) public safety and the prevention and detection of crime will justify it provided that sufficient safeguards exist to ensure that personal information is not retained for longer than is required for the purpose of maintaining public order and preventing or detecting crime, and that disclosure to third parties is properly restricted: see Bouchacourt v France, given 17 December 2009, paras 68­69, and Brunet v. France (Application No.21010/10) (unreported) given 18 September 2014, para 36. In my opinion, both of these requirements are satisfied in this case. Like any complex system dependent on administrative supervision, the present system is not proof against mistakes. At least in hindsight, it is implicit in the 2012 report of HMIC and the scale on which the database was weeded out over the next two years that the police may have been retaining more records than the Code of Practice and the MOPI guidelines really required. But the judicial and administrative procedures for addressing this are effective, as the facts disclosed on this appeal suggest.”

180. The preponderance of authorities on the subject

of retention of data is that retention of personal

data effecting personal life of an individual may

interfere in his right of privacy and the State can

justify its retention subject to proportionality and 159

subject to there being sufficient safeguards to

personal information is not retained for longer than

it required.

181. Reverting back to the Aadhaar Act, it is clear

that requesting entity as well as authority are

required to retain authentication data for a

particular period and thereafter it will be archived

for five years and thereafter authentication data

transaction shall be deleted except such data which is

required by the Court in connection with any pending

dispute. We had already noticed that data which is

retained by the entity and authority for certain

period is minimal information pertaining to identity

authentication only no other personal data is

retained. Thus, provisions of Aadhaar Act and

Regulations made thereunder fulfill three fold test as

laid down in Puttaswamy case (supra), hence, we

conclude that storage and retention of data does not

violate fundamental right of privacy.

160

182. Now, we come to issue of surveillance, which has

been very strongly raised by petitioners. Shri Shyam

Divan, learned counsel for the petitioners has relied

on judgment of U.S. Supreme Court in United States Vs.

Antoine Jones, 132 S.Ct. 945 (2012). Antoine Jones,

owner and operator of a nightclub was under suspicion

of trafficking in narcotics. A warrant was issued

authorising installation of an electronic tracking

device on the jeep registered in the name of John's

wife. Agents installed a GPS tracking device in the

jeep when it was parked in a public parking. On the

basis of data obtained from the device, the Government

charged Jones for several offences. In trial, Jones

found a locational data obtained form the GPS device.

A verdict of guilt was returned, which on appeal was

reversed by United States, Appeal for District

Columbia.

183. Matter was taken to the U.S. Supreme Court.

Fourth Amendment provides “the right of the people to

be secured in their persons, houses, papers, and

effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, 161

shall not be violated.” Justice Scalia, delivering the

opinion of the Court affirmed the judgment of Court of

Appeal. Justice Sotomayor concurring wrote:­

“I join the Court's opinion because I agree that a search within the meaning of the Fourth Amendment occurs, at a minimum, “[w]here, as here, the Government obtains information by physically intruding on a constitutionally protected area.” Ante, at 950, n. 3. In this case, the Government installed a Global Positioning System (GPS) tracking device on respondent Antoine Jones' Jeep without a valid warrant and without Jones' consent, then used that device to monitor the Jeep's movements over the course of four weeks. The Government usurped Jones' property for the purpose of conducting surveillance on him, thereby invading privacy interests long afforded, and undoubtedly entitled to, Fourth Amendment protection. See, e.g., Silverman v. United States, 365 U. S. 505, 511­512 S1 S.Ct. 679, 5 L.Ed.2d 734 (1961). ”

184. The above case was a case where tracking device,

i.e., GPS was installed in the vehicle with purpose

and motive of surveillance and obtaining data to be

used against Jones. Present is not a case where it

can be said that Aadhaar infrastructure is designed in

a manner as to put a surveillance on Aadhaar number

holder (ANH).

162

185. Another judgment which is relied by Shri Shyam

Divan is judgment of European Court of Human Rights in

Strasbourg Court in Roman Zakharov Vs. Russia decided

on 04.12.2015. In the above case, the applicant

alleged that the system of secret interception of

mobile telephone communications in Russia violated his

right to respect for his private life and

correspondence and that he did not have any effective

remedy in that respect. In Para 148 of the judgment,

the case of the applicant was noted in the following

words:­

“148. The applicant complained that the system of covert interception of mobile telephone communications in Russia did not comply with the requirements of Article 8 of the Convention, which reads as follows:­

“1. Everyone has the right to respect for his private and family life, his home and his correspondence.

2. There shall be no interference by a public authority with the exercise of this right except such as is in accordance with the law and is necessary in a democratic society in the interests of national security, public safety or the economic well­ being of the country, for the prevention of disorder or crime, for the protection of health or morals, 163

or for the protection of the rights and freedoms of others.”

186. The Court came to the following conclusion:­

"175. The Court notes that the contested legislation institutes a system of secret surveillance under which any person using mobile telephone services of Russia providers can have his or her mobile telephone communications intercepted, without ever being notified of the surveillance. To that extent, the legislation in question directly affects all users of these mobile telephone services.”

187. The Strasbourg Court held that there had been

violation of Article 8 of the Convention. The above

case also does not help the petitioners in reference

to Aadhaar structure. Above case was a clear case of

surveillance by interception of mobile

telecommunication.

188. Another judgment relied by Shri Shyam Divan is

Digital Rights Ireland Ltd. Vs. Minister for

Communications, Marine and Natural Resources decided

on 08.04.2014. Para 1 of the judgment notice:­

"These requests for a preliminary ruling concern the validity of Directive 2006/24/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 15 March 2006 on the retention of data 164

generated or processed in connection with the provision of publicly available electronic communications services or of public communications networks and amending Directive 2002/58/EC(OJ 2006 L 105, p. 54).”

189. Directive 2006/24 laid down the obligation on

the providers of publicly available electronic

communications services or of public communications

networks to retain certain data which are generated or

processed by them. Noticing various articles of the

Directives, the Court in Paragraph 27 noted:­

“27. Those data, taken as a whole, may allow very precise conclusions to be drawn concerning the private lives of the persons whose data has been retained, such as the habits of everyday life, permanent or temporary places of residence, daily or other movements, the activities carried out, the social relationships of those persons and the social environments frequented by them.”

190. The directives were held to be violating the

principles of proportionality. The above case was

also a case of retaining data pertaining to

communications by service providers. The retention of

communication data is a clear case of intrusion in

privacy. The above is also a case which in no manner 165

help the petitioners when contrasted with the Aadhaar

architecture.

191. At this juncture, we may also notice one

submission raised by the petitioners that Aadhaar Act

could have devised a less intrusive measure/means. It

was suggested that for identity purpose, the

Government could have devised issuance of a smart

card, which may have contained a biometric information

and retain it in the card itself, which would not have

begged the question of sharing or transfer of the

data. We have to examine the Aadhaar Act as it

exists. It is not the Court's arena to enter into the

issue as to debate on any alternative mechanism, which

according to the petitioners would have been better.

Framing a legislative policy and providing a mechanism

for implementing the legislative policy is the

legislative domain in which Court seldom trench.

192. We may refer to a judgment of U.K. Supreme Court

AB Vs. Her Majesty's Advocate, [2017] UKSC 25, where

U.K. Supreme Court has not approved the arguments 166

based on less intrusive means. Court held that

whether the Parliament would have used a less

intrusive means does not involve the Court in

identifying an alternative measure, which is least

intrusive. In Para 37, following has been laid down:­

“37. I am not persuaded. It is important to recall that the question of whether the Parliament could have used a less intrusive measure does not involve the court in identifying the alternative measure which is least intrusive. The court allows the legislature a margin of discretion and asks whether the limitation on the article 8 right is one which it was reasonable for the Parliament to propose: Bank Mellat v HM Treasury (No 2) [2013] UKSC 38, [2014] AC 700, para 75 per Lord Reed; Animal Defenders International v United Kingdom (2013) 57 EHRR 21, para 110. Had the 2009 Act provided that the reasonable belief defence would not be available if on an earlier occasion the accused had been charged with an offence which itself objectively entailed a warning of the illegality of consensual sexual activity with older children, the fact that there were other options, which were less intrusive, to restrict the availability of that defence would not cause an infringement of the individual's article 8 right. The problem for the Lord Advocate in this appeal is where to find such a warning. ”

193. We may profitably note the judgment of Privy

Council arising from a decision of Supreme Court of 167

Mauritius – Madhewoo Vs. State of Mauritius. The

case relates to a national identity card, which was

brought in effect by an Act namely, the National

Identity Card Act, 1985 providing for adult citizens

of Mauritius to carry identity cards. The Act was

amended in 2013 by which Government introduced a new

smart identity card, which incorporates on a chip on

the citizen's fingerprints and other biometric

information relating to his/her characteristics. A

citizen of the Republic of Mauritius did not apply for

National Identity Card and he challenged the validity

of the 2013 Act. The Supreme Court of Mauritius held

that the provisions of 1985 Act, which enforce the

compulsory taking and recording of fingerprints of a

citizen disclosed an interference with the appellant’s

rights guaranteed under Section 9(1) of the

Constitution. The Section 9(1) provided “except with

his own consent, no person shall be subject to the

search of his person or his private or the entry by

others in his premises.” Supreme Court had rejected

the challenge to the other provisions of the 168

Constitution. Matter was taken to the Privy Council.

The challenge made before the Privy Council was

noticed in Para 7 of the judgment, which is to the

following effect:­

“7. In this appeal the appellant challenges the constitutionality of (a) the obligation to provide fingerprints and other biometric information under section 4, (b) the storage of that material on the identity card under section 5, (c) the compulsory production of an identity card to a policeman under section 7(1A) in response to a request under section 7(1)(b), and (d) the gravity of the potential penalties under section 9(3) for non­ compliance. He claims, first, that the implementation of the new biometric identity card is in breach of sections 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 9, 15, 16 and 45 of the Constitution coupled with article 22 of the Civil Code (which provides that everyone has the right to respect for his private life and empowers courts with competent jurisdiction to prevent or end a violation of privacy) and, secondly, that the collection and permanent storage of personal biometric data, including fingerprints, on the identity card are in breach of those sections of the Constitution and that article of the Civil Code. ”

194. The Privy Council agreed with the decision of

the Supreme Court that compulsory taking of

fingerprints and the extraction of minutiae involved

an interference with the appellant’s Section 9 rights 169

which required to be justified under Section 9(2).

The challenge raised before the Privy Council has been

noticed in Para 25, which challenges were repelled.

Paras 25 and 26 are as follows:­

“25. The appellant challenges the Supreme Court’s evaluation because, he submits, the creation of a reliable identity card system does not justify the interference with his fundamental rights. He submits that the obligation to provide his fingerprints interferes with his right to be presumed innocent and also that an innocuous failure to comply with section 4(2)(c) could give rise to draconian penalties under section 9(3) of the Act (para 6 above). He also points out that in India a proposal for a biometric identity card was held to be unconstitutional, and, in the United Kingdom, libertarian political opposition resulted in the repeal of legislation to introduce biometric identity cards. The interference, he submits, is disproportionate.

26. In the Board’s view, these challenges do not undermine the Supreme Court’s assessment. First, the requirement to provide fingerprints for an identity card does not give rise to any inference of criminality as it is a requirement imposed on all adult citizens. It is true that, if circumstances arose in which a police officer was empowered to require the appellant to produce his identity card and the government had issued card readers, the authorities would have access to his fingerprint minutiae which they could use for the purposes of identification in a criminal investigation. But that does not alter the presumption of innocence.

170

Secondly, the penalties in section 9(3) are maxima for offences, including those in section 9(1), which cover serious offences such as forgery and fraudulent behaviour in relation to identity cards. The subsection does not mandate the imposition of the maximum sentence for any behaviour. Thirdly, while judicial rulings on international instruments and the constitutions of other countries can often provide assistance to a court in interpreting the provisions protecting fundamental rights and freedoms in its own constitution, the degree of such assistance will depend on the extent to which the documents are similarly worded. ”

195. As noticed above, learned counsel for the

petitioners has raised various issues pertaining to

security and safety of data and CIDR. Apprehensions

raised by the petitioners does not furnish any ground

to struck down the enactment or a legislative policy.

This Court in G. Sundarrajan Vs. Union of India and

Others. (2013) 6 SCC 620, had occasion to consider

India's National Policy and challenge to a Nuclear

Project, which was launched by the Government

upholding the legislative policy, the Court laid down

following in Paras 15 and 15.1:­

“15. India's National Policy has been clearly and unequivocally expressed by the legislature in the Atomic Energy Act.

171

National and International policy of the country is to develop control and use of atomic energy for the welfare of the people and for other peaceful purposes. NPP has been set up at Kudankulam as part of the national policy which is discernible from the Preamble of the Act and the provisions contained therein. It is not for Courts to determine whether a particular policy or a particular decision taken in fulfillment of a policy, is fair. Reason is obvious, it is not the province of a court to scan the wisdom or reasonableness of the policy behind the Statute.

15.1. Lord MacNaughten in Vacher & Sons Ltd.

v. London Society of Compositors (1913) AC 107 HL has stated:

“......Some people may think the policy of the Act unwise and even dangerous to the community......But a Judicial tribunal has nothing to do with the policy of any Act which it may be called upon to interpret. That may be a matter for private judgment.

The duty of the Court, and its only duty, is to expound the language of the Act in accordance with the settled rules of construction.”

196. This Court also held that a project cannot be

stopped merely on the ground of apprehension. In the

present case, also lot of apprehensions of

possibilities of insecurity of data has been raised.

In India, there is no specific data protection laws 172

like law in place in United Kingdom. In Privacy

judgment – Puttaswamy (supra), this Court has noticed

that Shri Krishna Commission is already examining the

issue regarding data protection and as has been stated

by learned Attorney General before us, after the

report is received, the Government will proceed with

taking steps for bringing a specific law on data

protection. We need not say anything more on the

above subject. After we have reserved the judgment,

Srikrishna Commission has submitted its report

containing a draft Personal Data Protection Bill, 2018

in July 2018. The report having been submitted, we

hope that law pertaining to Personal Data Protection

shall be in place very soon taking care of several

apprehensions expressed by petitioners.

197. The Aadhaar architecture is to be examined in

light of the statutory regime as in place. We have

noticed the regulations framed under Aadhaar Act,

which clearly indicate that regulations brings in

place statutory provisions for data protection,

restriction on data sharing and other aspects of the 173

matter. Several provisions of penalty on data breach

and violation of the provisions of the Act and

regulations have been provided.

198. We have no reason to doubt that the project will

be implemented in accordance with the Act and the

Regulations and there is no reason to imagine that

there will be statutory breaches, which may affect the

data security, data protection etc. In view of

foregoing discussions, we are of the considered

opinion that Statutory regime as delineated by the

Aadhaar Act and the Regulations fulfills the three­

fold test as laid down in Puttaswamy (supra) and the

law, i.e. Aadhaar Act gives ample justification for

legitimate aim of the Government and the law being

proportional to the object envisaged. The petitioners

during their submissions have also attacked various

provisions of Enrolment and Update Regulations,

Authentication Regulations, Data Security Regulations

and Sharing of Information Regulations. All the above

regulations have been framed in exercise of power

under Section 54 of the Act on the matters covered by 174

the Act. We having held that by collection of data,

its retention, storage, use and sharing, no Privacy

Right is breached, we are of the view that related

regulations also pass the muster of three­fold tests

as laid down in K.Puttaswamy case. The provisions of

Act in the above regard having passed the muster of

three­fold tests, the related regulations also cannot

be held to breach Right of Privacy. Thus, challenge to

regulations relating to collection, storage, use,

retention and sharing fails and it is held that they

do not violate Constitutional Rights of Privacy. In

result, we answer the Issue Nos. 3, 4 and 5 in

following manner:­

Ans. 3, 4, 5:­

(i) Collection of data, its storage and use

does not violate fundamental Right of

Privacy.

(ii) Aadhaar Act does not create an architecture

for pervasive surveillance.

(iii) Aadhaar Act and Regulations provides

protection and safety of the data received 175

from individuals.

Whether Section 7 OF Aadhaar Act is Issue Nos. unconstitutional?

6 and 7 Whether right to food, shelter etc. envisaged under Article 21 shall take precedence on the right to privacy of the beneficiaries?

199. Shri Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru while concluding

debate on “Aims and Objects Resolution” on 22.01.1947

in the Constituent Assembly of India stated:

“The first task of this Assembly is to free India through a new constitution to feed the starving people and cloth the naked masses and to give every Indian fullest opportunity to develop himself according to his capacity. This is certainly a great task.”

200. After attaining the freedom the country proceeded

to realise the dream and vision which founding fathers

of our democratic system envisaged. The Constitution

of India apart from enumerating various Fundamental

Rights including right to life has provided for

Directive Principles of State Policy under Chapter IV

of the Constitution which was to find objectives in 176

governess of the country. Article 38 provided that

State shall strive to promote the welfare of the

people by securing and protecting as effectively as it

may a social order in which justice, social, economic

and political, shall inform all the institutions of

the national life. It further provided that the State

shall, in particular, strive to minimise the

inequalities in income, and endeavour to eliminate

inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities,

not only amongst individuals but also amongst groups

of people residing in different areas or engaged in

different vocations.

201. After enforcement of the Constitution almost all

the Governments worked towards the object of

elimination of poverty and to empower marginal/poor

section of the society. The endeavour of the

Government was always to frame policies keeping in

view the “little Indian” who is in the centre of all

policies and governance.

202. Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act is the most

important provision of the Aadhaar Act around which 177

entire architecture of Aadhaar Act has been built.

Section 7 is to the following effect:

“7. The Central Government or, as the case may be, the State Government may, for the purpose of establishing identity of an individual as a condition for receipt of a subsidy, benefit or service for which the expenditure is incurred from, or the receipt therefrom forms part of, the Consolidated Fund of India, require that such individual undergo authentication, or furnish proof of possession of Aadhaar number or in the case of an individual to whom no Aadhaar number has been assigned, such individual makes an application for enrolment: Provided that if an Aadhaar number is not assigned to an individual, the individual shall be offered alternate and viable means of identification for delivery of the subsidy, benefit or service.”

203. The objects and reasons of the Act as noticed

above as well as the Preamble of the Act focus on

targeted delivery of financial and other subsidies,

benefits and services which are envisaged in Section

7. The petitioners challenge the constitutionality of

Section 7. They submit that Section 7 seeks to render

the constitutional and statutory obligations of the

State to provide benefits, subsidies and services,

conditional upon an individual parting with his or her 178

biometric and demographic information. An individual’s

rights and entitlements cannot be made dependent upon

an invasion of his or her bodily integrity and his or

her private information which the individual may not

be willing to share with the State. The bargain

underlying Section 7 is an unconscionable,

unconstitutional bargain. An individual has

constitutional right to receive benefits, subsidies

and services which is fundamental right and it is

State’s obligation to provide for fulfillment of that

fundamental right. He submitted that there is no

rationale in enactment of Section 7 neither there was

any legitimate state interest nor the provision is

proportionate. The petitioners submit that provision

of requiring every person to undergo authentication to

avail benefits/services/ entitlements, falls foul of

Article 14. Since, firstly such mandatory

authentication has caused, and continues to cause,

exclusion of the most marginalised section of society;

and secondly this exclusion is not simply a question

of poor implementation that can be administratively 179

resolved, but stems from the very design of the Act.

Learned counsel for the petitioners have referred to

and relied on several materials in support of their

submissions that working of Section 7 has caused

exclusion. Since a large number of persons who are

entitled to receive benefits, subsidies and services

are unable to get it due to not being able to

authenticate due to various reasons like old age,

change of biometric and other reasons. The petitioners

have referred to affidavits filed by several

individuals and NGOs who after field verification

brought materials before this Court to support their

submission regarding large scale exclusion. It is

further contended that State’s contention that

Circular dated 24.10.2017 has resolved implementation

issued cannot be accepted. The authentication system

in the Aadhaar Act is probabilistic. Biometric

technology does not guarantee 100% accuracy and it is

fallible, refers UIDAI’s own Report on “Role of

Biometric Technology in Aadhaar Entrolment” (2012) has

been made where Report stated that biometric accuracy 180

after accounting for the biometric failure to enrol

rate, false positive identification rate, and false

negative identification rate, was 99.768% accuracy.

For a population over 119.22 crore enrolled in

Aadhaar, it is a shocking admission of the fact that

there are 27.65 lakh people who are excluded from

benefits linked to Aadhaar. It is contended that

validity of an act is to be judged not by its object

or form, but by its effect on fundamental rights.

Mandatory authentication at the point of use violates

Article 21. It is contended that the Government has

failed to discharge its burden of proof under Article

21. The State has also failed to satisfy the test of

proportionality which makes Section 7

unconstitutional.

204. The petitioners further submit that the claim of

the Government that by Aadhaar authentication the

State has been able to save 11 billion per annum is

incorrect and without any basis. It is further

submitted that massive savings under Mahatma Gandhi

National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme under 181

Financial Benefits Accrued on account for DBT/Aadhaar

since 2014 claims of substantial savings upto 2015­16

the amount of reported savings is shown as Rs.3000

crores and upto 2016­17 it is shown as Rs.11,741

crores. Referring to the claim of the Government that

he submitted facts of job cards could be only 67,637

were found to be job cards linked to more than one

Aadhaar number. Thus, maximum saving for this period

would be 127.88 crores compared to the inflated figure

of Rs.3000 crores. The Financial Benefits claimed

under PAHAL scheme was Rs.14,672 crores which is not

correct. Referring to Comptroller and Auditor General

Report, it is pointed out that with respect to 2014­

15, the real outcome of savings is only 1.33 crores.

He submits that major saving was on account of

decrease in off­take of domestic subsidised cylinders

of consumer and decrease in fuel prices. On Public

Distribution System referring to answer to a question

in Lok Sabha on 26.07.2016 it is submitted that the

Minister of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public 182

Distribution has stated only that approximately 2.33

crores ration cards were deleted during 2013­2016.

205. Learned Attorney General has referred to material

on record to justify the legitimate state aim which

led to enactment of Section 7. Learned Attorney

General refers to Report No.3 of 2000 of the

Comptroller and Auditor General of India which has

been brought on record as Annexure R­I to the common

additional affidavit on behalf of respondents. He

submits that the Comptroller and Auditor General in

his Report states that 1.93 crore bogus ration cards

were found to be in circulation in 13 States. Report

further states that a signification portion of the

subsidised food­grains and other essential commodities

did not reach the beneficiaries due to their

diversion in the open market. The Performance Report

of the Planning Commission of India titled

“Performance Evaluation Report of Targeted Public

Distribution System (TPDS)” dated March, 2005 which

has been brought on record as Annexure­R­6 to the 183

common additional affidavit on behalf of respondents

notes following:

i. State­wise figure of excess Ration Cards in various states and the existence of over 1.52 crore excess Ration Cards issued [Page 362 of CAA]

ii. Exercise of fictitious households and identification errors leading to exclusion of genuine beneficiaries.

iii. Leakage through ghost BPL Ration Cards found to be prevalent in almost all the states under study.[Pg. 369 of CAA)

iv. The Leakage of food grains through ghost cards has been tabulated and the percentage of such leakage on an All India basis has been estimated at 16.67% [Pg.370 of CAA].

v. It is concluded that a large part of the subsidised food grains were not reaching the target group.

206. Similar reports regarding few subsidies have

been referred and relied.

207. Learned Attorney General has also relied on the 184

report submitted by V.V. Giri National Labour

Institute and sponsored by the Department of Rural

Development, Ministry of Rural Development, Government

of India which examined various aspects of National

Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme while studying the

schedule of rates for National Rural Employment

Guarantee Scheme. In paragraph 12.8 (Annesure R­4) to

the common additional affidavit on behalf of

respondents following has been stated:

2. “There was great fraud in making fake cards, muster rolls were not maintained properly, and work was not provided to job seekers sometimes. In many cases, it was found that workers performed one day’s job, but their attendance was put for 33 days. The workers got money for one day while wages for 32 days were misappropriated by the people associated with the functioning of NREGS.”

208. Another report dated 09.11.2012 of National

Institute of Public Finance and Policy’s “A Cost­

benefit analysis of Aadhaar” estimated that a leakage

of approximately 12 percent is being caused to the

Government on account of ghost workers and manipulated

muster rolls. Thirteenth Finance Commission Report for 185

2010­2015 dated December, 2000 in Chapter 12 states:

“creation of a biometric­based unique identity for all residents in the country has the potential to address need of the government to ensure that only eligible persons are provided subsidies and benefits and that all eligible persons are covered.”

209. Various other reports have been referred to and

relied by Learned Attorney General to substantiate his

case that there was large leakage and pilferation of

subsidies which were allocated by the Government under

different schemes.

210. This Court had occasion to consider public

distribution system in PUCL vs. Union of India, (2011)

14 SCC 331, the Court noticed the report of High

Powered Committee headed by Justice D.P. Wadhwa,

retired Judge of this Court who had submitted report

on the Public Distribution System. One of the actions

suggested by the Committee was noticed in paragraphs 2

and 12 , Component II:

“2. In order to implement this system across the country, the following actions are suggested by the Committee:

… … … 186

Component II: Electronic authentication of delivery and payments at the fair price shop level. In order to ensure that each card­holder is getting his due entitlement, computerisation has to reach literally every doorstep and this could take long. Moreover, several States have already started implementing smart cards, food coupons, etc. which have not been entirely successful. Reengineering these legacy systems and replacing it with the online Aadhaar authentication at the time of food­grain delivery will take time. This is therefore proposed as Component II.

12. As far as possible, the State Governments should be directed to link the process of computerisation of Component 2 with Aadhaar registration. This will help in streamlining the process of biometric collection as well as authentication. The States/UTs may be encouraged to include the PDs related KYR+ field in the data collection exercise being undertaken by various Registrars across the country as part of the UID (Aadhaar) enrolment.”

211. This Court again in the same proceeding passed

another judgment on 16.03.2012 PUCL vs. Union of

India, (2013) 14 SCC 368 in which following was stated

in paragraphs 2 and 4:

“2. There seems to be a general consensus that computerisation is going to help the public distribution system in the country in a big way. In the affidavit it is stated that the Department of Food and Public Distribution has been pursuing the States to 187

undertake special drive to eliminate bogus/duplicate ration cards and as a result, 209.55 lakh ration cards have been eliminated since 2006 and the annual saving of foodgrain subsidy has worked out to about Rs 8200 crores per annum. It is further mentioned in the affidavit that end­to­end computerisation of public distribution system comprises creation and management of digitised beneficiary database including biometric identification of the beneficiaries, supply chain management of TPDS commodities till fair price shops.

4. In the affidavit it is further mentioned that the Government of India has set up a task force under the Chairmanship of Mr Nandan Nilekani, Chairman, UIDAI, to recommend, amongst others, an IT strategy for the public distribution system. We request Mr Nandan Nilekani to suggest us ways and means by which computerisation process of the public distribution system can be expedited.

Let a brief report/affidavit be filed by Mr Nandan Nilekani within four weeks from today.”

212. As noted above the figures as claimed by the

respondents regarding benefits after implementation of

Aadhaar scheme in the MGNREGA and PDS etc. are refuted

by the petitioners. Petitioners’ case is that amounts

of savings which are claimed are not correct and at

best there was only meager benefit of savings from the

implementation of the scheme. We need not to enter 188

into the issue regarding respective claims in the

above regard. The reasons which led to enactment of

Section 7 that benefits and subsidies are

substantially diverted and are not able to reach have

been made out even if saving were not substantial but

meager.

213. The report and material which have been brought

on record by the Government fully demonstrate the

legitimate aim of the State in enacting Section 7.

This Court in Francis Coralie Mullin vs.

Administrator, Union Territory of Delhi and others,

1981 (1) SCC 608, while elaborating on right of life

under Article 21, held that the right to life includes

the right to live with dignity and all that goes along

with it namely the bar necessaries of life such as

adequate nutrition, clothing and shelter.

214. The United Nation under Universal Declaration of

Human Rights also acknowledges everyone has a right to

standard of living which includes food, clothing,

housing and medical care. Article 25 of the

Declaration which was made in 1948 is as follows: 189

“25.1 Everyone has the right to a standard of living adequate for the health and well­ being of himself and of his family, including food, clothing, housing and medical care and necessary social services, and the right to security in the event of unemployment, sickness, disability, widowhood, old age or other lack of livelihood in circumstances beyond his control.”

215. The English author, JOHN BERGER said:

“The poverty of our century is unlike that of any other. It is not, as poverty was before, the result of natural scarcity, but of a set of priorities imposed upon the rest of the world by the rich. Consequently, the modern poor are not pitied...but written off as trash.”

216. The identification of the poor, as was referred

by John Berger is the first step to realise the UN

Declaration of Human Rights as well as the Fundamental

Rights guaranteed under the Constitution of India. The

Aadhaar Act brings into existence a process of

identification which is more accurate as compared to

other identity proofs.

190

217. At this stage, we need to notice one more

submission which was raised by the learned Attorney

General. It has been submitted by the learned Attorney

General that subsidies and benefits under Section 7 of

the Aadhaar Act are traceable to Article 21. It is

submitted that if the rights which are sought to be

realised by means of Section 7 are juxtaposed against

the right of privacy, the former will prevail over the

latter. The issue is as to whether the State by

enlivening right to food and shelter envisaged under

Article 21 encroach upon the right of privacy ? There

cannot be a denial that there may be inter se conflict

between fundamental rights recognised by the

Constitution in reference to a particular person. The

Court has to strive a balance to leave enough space

for exercise of both the fundamental rights.

218. It cannot be accepted that while balancing the

fundamental rights one right has to be given

preference. We may notice that privacy judgment i.e.

Puttaswamy case has noticed and already rejected 191

this argument raised by the learned Attorney General

in paragraph 266 in the following words:

“266. The Attorney General argued before us that the right to privacy must be forsaken in the interest of welfare entitlements provided by the State. In our view, the submission that the right to privacy is an elitist construct which stands apart from the needs and aspirations of the large majority constituting the rest of society, is unsustainable. This submission betrays a misunderstanding of the constitutional position. Our Constitution places the individual at the forefront of its focus, guaranteeing civil and political rights in Part III and embodying an aspiration for achieving socio­economic rights in Part IV. The refrain that the poor need no civil and political rights and are concerned only with economic well­being has been utilised through history to wreak the most egregious violations of human rights....”

219. One of the submissions which has been raised

by the petitioners targeting the Aadhaar

authentication is that biometric system under the

Aadhaar architecture is probabilistic. Biometric

technology does not guarantee 100% accuracy and it is

fallible, with inevitable false positives and false

negatives that are design flaws of such a

probabilistic system. We have noted above the reliance 192

on UIDAI’s Report of the year 2012 where UIDAI itself

has claimed that biometric accuracy was 99.768%. The

petitioner is still criticising that since .232%

failures are there which comes to 27.65 lakh people

who are excluded from benefits linked to Aadhaar. The

above submission of the petitioner ignores one aspect

of the matter as has been contended by the respondents

that in case where there is biometric mis­match of a

person even possession of an Aadhaar number is treated

sufficient for delivery of subsidies and benefits.

Thus, physical possession of Aadhaar card itself may

mitigate biometric mis­match. However, in case of mis­

match instruments are there to accept other proof of

identity, the respondents have referred to Circular

dated 24.10.2017 issued by UIDAI. The Circular dated

24.10.2017 has been criticised by the petitioners

stating that violation of right cannot be left to

vagaries of administration. There cannot be any

dispute to the above propositions. It is the

obligation of the State to ensure that there is no

violation of fundamental rights of a person. Section 7 193

is an enabling provision which empowers the State

Government to require that such individual undergo

authentication for receipt of a subsidy, benefit or

service but neither Section 7 nor orders issued by the

Central Government and State Government can be read

that in the event authentication of a person or

beneficiary fails, he is not to be provided the

subsidies and benefits or services. The provision is

couched as an enabling provision but it cannot be read

as a provision to negate giving subsidies, benefits or

services in the event of failure of authentication. We

are of the view that Circular dated 24.10.2017 which

fills a gap and is a direction facilitating delivery

of benefits and subsidies does not breach by

provisions of the Act.

220. Now, we come to arguments of exclusion as

advanced by the petitioners in support of their

submission that exclusion makes Section 7 arbitrary

and violative of Articles 14 and 21. From the material

brought on record by the parties, we have no reason to

doubt that there has been denial to few persons due to 194

failure of authentication. There is ample material on

record to indicate that prior to enforcement of

Aadhaar Scheme there had been large number of denial

of benefits and subsidies to real beneficiaries due to

several reasons as noted above. Functioning of scheme

formulated by the Government for delivery of benefits

and subsidies to deserving persons is a large scale

scheme running into every nook and corner of the

country. When such scheme of Government is

implemented, it is not uncommon that there may be

shortcomings and some denial. There is no material on

record to indicate that as compared to non­receipt of

eligible beneficiaries prior to enforcement of the

Act, there is increase of failure after the

implementation of the Act. It cannot be accepted that

few cases of exclusion as pointed out by the

petitioners makes Section 7 itself arbitrary and

violative of Articles 14 and 21. Pitfalls and

shortcomings are to remove from every system and it

has been fairly submitted by the learned Attorney

General as well as learned counsel for the UIDAI that 195

as and when difficulties in implementation and cases

of denial are brought into the notice, remedial

measures are taken. The respondents are still ready to

take such remedial measures to ensure that there is no

denial of subsidies to deserving persons. We, however,

are of the view that denial of delivery of benefits

and subsidies to deserving persons is a serious

concern and violation of the rights of the persons

concerned. It has to be tackled at all level and the

administration has to gear up itself and

implementation authority has to gear up itself to

ensure that rightful beneficiaries are not denied the

constitutional benefits which have been recognised and

which are being implemented by the different schemes

of the Government. Both the Government and UIDAI are

fully empowered to make Rules and Regulations under

Sections 53 and 54 of the Aadhaar Act respectively and

exclusions have to be taken care by exercising the

power under Section 53 by the Central Government and

under Section 54 by the UIDAI to remedy such

shortcomings and denial. We are sure that both the 196

Central Government and UIDAI shall advert to the

exclusionary factors.

221. We may also notice a judgment of the US Supreme

Court in Otis R. Bowen, Secretary of Health and Human

Services, et al. vs. Stephen J. Roy et al., 476 US 693

(1986). The US Supreme Court held that statutory

requirement that a state agency utilise Social

Security numbers in administering the programs in

question does not violate the Free Exercise Clause.

The appellants applied and received benefits under

the Aid to Families with Dependent Children program

and the Food Stamp program. They, however, refused to

comply, with the requirement that participants in

these programs furnish their state welfare agencies

with the Social Security numbers of the members of

their household as a condition of receiving benefits.

Appellants had contended that obtaining a Social

Security number for their 2­year­old daughter, would

violate their Native American religious beliefs. On

refusal to give Social Number, benefits payable to the

appellants were terminated. The claim of the 197

appellants was dismissed. The challenge raised by the

appellants was noticed in the following words:

“Appellees raise a constitutional challenge to two features of the statutory scheme here.4 They object to Congress' requirement that a state AFDC plan "must . . . provide (A) that, as a condition of eligibility under the plan, each applicant for or recipient of aid shall furnish to the State agency his social security account number." 42 U.S.C. § 602(a)(25) (emphasis added). They also object to Congress' requirement that "such State agency shall utilize such account numbers . .

. in the administration of such plan." Ibid.

(emphasis added).5 We analyze each of these contentions, turning to the latter contention first.”

222. The U.S. Supreme Court upheld the requirement of

providing of Social Security number. Following has

been observed:

“The general governmental interests involved here buttress this conclusion. Governments today grant a broad range of benefits;

inescapably at the same time the administration of complex programs requires certain conditions and restrictions. Although in some situations a mechanism for individual consideration will be created, a policy decision by a government that it wishes to treat all applicants alike and that it does not wish to become involved in case­by­case inquiries into the genuineness of each religious objection to such condition or restrictions is entitled to substantial 198

deference. Moreover, legitimate interests are implicated in the need to avoid any appearance of favoring religious over nonreligious applicants.

The test applied in cases like Wisconsin v. Yoder, U.S. 205, 92 S.Ct. 1526, 32 L.Ed.2d 15 (1972), is not appropriate in this setting.

In the enforcement of a facially neutral and uniformly applicable requirement for the administration of welfare programs reaching many millions of people, the Government is entitled to wide latitude. The Government should not be put to the strict test applied by the District Court; that standard required the Government to justify enforcement of the use of Social Security number requirement as the least restrictive means of accomplishing a compelling state interest.17 Absent proof of an intent to discriminate against particular religious beliefs or against religion in general, the Government meets its burden when it demonstrates that a challenged requirement for governmental benefits, neutral and uniform in its application, is a reasonable means of promoting a legitimate public interest.”

223. Another case of the Appellate Division of the

Supreme Court of the State of New York which needs to

be noticed is in the matter of Buchanan v. Wing, 664

N.Y. 2d 865. In the above case petitioners were

recipients of Aid to Families with Dependent Children,

the facts of the case have been noticed in the

following words:

199

“Petitioners and their four minor children are recipients of Aid to Families with Department Children (hereinafter ADC) (Social Services Law 343 et seq.) and food stamps from the Broome County Department of Social Services (hereinafter the Department). In February 1996, petitioners received notice from the Department that they were to participate in an identity verification procedure known as the automated finger imaging system (hereinafter AFIS) as a condition of eligibility for benefits required by 18 NYCRR 351.2(a)(245 A.D. 2d

635). Petitioners responded that they would not participate because of their religious convictions. Respondent Commissioner of the Department thereafter discontinued their ADC and food stamp entitlements for failure to comply.”

224. The petitioners refused to participate in an

identify verification by procedure known as automated

finger imaging system which was a condition of

eligibility for benefits. Upholding the process of

verification by finger imaging following was laid

down:

“We have examined petitioners’ constitutional claims and find them to be without merit. In our view, petitioners’ failure to articulate a viable claim that they are being required to participate in an invasive procedure that is prohibited by their religious beliefs is dispositive of their arguments claiming a violation of their freedom to exercise their religion pursuant to the Federal and State 200

Constitutions (US Const 1st Amend; NY Const, art I, 3). We are also unpersuaded by petitioners’ contention that the Department violated NY Constitution, article XVII, 1 (which provides that aid and care of the needy are public concerns and shall be provided by the State) by discontinuing their public assistance benefits. Since petitioners cannot be classified as needy until such time as they are finger imaged to determine whether they are receiving duplicate benefits, no violation of this constitutional provision has been stated. Moreover, contrary to petitioners’ arguments, the discontinuance of public assistance to their entire family unit (see, 18 NYCRR 352.30)(245 A.D. 2d 637) does not infringe the constitutional rights of their children (who are not named petitioners in light of valid legislation premising the eligibility of the children within the family unit upon the eligibility of the entire household (see, Matter of Jessup v D’Elia, 69 N.Y. 2d 1030).”

225. Another judgment which has been relied by the

respondents is Doris McElrath v. Joseph A. Califano,

Jr., Secretary of Health, Education and Welfare, 615

F.2d 434. Under Social Security Act, 1935, a public

assistance program of federal and state cooperation

providing financial aid to needy dependent children

and the parents or relatives with whom they reside,

one of the conditions which was added so that as a

condition of eligibility under the plan, each 201

applicant for or recipient of aid shall furnish to the

State agency his social security account number. The

contention of the appellant was noticed in paragraph

11 which is to the following effect:

“[11] The appellants' principal contention on appeal is that the federal and state regulations requiring dependent children to acquire and submit social security account numbers as a condition of eligibility for AFDC benefits are statutorily invalid as being inconsistent with and not authorized by the Social Security Act. We find the arguments advanced in support of this contention to be without merit and hold that the challenged regulations constitute a legitimate condition of eligibility mandated by the Congress under the Social Security Act. Accord, Chambers v. Klein, 419 F. Supp. 569 (D.N.J. 1976), aff'd mem., 564 F.2d 89 (3d Cir. 1977); Green v. Philbrook, 576 F.2d 440 (2d Cir. 1978); Arthur v. Department of Social and Health Services, 19 Wn. App. 542, 576 P.2d 921 (1978). We therefore conclude that the district court properly dismissed the appellants' statutory invalidity allegations for failure to state a claim upon which relief could be granted.”

226. The appellant had also contended that disclosure

of social security account number violates their

constitutional rights to privacy. Said argument was 202

rejected. While rejecting the argument following was

stated in paragraph 20:

“[20] Finally, the appellants maintain that the social security account number disclosure requirement violates their constitutional rights to privacy and to equal protection of the law. We disagree. The constitutional guarantee of the right to privacy embodies only those personal rights that can be deemed "fundamental" or "implicit in the concept of ordered liberty." Roe v. Wade, : 410 U.S. 113, 152, 93 S.Ct. 705, 726, 35 L.Ed.2d 147 (1973). It is equally well­settled that "[w]elfare benefits are not a fundamental right . . . ." Lavine v. Milne, 424 U.S. 577, 584, n. 9, 96 S.Ct. 1010, 1015, 47 L.Ed.2d 249 (1976). Accordingly, we regard the decision of Mrs. McElrath whether or not to obtain social security account numbers for her two minor children in order to receive welfare benefits as involving neither a fundamental right nor a right implicit in the concept of ordered liberty. Chambers v.

Klein, 419 F. Supp. 569, 583 (D.N.J. 1976), aff'd mem. 564 F.2d 89 (3d Cir. 1977). This case is not concerned with a decision impacting the privacy of the appellants on the magnitude of criminal sanctions or an absolute prohibition on the appellants' conduct. See, e. g., Griswold v. Connecticut, : 381 U.S. 479, 85 S.Ct. 1678, 14 L.Ed.652d 510 (1965); Eisenstadt v. Baird,: 405 U.S. 438, 92 S.Ct. 1029, 31 L.Ed.2d 349 (1972).

Rather, it is concerned with a condition of AFDC eligibility and the only sanction for not complying is to forego certain governmental benefits. Simply stated, the claim of the appellants to receive welfare benefits on their own informational terms does not rise to the level of a 203

constitutional guarantee. Moreover, the contention that disclosure of one's social security account number violates the right to privacy has been consistently rejected in other related contexts. See, e.g., Cantor v. Supreme Court of Pennsylvania, 353 F. Supp.

1307, 1321­22 (E.D.Pa. 1973); Conant v. Hill, 326 F. Supp. 25, 26 (E.D.Va. 1971).”

227. The trends of judgments as noted above do

indicate that condition for identification or

disclosing particular identity number for receiving a

benefit from State does not violate any of the

Constitutional rights. We, thus, find that Section 7

fulfills the three fold tests as laid down in

Puttaswamy case.

228. Shri Gopal Subramanium relying on Article 243G

and Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution submits that

Aadhaar Scheme and its authentication for benefits,

subsidies and services militate against the above

Constitution provision and hence are ultra vires to

the Constitution. Article 243G deals with powers,

authority and responsibilities of Panchayats, which is

to the following effect:­ 204

243G. Powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats:­ Subject to the provisions of this Constitution the Legislature of a State may, by law, endow the Panchayats with such powers and authority and may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions of self­government and such law may contain provisions for the devolution of powers and responsibilities upon Panchayats, at the appropriate level, subject to such conditions as may be specified therein, with respect to­­­

(a) the preparation of plans for economic development and social justice;

(b) the implementation of schemes for economic development and social justice as may be entrusted to them including those in relation to the matters listed in the Eleventh Schedule.

229. Article 243G(b) refers to Eleventh Schedule to the

Constitution. Eleventh Schedule contains list of several

matters. Shri Subramanium relies on Item No. 11, 12, 16,

17, 23, 25 and 28, which are as under:­

11. Drinking Water.

12. Fuel and Fodder.

16. Poverty alleviation programme.

17. Education, including primary and secondary

schools.

205

23. Health and Sanitation, including hospitals,

primary health centres and dispensaries.

25. Women and child development.

28. Public distribution system.

230. Article 243G is an enabling provision, which enable

the State Legislature, by law, to endow the Panchayats

with such powers and authorities as may be necessary to

enable them to function as institutions of self­

government. The Items on which State, by law, can endow

Panchayats in Eleventh Schedule are items to deal with

subjects enumerated therein. For example, Item No. 16

deals with Poverty alleviation programme and Item No. 28

deals with Public Distribution System. State is fully

competent to make laws to authorise the Panchayats to

take over all the matters enumerated in Eleventh

Schedule. The question to be considered is as to whether

the Aadhaar Act in any manner militate with

Constitutional provisions of Article 243G. The Aadhaar

Act is an Act enacted by Parliament, which is referable

to Entry 97 of List I. The Aadhaar Act has been enacted 206

to provide for efficient, transparent, and targeted

delivery of subsidies, benefits and services, the

expenditure for which is incurred from the Consolidated

Fund of India, to individuals residing in India through

assigning of unique identity numbers to such individuals

and for matters connected therewith. The Act, thus, has

been enacted to regulate the expenditure, which is

incurred from the Consolidated Fund of India. No

conflict between the Aadhaar Act and any law, which may

be enacted by State under List II is seen. Even if any

conflict is supposed, the Doctrine of Pith and Substance

has to be applied to find out nature of two legislations.

In Pith and Substance, the Aadhaar Act cannot be said to

be entrenching upon any law, which may be made by the

State under Item No.5 of List II. In this context,

reference is made to judgment of this Court in State of

Uttar Pradesh and Another Vs. Zila Parishad, Ghaziabad

and Another, (2013) 11 SCC 783. In the above case,

provisions of Article 243G came to be considered in

reference to public distribution orders issued by the

State Government in exercise of delegated powers under 207 Essential Commodities Act, 1955. The Central Government

in exercise of power under Section 3 of the Essential

Commodities Act, the Government of U.P. issued an order

dated 10.8.1999, conferring the power to allot and cancel

the fair price shops in rural areas, with certain

guidelines, on the Gram Panchayats. Subsequently, the

State Government withdrew that order and reinforced the

earlier policy dated 03.07.1990 under which the power was

vested with the District Magistrate or an authority

designated by him to allot or cancel the licenses for

Fair Price Shops. The Central Government, in exercise of

power under Section 3 of the Essential Commodities Act,

issued an order dated 31.8.2001, wherein its powers were

delegated to State Government. State Government, in

pursuance thereof, issued an order designating the

officers of the District level, viz., District

Magistrate, Sub­Divisional Magistrate, District Supply

Officer to ensure the proper supply and distribution of

such commodities. Zila Parishad, Ghaziabad filed a Writ

Petition in the High Court challenging the Order dated

13.01.2000 by which the power was withdrawn from the Gram 208

Panchayats. The Writ Petition was allowed by the High

Court against which State of Uttar Pradesh filed an

appeal. The submission was raised before this Court on

behalf of the writ petitioner that denuding the power

from Panchayats will be against the constitutional

provision of Article 243G. Such argument on behalf of

petitioner has been noticed in Paragraph 14. This Court

after considering the provisions of Article 243G and

other relevant provisions has laid down in Paras 23 and

24:­

“23. The High Court has considered the nature of the aforesaid constitutional provision and held as under: (Zila Panchayat case1, AWC pp. 3981­82, para 16)

“16. In our opinion, this provision is only an enabling provision. It enables the Legislature of a State to endow the Panchayats with certain powers. … Hence, the Legislature of a State is not bound to endow the Panchayats with the powers referred to Article 243­G, and it is in its discretion to do so or not. At any event there is no mention of the public distribution system in Article 243­G of the Constitution.”

Thus, it is evident that the High Court has taken a view that the provision of Article 243­G is merely an enabling provision, and it 209

is not a source of legislation. This view seems to be in consonance with the law laid down by this Court in U.P. Gram Panchayat Adhikari Sangh v. Daya Ram Saroj4 wherein an observation has been made that Article 243­G is an enabling provision as it enables the Panchayats to function as institutions of self­government. Further, this Court noted that such law may contain provisions for the devolution of powers and responsibilities upon Panchayats, subject to such conditions as may be specified therein, with respect to the implementation of schemes for economic development and social justice as may be entrusted to them, including those in relations to the matters listed in the Eleventh Schedule. The enabling provisions are further subject to the conditions as may be specified. Therefore, it is for the State Legislature to consider conditions and to make laws accordingly. It is also open to the State to eliminate or modify the same.

24. Therefore, it is apparent that Article 243­G read with the Eleventh Schedule is not a source of legislative power, and it is only an enabling provision that empowers a State to endow functions and devolve powers and responsibilities to local bodies by enacting relevant laws. The local bodies can only implement the schemes entrusted to them by the State.”

231. This Court in the above case has reiterated that

Article 243G read with Eleventh Schedule is not a source

of legislative power, and it is only an enabling

provision that empowers a State to endow functions and 210

devolve powers and responsibilities to local bodies by

enacting relevant laws. We, thus, are unable to accept

the submission of Shri Gopal Subramanium that Aadhaar Act

is ultra vires to Article 243G and Eleventh Schedule to

the Constitution.

232. One more submission of the petitioners which needs

to be considered is regarding probabilistic nature of

biometric solution. We proceed on premise that Aadhaar

structure is probabilistic, the petitioners themselves

have referred to UIDAI Report where biometric accuracy

has been stated to be 99.768%. Stephen Hawkin in his

book: “God Created The Integers” states:

“Over the centuries, the efforts of these mathematicians have helped the human race to achieve great insight into nature, such as the realisation that the earth is round, that the same force that causes an apple to fall here on earth is also responsible for the motions of the heavenly bodies, that space is finite and not eternal, that time and space are intertwined and warped by matter and energy, and that the future can only be determined probabilistically. Such revolutions in the way we perceive the world have always gone hand in hand with revolutions in mathematical thought. Isaac Newton could never have formulated his laws without the analytic geometry of Rene Descartes and Newton’s own invention of 211

calculus. It is hard to imagine the development of either electrodynamics or quantum theory without the methods of Jean Baptiste Joseph Fourier or the work on calculus and the theory of complex functions pioneered by Carl Friedrich Gauss and Augustin Louis Cauchy­ and it was Henri Lebesgue’s work on the theory of measure that enabled John von Neumann to formulate the rigorous understanding of quantum theory that we have today. Albert Einstein could not have completed his general theory of relativity had it not been for the geometric ideas of Bernhard Riemann. And practically all of modern science would be far less potent (if it existed at all) without the concepts of probability and statistics pioneered by Pierre­Simon Laplace.”

233. The science and technology keeps on changing with

pace of time. A scientific invention or module which

is invented or launched keeps on improving with time.

The ready example is improvement in quality and

programmes of mobile phone which has seen steep

development in the last one decade. Even if

authentication under Aadhaar scheme is probabilistic

as on date, we have no doubt that the steps will be

taken to minimise the mis­natch and to attain more

accuracy in the result. In view of the foregoing

discussion we are of the view that the State has given 212

sufficient justification to uphold the

constitutionality of Section 7. We, thus, answer

Question Nos.6 and 7 in the following manner:

Ans.6:­ Section 7 of the Aadhaar is

constitutional. The provision does not

deserve to be struck down on account of

denial in some cases of right to claim on

account of failure of authentication.

Ans.7:­ The State while enlivening right to food,

right to shelter etc. envisaged under

Article 21 cannot encroach upon the right

of privacy of beneficiaries nor former

can be given precedence over the latter.

Issue No.8 Whether Section 29 of the Aadhaar Act is liable to be struck down?

234. The ground to challenge Section 29 is that it

permits sharing of identity information. It is

submitted that sharing of identity information is

breach of Right of Privacy. Section 29 is a 213

provision, which contains restrictions on sharing

information as is clear from the heading of the

section. Section 29 sub­section (1) contains

prohibition on sharing of any core biometric

information collected or created under this Act.

Section 29 for ready reference is extracted as below:­

29. Restriction on sharing information. (1) No core biometric information, collected or created under this Act, shall be—

(a) shared with anyone for any reason whatsoever; or

(b) used for any purpose other than generation of Aadhaar numbers and authentication under this Act.

(2) The identity information, other than core biometric information, collected or created under this Act may be shared only in accordance with the provisions of this Act and in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

(3) No identity information available with a requesting entity shall be—

(a) used for any purpose, other than that specified to the individual at the time of submitting any identity information for authentication; or

(b) disclosed further, except with the prior consent of the individual to whom such information relates.

214

(4) No Aadhaar number or core biometric information collected or created under this Act in respect of an Aadhaar number holder shall be published, displayed or posted publicly, except for the purposes as may be specified by regulations.

235. Sub­section (2) permits sharing of identity

information, other than core biometric information,

only in accordance with the provisions of this Act and

in such manner as may be specified by regulations.

Further sub­section (3) prohibits requesting entity to

use identity information for any purpose other than

that specified to the individual or to disclose any

information without the consent of individual. Sub­

section (4) provides that no Aadhaar number or core

biometric information shall be published, displayed or

posted publicly, except for the purposes as may be

specified by regulations. The attack on Section 29

that it permits sharing of information is thus wholly

misconceived. The objective of the Act is to protect

the information and privacy of an individual and so

the Section is not liable to be struck down on the

specious ground that it permits sharing of the 215

information. Further sub­section (3) engraft a

provision of sharing identity information by

requesting entity with consent of the individual.

When a person consents about sharing of his identity

information, he cannot complain breach of Privacy

Right. Petitioners take exception of provision of sub­

section(2), which permits identity information other

than core biometric information to be shared in

accordance with the provisions of this Act and in such

manner as may be specified by the regulations. When

an Act or Regulation regulates and controls sharing of

the information, the provision is regulatory and has

been engrafted to protect individual's Privacy Right.

The Aadhaar (Sharing of Information) Regulations, 2016

again contains in Chapter II ­ Restrictions on sharing

of identity information. Regulation 3 is restriction

on Authority. Regulation 4 is restriction on

requesting entity. Regulation 5 fixes responsibility

of any agency or entity other than requesting entity

with respect to Aadhaar number. Regulation 6 provides

restriction on sharing, circulating or publishing of 216

Aadhaar number.

236. We, thus, conclude that the provision of Section

29 and the Sharing Regulations contains a restriction

and cannot be in any manner be held to violate any of

the constitutional rights of a person. Objective of

the Act is to put restrictions on the sharing

information, which also is a legitimate State aim.

The provision under Section 29 which permits sharing

of identity information except core biometric

information in accordance with the Act and Regulations

cannot be said to be disproportionate nor

unreasonable. Legislature can very well enumerates

circumstances and conditions where sharing of

information becomes necessary. One of the

circumstances where sharing of the information is

specifically engrafted in sub­section(2) of Section

33, which provides that nothing contained in sub­

section (3) of Section 29 shall apply in respect of

any disclosure of information, including identity

information or authentication records, made in the

interest of national security in pursuance of a 217

direction of an officer not below the rank of Joint

Secretary to the Government of India. Thus, the

circumstances which can contemplate for sharing

information is reasonable and proportionate. We,

thus, held that provisions of Section 29 is

constitutional and does not deserves to be struck

down. Issue No. 8 is answered in the following

manner:­

Ans.8:­ Provisions of Section 29 is constitutional

and does not deserves to be struck down.

Issue No.9 Whether Section 33 is Constitutional ?

237. Section 33 of the Aadhaar Act, 2016 is as follows:

“33. Disclosure of information in certain cases.­(1) Nothing contained in sub­section (2) or sub­section (5) of section 28 or sub­ section (2) of section 29 shall apply in respect of any disclosure of information, including identity information or authentication records, made pursuant to an order of a court not inferior to that of a District Judge:

Provided that no order by the court under this sub­section shall be made without giving an opportunity of hearing to the Authority.

218 (2) Nothing contained in sub­section (2) or sub­section (5) of section 28 and clause (b) of sub­section (1), sub­section (2) or sub­ section (3) of section 29 shall apply in respect of any disclosure of information, including identity information records, made in the interest of national security in pursuance of a direction of an officer not below the rank of Joint Secretary to the Government of India specially authorised in this behalf by an order of the Central Government:

Provided that every direction issued under this sub­section, shall be reviewed by an Oversight Committee consisting of the Cabinet Secretary and the Secretaries to the Government of India in the Department of Legal Affairs and the Department of Electronics and Information Technology, before it takes effect:

Provided further that any direction issued under this sub­section shall be valid for a period of three months from the date of its issue, which may be extended for a further period of three months after the review by the Oversight Committee.”

238. The first limb of argument of the petitioner is

that Section 33 is unconstitutional since it provides

for the use of the Aadhaar data base for Police

verification which violates the protection against

self­incrimination as enshrined under Article 20(3) of

the Constitution of India.

219

239. Sub­section (1) of Section 33 contains an ample

restriction in respect of any disclosure information

which can be done only in pursuance of an order of the

court not inferior to that of a District Judge. The

restriction in disclosure of information is reasonable

and has valid justification. The authority whose duty

is to safeguard the entire data has to be heard before

passing an order by the court which amply protects the

interest of a person whose data is to be disclosed. An

order of the court not inferior to that of a District

Judge for disclosure of information itself is an ample

protection to that, for no unreasonable purpose data

shall be disclosed. Attacking on sub­section (2) of

Section 33, it is contended that although

(i)disclosure of information has been permitted in the

interest of the national security but there is no

definition of national security, (ii) there is no

independent oversight disclosure of such data on the

ground of security, (iii)the provision is neither fair

nor reasonable. Section (2) of Section 33 is

disproportionate and unconstitutional.

220

240. Section 33 sub­section (2) contains two

safeguards. Firstly, disclosure of information is to

be made in the interest of national security and

secondly, in pursuance of a direction of an officer

not below the rank of Joint Secretary to the

Government, who is specially authorised in this behalf

by an order of the Central Government. National

security, thus, has to be determined by a higher

officer who is specifically authorised in this behalf.

This Court in Ex. Armymen's Protection Services P.

Ltd. Vs. Union of India (UOI) and Ors., 2014 (5) SCC

409, has held that what is in the interest of national

security is not a question of law but that it is

matter of a policy. Following was held in paragraphs

16 and 17:

“16. What is in the interest of national security is not a question of law. It is a matter of policy. It is not for the court to decide whether something is in the interest of State or not. It should be left to the Executive. To quote Lord Hoffman in Secretary of State for the Home Department v. Rehman (2003) 1 AC 153:...in the matter of national security is not a question of law. It is a matter of judgment and policy. Under the Constitution of the United Kingdom and most other countries, decisions as to whether 221

something is or is not in the interest of national security are not a matter for judicial decision. They are entrusted to the executive.

17. Thus, in a situation of national security, a party cannot insist for the strict observance of the principles of natural justice. In such cases it is the duty of the Court to read into and provide for statutory exclusion, if not expressly provided in the rules governing the field.

Depending on the facts of the particular case, it will however be open to the court to satisfy itself whether there were justifiable facts, and in that regard, the court is entitled to call for the files and see whether it is a case where the interest of national security is involved. Once the State is of the stand that the issue involves national security, the court shall not disclose the reasons to the affected party.”

241. The International Courts have also dealt the

issue. In a case, namely, Census Act(BverfGE 65, 1),

judgment of Federal Constitution Court of Germany,

judgment dated 11.10.2013, the Court had occasion to

consider the case in the context of data processing

and protection of individual information against self­

incrimination and use of their personal data. Dealing

with right of information and self­determination the

Court held that individuals have no right in the sense

of absolute, unrestricted control over their data. 222

Following was held by the Court:

“The guarantee of this right to informational self­determination” is not entirely unrestricted. Individuals have no right in the sense of absolute, unrestricted control over their data; they are after all human persons who develop within the social Community and are dependent upon communication. Information, even if related to individual persons, represents a reflection of societal reality that cannot be exclusively assigned solely to the parties affected. The Basic Law, as has been emphasized several times in the case law of the Federal Constitutional Court, embodies in negotiating the tension between the individual and the Community a decision in favour of civic participation and civic responsibility(see BverfGE 4, 7 [15] ; 8, 274 [329]; 27, 344 [351 and 352]; 33, 303 [334]; 50, 290 [353]; 56, 37 [49]).

Individuals must therefore in principle accept restriction on their right to informational self­determination in the overriding general public interest.”

242. Another judgment of European Commission of Human

Rights in M.S. against Sweden was a case that

applicant has complained that copies of her medical

records containing information on treatment have been

forwarded by the clinic without her information to the

Insurance Co. The case of the applicant was noticed in

paragraph 39 which is to the following effect: 223

“39. The applicant submits that the women’s clinic’s submission of copies of her medical records to the Social Insurance Office without her knowledge or consent interfered with her right to respect for her private life. She maintains that the information contained in these records were of a highly sensitive and private nature. Allegedly, she could not anticipate, when she claimed compensation from the Office, that information on the abortion performed several years after alleged back injury would be forwarded to the Office. She further refers to the fact that the information in question is not protected by the same level of confidentiality at the Office as at the clinic.”

243. The Commission held that information was rightly

submitted to the Insurance Co. in accordance with law.

It is also relevant to refer the judgment of this

Court in People’s Union for Civil Liberties(PUCL) v.

Union of India, 1997 (1) SCC 301, where the writ

petition was filed under Article 32 alleging serious

invasion of an individual’s privacy on the account of

Telephone­tapping. The Court adverted to the Indian

Telegraph Act, 1885 and the Rules framed thereunder.

The Court has noticed that Section 5(2) of the

Telegraph Act permits the interception of messages in

accordance with the said section, “Occurrence of any 224

public emergency” or “in the interest of public

safety”. In paragraph 28 following was held:

“28. Section 5(2) of the Act permits the interception of messages in accordance with the provisions of the said Section.

"Occurrence of any public emergency" or "in the interest of public safety" are the sine qua non. for the application of the provisions of Section 5(2) of the Apt. Unless a public emergency has occurred or the interest of public safety demands, the authorities have no jurisdiction to exercise the powers under the said Section. Public emergency would mean the prevailing of a sudden condition or state of affairs affecting the people at large calling for immediate action.”

244. This Court issued various directions providing

for certain safeguards regarding an order for

Telephone­ tapping. Thus, on fulfillment of statutory

conditions when telephonic conversation can be

intercepted no exception can be taken for disclosure

of information in the interest of national security.

245. The power given under Section 33 to disclose

information cannot be said to be disproportionate. The

disclosure of information in the circumstances 225

mentioned in Section 33 is reasonable and in the

public interest.

246. We are satisfied that the provision fulfills

three fold test as laid down in Puttaswamy case. There

are no grounds to declare Section 33 as

unconstitutional.

247. We also need to advert to one of the submissions

of the petitioner that permitting disclosure of

information for police investigation violates the

protection against self­incrimination as provided

under Article 20 sub­clause (3). It is true that under

Section 33 the Court may order for disclosure of

information even for a police investigation. But

information so received in no manner can be said to

violate the protection given under Article 20 sub­

clause (3). The basic information which are with the

UIDAI are demographic and biometric information. In

this context, reference is made to 11­Judge

Constitution Bench judgment of this Court in State of

Bombay vs. Kathi KALU Oghad, AIR 1961 SC 1808. The 226

Constitution Bench had occasion to consider sub­clause

(3) of Article 20 of the Constitution. In the above

case from the accused who was charged under Section

302/34 IPC during the investigation prosecution has

obtained three specimen of hand­writing which were

compared by his hand­writing which was part of the

evidence. A question was raised as to the

admissibility of the specimen of hand­writing, it was

contended that use of specimen of hand­writing

violated protection under Article 20(3). This Court in

paragraph 16 laid down following:

(16) In view of these considerations, we have come to the following conclusions :­ (1) An accused person cannot be said to have been compelled to be a witness against himself simply because he made a statement while in police custody, without anything more. In other words, the mere fact of being in police custody at the time when the statement in question was made would not, by itself, as a proposition of law, lend itself to the inference that the accused was compelled to make the statement, though that fact, in conjunction with other circumstances disclosed in evidence in a particular case, would be a relevant consideration in an enquiry whether or not the accused 227

person had been compelled to make the impugned statement.

(2) The mere questioning of an accused person by a police officer, resulting in a voluntary statement, which may ultimately turn out to be incriminatory, is not 'compulsion'.

(3) 'To be a witness' is not equivalent to 'furnishing evidence' in its widest significance; that is to say, as including not merely making of oral or written Dagduas but also production of documents or giving materials which may be relevant at a trial to determine the guilt innocence of the accused.

(4) Giving thumb impressions or impressions of foot or palm or fingers or specimen writings or showing parts of the body by way of identification are not included in the expression 'to be a witness'.

(5) 'To be a witness' means imparting knowledge in respect of relevant facts by an oral statement or a statement in writing, made or given in Court or otherwise.

(6) 'To be a witness' in its ordinary grammatical sense means giving oral testimony in Court. Case law has gone beyond this strict literal interpretation of the expression which may now bear a wider meaning, namely, bearing testimony in Court or out of Court by a person accused of an offence, orally or in writing.

(7) To bring the statement in question within the prohibition of 228 Article 20(3), the person accused must have stood in the character of an accused person at the time he made the statement. It is not enough that he should become an accused, any time after the statement has been made.”

248. From what has been held in the above case, it is

clear that ‘to be a witness' is not equivalent to

'furnishing evidence' in its widest significance. The

use of information retained by the UIDAI given by the

order of the Court under Section 33 cannot be said to

be violating the protection as contained under Article

20(3). Thus, Article 20(3) is not violated by

disclosure of information under Section 33. In view of

the foregoing discussion, we hold that Section 33 is

constitutional.

249. One of the decisions on which Shri K.V.

Viswanathan has placed reliance in support of his

submission regarding violation of Article 20(3) as

well as Article 21 of the Constitution is Selvi and

others vs. State of Karnataka, 2010(7) SCC 263. In the

above case this Court had considered as to whether

certain scientific techniques, namely, narcoanalysis, 229

polygraph examination and the Brain Electrical

Activation Profile (BEAP)test for the purpose of

improving investigation efforts in criminal cases

violate sub­clause (3) of Article 20 as well as

Article 21. The legal issues and questions of law have

been noted in paragraphs 2 and 11 to the following

effect:

“2. The legal questions in this batch of criminal appeals relate to the involuntary administration of certain scientific techniques, namely narcoanalysis, polygraph examination and the Brain Electrical Activation Profile (BEAP) test for the purpose of improving investigation efforts in criminal cases. This issue has received considerable attention since it involves tensions between the desirability of efficient investigation and the preservation of individual liberties. Ordinarily the judicial task is that of evaluating the rival contentions in order to arrive at a sound conclusion. However, the present case is not an ordinary dispute between private parties. It raises pertinent questions about the meaning and scope of fundamental rights which are available to all citizens. Therefore, we must examine the implications of permitting the use of the impugned techniques in a variety of settings.

11. At this stage, it will be useful to frame the questions of law and outline the relevant sub­questions in the following manner:

230 I.Whether the involuntary administration of the impugned techniques violates the `right against self­incrimination' enumerated in Article 20(3) of the Constitution?

I­A. Whether the investigative use of the impugned techniques creates a likelihood of incrimination for the subject?

I­B. Whether the results derived from the impugned techniques amount to `testimonial compulsion' thereby attracting the bar of Article 20(3)?

II.Whether the involuntary administration of the impugned techniques is a reasonable restriction on `personal liberty' as understood in the context of Article 21 of the Constitution? ”

250. After considering large number of cases of this

Court as well as judgments rendered by Foreign Courts,

a conclusion was recorded that those tests, since they

are a means for imparting personal knowledge about

relevant facts, hence, they come within the scope of

testimonial compulsion thereby attracting the

protective shield of Article 20(3). In paragraph 189

following was held:

“189. In light of the preceding 231

discussion, we are of the view that the results obtained from tests such as polygraph examination and the BEAP test should also be treated as `personal testimony', since they are a means for `imparting personal knowledge about relevant facts'. Hence, our conclusion is that the results obtained through the involuntary administration of either of the impugned tests (i.e. the narcoanalysis technique, polygraph examination and the BEAP test) come within the scope of `testimonial compulsion', thereby attracting the protective shield of Article 20(3). ”

251. In so far as question of violation of Article 21

is concerned, this Court, in paragraphs 225 and 226

has held:

“225. So far, the judicial understanding of privacy in our country has mostly stressed on the protection of the body and physical spaces from intrusive actions by the State. While the scheme of criminal procedure as well as evidence law mandates interference with physical privacy through statutory provisions that enable arrest, detention, search and seizure among others, the same cannot be the basis for compelling a person `to impart personal knowledge about a relevant fact'. The theory of interrelationship of rights mandates that the right against self­incrimination should also be read as a component of `personal liberty' under Article 21. Hence, our understanding of the `right to privacy' should account for its intersection with Article 20(3). Furthermore, the `rule against involuntary confessions' as embodied in Sections 24, 25, 26 and 27 of the Evidence Act, 1872 seeks to serve both the 232

objectives of reliability as well as voluntariness of testimony given in a custodial setting. A conjunctive reading of Articles 20(3) and 21 of the Constitution along with the principles of evidence law leads us to a clear answer. We must recognise the importance of personal autonomy in aspects such as the choice between remaining silent and speaking. An individual's decision to make a statement is the product of a private choice and there should be no scope for any other individual to interfere with such autonomy, especially in circumstances where the person faces exposure to criminal charges or penalties.

226. Therefore, it is our considered opinion that subjecting a person to the impugned techniques in an involuntary manner violates the prescribed boundaries of privacy. Forcible interference with a person's mental processes is not provided for under any statute and it most certainly comes into conflict with the `right against self­ incrimination'. However, this determination does not account for circumstances where a person could be subjected to any of the impugned tests but not exposed to criminal charges and the possibility of conviction. In such cases, he/she could still face adverse consequences such as custodial abuse, surveillance, undue harassment and social stigma among others. In order to address such circumstances, it is important to examine some other dimensions of Article 21. ”

252. The nature of tests which were under consideration

in the aforesaid case, were elaborately noticed by

this Court and the tests were found to be in nature of 233

substantial intrusion in the body and mind of an

individual, hence, it was held that they violate

Article 20(3) as well as Article 21. It is, however,

relevant to notice that this Court in Selvi judgment

itself has noticed the distinction in so far as use of

fingerprints were concerned. This Court had noticed

earlier judgment of State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu

Oghad, AIR 1961 SC 1808 with approval. The biometric

information that is fingerprints and iris scan can not

be equated to the tests which came for consideration

in Selvi's case. Hence, the judgment of this Court in

Selvi does not in any manner support the case of the

petitioners. Answer to question No.3 is in following

Manner:

Ans.9: Section 33 cannot be said to be

unconstitutional as it provides for the

use of Aadhaar data base for police

investigation nor it can be said to

violate protection granted under Article

20(3).

234

Issue No.10 Whether Section 47 of the Aadhaar Act is Unconstitutional?

253. The Petitioner submits that Section 47 of the

Aadhaar Act is unconstitutional since it does not

allow an individual who is victim of violation of

Aadhaar Act to initiate a criminal process. It is

submitted that the person who is victim of an offence

under the Aadhaar Act has no remedy to file a

complaint and Section 47 of the Act restrict the

filing of complaint only by Authorities or Officers or

persons authorised by it.

254. The above submission is refuted by the respondent

that Section 47 has a rationale. The offences and

penalties under Chapter VII of the Aadhaar Act are all

intended to maintain the purity and integrity of CIDR

and the entire enrolment storage in CIDR and

authentication exercise can only be efficiently and

effectively handled by UIDAI. Thus, jurisdiction to

submit a complaint has been conferred to UIDAI which

is the most entrusted entity for maintaining the 235

purity of Aadhaar Scheme and is also affected by

offences committed under the Aadhaar Act. Section 47

provides as follows:

“47. Cognizance of Offence ­ (1) No court shall take cognizance of any offence punishable under this Act, save on a complaint made by the Authority or any officer or person authorised by it.

(2) No court inferior to that of a Chief Metropolitan Magistrate or a Chief Judicial Magistrate shall try any offence punishable under this Act.”

255. Provisions akin to Section 47 are found in most

of Statutes which Statutes defines offences under the

Statute and provide penalty and punishment thereunder.

Following are some of the Statues which contains a

provision akin to Section 47 of Aadhaar Act:

“1)Section 22 of Mines and Minerals(Development & Regulation) Act, 1957 – No Court shall take cognizance of any offence punishable under this Act or any rules made thereunder except upon complaint in writing made by a person authorised in this behalf by the Central Government or the State Government.

2) Section 34 of the Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 1986 ­ No Court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable under this Act, save on a complaint made by or under the authority of the Government or 236

Bureau or by any officer empowered in this behalf by the Government or the Bureau, or any consumer or any association recognized in this behalf by the Central or State Government.

3) Section 26(1) of SEBI Act, 1992 – No Court shall take cognizance of any offence punishable under this Act or any rules or regulations made thereunder, save on a complaint made by the Board.

4) Section 34 of Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997 – No Court shall take cognizance of any offence punishable under this Act or the rules or regulations made thereunder, save on a complaint made by the Authority.

5) Section 57(1) of Petroleum and Natural gas Regulatory Board Act, 2007 – No Court shall take cognizance of any offence punishable under Chapter IX save on a complaint made by the Board or by any investigating agency directed by the Central Government.

6) Section 47 of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 – No court shall take a cognizance of any offence punishable under sub­section (5) of Section 36AA or Section 46 except upon complaint in writing made by an officer of the Reserve Bank or, as the case may be, the National Bank generally or specially authorised in writing in this behalf by the Reserve Bank, or as the case may be, the National Bank and no court other than that of a Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate of the first class or any court superior thereto shall try any such offence.

7) Section 19 of Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 – No court shall take cognizance of 237

any offence under this Act except on a complaint made by – (a) the Central Government or any authority or officer authorised in this behalf by that Government, or (b) any person who has given notice of not less than sixty days, in the manner prescribed, of the alleged offence and of his intention to make a complaint, to the Central Government or the authority or officer authorised as aforesaid.

8) Section 43 of The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 – (1) No Court shall take cognizance of any offence under this Act except on a complaint made by – (a) a Board or any officer authorised in this behalf by it; or (b) any person who has given notice of not less than sixty days, in the manner prescribed, of the alleged offence and of his intention to make a complaint to the Board or officer authorised as aforesaid, and no court inferior to that of a Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate of the first class shall try any offence punishable under this Act.”

256. Large number of Special Acts which defines

offences under the Act and their penalty contains

provision akin to Section 34 of the Aadhaar Act.

Special Acts are enacted for serving special objects

towards offences under the Act. The initiation and

prosecution of offences under the Special Act are kept

by the specified authority to keep the initiation and

prosecution in the hands of the authorities under the 238 Special Act which acts as deterrent and prosecutions

are brought to its logical end. Further, objective of

such provisions is to discourage frivolous and

vexatious complaints.

257. This Court in Rajkumar Gupta versus Lt.Governor,

Delhi and Others, (1997) 1 SCC 556, had occasion to

consider Section 34(1) of the Industrial Disputes Act,

1947 and objective behind putting such restriction.

Section 34 of Industrial Disputes Act provided that no

Court shall take cognizance of any offence punishable

under this Act or of the abetment of any such offence,

save on complaint made by or under the authority of

the appropriate Government. Section 34 of Industrial

Disputes Act is pari materia with Section 47 of the

Aadhaar Act. This Court noticing the objective of

Section 34 laid down following in the paragraph 16.

The Court held that Section 34 is in the nature of

limitation on the entitlement of workman or trade

union or an employer to complain of offences under the

Act. Following was laid down in paragraph 16:

“ 16. At the same time, the provisions of 239 Section 34 are in the nature of a limitation on the entitlement of a workman or a trade union or an employer to complain of offences under the said Act. They should not, in the public interest, be permitted to make frivolous, vexatious or otherwise patently untenable complaints, and to this end Section 34 requires that no complaint shall be taken cognizance of unless it is made with the authorization of the appropriate Government.”

258. In so far as the submission that there is no

forum for a person victim of an offence under Aadhaar

Act, suffice to say that Section 47 can be invoked by

the authority on its own motion or when it receives a

complaint from a victim. The authority i.e. UIDAI has

varied powers and functions as enumerated in Section

23 of the Act. It is the authority who is most

entrusted in ensuring that the provisions of the Act

are implemented in accordance with the Act and

offenders should be punished. In so far as remedy of

victim is concerned, there are few facts which need to

be kept in mind.

259. The Information Technology Act, 2000 defines

electronic record in Section 2(t) which is to the

following effect:­ 240

“Section 2(t)­ “electronic record” means data, record or data generated, image or sound stored, received or sent in an electronic form or micro film or computer generated micro fiche;”

260. The demographic and biometric information which

is collected for enrolment of the resident in

electronic data as defined in Section 2(t) of

Information Technology Act and expressly stated in

Section 30 of Aadhaar Act. Chapter 11 of the

Information Technology Act defines offences. Section

66C, Section 66D and Section 72 of the Information

Technology Act defines offences and provides for

penalty, which is to the following effect:­

“66C. Punishment for identity theft­ Whoever, fraudulently or dishonestly make use of the electronic signature, password or any other unique identification feature of any other person, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years and shall also be liable to fine which may extend to rupees one lakh.

66D. Punishment for cheating by personation by using computer resource­ Whoever, by means for any communication device or computer resource cheats by personating, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years and shall also be liable to fine 241

which may extend to one lakh rupees.

72. Penalty for breach of confidentiality and privacy – Save as otherwise provided in this Act or any other law for the time being in force, if any person who, in pursuance of any of the powers conferred under this Act, rules or regulations made thereunder, has secured access to any electronic record, book, register, correspondence, information, document or other material without the consent of the person concerned discloses such electronic record, book, register, correspondence, information, document or other material to any other person shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine which may extend to one lakh rupees, or with both.”

261. With regard to an offence which falls within the

definition of 'offences' a victim can always file

complaint or lodge an F.I.R.. Section 46 of the

Aadhaar Act clearly provides that the penalties under

the Aadhaar Act shall not interfere with other

punishments. Section 46 is as follows:

“46. Penalties not to interfere with other punishments. ­ No penalty imposed under this Act shall prevent the imposition of any other penalty or punishment under any other law for the time being in force.”

262. This Court in State (NCT of Delhi) versus

Sanjay, (2014) 9 SCC 772, had occasion to consider the 242

provisions of Section 22 of the Mines and Minerals

(Development & Regulations) Act, 1957 which provision

is similar to Section 47 of the Aadhaar Act. The

question arose that whether in case the complaint has

not been filed by the authority under Section 22,

whether cognizance can be taken of the offence if it

falls within definition of any of the offences under

the Indian Penal Code. There was divergence of

opinions between the different High Courts. This Court

after noticing earlier judgments of this Court, laid

down following in paragraphs 17 and 73.

“17. Since conflicting views have been taken by the Gujarat High Court, the Delhi High Court, the Kerala High Court, the Calcutta High Court, the Madras High Court and the Jharkhand High Court, and they are in different tones, it is necessary to settle the question involved in these appeals.

73. After giving our thoughtful consideration in the matter, in the light of relevant provisions of the Act vis­à­vis the Code of Criminal Procedure and the Penal Code, we are of the definite opinion that the ingredients constituting the offence under the MMDR Act and the ingredients of dishonestly removing sand and gravel from the riverbeds without consent, which is the property of the State, is a distinct offence under IPC. Hence, for the commission of offence Under Section 378 IPC, on receipt of the police report, the 243

Magistrate having jurisdiction can take cognizance of the said offence without awaiting the receipt of complaint that may be filed by the authorized officer for taking cognizance in respect of violation of various provisions of the MMDR Act. Consequently the contrary view taken by the different High Courts cannot be sustained in law and, therefore, overruled. Consequently, these criminal appeals are disposed of with a direction to the Magistrates concerned to proceed accordingly. ”

263. The limitation as contained in Section 47 in

permitting taking cognizance of any offence punishable

under Aadhaar Act only on a complaint made by the

authority or any officer or person authorised by it,

has legislative purpose and objective, as noticed

above. We thus do not find any unconstitutionality in

Section 47 of the Aadhaar Act. In view of the

foregoing discussions, the answer to Issue No.10 is in

following manner:­

Ans.10: Section 47 of the Aadhaar Act cannot be held to be unconstitutional on the ground that it does not allow an individual who finds that there is a violation of Aadhaar Act to initiate any criminal process.

244

Issue No. 11 Whether Section 57 of Aadhaar Act is unconstitutional?

264. Section 57 of the Act, which contains a heading

“Act not to prevent use of Aadhaar Number for other

purposes under law” provides:­

“57. Act to prevent use of Aadhaar number for other purposes under law. ­ Nothing contained in this Act shall prevent the use of Aadhaar number for establishing the identity of an individual for any purpose, whether by the State or any body corporate or person, pursuant to any law, for the time being in force, or any contract to this effect:

Provided that the use of Aadhaar number under this section shall be subject to the procedure and obligations under section 8 and Chapter VI.”

265. Attacking the provision of Section 57, petitioners

contends that broad and unlimited scope of activities

covered under Section 57 and kinds of private entities

permitted to use Aadhaar is entirely disproportionate

beyond the means and objectives of the Act and without

any compelling State interests. There are no

procedural safeguards governing the actions of private

entities and no remedy for undertaking's failure or

service denial. The individual, who wish to be 245

enrolled have given their consent only for Aadhaar

subsidies, benefits and services, which cannot be

assumed for other purposes. Section 57 has to be

struck down on the ground of excessive delegation.

“Any purpose” indicates absence of guidelines. Any

purpose does not mean all purposes and several aspects

of human existence. Section 57 violates all principles

of proportionality.

266. Refuting the above submission of the petitioners,

the respondents submits that, Section 57 is not an

enabling provision, it merely provides as it states

that the provisions of the Act would not prevent the

use of Aadhaar for other purposes. In fact, Section

57 employs limitation on such user for other purposes,

which is engrafted in Proviso to Section 59. The use

of Aadhaar having been made subject to procedure and

obligations under Section 8 and Chapter VI, the

contract must provide for authentication under Section

8 and protection and formulation under Chapter VI also

obviously entail the operation of Chapter VII

(Offences and Penalties). Section 57 does not have 246

any relation to other laws, which may be made by

Parliament, the other laws made by Parliament would

have to be tested on their own merits. Section 57 is

not a provision enabling the making of a law or

rather it is actually a limitation or restriction to

law, which may be made with respect to use of Aadhaar

number. The apprehension expressed by the petitioners

is about the wide extension of use of Aadhaar in

private spheres is completely misplaced.

267. One of the grounds of attack of the petitioners

to Section 57 is that it is disproportionate and does

not satisfy the proportionality test as laid down in

Privacy Judgment – Puttaswamy case. Before proceeding

further, it becomes necessary to look into the

proportionality test, its content and parameters.

268. Patanjali Shastri, Chief Justice, as he then was

speaking for a Constitution Bench in State of Madras

Vs. V.G. Row, AIR 1952 SC 196, while elaborating the

expression reasonable restrictions on the exercise of

right as occurring in Clause (5) of Article 19 of the 247

Constitution laid down that reasonable restriction

should not be disproportionate. Following was observed

in Paragraph 15:­

“15........It is important in this context to bear in mind that the test of reasonableness, wherever prescribed, should be applied to each individual statute impugned, and no abstract standard or general pattern, of reasonableness can be laid down as applicable to all cases. The nature of the right alleged to have been infringed, the underlying purpose of the restrictions imposed, the extent and urgency of the evil sought to be remedied thereby, the disproportion of the imposition, the prevailing conditions at the time, should all enter into the judicial verdict. In evaluating such elusive factors and forming their own conception of what is reasonable, in all the circumstances of a given case, it is inevitable that the social philosophy and the scale of values of the Judges participating in the decision should play an important part, and the limit to their interference with legislative judgment in such cases can only be dictated by their sense of responsibility and self­restraint and the sobering reflection that the Constitution is meant not only for people of their way of thinking but for all, and that the majority of the elected representatives of the people have, in authorising the imposition of the restrictions, considered them to be reasonable.”

269. A Two Judge Bench of this Court in Om Kumar and

Others Vs. Union of India, (2001) 2 SCC 386 248

elaborately considered the concept of proportionality

in reference to legislative action. This Court held

that ever since the principle of proportionality as

noted above applied in India, Jagannadha Rao, J. had

referred to judgments of Canadian Supreme Court in R

v. Oakes (1986) 26 DLR 2001 and has noticed the three

important components of the proportionality test.

First, the measures adopted must be carefully designed

to achieve the objective in question. They must not be

arbitrary, unfair or based on irrational

considerations. In short, they must be rationally

connected to the objective. Secondly, the means, must

not only be rationally connected to the objective in

the first sense, but should impair as little as

possible the right to freedom in question. Thirdly,

there must be 'proportionality' between the effects of

the measures and the objective.

270. Again, in Teri Oat Estates (P) Ltd. Vs. U.T.

Chandigarh and Others, (2004) 2 SCC 130, Sinha, J. had

elaborately reviewed the principle of proportionality.

In Paragraph 46, following has been held:­ 249

“46. By proportionality, it is meant that the question whether while regulating exercise of fundamental rights, the appropriate or least restrictive choice of measures has been made by the legislature or the administrator so as to achieve the object of the legislation or the purpose of the administrative order, as the case may be. Under the principle, the court will see that the legislature and the administrative authority “maintain a proper balance between the adverse effects which the legislation or the administrative order may have on the rights, liberties or interests of persons keeping in mind the purpose which they were intended to serve”.

271. The most elaborate consideration of the Doctrine

of Proportionality was made in Modern Dental College

and Research Centre and Others Vs. State of Madhya

Pradesh and Others, (2016) 7 SCC 353. The validity of

legislation passed by State of Madhya Pradesh

Legislature came for consideration. The Court

(speaking through Dr. Justice A.K. Sikri, one of us)

held that exercise that is required to be undertaken

is the balancing of fundamental right and

restrictions imposed, which is known as Doctrine of

Proportionality. In Paragraph 60, following has been 250

stated:­

“60. …......... Thus, while examining as to whether the impugned provisions of the statute and rules amount to reasonable restrictions and are brought out in the interest of the general public, the exercise that is required to be undertaken is the balancing of fundamental right to carry on occupation on the one hand and the restrictions imposed on the other hand. This is what is known as “doctrine of proportionality”. Jurisprudentially, “proportionality” can be defined as the set of rules determining the necessary and sufficient conditions for limitation of a constitutionally protected right by a law to be constitutionally permissible. According to Aharon Barak (former Chief Justice, Supreme Court of Israel), there are four sub­ components of proportionality which need to be satisfied, a limitation of a constitutional right will be constitutionally permissible if:

(i) it is designated for a proper purpose;

(ii) the measures undertaken to effectuate such a limitation are rationally connected to the fulfilment of that purpose;

(iii) the measures undertaken are necessary in that there are no alternative measures that may similarly achieve that same purpose with a lesser degree of limitation;

and finally

(iv) there needs to be a proper relation (“proportionality stricto 251

sensu” or “balancing”) between the importance of achieving the proper purpose and the social importance of preventing the limitation on the constitutional right.”

272. Elaborating the constitutional principles, it was

laid down that the Constitution permit constitutional

rights to be limited to protect public interests or

the rights of others. The conflict between two

fundamental aspects, i.e. rights on the one hand and

its limitation on the other hand ­ is to be resolved

by balancing the two so that they harmoniously co­

exist with each other. This balancing is to be done

keeping in mind the relative social values of each

competitive aspects when considered in proper context.

What criteria is to be adopted in for a proper

balancing has been explained in Paragraphs 63 and 64:­

“63. In this direction, the next question that arises is as to what criteria is to be adopted for a proper balance between the two facets viz. the rights and limitations imposed upon it by a statute. Here comes the concept of “proportionality”, which is a proper criterion. To put it pithily, when a law limits a constitutional right, such a limitation is constitutional if it is proportional. The law imposing restrictions will be treated as proportional if it is 252

meant to achieve a proper purpose, and if the measures taken to achieve such a purpose are rationally connected to the purpose, and such measures are necessary. This essence of doctrine of proportionality is beautifully captured by Dickson, C.J. of Canada in R. v.

Oakees, (1986) 1 SCR 103 (Can SC), in the following words (at p. 138):

“To establish that a limit is reasonable and demonstrably justified in a free and democratic society, two central criteria must be satisfied.

First, the objective, which the measures, responsible for a limit on a Charter right or freedom are designed to serve, must be “of” sufficient importance to warrant overriding a constitutional protected right or freedom … Second … the party invoking Section 1 must show that the means chosen are reasonable and demonstrably justified. This involves “a form of proportionality test…” Although the nature of the proportionality test will vary depending on the circumstances, in each case courts will be required to balance the interests of society with those of individuals and groups.

There are, in my view, three important components of a proportionality test. First, the measures adopted must be … rationally connected to the objective. Second, the means … should impair “as little as possible” the right or freedom in question … Third, there must be a proportionality between the effects of the measures which are responsible for limiting the Charter right or freedom, and the objective which has 253

been identified as of “sufficient importance”. The more severe the deleterious effects of a measure, the more important the objective must be if the measure is to be reasonable and demonstrably justified in a free and democratic society.”

64. The exercise which, therefore, is to be taken is to find out as to whether the limitation of constitutional rights is for a purpose that is reasonable and necessary in a democratic society and such an exercise involves the weighing up of competitive values, and ultimately an assessment based on proportionality i.e. balancing of different interests.”

273. The application of Doctrine of Proportionality,

while examining validity of the Statute has been

accepted in other countries as well. Judgments of the

U.S. Supreme Court as well as of United Kingdom,

Canadian Supreme Court and Australian Court shows that

they have applied proportionality principle while

judging a Statute. European Court of Human Rights and

other international bodies have recognised the said

principle. Privacy judgment in Puttaswamy case has

also accepted the proportionality doctrine for judging

validity of a Statute. In the three­fold test evolved

in Privacy Judgment, proportionality is the third 254

component. Dr. D.Y. Chandrachud, J. in Paragraph 310

has stated following in respect of proportionality:­

“310. While it intervenes to protect legitimate State interests, the State must nevertheless put into place a robust regime that ensures the fulfilment of a threefold requirement. These three requirements apply to all restraints on privacy (not just informational privacy). They emanate from the procedural and content­based mandate of Article 21. The first requirement that there must be a law in existence to justify an encroachment on privacy is an express requirement of Article 21. For, no person can be deprived of his life or personal liberty except in accordance with the procedure established by law. The existence of law is an essential requirement. Second, the requirement of a need, in terms of a legitimate State aim, ensures that the nature and content of the law which imposes the restriction falls within the zone of reasonableness mandated by Article 14, which is a guarantee against arbitrary State action. The pursuit of a legitimate State aim ensures that the law does not suffer from manifest arbitrariness. Legitimacy, as a postulate, involves a value judgment.

Judicial review does not reappreciate or second guess the value judgment of the legislature but is for deciding whether the aim which is sought to be pursued suffers from palpable or manifest arbitrariness. The third requirement ensures that the means which are adopted by the legislature are proportional to the object and needs sought to be fulfilled by the law. Proportionality is an essential facet of the guarantee against arbitrary State action because it ensures that the nature and quality of the 255

encroachment on the right is not disproportionate to the purpose of the law.

Hence, the threefold requirement for a valid law arises out of the mutual interdependence between the fundamental guarantees against arbitrariness on the one hand and the protection of life and personal liberty, on the other. The right to privacy, which is an intrinsic part of the right to life and liberty, and the freedoms embodied in Part III is subject to the same restraints which apply to those freedoms.”

274. The third requirement ensures that the means

which are adopted by the legislature are proportional

to the object and needs sought to be fulfilled by the

law. Proportionality is an essential facet of the

guarantee against arbitrary state action because it

ensures that the nature and quality of the

encroachment on the right is not disproportionate to

the purpose of the law.

275. European Court of Justice in Michael Schwarz Vs.

Stadt Bochum in its judgment dated 17.10.2013, while

considering a directive of the European Parliament and

on the protection of individuals with regard to the

processing of personal data and on the free movement

of such data, has applied the proportionality 256

principle. Following was laid down in Paragraph 40:­

“40. Fourth, the Court must establish whether the limitations placed on those rights are proportionate to the aims pursued by Regulation No. 2252/2004 and, by extension, to the objective of preventing illegal entry into the European Union. It must therefore be ascertained whether the measures implemented by that regulation are appropriate for attaining those aims and do not go beyond what is necessary to achieve them (see Volker and Markus Schedule and Eifert, paragraph 74).”

276. Court of Justice of the European Union in Digital

Rights Ireland Ltd. Vs. Minister for Communications

[2015] QBECJ 127 had occasion to consider the validity

of Parliament and Council Directive 2006/24/EC on the

retention of data generated or processed by them in

connection with the provision of publicly available

electronic communications services or of public

communications networks. Applying the principle of

proportionality, it was held that principle of

proportionality requires that acts of the EU

institutions be appropriate for attaining the

legitimate objectives pursued by the legislation at

issue and do not exceed the limits of what is 257

appropriate and necessary in order to achieve those

objectives. Following was laid down in Paragraph 46:

“46. In summary, Directive 2006/24 is characterised by its functional duality. It is, on the one hand, an entirely traditional Directive which seeks to harmonise national laws that are disparate (recital (5) in the Preamble to Directive 2006/24 states that national laws ”vary considerably”) or likely to become so, and was adopted in the interests of the functioning of the internal market and precisely calibrated for that purpose, as the court ruled in Ireland v European Parliament. However, it is also, on the other hand, a Directive which, even in its harmonising function, seeks to establish where appropriate, obligations­ in particular data retention obligations­ which constitute, as I shall show later, serious interference with the enjoyment of the fundamental rights guaranteed to European citizens by the Charter, in particular the right to privacy and the right to the protection of personal data.”

277. Another judgment by Court of the Justice of

European Union (Grand Chamber) is Tele2 Sverige AB Vs.

Post­och telesyrelsen. A directive of European

Parliament and of the Council concerning the

processing of personal data and the protection of

privacy in the electronic communications sector came

for consideration. In Paras 95, 96 and 116 following 258

was laid down:­

“95. With respect to that last issue, the first sentence of Article 15(1) of Directive 2002/58 provides that Member States may adopt a measure that derogates from the principle of confidentiality of communications and related traffic data where it is a ‘necessary, appropriate and proportionate measure within a democratic society’, in view of the objectives laid down in that provision. As regards recital 11 of that directive, it states that a measure of that kind must be ‘strictly’ proportionate to the intended purpose. In relation to, in particular, the retention of data, the requirement laid down in the second sentence of Article 15(1) of that directive is that data should be retained ‘for a limited period’ and be ‘justified’ by reference to one of the objectives stated in the first sentence of Article 15(1) of that directive.

96. Due regard to the principle of proportionality also derives from the Court’s settled case­law to the effect that the protection of the fundamental right to respect for private life at EU level requires that derogations from and limitations on the protection of personal data should apply only in so far as is strictly necessary (judgments of 16 December 2008, Satakunnan Markkinapörssi and Satamedia, C­ 73/07,EU:C:2008:727,paragraph 56; of 9 November 2010, Volker und Markus Schecke and Eifert, C­92/09 and C­93/09, EU:C:2010:662, paragraph 77; the Digital Rights judgment, paragraph 52, and of 6 October 2015, Schrems, C­362/14, EU:C:2015:650, paragraph 92).

116 As regards compatibility with the 259

principle of proportionality, national legislation governing the conditions under which the providers of electronic communications services must grant the competent national authorities access to the retained data must ensure, in accordance with what was stated in paragraphs 95 and 96 of this judgment, that such access does not exceed the limits of what is strictly necessary.”

278. The U.S. Supreme Court while considering the said

test has repeatedly refused to apply the least

intrusive test. Vernonia School District Vs. Wayne

Acton, 515 US 646, 132 L.Ed. 2D 564, was a case where

a Student Athlete Drug Policy was adopted by the

School District, which authorised random urine

analysis drug testing of students participating in the

District School Athletic Programme. A student was

denied participation in Football game since he and his

parents had refused to sign the testing consent forms.

The Actons filed suit, seeking for a declaratory and

injunctive relief from enforcement of the Policy. One

of the submissions raised was that Policy is

disproportionate since it asks all the athletes to

undergo urine analysis, the test is not least

intrusive test. Repelling the least intrusive test, 260

following was held:­

“As to the efficacy of this means for addressing the problem: It seems to us self­ evident that a drug problem largely fueled by the "role model" effect of athletes' drug use, and of particular danger to athletes, is effectively addressed by making sure that athletes do not use drugs. Respondents argue that a "less intrusive means to the same end"

was available, namely, "drug testing on suspicion of drug use." Brief for Respondents 45­46. We have repeatedly refused to declare that only the "least intrusive" search practicable can be reasonable under the Fourth Amendment. Skinner, supra, at 629, n.9, 103 l Ed 2d 639, 109 S Ct. 1402 (collecting cases).

279. To the same effect is another judgment of U.S.

Supreme Court in Board of Education of Independent

School District Vs. Lindsay Earls, 536 US 822=153

L.Ed.2d. 735.

280. The submission of the respondents that least

intrusive test cannot be applied to judge the

proportionality of Aadhaar Act has been refuted by

petitioners. Petitioners submit that least intrusive

test is a test, which was applied in large number of

cases and i.e. the test which may ensure that there is

a minimal invasion of privacy. It is submitted that 261

the respondents could have switched to a smart card,

which itself contain the biometric information of a

person. Respondents submitted that least intrusive

test has not been approved either in the Modern Dental

(supra) or in the Puttaswamy case. We are also of the

view that there are several reasons due to which least

intrusive test cannot be insisted. For applying the

least intrusive test, the Court has to enter

comparative analysis of all methods of identification

available, which need to be examined with their

details and compared. Court has to arrive at finding

as to which mode of identity is a least intrusive. We

are of the view that comparison of several modes of

identity and to come to a decision, which is least

intrusive is a matter, which may be better left to the

experts to examine. Further, there are no proper

pleadings and material with regard to other modes of

identification, which could have been adopted by the

State, to come to a definite conclusion by this Court.

281. After noticing the parameters of proportionality,

we now need to apply proportionality and other tests 262

to find out as to whether Section 57 satisfies the

proportionality and other tests. Section 57 begins

with the phrase “nothing contained in this Act shall

prevent the use of Aadhaar number.....” for

establishing the identity of an individual for any

purpose. Section 57 reveals following concepts and

ides, which can be para phrased in following manner:­

(a) Nothing contained in this Act shall

prevent the use of Aadhaar number for

identifying the identity of an individual

for any purpose.

(b) Whether by the State or body corporate or

private person.

(c) Pursuant to any law, for the time being

in force or any contract to this effect.

282. The basic theme of the Aadhaar Act to implement

the Aadhaar programme was for purposes of disbursement

of subsidies, benefits or services to individuals

entitled for the same. By various notifications

issued under Section 7, the Government has made

applicable Aadhaar authentication for large number of 263

schemes namely 133 in number. The idea behind Section

57 is that Aadhaar is liberated from the four corners

of the Act and it may not be confined to use under

Section 7 alone. The Act does not prohibit the use of

Aadhaar for any other purpose. Section 57 is thus in

a way clarificatory in nature, which enable the use of

Aadhaar for any other purposes. The petitioners have

two basic objections. Firstly, they submitted that

use of word “any purpose” is unguided and uncontrolled

and secondly it can be used by body corporate or

persons, pursuant to any law, for the time being in

force or any contract to this effect. Puttaswamy

judgment has already laid down that any infringement

of Privacy right should pass three­fold test as

noticed above. The first test, which needs to be

satisfied for non­intrusion in privacy right is that

it should be backed by law. Section 57 cannot be

treated as a law, which permit use of Aadhaar number

for any purpose. The law providing for use of Aadhaar

for any purpose should be rational and proportional.

There has to be some object to be achieved by use of 264

Aadhaar, in a particular case, the legislature has

ample power to provide for legislative scheme by an

enactment making use of Aadhaar and use of Aadhaar has

to be backed by a valid law. In event, it is accepted

on the strength of Section 57 that a State or body

corporate or person, on the basis of any contract to

this effect, are permitted to use Aadhaar it shall be

wholly unguided and uncontrolled, which is prone to

violate the right of privacy. Section 57 makes use of

Aadhaar on two basis. Firstly, “pursuant to any law,

for the time being in force” and secondly “any

contract to this effect”. When the legislature uses

the phrase “pursuant to any law, for the time being in

force”, obviously the word law used in Section 57 is a

law other than Section 57 of Aadhaar Act, 2016 and the

Regulations framed thereunder. When any law permits

user of Aadhaar, its validity is to be tested on the

anvil of three­fold test as laid down in Puttaswamy

case, but permitting use of Aadhaar on any contract to

this effect, is clearly in violation of Right of

Privacy. A contract entered between two parties, even 265

if one party is a State, cannot be said to be a law.

283. We thus, are of the view that Section 57 in so

far as it permits use of Aadhaar on “any contract to

this effect” is clearly unconstitutional and deserves

to be struck down. We may again clarify that Section

57 has to be read only to mean that it clarifies that

nothing contained in Aadhaar Act shall prevent the use

of Aadhaar for establishing the identity of an

individual for any purpose, in pursuant to any law.

Section 57 itself is not a law, which may permit use

of Aadhaar for any purpose. There has to be a valid

law in existence, which should also pass the three­

fold test as laid down in Puttaswamy case for making

provision for use of Aadhaar.

284. In view of the foregoing discussions, we held

that Section 57, to the extent, which permits use of

Aadhaar by the State or any body corporate or person,

in pursuant to any contract to this effect is

unconstitutional and void. Thus, the last phrase in

main provision of Section 57, i.e. “or any contract to 266

this effect” is struck down. Issue No. 11 is answered

in the following manner:­

Ans.11:­ Section 57, to the extent, which permits use

of Aadhaar by the State or any body

corporate or person, in pursuant to any

contract to this effect is unconstitutional

and void. Thus, the last phrase in main

provision of Section 57, i.e. “or any

contract to this effect” is struck down.

Issue No.12 Whether Section 59 is void or unconstitutional?

285. Learned counsel for the petitioners have

submitted that prior to enactment of Aadhaar Act there

was no law and all actions undertaken in pursuance of

the executive order dated 28.01.2009 including taking

of demographic and biometric information of an

individual was not backed by any law violated

fundamental right of privacy. Violation of fundamental

right of privacy cannot be cured by any subsequent

legislation. It is well settled that Executive 267

actions, which breach fundamental right of a person

must have the authority of law to support it. A post­

constitutional law or executive act that violates

fundamental rights is still born and void ab initio.

Further there was no consent, let alone informed

consent obtained from individuals at the time of

enrolment under the said notification. A validating

law must remove the cause of invalidity of previous

acts. The cause of invalidity in the present case was

the absence of a law governing privacy infringements.

However, Section 59 does not create such a legal

fiction where the Aadhaar Act is deemed to have been

in existence since 2009. It only declares a legal

consequence of acts done by Union since 2009, which it

cannot do. No procedural safeguards existed pre­2016

and thus, even assuming that Section 59 is validly

enacted, it has to be declared unconstitutional for

violating Articles 14 and 21.

286. Replying the above submissions, respondents

submit that Section 59 is retrospective, saving

provision which provides a retrospective effect to the 268

notification dated 28.01.2009 and anything done or

action taken by the Central Government under the said

Resolution.

287. The expression ‘anything done or any action under

the Resolution’ is wide enough to cover all the

actions including memorandum of undertaken which UIDAI

executed as Department of Central Government.

Section 59 seeks to save and continue under the said

Act what was done under the executive scheme. The

submission that breach of fundamental right cannot be

retrospectively cured is incorrect. The last phrase of

Section 59 uses the expression “shall be deemed”, this

expression clearly indicates creation of fiction with

the object of providing legislative support to the

action taken before the Act. That seeks to continue

the entire architecture of Aadhaar which established

under the Government Resolution dated 28.01.2009. As a

result of deeming provision all the actions under the

aforesaid scheme shall be deemed to have been done

under the Act and not under the aforesaid

notification. We may have a look on Section 59 of the 269

Act which provides:

“59. Anything done or any action taken by the Central Government under the Resolution of the Government of India, Planning Commission bearing notification number A­43011/02/2009­ Admin. I, dated the 28th January, 2009, or by the Department of Electronics and Information Technology under the Cabinet Secretariat Notification bearing notification number S.O. 2492(E), dated the 12th September, 2015, as the case may be, shall be deemed to have been validly done or taken under this Act.”

288. Justice G.P. Singh in Principles of Statutory

Interpretation, 14th Edition, while explaining the

legal fiction sum up the Principle in the following

words:

“The Legislature is quite competent to create a legal fiction, in other words, to enact a deeming provision for the purpose of assuming existence of a fact which does not really exist provided the declaration of non­ existent facts as existing does not offend the constitution. Although the word ‘deemed’ is usually used, a legal fiction may be enacted without using that word. For instance, the words ‘as if’ can also be used to create a legal fiction.

In interpreting a provision creating a legal fiction, the court is to ascertain for what purpose the fiction is created, and after ascertaining this, the Court is to assume all those facts and consequences which are incidental or inevitable corollaries to the giving effect to the fiction. But in so 270

construing the fiction it is not to be extended beyond the purpose for which it is created, or beyond the language of the section by which it is created.”

289. A Constitution Bench judgment of this Court in

M/s. West Ramnad Electric Distribution Co. Ltd. vs.

The State of Madras and another, AIR 1962 SC 1753, has

been heavily relied by the respondents. The Madras

Legislature had passed an Act, the Madras Electricity

Supply Undertakings (Acquisition) Act, 1949 for supply

of electricity in the province of Madras. By an order

dated 17.05.1951 appellant undertaking was acquired

and possession was directed to be taken. There was

challenge to 1949 Act which challenge was upheld by

this Court in Rajahmundry Electric Supply Corporation

Ltd. v. State of Andhra Pradesh, AIR 1954 SC 251, on

the ground that Act was beyond the legislative

competence of the Madras Legislature. The Madras

Legislature passed another Act, the Madras Electricity

Supply Undertakings (Acquisition) Act, 1949, which

also received the Presidential assent. The Act

purported to validate the action taken under the 1949 271

Act. A writ petition was filed in Madras High Court

challenging the action taken under 1949 Act to

continue the possession. The writ petition was

dismissed and the matter was taken to this Court. The

contention which was raised before this Court has been

noticed in paragraph 8 in the following words:

“8....Mr. Nambiar further contends that this notification was invalid for two reasons; it was invalid because it has been issued under the Provisions of an Act which was void as being beyond the legislative competence of the Madras Legislature, and it was void for the additional reason that before it was issued, the Constitution of India had come into force and it offended against the provisions of Art. 31 of the Constitution, and so, Art. 13(2) applied. Section 24 of the Act, no doubt, purported or attempted to validate this notification, but the said attempt has failed because the Act being prospective, s. 24 cannot have retrospective operation. That, in substance, is the first contention raised before us.”

290. Section 24 of the 1949 Act which created a

deeming fiction validating the actions taken under the

earlier Act has been noticed in paragraph 11 which is

to the following effect:

“11. Let us then construe section 24 and decide whether it serves to validate the 272

impugned notification issued by the respondent on the 21st September, 1951.

Section 24 reads thus :­ "Orders made, decisions or directions given, notifications issued, proceedings taken and acts of things done, in relation to any undertaking taken ever, if they would have been validly made, given, issued, taken or done, had the Madras Electricity Supply Undertakings (Acquisition) Act, 1949 (Madras Act XLIII of 1949), and the rules made thereunder been in force on the date on which the said orders, decisions or directions, notifications, proceeding, acts or things, were made, given, issued, taken or done are hereby declared to have been validly made, given, issued, taken or done, as the case may be, except to the extent to which the said orders, decisions, directions, notifications, proceedings, acts or things are repugnant to the provisions of this Acts."”

291. Repelling the submission of counsel for the

appellant it was held that Section 24 had been enacted

for the purpose of retrospectively validating action

taken under the provisions of the earlier Act.

Following was held in paragraph 13:

273

“13....If the Act is retrospective in operation and s. 24 has been enacted for the purpose of retrospectively validating actions taken under the provisions of the earlier Act, it must follow by the very retrospective operation of the relevant provisions that at the time when the impugned notification was issued, these provisions were in existence. That is the plain and obvious effect of the retrospective operation of the statute. Therefore in considering whether Art. 31(1) has been complied with or not, we must assume that before the notification was issued, the relevant provisions of the Act were in existence and so, Art. 31(1) must be held to have been complied with in that sense.”

292. The submission was made that notification issued

under the earlier Act contravenes Article 31 which is

a fundamental right and cannot be cured by the

subsequent law. The contention has been noted in

paragraph 15:

15. That takes us to the larger issue raised by Mr. Nambiar in the present appeals. He contends that the power of the legislature to make laws retrospective cannot validly be exercised so as to care the contravention of fundamental rights retrospectively. His contention is that the earlier Act of 1949 being dead and non­existent, the impugned notification contravened Art. 31(1) and this contravention of a fundamental right cannot be cured by the legislature by passing a subsequent law and making it retrospective.

In support of this argument, he has relied on 274

the decision of this Court in Deep Chand v.

The State of Uttar Pradesh (1959) Supp. 2 S.C.R. 8.(AIR 1959 SC 648)....”

293. It was held by the Constitution Bench that the

Legislature can effectively exercise power of

validating action taken under the law which was void

for the reason that it contravened fundamental right.

In paragraph 16 following has been held:

“16....If a law is invalid for the reason that it has been passed by a legislature without legislative competence, and action is taken under its provisions, the said action can be validated by a subsequent law passed by the same legislature after it is clothed with the necessary legislative power. This position is not disputed. If the legislature can by retrospective legislation cure the invalidity in actions taken in pursuance of laws which were void for want of legislative competence and can validate such action by appropriate provisions, it is difficult to see why the same power cannot be equally effectively exercised by the legislature in validating actions taken under law which are void for the reason that they contravened fundamental rights. As has been pointed out by the majority decision in Deep Chand's case, the infirmity proceeding from lack of legislative competence as well as the infirmity proceeding from the contravention of fundamental rights lead to the same result and that is that the offending legislation is void and honest. That being so, if the legislature can validate actions taken under 275

one class of void legislation, there is no reason why it cannot exercise its legislative power to validate actions taken under the other class of void legislation. We are, therefore, not prepared to accept Mr. Nambiar's contention that where the contravention of fundamental rights is concerned, the legislature cannot pass a law retrospectively validate actions taken under a law which was void because it contravened fundamental rights.”

294. Shri Shyam Divan submits that the above judgment

of this Court in M/s. West Ramnad Electric

Distribution Co.Ltd. is not applicable. He submits

that unlike Section 59 of Aadhaar Act, the provisions

in West Ramnad case had no limiting words such as

‘action taken by the Central Government’. Further even

under the West Ramnad case principle, the action can

be saved would have to be proper under the previous

regime. West Ramnad actions were under an earlier

statute that was declared ultra vires, which cannot be

saved under Section 59 of the Aadhaar Act. The

collection of biometrics from individuals right upto

2016 cannot be described as lawful and intra vires the

2009 notification. If it were ultra vires the 2009 276

notification, Section 59 of the Aadhaar Act cannot

validate the action.

295. We have already noticed the ratio of the judgment

as stated in paragraph 16 in the judgment in West

Ramnad case that even if earlier action which is

sought to be validated was ultra vires and violates

constitutional right, it could have been very well

validated by retrospective statute creating a deeming

fiction. We are of the view that ratio laid down in West Ramnad case is fully applicable in the present

case.

296. Another Constitution Bench in Bishambhar Nath

Kohli and others v. State of Uttar Pradesh and others,

AIR 1966 SC 573, had occasion to consider the deeming

fiction as contained under Act 31 of 1950. Section

58(3) of Act 31 of 1950 as deeming provision that

anything done or action taken in exercise of the power

conferred under Ordinance 27 of 1949 is to be deemed

to have been done or taken in exercise of the power 277

conferred by or under Act 31 of 1950. In paragraphs 7

and 8 of the judgment following has been laid down:

“7. By Ordinance 27 of 1949 a proceeding commenced under Ordinance 12 of 1949 or anything done or action taken in the exercise of the powers conferred under that Ordinance was to be deemed a proceeding commenced, thing done and action taken under the former Ordinance as if that Ordinance were in force on the date on which the proceeding was commenced, thing was done or action was taken. Section 58(3) of Act 31 of 1950 contained a similar deeming provision that anything done or action taken in exercise of the power conferred under Ordinance 27 of 1949 is to be deemed to have been done or taken in exercise of the power conferred by or under Act 31 of 1950, as if the Act were in force on the day on which such thing was done or action was taken.

8. By this chain of fictions, things done and actions taken under Ordinance 12 of 1949 are to be deemed to have been done or taken in exercise of the powers conferred under Act 31 of 1950, as if that Act we re in force on the day on which such thing was done or action taken. The order passed by the Deputy Custodian under s. 6 of Ordinance 12 of 1949 was, therefore, for the purpose of this proceeding, to be deemed an order made in exercise of the power conferred by Act 31 of 1950 as if that Act were in force on the day on which the order was passed.”

297. The ratio of judgment in West Ramnad(supra) has

been repeatedly applied by this Court in several 278

judgments. Reference is made to Hari Singh and others

vs. The Military Estate Officer and another, 1972 (2)

SCC 239, which was a case rendered by a seven­Judge

Constitution Bench. In paragraph 16 following has been

held:

“16. The ruling of this Court in West Ramnad Electric Distribution Co. Ltd.(1) case establishes competence of the legislature to make laws retrospective in operation for the purpose of validation of action done under an earlier Act which has been declared by a decision of the court to be invalid. It is to be appreciated that the validation is by virtue of the provisions of the subsequent piece of legislation.”

298. Justice Krishna Iyer, J. in Krishna Chandra

Gangopadhyaya and others vs. The Union of India and

others, 1975 (2) SCC 302, while considering validation

of Act held that the Legislature can retrospectively

validate what otherwise was inoperative law or action.

In paragraph 25 following has been held:

“25. The ratio of West Ramnad (supra) is clear. The Legislature can retrospectively validate what otherwise was inoperative law or action. Unhappy wording, infelicitous expression or imperfect or inartistic drafting may not necessarily defeat, for that reason alone, the obvious object of the 279

validating law and its retrospective content.”

299. This Court again in ITW Signode India Ltd. vs.

Collector of Central Excise, 2004 (3) SCC 48, held

that curative statutes by their very nature are

intended to operate upon and affect past transaction.

In paragraph 61 following has been held:

“61. A statute, it is trite, must be read as a whole. The plenary power of legislation of the Parliament or the State Legislature in relation to the legislative fields specified under Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India is not disputed. A statutory act may be enacted prospectively or retrospectively. A retrospective effect indisputably can be given in case of curative and validating statute. In fact curative statutes by their very nature are intended to operate upon and affect past transaction having regard to the fact that they operate on conditions already existing. However, the scope of the validating act may vary from case to case.”

300. The argument that an action or provision hit by

Article 14 can never be validated was specifically

rejected by this Court in The State of Mysore and

another vs. d. Achiah Chetty, Etc., (1969) 1 SCC 248,

in paragraph 15 following has been held:

280

“15. Mr. S. T. Desai, however, contends that an acquisition hit by Article 14 or anything done previously cannot ever be validated, unless the vice of unreasonable classification is removed and the Validating Act is ineffective for that reason. This argument leads to the logical conclusion that a discrimination arising from selection of one law for action rather than the other, when two procedures are available, can never be righted by removing retrospectively one of the competing laws from the field. This is a wrong assumption....”

301. A statute creates a legal fiction to achieve a

legislative purpose. We may refer to the celebrated

judgment of Lord Asquith in East End Dwelling Co.Ltd.

And Finsury Borough Council, 1952 AC 109, following is

the enunciation of Lord Asquith:

“If you are bidden to treat an imaginary state of affairs as real, you must surely, unless prohibited from doing so, also imagine as real the consequences and incidents which, if the putative state of affairs had in fact existed, must inevitably have flowed from or accompanied it... The statute says that you must imagine a certain state of affairs; it does not say that having done so, you must cause or permit your imagination to boggle when it comes to the inevitable corollaries of that state of affairs.”

302. Legislature has often created legal fiction to

save several actions which had happened prior to 281

enactment. Reference is made to judgment of this Court

in Nar Bahadur Bhandari and another vs. State of

sikkim and others, (1998) 5 SCC 39. In the above case

deeming fiction was created by Section 30 of

Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. Section 30

provides that any action taken or purported to have

been done or taken under or in pursuance of the Acts

so repeated shall be deemed to have been done or taken

under 1988 Act. Following was stated in paragraph 10:

“10....In the present case, the Act of 1988 is the repealing Act. Sub­sec. (2) of Section 30 reads as follows:

"30(2) Notwithstanding such repeal, but without prejudice to the application of section 6 of the General Clauses Act 1897 (10 of 1897), anything done or any action taken or purported to have been done or taken under or in pursuance of the Acts so repealed shall, in so far as it is not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act, be deemed to have been done or taken under or in pursuance of the corresponding provision of this Act."

12. The said Sub­section while on the one hand ensures that the application of Section 6 of the General Clauses Act is not prejudiced, on the other it expresses a different intention as contemplated by the said Section 6. The last part of the above 282

Sub­section introduces a legal fiction whereby anything done or action taken under or in pursuance of the Act of 1947 shall be deemed to have been done or taken under or in pursuance of corresponding provisions of the Act of 1988. That is, the fiction is to the effect that the Act of 1988 had come into force when such thing was done or action was taken.”

303. An elaborate consideration on deeming fiction was

made by three­Judge Bench of this Court in State of

Karnataka vs. State of Tamil Nadu and others, (2017) 3

SCC 362, one of us, Justice Dipak Misra, as he then

was, speaking for the Court in paragraphs 72 to 74:

“72. The second limb of submission of Mr. Rohatgi as regards the maintainability pertains to the language employed Under Section 6(2) of the 1956 Act, which reads as follows:

“6(2) The decision of the Tribunal, after its publication in the Official Gazette by the Central Government under Sub­section (1), shall have the same force as an order or decree of the Supreme Court.”

73. Relying on Section 6(2), which was introduced by way of Amendment Act 2002 (Act No. 14 of 2002) that came into force from 6.8.2002, it is submitted by Mr. Rohatgi that the jurisdiction of this Court is ousted as it cannot sit over in appeal on its own decree. The said submission is seriously resisted by Mr. Nariman and Mr. Naphade, 283

learned senior Counsel contending that the said provision, if it is to be interpreted to exclude the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India, it has to be supported by a constitutional amendment adding at the end of Article 136(2) the words "or to any determination of any tribunal constituted under the law made by Parliament Under Article 262(2)" and, in such a situation, in all possibility such an amendment to the Constitution may be ultra vires affecting the power of judicial review which is a part of basic feature of the Constitution. Learned senior Counsel for the Respondent has drawn a distinction between the conferment and the exclusion of the power of the Supreme Court of India by the original Constitution and any exclusion by the constitutional amendment. Be that as it may, the said aspect need not be adverted to, as we are only required to interpret Section 6(2) as it exists today on the statute book. The said provision has been inserted to provide teeth to the decision of the tribunal after its publication in the official gazette by the Central Government and this has been done keeping in view the Sarkaria Commission's Report on Centre­State relations (1980). The relevant extract of the Sarkaria Commission's Report reads as follows:

17.4.19 The Act was amended in 1980 and Section 6A was inserted. This Section provides for framing a scheme for giving effect to a Tribunal's award. The scheme, inter alia provides for the establishment of the authority, its term of office and other condition of service, etc. but the mere creation of such an agency will not be able to ensure implementation of a Tribunal's award.

Any agency set up Under Section 6A 284

cannot really function without the cooperation of the States concerned.

Further, to make a Tribunal's award binding and effectively enforceable, it should have the same force and sanction behind it as an order or decree of the Supreme Court. We recommend that the Act should be suitably amended for this purpose.

17.6.05 ­ The Inter­State Water Disputes Act, 1956 should be amended so that a Tribunal's Award has the same force and sanction behind it as an order or decree of the Supreme Court to make a Tribunal's award really binding.

74....Parliament has intentionally used the words from which it can be construed that a legal fiction is meant to serve the purpose for which the fiction has been created and not intended to travel beyond it. The purpose is to have the binding effect of the tribunal's award and the effectiveness of enforceability. Thus, it has to be narrowly construed regard being had to the purpose it is meant to serve.

304. In paragraphs 75, 76 and 77 following has been

laid down:

“75. In this context, we may usefully refer to the Principles of Statutory Interpretation, 14th Edition by G.P. Singh. The learned author has expressed thus:

“In interpreting a provision creating a legal fiction, the court is to ascertain for what purpose the 285

fiction is created1, and after ascertaining this, the Court is to assume all those facts and consequences which are incidental or inevitable corollaries to the giving effect to the fiction. But in so construing the fiction it is not be extended beyond the purpose for which is created, or beyond the language of the Section by which it is created4.

It cannot also be extended by importing another fiction5. The principles stated above are 'well­ settled'. A legal fiction may also be interpreted narrowly to make the statute workable.”

76. In Aneeta Hada v. Godfather Travels and Tours, (2012) 5 SCC 661, a three­Judge Bench has ruled thus:

“37. In State of T.N. v. Arooran Sugars Ltd., (1997) 1 SCC 326 the Constitution Bench, while dealing with the deeming provision in a statute, ruled that the role of a provision in a statute creating legal fiction is well settled. Reference was made to Chief Inspector of Mines v. Karam Chand Thapar, AIR 1961 SC 838, J.K. Cotton Spg. and Wvg. Mills Ltd. v. Union of India, 1987 Supp.

SCC 350, M. Venugopal v. LIC, (1994) 2 SCC 323 and Harish Tandon v. ADM, Allahabad, (1995) 1 SCC 537 and eventually, it was held that when a statute creates a legal fiction saying that something shall be deemed to have been done which in fact and truth has not been done, the Court has to examine and ascertain as to for what purpose and between which persons such a statutory fiction is 286

to be resorted to and thereafter, the courts have to give full effect to such a statutory fiction and it has to be carried to its logical conclusion.”

38. From the aforesaid pronouncements, the principle that can be culled out is that it is the bounden duty of the court to ascertain for what purpose the legal fiction has been created. It is also the duty of the court to imagine the fiction with all real consequences and instances unless prohibited from doing so. That apart, the use of the term "deemed" has to be read in its context and further, the fullest logical purpose and import are to be understood. It is because in modern legislation, the term "deemed" has been used for manifold purposes. The object of the legislature has to be kept in mind.”

77. In Hari Ram, the Court has held that in interpreting the provision creating a legal fiction, the court is to ascertain for what purpose the fiction is created and after ascertaining the same, the court is to assume all those facts and consequences which are incidental or inevitable corollaries for giving effect to the fiction.”

305. Applying the ratio of this Court as noticed

above, it is clear that Parliamentary legislative

intent of Section 59 is to save all actions taken by

Central Government under the notification dated 287

28.01.2009 and notification dated 12.09.2015 deeming

the same to have been validly done under the Aadhaar

Act by creating a legal fiction. The intention to save

all actions taken under the aforesaid two

notifications and treat them to have done under that

Act is clear, it is the purpose and object of Section

59. Section 59 has to be interpreted to give meaning

to the legislative intent to hold otherwise shall

defeat the purpose of Section 59. As observed,

Legislature by legislative device can cover actions

taken earlier while creating any legal fiction which

has actually been done by Section 59.

306. There is one more submission of the petitioners

to be considered. Petitioner’s case is that there was

no consent or informed consent obtained from

individuals for enrolment made consequent to

notification dated 28.01.2009, the notification dated

28.01.2009 and the scheme thereafter does not clearly

indicate that the enrolment for Aadhaar was voluntary.

This Court has issued an interim order directing the

enrolment be treated as voluntary, hence, it cannot be 288

accepted that those got enrolled after 28.01.2009 did

not give consent. The individual provided demographic

information and gave biometric information and also

signed the enrolment form. The residents after the

enrolment were required to confirm that information

contained were provided by them and are of his own

true and correct. On sign slip, he was required to

sign or put his thumb impression themselves. It is on

the record that more than 100 crores enrolment were

completed prior to enforcement of Aadhaar Act 2016.

On the basis of Aadhaar Act large number of persons

must have received benefits of subsidies and services,

thus, the enrolments prior to enforcement of Act, 2016

cannot be declared illegal and void. In view of the

aforementioned discussion, we answer the Issue No.12

in the following manner;

Ans.12:­ Section 59 has validated all actions taken by

the Central Government under the

notifications dated 28.01.2009 and 289

12.09.2009 and all actions shall be deemed to

have been taken under the Aadhaar Act.

Issue No. 13 Whether Collecting the identity information of children between 5 to 18 years is unconstitutional?

307. Section 5 of the Act provides that the Authority

shall take special measures to issue Aadhaar number to

women, children, senior citizens, persons with

disability, unskilled and unorganised workers, nomadic

tribes or to such other persons who do not have any

permanent dwelling house and such other categories of

individuals as may be specified by regulations.

Section 5 contemplates special measures for issuance

of Aadhaar number to children. The Aadhaar (Enrolment

and Update) Regulations, 2016 contains some special

measures. One of the special measures is Regulation

5, which provides for information required for

enrolment of children below five years of age.

Regulation 5 is as follows:­

5. Information required for enrolment of 290

children below five years of age. — (1) For children below the five years of age, the following demographic and biometric information shall be collected:

(a) Name

(b) Date of Birth

(c) Gender

(d) Enrolment ID or Aadhaar number of any one parent, preferably that of the mother in the event both parents are alive, or guardian. The Aadhaar number or EID of such parent or guardian is mandatory, and a field for relationship will also be recorded.

(e) The address of such child which is the same as that of the linked parent / guardian.

(f) Facial image of the child shall be captured. The biometric information of any one parent / guardian shall be captured or authenticated during the enrolment.

(2) The Proof of Relationship (PoR) document as listed in schedule II for establishing the relationship between the linked parent/guardian and the child shall be collected at the time of enrolment. Only those children can be enrolled based on the relationship document (PoR), whose names are recorded in the relationship document.

308. For children below five, no core biometric 291

informations are captured and only biometric

information of any one parent/guardian is captured.

The objection raised by petitioners is with regard to

children between 5 to 18 years on the ground that they

being minors, parental consent is not taken. We have

noted above that for Aadhaar enrolment, for

verification of information consent is obtained from

the person submitting for enrolment. Thus, the

enrolment for Aadhaar number is on consent basis.

Although, it is different matter that for the purpose

of obtaining any benefit or service, a person is

obliged to enrol for Aadhaar. The petitioners are

right in their submissions that for enrolment of a

children between 5 and 18 years, there has to be

consent of their parents or guardian because they

themselves are unable to give any valid consent for

enrolment. We, thus, have to read parental consent in

Regulation 4 in so far as children of 5 to 18 years

are concerned so that the provision in reference to

children between 5 to 18 years may not become

unconstitutional. We thus answer Question No. 13 in 292

following manner:­

Ans.13:­ Parental consent for providing biometric

information under Regulation 3 & demographic

information under Regulation 4 has to be read

for enrolment of children between 5 to 18

years to upheld the constitutionality of

Regulations 3 & 4 of Aadhaar (Enrolment and

Update) Regulations, 2016.

Issue No.14 Whether Rule 9 as amended by the Prevention of Money­Laundering (Second Amendment) Rules, 2017 is unconstitutional?

309. For answering the above issue we need to advert

to the objects and scheme of the Prevention of Money­

Laundering Act, 2002(PMLA, 2002). The scheme as

delineated by the Prevention of Money­Laundering

(Maintenance of Records) Rules, 2005 also need to be

looked into before coming to the Second Amendment

Rules, 2017. The PMLA, 2002 has been enacted to

prevent money­laundering and to provide for

confiscation of property derived from, or involved in, 293

money­laundering and for matters connected therewith

or incidental thereto. The Act has long Preamble

entire of which needs to be noted, which is as

follows:

“An Act to prevent money­laundering and to provide for confiscation of property derived from, or involved in, money­laundering and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

WHEREAS the Political Declaration and Global Programme of Action, annexed to the resolution S­17/2 was adopted by the General Assembly of the United Nations at its seventeenth special session on the twenty­ third day of February, 1990;

AND WHEREAS the Political Declaration adopted by the Special Session of the United Nations General Assembly held on 8th to 10th June, 1998 calls upon the Member States to adopt national money­laundering legislation and programme; AND WHEREAS it is considered necessary to implement the aforesaid resolution and the Declaration;

310. Two international declarations have been

specifically mentioned in the Preamble which pave the

way for the enactment. The resolution adopted by the

General Assembly of the United Nations on

23rd February, 1990 contained the recommendations on 294

money­laundering of the Financial Action Task Force

aforesaid. The Political Declaration and Action Plan

against money­laundering by the United Nations General

Assembly held on 10.06.1998 which called upon the

States Members of the United Nations to adopt its

declaration to the following effect:

“Political Declaration and Action Plan against Money Laundering adopted at the Twentieth Special Session of the United Nations General Assembly devoted to “countering the world drug problem together” New Your, 10 June 1998(excerpts) “We, the States Members of the United Nations, … … … …

15. Undertake to make special efforts against the laundering of money linked to drug trafficking and, in that context, emphasize the importance of strengthening international, regional and subregional cooperation, and recommend that States that have not yet done so adopt by the year 2003 national money­laundering legislation and programmes in accordance with relevant provisions of the United Nations Convention against Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances of 1988, as well as the measures for countering money­laundering, adopted at the present session;

… … … … “COUNTERING MONEY­LAUNDERING” 295

The General Assembly, … … … …

Emphasizing the enormous efforts of a number of States to draw up and apply domestic legislation that identifies the activity of money­laundering as a criminal offence, Realizing the importance of progress being made by all States in conforming to the relevant recommendations and the need for States to participate actively in international and regional initiatives designed to promote and strengthen the implementation of effective measures against money­laundering,

1. Strongly condemns the laundering of money derived from illicit drug trafficking and other serious crimes, as well as the use of the financial systems of States for that purpose;

2. Urges all States to implement the provisions against money­laundering that are contained in the United Nations Convention against Illicit Trafficking in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances of 1988 and the other relevant international instruments on money­laundering, in accordance with fundamental constitutional principles, by applying the following principles:

(a) Establishment of a legislative framework to criminalize the laundering of money derived from serious crimes in order to provide for the prevention, detection, investigation and prosecution of the crime of money­laundering through, inter alia:

(i) Identification, freezing, seizure and confiscation of the proceeds of crime;

296 (ii) International cooperation; and mutual legal assistance in cases involving money­ laundering;

(iii) Inclusion of the crime of money­ laundering in mutual legal assistance agreements for the purpose of ensuring judicial assistance in investigations, court cases or judicial proceedings relating to that crime;

(b) Establishment of an effective financial and regulatory regime to deny criminals and their illicit funds access to national and international financial systems, thus preserving the integrity of financial systems worldwide and ensuring compliance with laws and other regulations against money­ laundering through:

(i) Customer identification and verification requirements applying the principle of "know your customer", in order to have available for competent authorities the necessary information on the identity of clients and the financial movements that they carry out;

(ii) Financial record­keeping;

(iii) Mandatory reporting of suspicious activity;

(iv) Removal of bank secrecy impediments to efforts directed at preventing, investigating and punishing money­laundering;

(v) Other relevant measures;

(c) Implementation of law enforcement measures to provide tools for, inter alia:

(i) Effective detection, investigation, prosecution and conviction of criminals engaging in moneylaundering activity;

(ii) Extradition procedures;

297 (iii) Information­sharing mechanisms;”

311. The modern world is more focused on economic

growth. Every nation tries to march forward in

achieving the rapid economic growth. Economics is

factor which not only plays a major role in the future

of nation but also in all human organisations. Most of

the individuals also aspire for their financial well

being but for the financial system and working of

economic, road blocks are felt both by the nations and

human organisations. The siphoning away of huge

volumes of money from normal economic growth poses a

real danger to the economics and affects the stability

of the global market which also empowers corruption

organised crime. Proceeds of money­laundering are

disguised to acquire properties and other assets or to

make investments. At some stage money­laundering

involves conversion process with the objective to give

the appearance that the money has a legitimate source.

The banking and financial secrecy is another

bottleneck for countries who genuinely want to counter

money­laundering. It is inherent in the activity of 298

money­laundering to keep the entire process secret.

The Parliament with the objectives outlined in the

international declaration enacted the PMLA Act. Para 1

of the Statement of Objects and Reasons of Act is

stated as follows:

“STATEMENT OF OBJECTS AND REASONS It is being realised, world over, that money­laundering poses a serious threat not only to the financial systems of countries, but also to their integrity and sovereignty. Some of the initiatives taken by the international community to obviate such threat are outlined below:—

(a) the United Nations Convention Against Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances, to which India is a party, calls for prevention of laundering of proceeds of drug crimes and other connected activities and confiscation of proceeds derived from such offence.

(b) the Basle Statement of Principles, enunciated in 1989, outlined basic policies and procedures that banks should follow in order to assist the law enforcement agencies in tackling the problem of moneylaundering.

(c) the Financial Action Task Force established at the summit of seven major industrial nations, held in Paris from 14th to 16th July, 1989, to examine the problem of money­laundering has made forty recommendations, which provide the foundation material for comprehensive legislation to combat the problem of moneylaundering. The 299

recommendations were classified under various heads. Some of the important heads are—

(i) declaration of laundering of monies carried through serious crimes a criminal offence;

(ii) to work out modalities of disclosure by financial institutions regarding reportable transactions;

(iii) confiscation of the proceeds of crime;

(iv) declaring money­laundering to be an extraditable offence; and

(v) promoting international co­ operation in investigation of moneylaundering.

(d) the Political Declaration and Global Programme of Action adopted by United Nations General Assembly by its Resolution No. S­17/2 of 23rd February, 1990, inter alia, calls upon the member States to develop mechanism to prevent financial institutions from being used for laundering of drug related money and enactment of legislation to prevent such laundering.

(e) the United Nations in the Special Session on countering World Drug Problem Together concluded on the 8th to the 10th June, 1998 has made another declaration regarding the need to combat moneylaundering. India is a signatory to this declaration.

….................................”

312. Paragraph two of the Statement of Objects and

Reasons noticed the legislative process which was 300

initiated by introducing the Prevention of Money­

Laundering Bill, 1998 which was introduced in the Lok

Sabha. The Bill was referred to the Standing Committee

on Finance, which submitted its report on 04.03.1999

to the Lok Sabha. Various recommendations of the

Standing Committee were accepted by the Central

Government and made provisions of the said

recommendations in the Bill. Thereafter, the Bill was

presented in the Parliament which after receiving the

assent of the President published in the Gazette on

01.07.2005. Act, 2002 has been amended by various

Parliamentary Acts. By amendments made in the year

2013 by Act 2 of 2013, the Legislature has attempted

to keep the pace with the other countries of the world

by making more stringent provision to prevent money­

laundering which is the root as well as the result of

the black money economy. Money­laundering is defined

under Section 3 which is to the following effect:

“3. Offence of money­Laundering.­Whosoever directly or indirectly attempts to indulge or knowingly assists or knowingly is a party or is actually involved in any process or activity connected proceeds of crime including its concealment, possession, 301

acquisition or use and projecting or claiming it as untainted property shall be guilty of offence of money­laundering.”

313. Section 2 (ha) defines client and Section 2(wa)

defines reporting entity which are as follows;

“2.(ha) "client" means a person who is engaged in a financial transaction or activity with a reporting entity and includes a person on whose behalf the person who engaged in the transaction or activity, is acting;

(wa) "reporting entity" means a banking company, financial institution, intermediary or a person carrying on a designated business or profession;”

314. Section 12 lays down various obligations on

reporting entity to maintain records. Section 12(1)(c)

reads:

“Section 12. Reporting entity to maintain records.­(l) Every reporting entity shall­ … … … …

(c) verify the identity of its clients in such manner and subject to such conditions, as may be prescribed; “ 302

315. The Central Government in exercise of its rule

making power has made Rules, namely, the Prevention of

Money­laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules, 2005

(hereinafter referred to as “Rules, 2005). In the

present case challenge is to Rule 9 as amended by

Second Amendment Rules, 2017. We may thus notice the

amendments made in Rule 9 by Second Amendment Rules,

2017. By Second Amendment Rules, 2017, sub­Rule (4)

to sub­Rule (9) of Rule 9 were substituted in

following manner:

“(b) in rule 9, for sub­rule (4) to sub­rule (9), the following sub­rules shall be substituted, namely:— “(4) Where the client is an individual, who is eligible to be enrolled for an Aadhaar number, he shall for the purpose of sub­rule (1) submit to the reporting entity,—

(a) the Aadhaar number issued by the Unique Identification Authority of India; and

(b) the Permanent Account Number or Form No. 60 as defined in Income­tax Rules, 1962, and such other documents including in respect of the nature of business and financial status of the client as may be required by the reporting entity:

303 Provided that where an Aadhaar number has not been assigned to a client, the client shall furnish proof of application of enrolment for Aadhaar and in case the Permanent Account Number is not submitted, one certified copy of an 'officially valid document' shall be submitted.

Provided further that photograph need not be submitted by a client falling under clause (b) of sub­rule (1).

(4A) Where the client is an individual, who is not eligible to be enrolled for an Aadhaar number, he shall for the purpose of sub­rule (1), submit to the reporting entity, the Permanent Account Number or Form No. 60 as defined in the Income­tax Rules, 1962:

Provided that if the client does not submit the Permanent Account Number, he shall submit one certified copy of an ‘officially valid document' containing details of his identity and address, one recent photograph and such other documents including in respect of the nature or business and financial status of the client as may be required by the reporting entity.

(5) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub­rules (4) and (4A), an individual who desires to open a small account in a banking company may be allowed to open such an account on production of a self­attested photograph and affixation of signature or thumb print, as the case may be, on the form for opening the account:

Provided that­

(i) the designated officer of the banking company, while opening the 304

small account, certifies under his signature that the person opening the account has affixed his signature or thump print, as the case may be, in his presence;

(ii) the small account shall be opened only at Core Banking Solution linked banking company branches or in a branch where it is possible to manually monitor and ensure that foreign remittances are not credited to a small account and that the stipulated limits on monthly and annual aggregate of transactions and balance in such accounts are not breached, before a transaction is allowed to take place;

(iii) the small account shall remain operational initially for a period of twelve months, and thereafter for a further period of twelve months if the holder of such an account provides evidence before the banking company of having applied for any of the officially valid documents within twelve months of the opening of the said account, with the entire relaxation provisions to be reviewed in respect of the said account after twenty­four months;

(iv) the small account shall be monitored and when there is suspicion of money laundering or financing of terrorism or other high risk scenarios, the identity of client shall be established through the production of officially valid documents, as referred to in sub­rule (4) and the Aadhaar number of the client or where an Aadhaar number has 305

not been assigned to the client, through the production of proof of application towards enrolment for Aadhaar along with an officially valid document;

Provided further that if the client is not eligible to be enrolled for an Aadhaar number, the identity of client shall be established through the production of an officially valid document;

(v) the foreign remittance shall not be allowed to be credited into the small account unless the identity of the client is fully established through the production of officially valid documents, as referred to in sub rule (4) and the Aadhaar number of the client or where an Aadhaar number has not been assigned to the client, through the production of proof of application towards enrolment for Aadhaar along with an officially valid document:

Provided that if the client is not eligible to be enrolled for the Aadhaar number, the identity of client shall be established through the production of an officially valid document.

(6) Where the client is a company, it shall for the purposes of sub­rule (1), submit to the reporting entity the certified copies of the following documents:—

(i) Certificate of incorporation;

(ii) Memorandum and Articles of Association;

306 (iii) A resolution from the Board of Directors and power of attorney granted to its managers, officers or employees to transact on its behalf;

(iv) (a) Aadhaar numbers; and

(b) Permanent Account Numbers or Form 60 as defined in the Income­tax Rules, 1962.

issued to managers, officers or employees holding an attorney to transact on the company’s behalf or where an Aadhaar number has not been assigned, proof of application towards enrolment for Aadhaar and in case Permanent Account Number is not submitted an officially valid document shall be submitted:

Provided that for the purpose of this clause if the managers, officers or employees holding an attorney to transact on the company's behalf are not eligible to be enrolled for Aadhaar number and do not submit the Permanent Account Number, certified copy of an officially valid document shall be submitted.

(7) Where the client is a partnership firm, it shall, for the purposes of sub­rule (1), submit to the reporting entity the certified copies of the following documents:—

(i) registration certificate;

(ii) partnership deed; and

(iii) (a) Aadhaar number; and

(b) Permanent Account Number or Form 60 as defined in the Income­tax Rules, 1962.

307 issued to the person holding an attorney to transact on its behalf or where an Aadhaar number has not been assigned, proof of application towards enrolment for Aadhaar and in case Permanent Account Number is not submitted an officially valid document shall be submitted:

Provided that for the purpose of this clause, if the person holding an attorney to transact on the company's behalf is not eligible to be enrolled for Aadhaar number and does not submit the Permanent Account Number, certified copy of an officially valid document shall be submitted.

(8) Where the client is a trust, it shall, for the purposes of sub­rule (1) submit to the reporting entity the certified copies of the following documents:—

(i) registration certificate;

(ii) trust deed; and

(iii) (a) Aadhaar number; and

(b) Permanent Account Number or Form 60 as defined in the Income­tax Rules, 1962, issued to the person holding an attorney to transact on its behalf or where Aadhaar number has not been assigned, proof of application towards enrolment for Aadhaar and in case Permanent Account Number is not submitted an officially valid document shall be submitted:

Provided that for the purpose of this clause if the person holding an attorney to transact on the 308

company's behalf is not eligible to be enrolled for Aadhaar number and does not submit the Permanent Account Number, certified copy of an officially valid document shall be submitted.

(9) Where the client is an unincorporated association or a body of individuals, it shall submit to the reporting entity the certified copies of the following documents:—

(i) resolution of the managing body of such association or body of individuals;

(ii) power of attorney granted to him to transact on its behalf;

(iii) (a) the Aadhaar number; and

(b) Permanent Account Number or Form 60 as defined in the Income­tax Rules, 1962, issued to the person holding an attorney to transact on its behalf or where Aadhaar number has not been assigned, proof of application towards enrolment for Aadhaar and in case the Permanent Account Number is not submitted an officially valid document shall be submitted; and

(iv) such information as may be required by the reporting entity to collectively establish the legal existence of such an association or body of individuals:

Provided that for the purpose of this clause if the person holding an attorney to transact on the company’s behalf is not eligible to be enrolled for Aadhaar number and does not 309

submit the Permanent Account Number, certified copy of an officially valid document shall be submitted.”

(c) after sub­rule (14), the following sub­rules shall be inserted, namely,— “(15) Any reporting entity, at the time of receipt of the Aadhaar number under provisions of this rule, shall carry out authentication using either e­KYC authentication facility or Yes/No authentication facility provided by Unique Identification Authority of India.

(16) In case the client referred to in sub­rules (4) to (9) of rule 9 is not a resident or is a resident in the States of Jammu and Kashmir, Assam or Maghalaya and does not submit the Permanent Account Number, the client shall submit to the reporting entity one certified copy of officially valid document containing details of his identity and address, one recent photograph and such other document including in respect of the nature of business and financial status of the client as may be required by the reporting entity.

(17) (a) In case the client, eligible to be enrolled for Aadhaar and obtain a Permanent Account Number, referred to in sub­rules (4) to (9) of rule 9 does not submit the Aadhaar number or the Permanent Account Number at the time of commencement of an account based relationship with a reporting entity, the client shall submit the same within a period of six months 310

from the date of the commencement of the account based relationship:

Provided that the clients, eligible to be enrolled for Aadhaar and obtain the Permanent Account Number, already having an account based relationship with reporting entities prior to date of this notification, the client shall submit the Aadhaar number and Permanent Account Number by 31st December, 2017.

(b) As per regulation 12 of the Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update) Regulations, 2016, the local authorities in the State Governments or Union­territory Administrations have become or are in the process of becoming UIDAI Registrars for Aadhaar enrolment and are organising special Aadhaar enrolment camps at convenient locations for providing enrolment facilities in consultation with UIDAI and any individual desirous of commencing an account based relationship as provided in this rule, who does not possess the Aadhaar number or has not yet enrolled for Aadhaar, may also visit such special Aadhaar enrolment camps for Aadhaar enrolment or any of the Aadhaar enrolment centres in the vicinity with existing registrars of UIDAI.

(c) In case the client fails to submit the Aadhaar number and Permanent Account Number within the aforesaid six months period, the said account shall cease to be operational till the time the Aadhaar number and 311

Permanent Account Number is submitted by the client:

Provided that in case client already having an account based relationship with reporting entities prior to date of this notification fails to submit the Aadhaar number and Permanent Account Number by 31st December, 2017, the said account shall cease to be operational till the time the Aadhaar number and Permanent Account Number is submitted by the client.

(18) In case the identity information relating to the Aadhaar number or Permanent Account Number submitted by the client referred to in sub­rules (4) to (9) of rule 9 does not have current address of the client, the client shall submit an officially valid document to the reporting entity.”

316. The challenge to Second Amendment Rules, 2017 is

on the ground that it violate Articles 14, 19(1)(g),

21 and 300A of the Constitution of India; Sections 3,

7 and 51 of the Aadhaar Act and also ultra vires to

the provisions of PMLA Act, 2002.

317. Elaborating his submissions Shri Arvind P. Datar

learned senior counsel submits that Second Amendment

Rules violate Article 14 and 21 since persons choosing 312

not to enrol for Aadhaar number cannot operate bank

account and valid explanation has to be given as to

why all banks have to be authenticated.

318. Violative of Article 19(1)(g) because the Rules

refer to companies, firms, trusts, etc. whereas

Aadhaar Act is only to establish identity of

individuals. Violative of Article 300A since even

temporary deprivation can only be done by primary

legislation. The Second Amendment Rules do not pass

proportionality test. No proper purpose has been

established. No explanation has been given that the

measures undertaken to such are rationale and

connected to the fulfillment of the purpose and there

are no alternative measures with a lesser degree of

legislation. When the banks have already verified all

accounts as per e­KYC norms, it is completely

arbitrary to make permanent linking/seeding of all

Aadhaar numbers with the bank accounts. Second

Amendment Rules fail to satisfy the proportionality

test, are irrational, and manifestly arbitrary. 313

319. Shri Tushar Mehta, learned Additional Solicitor

General refuting the submission, submits that Second

Amendment Rules carry on the object of 2002, Act. The

verification of bank account by way of Aadhaar is done

for the reason that often bank accounts are opened in

either fictitious names or in the name of wrong

persons on the basis of forged identity documents and

financial crimes are committed. It is seen that

accommodation entries are mostly provided through the

banking channels by bogus companies to convert black

money into white. Benami transactions routinely take

place through banking channels. All of the above, can

to a large extent be checked by verifying Aadhaar with

bank accounts to ensure that the account belongs to

the person who claims to be the account holder and

that he or she is a genuine person. Verification of

bank account with Aadhaar also ensures that the direct

benefit transfer of subsidies reach the Aadhaar

verified bank account and is not diverted to some

other account. Shell companies are often used to open

bank accounts to hold unaccounted money of other 314

entities under fictitious identities which will also

be curbed once Aadhaar verification is initiated.

320. Now, we come to the respective submissions of

the parties. A perusal of the Second Amendment Rules,

2017 indicates that the State has sought to make the

provisions of PMLA more robust and ensure that the

ultimate object of the Act is achieved. Aadhaar Act,

2016 having been enacted with effect from 01.07.2016,

it was decided to get the accounts verified by

Aadhaar. Amended Rules help all concerned to detect

fictitious, ghost and benami accounts. The object of

the PMLA and the definition of beneficial owner Act

seeks to traverse behind the corporate veil of shell

companies and spurious Directors in order to ascertain

the real natural persons controlling the accounts in

the reporting entities. The Amendment Rules applicable

to reporting entities and the legitimate aim sought to

be achieved by the State that is conclusive

identification of a natural person or the beneficial

owner. The statutory rules cast an obligation on all

account holders to get their identity verified by 315

Aadhaar mechanism and those who are already holding

account in the reporting entity they are required to

submit the Aadhaar number or proof of their applied

Aadhaar identity. When a statute puts obligation on

account holder to get identity verification in a

particular manner a person chose not to obtain Aadhaar

number cannot complain his dis­entitlement of

operating his account. The submission of the

petitioner that there is no valid explanation as to

why all bank accounts have to be authenticated also

cannot be accepted. Aadhaar provides a mechanism truly

identifies an account holder, which eliminates

fraudulent accounts existed of non­existed persons and

in ghost names. The object of inserting the Rule is to

make it possible to weed out fake and duplicate PANs

and false bank accounts. The Second Amendment Rules

are step in direction to cure the menace of fake bank

accounts held by the shell companies in the name of

dummy directors, money laundering, terror financing

etc. It is relevant to notice that Aadhaar number is

required to be given at the time of opening of the 316

account based relationship and not for every

transaction conducted by an account holder of the

bank. Those who have already existing accounts are

required to submit only once their Aadhaar number for

verification. The requirement of Aadhaar number being

given only for once is not any cumbersome or undue

burden on an account holder. The object of the Second

Amendment Rules is towards the legitimate aim of the

State and having nexus with the object sought to be

achieved by the enactment. The submission of Aadhaar

number only once by an account holder is a

proportionate measure. We have already referred to

judgments where doctrine of proportionality has been

expounded. While adjudging a statutory provision from

the angle of the proportionality the Court has to

examine as to whether statutory measure contained in

statutory provision is not excessive as against the

object which seeks to achieve. The legislature has

margin of discretion while providing for one or other

measures to achieve an object. Unless the measures

foully unreasonable and disproportionate, court does 317

not normally substitutes its opinion. On the basis of

Rule 9(17)(c), petitioner contends that in the event

account holder fails to submit the Aadhaar number and

PAN within a period as mentioned in the aforesaid

Rules account shall cease to be operational till the

time Aadhaar number and PAN is submitted by the

client. Petitioner alleged violation of Article 300A.

The petitioner’s case is that account of a person is

his property to which he cannot be deprived, saved by

the authority of law. For non­submission of Aadhaar

number and PAN only consequence which is contemplated

by sub­rule (c) is that account shall cease to be

operational. We are of the view that the account

remains belonging to the account holder and the amount

in the account is only his amount and there is no

deprivation of the property of account holder. Under

the banking rules and procedures, there are several

circumstances where account becomes un­operational. A

non­operational account also is an account which

belongs to the account holder and amount laying in the

non­operational account is neither forfeited by the 318

bank nor taken out from the said account. Further,

account is ceased operational only till the time

Aadhaar number and PAN is submitted. The consequences

provided is only to effectuate the purpose of the Act

and the Rules i.e. account be verified by Aadhaar

mechanism. It is not the intent to deprive the account

holder of the amount lying in the account. We, thus,

do not find any substance in the submission of the

petitioner that Rule 9(17)(c) violates right under

Article 300A. Aadhaar number providing for

verification of an account also cannot be held to be

violating right under Article 21. The reporting entity

i.e. banks and financial institutions under various

statutes are required to provide information of a bank

account to different authorities including income tax

authority, account verification by Aadhaar is not for

the purpose of keeping a track on the transaction done

by an individual. As noted above Aadhaar number has to

be given only once for opening of the account or for

verification of the account and transactions are not 319

to be made on the basis of Aadhaar verification each

time.

321. One of the submissions which has been made by

the petitioner also is that Rules violate Article

19(1)(g). It is submitted that Rule refers to

companies, firms, trusts etc. whereas Aadhaar Act is

only to establish identity of individual. For example

sub­rule (6) of Rule 9 as amended by Second Amendment

Rules, 2017 provides that where client is a company,

it shall for the purposes of sub­rule (1), submit to

the reporting entity the certified copies of the

documents enumerated therein. Rule requiring Aadhaar

number and PAN or Form 60 as defined in Income Tax

Rules, 1962, issued to managers, officers or employees

holding an attorney to transact on the company’s

behalf, is for the purpose to find out the beneficial

owner behind the company. One of the objects of the

Act is to detect money­laundering wherever it is

found. Inquiring details of the company to find out

shell companies and ghost companies and the real

beneficial owner cannot be said to be foreign to the 320

object of the Act. Companies, partnership firms,

trusts or incorporated institutions or body of

individuals cannot complain any violation of rights

under Article 19(1)(g). There is no amount of

restriction in the right of aforesaid in carrying out

any profession, or any trade or business. Petitioners

have also contended that amended Rule 9 also violates

Section 3, 7 and 51 of the Aadhaar Act. Section 3

provides for enrolment under Aadhaar scheme. Section 7

provides for requirement of proof of Aadhaar number

for receipt of certain subsidies, benefits and

services, etc. Section 51 relates to delegation by the

authority to any Member, officer of the authority or

any other person such of the powers and functions

under the said Act except the power under Section 54.

Rules cannot be held in any manner violating Sections

3, 7 and 51. The rules provide for use of Aadhaar for

verification of bank account by law as contemplated by

Section 57 of the Aadhaar Act.

322. It is further submitted that Amendment Rules are

also ultra vires to the PMLA, 2002. Shri Arvind P 321

Datar has also referred to judgment of the U.K.

Supreme Court in Bank Mellat v. Her Majesty’s

Treasury, (2013) UKSC 39. He has relied on principle

of proportionality as summed in paragraph 20 which is

to the following effect:

“20....The classic formulation of the test is to be found in the advice of the Privy Council, delivered by Lord Clyde, in De Freitas v Permanent Secretary of Ministry of Agriculture, Fisheries, Lands and Housing [1999] 1 AC 69 at 80. But this decision, although it was a milestone in the development of the law, is now more important for the way in which it has been adapted and applied in the subsequent case­law, notably R (Daly) v Secretary of State for the Home Department [2001] 2 AC 532 (in particular the speech of Lord Steyn), R v Shayler [2003] 1 AC 247 at paras 57­59 (Lord Hope of Craighead), Huang v Secretary of State for the Home Department [2007] 2 AC 167 at para 19 (Lord Bingham of Cornhill) and R (Quila) v Secretary of State for the Home Department [2012] 1 AC 621 at para 45. Their effect can be sufficiently summarised for present purposes by saying that the question depends on an exacting analysis of the factual case advanced in defence of the measure, in order to determine (i) whether its objective is sufficiently important to justify the limitation of a fundamental right; (ii) whether it is rationally connected to the objective; (iii) whether a less intrusive measure could have been used; and (iv) whether, having regard to these matters and to the severity of the consequences, a fair balance has been struck between the rights of 322

the individual and the interests of the community. These four requirements are logically separate, but in practice they inevitably overlap because the same facts are likely to be relevant to more than one of them.”(emphasis added)

323. The principles of proportionality as noticed in

the aforesaid judgment are substantially same which

had been laid down in Puttaswamy case and Modern

Dental (supra) only one difference in the above two

judgments is that although both the judgments noticed

the least intrusive test but in ultimate conclusion

the said test was not reflected in the ratio of the

above two judgments.

324. In the foregoing discussions, we come to the

conclusion that Rule 9 of Second Amendment Rules, 2017

fully satisfies three­fold test as laid down in Puttaswamy case and the submission that the Rule is

unconstitutional has to be rejected. We answer Issue

No. 14 in the following manner:­

Ans.14:­ Rule 9 as amended by PMLA (Second Amendment)

Rules, 2017 is not unconstitutional and does

not violate Articles 14, 19(1)(g), 21 & 300A 323

of the Constitution and Sections 3, 7 & 51 of

the Aadhaar Act. Further Rule 9 as amended

is not ultra vires to PMLA Act, 2002.

Issue No. 15 Circular dated 23.03.2017 issued by Ministry of Communications, Department of Telecommunications

325. The petitioners have attacked the circular dated

23.03.2017 and submitted that the circular is ultra

vires. By circular dated 23.03.2017, Department of

Telecommunications has directed that all licensees

shall re­verify all existing mobile subscribers

(prepaid and postpaid) through Aadhaar based e­kyc

process. Petitioners submitted that linking the sim

with Aadhaar number is breach of privacy violating

Article 21 of the Constitution. Elaborating their

challenge, it is contended that circular dated

23.03.2017 is not covered by any of the provisions of

Aadhaar Act neither Section 7 nor Section 57.

Circular dated 23.03.2017 is not a law under Part III

of the Constitution and thus same cannot put any

restriction on privacy right. It is submitted that 324

circular dated 23.03.2017 does not satisfy three­fold

test as laid down in Privacy judgment.

326. Learned counsel for the respondents justifying

the linking of Aadhaar with sim card submits that non­

verifying sim cards, have caused serious security

threats, which has been noticed by this Court in

several judgments. It is submitted that circular

dated 23.03.2017 was issued on the basis of

recommendation of Telecom Regulatory Authority of

India. Respondents further submits that circular

dated 23.03.2017 has been issued in reference to this

Court's direction in Lokniti Foundation Vs. Union of

India and Another, (2017) 7 SCC 155. This court

having approved the action, no exception can be taken

by the petitioner to the circular dated 23.03.2017.

It is submitted that the Central Government, which has

right to grant license can always put a condition in

the license obliging the licensee to verify the sim

cards under the Aadhaar verification. To impose such

condition is in the statutory power granted to the

Government under Section 4 of the Indian Telegraph 325

Act, 1885.

327. We need to scrutinise the circular dated

23.03.2017 on the ground of attack alleged by the

petitioners and justification as offered by the

respondents. Circular dated 23.03.2017 has been

addressed by the Ministry of Communications,

Department of Telecommunications to all Unified

Licensees/Unified Access Service Licensees/Cellular

Mobile Telephone Service Licensees with subject:

implementation of orders of Supreme Court regarding

100% E­KYC of existing subscribers. Para 1 to 3 of

the circular may be noticed, which are to the

following effect:­

“Hon'ble Supreme Court, in its order dated 06.02.2017 passed in Writ Petition (C) No. 607/2016 filed by Lokniti Foundation v/s Union of India, while taking into cognizance of "Aadhaar based E­KYC process for issuing new telephone connection" issued by the Department, has inter­alia observed that "an effective process has been evolved to ensure identity verification, as well as, the addresses of all mobile phone subscribers for new subscribers. In the near future, and more 326

particularly, within one year from today, a similar verification will be completed, in case of existing subscribers." This amounts to a direction which is to be completed within a time frame of one year.

2. A meeting was held on 13.02.2017 in the Department with the telecom industry wherein UIDAI, TRAI and PMO representatives also participated to discuss the way forward to implement the directions of Hon'ble Supreme Court.

Detailed discussions and deliberations were held in the meeting. The suggestions received from the industry have been examined in the Department.

3. Accordingly, after taking into consideration the discussions held in the meeting and suggestions received from telecom industry, the undersigned is directed to convey the approval of competent authority that all Licensees shall re­verify all existing mobile subscribers (prepaid and postpaid) through Aadhaar based E­KYC process as mentioned in this office letter no. 800­ 29/2010­VAS dated 16.08.2016. The instructions mentioned in subsequent paragraphs shall be strictly followed while carrying out the re­verification exercise.” 327

328. The circular of the Department of

Telecommunications directing the licensees to

mandatorily verify existing sim subscribers in turn

resulted in mobile telephone service licensees

directing the subscribers to get their sim seeded with

Aadhaar. Repeated messages and directions have been

issued by Cellular Mobile Telephone Service operators.

Compulsory seeding of Aadhaar with mobile numbers has

to be treated to be an intrusion in Privacy Right of a

person. Any invasion on the Privacy Right of a person

has to be backed by law as per the three­fold test

enumerated in Puttaswamy case (supra). Existence of a

law is the foremost condition to be fulfilled for

restricting any Privacy Right. Thus, we have to first

examine whether circular dated 23.03.2017 can be said

to be a 'law'.

329. The law as explained in Article 13(3) has to be

applied for finding out as to what is law. Article

13(3)(a) gives an inclusive definition of law in

following words:­

(a) “law” includes any Ordinance, order, bye­ 328

law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law;

330. The circular dated 23.03.2017 at best is only an

executive instruction issued on 23.03.2017 by the

Ministry of Communications, Department of

Telecommunications. The circular does not refer to

any statutory provision or statutory base for issuing

the circular. The subject of circular as noted above

indicate that circular has been issued for

implementation of orders of Supreme Court regarding

100% E­KYC based re­verification of existing

subscribers. It is necessary to notice the judgment

of this Court dated 06.02.2017, a reference to which

is made in the circular itself. The order dated

06.02.2017 was issued by this Court in a Writ Petition

filed by Lokniti Foundation Vs. Union of India and

Another, (2017) 7 SCC 155. The petitioners have filed

a writ petition with a prayer that identity of each

subscriber and also the members should be verified so

that unidentified and unverified subscribers cannot

misuse mobile phone. After issuing the notice, Union 329

of India had filed a counter affidavit, where Union of

India stated that Department has launched Aadhaar

based E­KYC for issuing mobile connections on

16.8.2016.

331. Paras 2 to 6 of the judgment, which is relevant

for the present purpose are as follows:­

2. Consequent upon notice being issued to the Union of India, a short counter affidavit has been filed on its behalf, wherein, it is averred as under:

“22. That however, the department has launched `Aadhaar based E­KYC for issuing mobile connections' on 16th August, 2016 wherein the customer as well as Point of Sale (PoS) Agent of the TSP will be authenticated from Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) based on their biometrics and their demographic data received from UIDAI is stored in the database of TSP along with time stamps. Copy of letter No.800­ 29/2010­VAS dated 16.08.2016 is annexed herewith and marked as Annexure R­1/10.

23. As on 31.01.2017, 111.31 Crores Aadhaar card has been issued which represent 87.09% of populations.

However, still there are substantial number of persons who do not have Aadhaar card because they may not be interested in having Aadhaar being 75 years or more of age or not availing 330

any benefit of pension or Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT). Currently Aadhaar card or biometric authentication is not mandatory for obtaining a new telephone connection.

As a point of information, it is submitted that those who have Aadhaar card/number normally use the same for obtaining a new telephone connection using E­KYC process as mobile connection can be procured within few minutes in comparison to 1­2 days being taken in normal course.

24. That in this process, there will be almost `NIL' chances of delivery of SIM to wrong person and the traceability of customer shall greatly improve. Further, since no separate document for Proof of Address or Proof of Identity will be taken in this process, there will be no chances of forgery of documents.”

3. The learned Attorney General, in his endeavour to demonstrate the effectiveness of the procedure, which has been put in place, has invited our attention to the application form, which will be required to be filled up, by new mobile subscribers, using e­KYC process. It was the submission of the learned Attorney General, that the procedure now being adopted, will be sufficient to alleviate the fears, projected in the writ petition.

4. Insofar as the existing subscribers are concerned, it was submitted on behalf of the Union of India, that more than 90% of the subscribers are using pre­paid connections. It was pointed out, that each pre­paid connection holder, has to per force renew his 331

connection periodically, by making a deposit for further user. It was submitted, that these 90% existing subscribers, can also be verified by putting in place a mechanism, similar to the one adopted for new subscribers. Learned Attorney General states, that an effective programme for the same, would be devised at the earliest, and the process of identity verification will be completed within one year, as far as possible.

5. In view of the factual position brought to our notice during the course of hearing, we are satisfied, that the prayers made in the writ petition have been substantially dealt with, and an effective process has been evolved to ensure identity verification, as well as, the addresses of all mobile phone subscribers for new subscribers. In the near future, and more particularly, within one year from today, a similar verification will be completed, in the case of existing subscribers. While complimenting the petitioner for filing the instant petition, we dispose of the same with the hope and expectation, that the undertaking given to this Court, will be taken seriously, and will be given effect to, as soon as possible.

6. The instant petition is disposed of, in the above terms.”

332. Para 5 of the judgment contains the operative

portion of the order, which states "we dispose of the

same with the hope and expectation, that the

undertaking given to this Court, will be taken 332

seriously, and will be given effect to, as soon as

possible”. The order of this Court as extracted above

itself states that the Court itself did not give any

direction rather noticed the stand of Union of India

where it informed to the Court that the department has

already launched Aadhaar based e­KYC for issuing

mobile connections. For 90 per cent of the existing

subscribers, Attorney General has stated that an

effective programme would be devised at the earliest

and will be completed within one year.

333. We are clear in our mind that this Court on

06.02.2017 only noticed the stand of the Union of

India and disposed of the writ petition expecting that

undertaking given to this Court shall be given effect

to.

334. The circular dated 23.03.2017 cites the order of

this Court as a direction, which according to

department was to be completed within the time frame

of one year. Circular further states that the meeting

was held on 13.02.2017 in the Department with the 333

telecom industry wherein UIDAI, TRAI and PMO

representatives also participated.

335. This Court thus in Lokniti case (supra) did not

examine the Aadhaar based e­KYC process in context of

right of privacy. Thus, the order of this Court dated

06.02.2017 cannot absolve the Government from

justifying its circular as per law.

336. One of the submissions, which has been raised by

the respondents to cite a statutory base to the

circular is that the circular has been issued in

pursuance of recommendation made by TRAI under Section

11(1)(a) of TRAI Act, 1997. Section 11 of the TRAI

Act, 1997 provides for function of authority Section

11(1)(a):­

(a) make recommendations, either suo motu or on a request from the licensor, on the following matters, namely:—

(i) need and timing for introduction of new service provider;

(ii) terms and conditions of licence to a service provider;

(iii) revocation of licence for non­ compliance of terms and conditions of licence; 334

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337. One of the functions of the TRAI is to give

recommendations as per Section 11(1)(a) on the matters

enumerated therein. The recommendations of TRAI were

only recommendations and the mere fact that circular

dated 23.03.2017 was issued after the recommendation

was sent by TRAI, circular dated 23.03.2017 does not

acquire any statutory character. Circular dated

23.03.2017 thus cannot be held to be a law within the

meaning of Part III of the Constitution.

338. Shri Rakesh Dwivedi, learned counsel appearing

for the respondents has submitted that the Central

Government being licensor, it is fully entitled to

provide for any condition in its license, which

condition becomes binding on the licensee. Referring

to license agreement for Unified Licensees, Shri

Dwivedi submits that one of the conditions in the

agreement was Condition No. 16.1 which is to the

following effect:­

"16.1 The Licensee shall be bound by the 335

terms and conditions of this License Agreement as well as instructions as are issued by the Licensor and by such orders/directions/regulations of TRAI as per provisions of the TRAI Act, 1997 as amended from time to time.”

339. Shri Dwivedi has also relied on a number of

judgments in support of his submissions that

conditions can be validly laid down. he has relied on

Bagalkot Cement Co. Ltd. Vs. R.K. Pathan and Others,

AIR 1963 SC 439, where this Court while considering

the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946

observed that object of the Act was to require the

employers to make the conditions of employment precise

and definite and the Act ultimately intended to

prescribe these conditions in the form of Standing

Orders so that what used to be governed by a contract

herebefore would now be governed by the Statutory

Standing Orders.

340. The above judgment at best can be read to mean

that conditions, which are enumerated in the Standing

Orders become statutory conditions. No benefit of the

judgment can be taken by the respondents in the 336

present case since even if it is put in the condition

in the agreement between licensee and subscribers that

licensee shall be bound to instructions as issued by

licensor, the said condition does not become statutory

nor take shape of a law. Sukhdev Singh and Others Vs.

Bhagatram Sardar Singh Raghuvanshi and Another, (1975)

1 SCC 421 was relied, where this Court held that rules

and regulations framed by ONGC, LIC and Industrial

Finance Corporation have the force of law. There

cannot be any denial that rules framed under statutory

provisions will have force of law, thus, this case has

no application. Similarly, reliance on Lily Kurian

Vs. Sr. Lewina and Others, (1979) 2 SCC 124, Alpana V.

Mehta Vs. Maharashtra State Board of Secondary

Education and Another, (1984) 4 SCC 27, St. Johns

Teachers Training Institute Vs. Regional Director,

National Council for Teacher Education and Another,

(2003) 3 SCC 321 were all cases, where conditions

were laid down under the regulations, which were

statutory in nature. Those cases in no manner help

the respondents.

337

341. Shri Dwivedi has also relied on judgment of this

Court in Union of India and Another Vs. Association of

Unified Telecom Service Providers of India and Others,

(2011) 10 SCC 543. This Court referring to Section 4

of the Telegraph Act laid down following in paragraph

39:­

“39. The proviso to Sub­section (1) of Section 4 of the Telegraph Act, however, enables the Central Government to part with this exclusive privilege in favour of any other person by granting a license in his favour on such conditions and in consideration of such payments as it thinks fit. As the Central Government owns the exclusive privilege of carrying on telecommunication activities and as the Central Government alone has the right to part with this privilege in favour of any person by granting a license in his favour on such conditions and in consideration of such terms as it thinks fit, a license granted under proviso to Sub­section (1) of Section 4 of the Telegraph Act is in the nature of a contract between the Central Government and the licensee.”

342. There cannot be any dispute to the right of the

Central Government to part with exclusive privilege in

favour of any person by granting license on such a

condition and in consideration of such terms as it 338

thinks fit. But mere issuing an instruction to the

licensees to adopt mandatory process of e­KYC by

Aadhaar verification in no manner exalt the

instructions or directives as a law. Circular dated

23.03.2017, thus, cannot be held to be a law and

direction to re­verification of all existing mobile

subscribers through Aadhaar based e­KYC cannot be held

to be backed by law, hence cannot be upheld.

343. There is one more aspect of the matter, which

needs to be looked into. Aadhaar Act has only two

provisions under which Aadhaar can be used, i.e.

Section 7 and Section 57. Present is not a case of

Section 7 since present is not a case of receiving any

subsidy, benefit or service. What Section 57

contemplate is that "use of Aadhaar can be provided by

a law". Words "by a law" used in Section 57 obviously

mean a valid law framed by competent legislation and

other than the Aadhaar Act. No law has been framed by

permitting use of Aadhaar for verification of sim of

existing subscribers. There being no law framed for

such use of Aadhaar, Section 57 is also not attracted. 339

344. There are only above two contingencies, where

Aadhaar can be used and circular dated 23.03.2017

being not covered by any of above contingencies,

circular dated 23.03.2017 deserves to be set aside.

Ans.15:­ Circular dated 23.03.2017 being

unconstitutional is set aside.

Issue No. 16 Whether Aadhaar Act is a Money Bill and decision of Speaker certifying it as Money Bill is not subject to Judicial Review of this Court?

345. The Aadhaar Act has been passed by Parliament as

Money Bill. Shri P. Chidambaram, learned senior

counsel appearing for the petitioners contends that

Aadhaar Act is not a Money Bill, it being not covered

by any of the Clauses under Article 110 of the

Constitution of India. He further submits that

decision of the Speaker certifying Aadhaar Bill as

Money Bill being illegal and contrary to the express

constitutional provisions deserves to be interfered

with and such decision of the Speaker is also subject

to Judicial Review by this Court. The word “only” 340

used in Article 110 has significance and a Bill, which

does not contain only, the provisions pertaining to

Clause (a) to (f) cannot be regarded as Money Bill.

Respondents cannot fall on Clause (g) to support the

Money Bill, which clause cannot be invoked unless the

provisions of Bill are covered by any of the clauses

from (a) to (f).

346. Shri K.K. Venugopal, learned Attorney General

refuting the above submission submits that Aadhaar

Bill has correctly been passed as Money Bill. He

submits that the certification granted by Speaker that

Aadhaar Bill is a Money Bill has been made final by

virtue of Article 110(3), hence it cannot be

questioned in any Court. The decision of Speaker

certifying the Bill as Money Bill is not subject to

Judicial Review. It is further submitted by learned

Attorney General that even on looking the Aadhaar Bill

on merits, it satisfies the conditions as enumerated

under Article 110(1). He submits that Aadhaar Bill is

clearly referable to Clause(c), Clause(e) and

Clause(g) of Article 110(1). He submits that the 341

heart of the Aadhaar Act is Section 7 which is with

regard to payment of subsidies, benefits or services

and for which the expenditure is incurred form the

Consolidated Fund of India. Article 122 also puts an

embargo in questioning validity of any proceedings in

Parliament. Certification of Bill as Money Bill is

matter of Parliamentary procedure hence Article 122

also save the said decision from being questioned in a

Court of Law.

347. Article 110 and Article 122, which falls for

consideration in the present case are as follows:­

“110. Definition of "Money Bills".­ (1) For the purposes of this Chapter, a Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters, namely:­

(a) the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;

(b) the regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India, or the amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the Government of India;

(c) the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of 342

India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of moneys from any such Fund;

(d) the appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India;

(e) the declaring of any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or the increasing of the amount of any such expenditure;

(f) the receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or the custody or issue of such money or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a State; or

(g) any matter incidental to any of the matters specified in sub­clauses

(a) to (f).

(2) A Bill shall not be deemed to be a Money Bill by reason only that it provides for the imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties, or for the demand or payment of fees for licences or fees for services rendered, or by reason that it provides for the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax by any local authority or body for local purposes.

(3) If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People thereon shall be final.

4) There shall be endorsed on every Money Bill when it is transmitted to the Council of States under article 109, and when it is presented to the President for assent under article 111, the certificate of the Speaker of the House of the People signed by him that it is a Money Bill.

343

122. Courts not to inquire into proceedings of Parliament.­(1) The validity of any proceedings in Parliament shall not be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure.

(2) No officer or member of Parliament in whom powers are vested by or under this Constitution for regulating procedure or the conduct of business, or for maintaining order, in Parliament shall be subject to the jurisdiction of any court in respect of the exercise by him of those powers.”

348. We need to first advert to the submission

pertaining to question as to whether decision of

Speaker certifying the Bill as Money Bill is subject

to Judicial Review of this Court or being related to

only procedure, is immuned from Judicial Review under

Article 122. Article 110(3) gives finality to the

decision of the Speaker of the House of the People on

question as to whether a Bill is Money Bill or not.

The word occurring in sub­article (3) of Article 110

are “shall be final”. Article 122(1) puts an embargo

on questioning the validity of any proceeding in the

Parliament on the ground of any alleged irregularity

or procedure. The Constitution uses different

expressions in different articles like “shall be 344

final”, “shall not be questioned”, “shall not be

questioned in any Court of Law” etc.

349. This Court has examined the scope of Judicial

Review in reference to Parliamentary proceedings. A

similar Constitutional provision giving finality to

the decision of the Speaker is contained in Para 6 of

Tenth Schedule where a question whether a person has

become disqualified or not is to be referred to the

decision of the Chairman or the Speaker and his

decision shall be final. Para 6 sub­clause(1) is

quoted as below:­

“6. Decision on questions as to disqualification on ground of defection.— (1) If any question arises as to whether a member of a House has become subject to disqualification under this Schedule, the question shall be referred for the decision of the Chairman or, as the case may be, the Speaker of such House and his decision shall be final:

Provided that where the question which has arisen is as to whether the Chairman or the Speaker of a House has become subject to such disqualification, the question shall be referred for the decision of such member of the House as the House may elect in this behalf and his decision shall be final.” 345

350. The Constitution Bench had occasion to consider

Para 6 in Kihoto Hollohan Vs. Zachillhu and Others,

1992 Supp. (2) SCC 651, Justice M.N. Venkatachaliah,

as he then was elaborately considered the rival

contentions. It was also contended before this Court

that in view of the finality of the decision of the

Speaker in Para 6 of Tenth Schedule, the decision of

the Speaker is beyond Judicial Review. In Para 78,

following has been stated:­

“78. These two contentions have certain overlapping areas between them and admit of being dealt with together. Paragraph 6(1) of the Tenth Schedule seeks to impart a statutory finality to the decision of the Speaker or the Chairman. The argument is that, this concept of `finality' by itself, excludes Courts' jurisdiction. Does the word "final" render the decision of the Speaker immune from Judicial Review? It is now well accepted that a finality clause is not a legislative magical incantation which has that effect of telling off Judicial Review.

Statutory finality of a decision presupposes and is subject to its consonance with the statute...............”

In Para 80 to 85, following has been held:­

80. In Durga Shankar Mehta v. Raghuraj Singh, AIR 1954 SC 520 the order of the Election Tribunal was made final and 346

conclusive by Section 105 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. The contention was that the finality and conclusiveness clauses barred the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 136. This contention was repelled. It was observed: (AIR p. 522) ...[B]ut once it is held that it is a judicial tribunal empowered and obliged to deal judicially with disputes arising out of or in connection with election, the overriding power of this Court to grant special leave, in proper cases, would certainly be attracted and this power cannot be excluded by any parliamentary legislation.

... But once that Tribunal has made any determination or adjudication on the matter, the powers of this Court to interfere by way of special leave can always be exercised......

... The powers given by Article 136 of the Constitution however are in the nature of special or residuary powers which are exercisable outside the purview of ordinary law, in cases where the needs of justice demand interference by the Supreme Court of the land....

Section 105 of the Representation of the People Act certainly gives finality to the decision of the Election Tribunal so far as that Act is concerned and does not provide for any further appeal but that cannot in any way cut down or effect the overriding powers which this Court can exercise in the matter of granting special leave under 347 Article 136 of the Constitution.

81. Again, in Union of India v. Jyoti Prakash Mitter [1971] 3 SCR 483 a similar finality clause in Article 217(3) of the Constitution camp up for consideration. This Court said:

(SCC pp.410­1, Para32) ...The President acting under Article 217(3) performs a judicial function of grave importance under the scheme of our Constitution. He cannot act on the advice of his Ministers.

Notwithstanding the declared finality of the order of the President the Court has jurisdiction in appropriate cases to set aside the order, if it appears that it was passed on collateral considerations or the rules of natural justice were not observed, or that the President's judgment was coloured by the advice or representation made by the executive or it was founded on no evidence."

82. Referring to the expression "final"

occurring in Article 311(3) of the Constitution this Court in Union of India v.

Tulsiram Patel, [1985] Supp. 2 SCR 131 held:

(SCC p.507. Para 138) ...The finality given by Clause (3) of Article 311 to the disciplinary authority's decision that it was not reasonably practicable to hold the inquiry is not binding upon the court. The court will also examine the charge of mala fides, if any, made in the writ petition. In examining the relevancy of the reasons, the court will consider the situation which according to the disciplinary authority made it come 348

to the conclusion that it was not reasonably practicable to hold the inquiry. If the court finds that the reasons are irrelevant, then the recording of its satisfaction by the disciplinary authority would be an abuse of power conferred upon it by Clause (b)....

83. If the intendment is to exclude the jurisdiction of the superior Courts, the language would quite obviously have been different. Even so, where such exclusion is sought to be effected by an amendment the further question whether such an amendment would be destructive of a basic feature of the Constitution would arise. But comparison of the language in Article 363(1) would bring out in contrast the kind of language that may be necessary to achieve any such purpose.

84. In Brundaban Nayak v. Election Commission of India [1965] 3 SCR 53, in spite of finality attached by Article 192 to the decision of the Governor in respect of disqualification incurred by a member of a State Legislature subsequent to the election, the matter was examined by this Court on an appeal by special leave under Article 136 of the Constitution against the decision of the High Court dismissing the writ petition filed under Article 226 of the Constitution.

Similarly in Union of India v. Jyoti Prakash Mitter [1971] 3 SCR 483, in spite of finality attached to the order of the President with regard to the determination of age of a Judge of the High Court under Article 217(3) of the Constitution, this Court examined the legality of the order passed by the President during the pendency of an appeal filed under Article 136 of the Constitution.

85. There is authority against the acceptability of the argument that the word 349

"final" occurring in Paragraph 6(1) has the effect of excluding the jurisdiction of the Courts in Articles 136, 226 and 227.”

351. The above Constitution Bench Judgment clearly

support the case of the petitioners that finality

attached to the decision of the Speaker under Article

110(3) does not inhibit the Court in exercising its

Judicial Review. We may also refer to the Constitution

Bench judgment of this Court in Special Reference No.

1 of 1964, AIR 1965 SC 745 where this Court had

occasion to consider Article 212, which is a provision

relating to the legislature of the State para materia

to Article 122. Constitution Bench has held that what

is protected under Article 212 from being questioned

is on the ground of any alleged irregularity or

procedure. The said ground does not apply in case of

illegality of the decision. The next case, which

needs to be considered is again a Constitution Bench

judgment of this Court in Raja Rampal Vs. Hon'ble

Speaker, Lok Sabha and Others, (2007) 3 SCC 184. The

Constitution Bench in the above case had occasion to 350

consider the question of issue of Judicial Review of a

decision of Speaker disqualifying from membership of

the Parliament. A submission was raised before the

Court by virtue of Article 122 of the Constitution,

which puts an embargo on questioning any proceeding of

the Parliament, the decision of the Speaker is immuned

from the Judicial Review. The above submission has

been noticed in Para 364 of the judgment in following

words:­

“364. The submissions of the learned Counsel for the Union of India and the learned Additional Solicitor General seek us to read a finality clause in the provisions of Article 122(1) in so far as parliamentary proceedings are concerned. On the subject of finality clauses and their effect on power of judicial review, a number of cases have been referred that may be taken note of at this stage. ”

352. In Paras 376, 377, 384 and 386 following has been

held:­

“376. In our considered view, the principle that is to be taken note of in the aforementioned series of cases is that notwithstanding the existence of finality clauses, this Court exercised its jurisdiction of judicial review whenever and 351

wherever breach of fundamental rights was alleged. The President of India while determining the question of age of a Judge of a High Court under Article 217(3), or the President of India (or the Governor, as the case may be) while taking a decision under Article 311(3) to dispense with the ordinarily mandatory inquiry before dismissal or removal of a civil servant, or for that matter the Speaker (or the Chairman, as the case may be) deciding the question of disqualification under Para 6 of the Tenth Schedule may be acting as authorities entrusted with such jurisdiction under the constitutional provisions. Yet, the manner in which they exercised the said jurisdiction is not wholly beyond the judicial scrutiny. In the case of the Speaker exercising jurisdiction under the Tenth Schedule, the proceedings before him are declared by Para 6(2) of the Tenth Schedule to be proceedings in Parliament within the meaning of Article

122. Yet, the said jurisdiction was not accepted as non­justifiable. In this view, we are unable to subscribe to the proposition that there is absolute immunity available to the Parliamentary proceedings relating to Article 105(3). It is a different matter as to what parameters, if any, should regulate or control the judicial scrutiny of such proceedings.

377. In U.P. Assembly case (Special Reference No.1 of 1964), AIR 1965 SC 745, the issue was authoritatively settled by this Court, and it was held, at SCR pp. 455­56, as under: (AIR p.768, para 62) “Article 212(1) seems to make it possible for a citizen to call in question in the appropriate court of law the validity of any proceedings 352

inside the legislative chamber if his case is that the said proceedings suffer not from mere irregularity of procedure, but from an illegality. If the impugned procedure is illegal and unconstitutional, it would be open to be scrutinized in a court of law, though such scrutiny is prohibited if the complaint against the procedure is no more than this that the procedure was irregular.” (Emphasis supplied)

384. The prohibition contained in Article 122(1) does not provide immunity in cases of illegalities. In this context, reference may also be made to Sarojini Ramaswami v. Union of India, (1992) 4 SCC 506. The case mainly pertained to Article 124(4) read with the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. While dealing, inter alia, with the overriding effect of the rules made under Article 124(5) over the rules made under Article 118, this Court at pp. 187­88 made the following observations:

(SCC p. 572, para 94) “94. We have already indicated the constitutional scheme in India and the true import of clauses(4) and (5) of Article 124 read with the law enacted under Article 124(5), namely, the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 and the Judges (Inquiry) Rules, 1969, which, inter alia contemplate the provision for an opportunity to the Judge concerned to show cause against the finding of 'guilty' in the report before Parliament takes it up for consideration along with the motion for his removal. Along with the decision in U.P. Assembly Case 353

(Special Reference No. 1 of 1964) has to be read the declaration made in Sub­Committee on Judicial Accountability, (1991) 4 SCC 699 that 'a law made under Article 124(5) will override the rules made under Article 118 and shall be binding on both the Houses of Parliament. A violation of such a law would constitute illegality and could not be immune from judicial scrutiny under Article 122(1).' The scope of permissible challenge by the Judge concerned to the order of removal made by the President under Article 124(4) in the judicial review available after making of the order of removal by the President will be determined on these considerations.” (Emphasis supplied)

386. Article 122(1) thus must be found to contemplate the twin test of legality and constitutionality for any proceedings within the four walls of Parliament. The fact that the U.P. Assembly case (Special Reference No.1 of 1964) dealt with the exercise of the power of the House beyond its four walls does not affect this view which explicitly interpreted a constitutional provision dealing specifically with the extent of judicial review of the internal proceedings of the legislative body. In this view, Article 122(1) displaces the English doctrine of exclusive cognizance of internal proceedings of the House rendering irrelevant the case law that emanated from courts in that jurisdiction. Any attempt to read a limitation into Article 122 so as to restrict the court's jurisdiction to examination of the Parliament's procedure in case of unconstitutionality, as opposed to illegality 354

would amount to doing violence to the constitutional text. Applying the principle of "expressio unius est exclusio alterius"

(whatever has not been included has by implication been excluded), it is plain and clear that prohibition against examination on the touchstone of "irregularity of procedure"

does not make taboo judicial review on findings of illegality or unconstitutionality.”

353. The above case is a clear authority for the

proposition that Article 122 does not provide for

immunity in case of illegality. What is protected is

only challenge on the ground of any irregularity or

procedure. The immunity from calling in question the

Parliamentary decision on the ground of violation of

procedure as has been provided in the Constitution is

in recognition of the principles that Parliament has

privilege regarding procedure and any challenge on the

ground of violation of any procedure is not

permissible.

354. Shri K.K. Venugopal relied on Two Judgments of

this Court in support of his submission namely, Mohd.

Saeed Siddiqui Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh and Another, 355

(2014) 11 SCC 415 and Yogendra Kumar Jaiswal and

Others Vs. State of Bihar and Others, (2016) 3 SCC

183. He submits that in both the decisions, this

Court while dealing with the question of challenge to

Money Bill has clearly held that the decision of

Speaker certifying a Bill as Money Bill is final and

cannot be questioned.

355. We need to consider the above decisions in

detail. Mohd. Saeed Siddiqui (supra) was a judgment

delivered by a Three Judge Bench of this Court. U.P.

Lokayukta Act and U.P. Lokayukta (Amendment) Act, 2012

was subject matter of challenge. One of the

submissions in that regard has been noted in Para 12,

which is to the following effect:­

“12. It was further submitted by Mr. Venugopal that the Amendment Act was not even passed by the State Legislature in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution of India and is, thus, a mere scrap of paper in the eye of the law. The Bill in question was presented as a Money Bill when, on the face of it, it could never be called as a Money Bill as defined in Articles 199(1) and 199(2) of the Constitution of India. Since the procedure for an Ordinary Bill was not followed and the assent of the Governor was obtained to an inchoate and incomplete Bill 356

which had not even gone through the mandatory requirements under the Constitution of India, the entire action was unconstitutional and violative of Article 200 of the Constitution of India.”

356. This Court after noticing Articles 199 and 212,

which are pari materia to Articles 109 and 122 stated

that proceeding in support of legislature cannot be

called into question on the ground that they have not

been carried on in accordance with the rules of

business. This Court considered the issues from

Paragraphs 34 to 38, which is to the following

effect:­

“34. The above provisions make it clear that the finality of the decision of the Speaker and the proceedings of the State Legislature being important privilege of the State Legislature, viz., freedom of speech, debate and proceedings are not to be inquired by the Courts. The "proceeding of the legislature"

includes everything said or done in either House in the transaction of the Parliamentary business, which in the present case is enactment of the Amendment Act. Further, Article 212 precludes the courts from interfering with the presentation of a Bill for assent to the Governor on the ground of non­compliance with the procedure for passing Bills, or from otherwise questioning the Bills passed by the House. To put it clear, proceedings inside the legislature cannot be called into question on the ground that they 357

have not been carried on in accordance with the Rules of Business. This is also evident from Article 194 which speaks about the powers, privileges of the Houses of the Legislature and of the members and committees thereof.

35. We have already quoted Article 199. In terms of Article 199(3), the decision of the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly that the Bill in question was a Money Bill is final and the said decision cannot be disputed nor can the procedure of the State Legislature be questioned by virtue of Article 212. We are conscious of the fact that in the decision of this Court in Raja Ram Pal v. Lok Sabha (2007) 3 SCC 184, it has been held that the proceedings which may be tainted on account of substantive or gross irregularity or unconstitutionality are not protected from judicial scrutiny.

36. Even if it is established that there was some infirmity in the procedure in the enactment of the Amendment Act, in terms of Article 255 of the Constitution the matters of procedures do not render invalid an Act to which assent has been given by the President or the Governor, as the case may be.

37. In M.S.M. Sharma v. Shree Krishna Sinha AIR 1960 SC 1186 and Mangalore Ganesh Beedi Works v. State of Mysore, AIR 1963 SC 589, the Constitution Benches of this Court held that:

(i) the validity of an Act cannot be challenged on the ground that it offends Articles 197 to 199 and the procedure laid down in Article 202;

(ii) Article 212 prohibits the validity of any proceedings in a Legislature of a State from being called in question on the ground of 358

any alleged irregularity of procedure; and

(iii) Article 255 lays down that the requirements as to recommendation and previous sanction are to be regarded as a matter of procedure only.

It is further held that the validity of the proceedings inside the legislature of a State cannot be called in question on the allegation that the procedure laid down by the law has not been strictly followed and that no Court can go into those questions which are within the special jurisdiction of the legislature itself, which has the power to conduct its own business.

38. Besides, the question whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not can be raised only in the State Legislative Assembly by a member thereof when the Bill is pending in the State Legislature and before it becomes an Act. It is brought to our notice that in the instant case no such question was ever raised by anyone. ”

357. This Court came to the conclusion that question

pertaining to the procedure in the House could not

have been questioned by virtue of Article 212.

Another judgment, which has been relied by learned

Attorney General is judgment of this Court in Yogendra

Kumar Jaiswal (supra). The above judgment was

rendered by Two Judge Bench. This Court in the above

case examined the question whether introduction of 359 Orissa Special Courts Act, 2006 as a Money Bill could

be called in question in a Court. This Court

considered the issue in Paragraphs 38 to 43, which are

to the following effect:­

“38. First, we shall take up the issue pertaining to the introduction of the Bill as a Money bill in the State Legislature. Mr. Vinoo Bhagat, learned Counsel appearing for some of the appellants, has laid emphasis on the said aspect. Article 199 of the Constitution, defines “Money Bills”. For our present purpose, Clause (3) of Article 199 being relevant is reproduced below:

“199.(3). If any question arises whether a Bill introduced in the legislature of a State which has a Legislative Council is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly of such State thereon shall be final.

We have extracted the same as we will be referring to the authorities as regards interpretation of the said clause.

39. Placing reliance on Article 199, the learned Counsel would submit that the present Act which was introduced as a money bill has remotely any connection with the concept of money bill. It is urged by him that the State has made a Sisyphean endeavour to establish some connection. The High Court to repel the challenge had placed reliance upon Article 212 which stipulates that the validity of any proceedings in the Legislature of a State shall not be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure.

40. The learned Counsel for the appellants 360

has drawn inspiration from a passage from Powers, Privileges and Immunities of State Legislatures. In re, Special Reference No. 1 of 1964 AIR 1965 SC 745, wherein it has been held that Article 212(1) lays down that the validity of any proceedings in the legislature of a State shall not be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure and Article 212(2) confers immunity on the officers and members of the legislature in whom powers are vested by or under the Constitution for regulating procedure or the conduct of business, or for maintaining order, in the legislature from being subject to the jurisdiction of any court in respect of the exercise by him of those powers. The Court opined that Article 212(1) seems to make it possible for a citizen to call in question in the appropriate court of law the validity of any proceedings inside the Legislative Chamber if his case is that the said proceedings suffer not from mere irregularity of procedure, but from an illegality. If the impugned procedure is illegal and unconstitutional, it would be open to be scrutinised in a court of law, though such scrutiny is prohibited if the complaint against the procedure is not more than that the procedure was irregular. Thus, the said authority has made a distinction between illegality of procedure and irregularity of procedure.

41. Our attention has also been drawn to certain paragraphs from the Constitution Bench decision in Raja Ram Pal v. Lok Sabha (2007) 3 SCC 184. In the said case, in paras 360 and 366, it has been held thus: (SCC pp.

347 & 350) “360. The question of extent of judicial review of parliamentary matters has to be resolved with 361

reference to the provision contained in Article 122(1) that corresponds to Article 212 referred to in M.S.M. Sharma v. Shree Krishna Sinha AIR 1960 SC 1186 [Pandit Sharma (2)]. On a plain reading, Article 122(1) prohibits "the validity of any proceedings in Parliament” from being 'called in question' in a court merely on the ground of "irregularity of procedure". In other words, the procedural irregularities cannot be used by the court to undo or vitiate what happens within the four walls of the legislature. But then, "procedural irregularity" stands in stark contrast to "substantive illegality' which cannot be found included in the former. We are of the considered view that this specific provision with regard to check on the role of the judicial organ vis­à­vis proceedings in Parliament uses language which is neither vague nor ambiguous and, therefore, must be treated as the constitutional mandate on the subject, rendering unnecessary search for an answer elsewhere or invocation of principles of harmonious construction.

* * *

366. The touchstone upon which parliamentary actions within the four walls of the legislature were examined was both the constitutional as well as substantive law. The proceedings which may be tainted on account of substantive illegality or unconstitutionality, as opposed to those suffering from mere irregularity thus cannot be held 362

protected from judicial scrutiny by Article 122(1) inasmuch as the broad principle laid down in Bradlaugh (1884) LR 12 QBD 271 : 53 LJQB 290 :

50 LT 620 (DC), acknowledging exclusive cognizance of the legislature in England has no application to the system of governance provided by our Constitution wherein no organ is sovereign and each organ is amenable to constitutional checks and controls, in which scheme of things, this Court is entrusted with the duty to be watchdog of and guarantor of the Constitution.”

42. In this regard, we may profitably refer to the authority in Mohd. Saeed Siddiqui v.

State of U.P. (2014) 11 SCC 415, wherein a three­Judge Bench while dealing with such a challenge, held that Article 212 precludes the courts from interfering with the presentation of a Bill for assent to the Governor on the ground of non­compliance with the procedure for passing Bills, or from otherwise questioning the Bills passed by the House, for proceedings inside the legislature cannot be called into question on the ground that they have not been carried on in accordance with the Rules of Business.

Thereafter, the Court referring to Article 199(3) ruled that the decision of the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly that the Bill in question was a Money Bill is final and the said decision cannot be disputed nor can the procedure of the State Legislature be questioned by virtue of Article 212. The Court took note of the decision in Raja Ram Pal (supra) wherein it has been held that the proceedings which may be tainted on account of substantive or gross irregularity or unconstitutionality are not protected from 363

judicial scrutiny. Eventually, the Court repelled the challenge.

43. In our considered opinion, the authorities cited by the learned Counsel for the appellants do not render much assistance, for the introduction of a Bill, as has been held in Mohd. Saeed Siddiqui (supra), comes within the concept of "irregularity" and it does come with the realm of substantiality.

What has been held in the Special Reference No. 1 of 1964 (supra) has to be appositely understood. The factual matrix therein was totally different than the case at hand as we find that the present controversy is wholly covered by the pronouncement in Mohd. Saeed Siddiqui (supra) and hence, we unhesitatingly hold that there is no merit in the submission so assiduously urged by the learned Counsel for the appellants.”

358. The consideration in the above case

indicate that this Court has merely relied on judgment

of Three Judge Bench in Mohd. Saeed Siddiqui (supra).

The Court based its decision on finality attached to

the decision of the Speaker in Article 199(3) as well

as bar on challenge of proceeding of the legislature

on an irregularity procedure as contained in Article

212. The question is, where a Speaker certify a Bill

as a Money Bill and it is introduced and passed as a

Money Bill, this only a question of procedure or not?

Article 107 contains provisions as to introduction of 364

passing of bills. Article 107(2) state that subject

to the provisions of Articles 108 and 109, a Bill

shall not be deemed to have been passed by the Houses

of Parliament unless it has been agreed to by both

Houses of Parliament. However, the requirement of

passing a Bill by both the Houses is not applicable in

case of Money Bills. Article 110 defines as to what is

the Money Bill. A Money Bill is constitutionally

defined and a Bill shall be a Money Bill only if it is

covered by Article 110(1). A Bill, which does not

fulfill the conditions as enumerated in Article 110(1)

and it is certified as Money Bill, whether the

Constitutional conditions enumerated in Article 110(1)

shall be overridden only by certificate of Speaker?

359. We have noticed the Constitution Bench Judgment in

Kihoto Hollohan (supra) and Raja Ram Pal (supra) that

finality of the decision of the Speaker is not immuned

from Judicial Review. All Bills are required to be

passed by both Houses of Parliament. Exception is

given in case of Money Bills and in the case of joint

sitting of both houses. In event, we accept the 365

submission of learned Attorney General that

certification by Speaker is only a matter of procedure

and cannot be questioned by virtue of Article 122(1),

any Bill, which does not fulfill the essential

constitutional condition under Article 110 can be

certified as Money Bill bye­passing the Upper House.

There is a clear difference between the subject

“irregularity of procedure” and “substantive

illegality”. When a Bill does not fulfill the

essential constitutional condition under Article

110(1), the said requirement cannot be said to be

evaporated only on certification by Speaker.

Accepting the submission that certification immunes

the challenge on the ground of not fulfilling the

constitutional condition, Court will be permitting

constitutional provisions to be ignored and bye­

passed. We, thus, are of the view that decision of

Speaker certifying the Bill as Money Bill is not only

a matter of procedure and in event, any illegality has

occurred in the decision and the decision is clearly

in breach of the constitutional provisions, the 366

decision is subject to Judicial Review. We are,

therefore, of the view that the Three Judge Bench

Judgment of this Court in Mohd. Saeed Siddiqui

(supra) and Two Judge Bench judgment of this Court in

Yogendra Kumar Jaiswal (supra) does not lay down the

correct law. We, thus, conclude that the decision of

the Speaker certifying the Aadhaar Bill as Money Bill

is not immuned from Judicial Review.

360. We having held that the decision of Speaker

certifying the Aadhaar Bill as a Money Bill is open to

Judicial Review. We now proceed to examine as to

whether Speaker's decision certifying the Aadhaar Bill

as Money Bill contravenes any of the Constitutional

provisions, i.e., Whether the decision is vitiated by

any Constitutional Illegality? For determining the

main issue, which need to be answered is as to whether

Aadhaar Bill is covered by any of Clauses (a) to (f)

of Article 110(1). That Clause(g) shall be applicable

only when any of Clauses (a) to (f) are attracted.

Clause (g) which contemplate that any matter

incidental to any of the matters specified in sub­ 367

clauses (a) to (f), can be a provision in a Bill

presupposes that main provisions have to fall in any

of the Clauses (a) to (f). The heart of the Aadhaar

Act is Section 7, which is to the following effect:­

“7. Proof of Aadhaar number necessary for receipt of certain subsidies, benefits and services, etc.­ The Central Government or, as the case may be, the State Government may, for the purpose of establishing identity of an individual as a condition for receipt of a subsidy, benefit or service for which the expenditure is incurred from, or the receipt therefrom forms part of, the Consolidated Fund of India, require that such individual undergo authentication, or furnish proof of possession of Aadhaar number or in the case of an individual to whom no Aadhaar number has been assigned, such individual makes an application for enrolment:

Provided that if an Aadhaar number is not assigned to an individual, the individual shall be offered alternate and viable means of identification for delivery of the subsidy, benefit or service.”

361. A condition for receipt of a subsidy, benefit or

service for which the expenditure is incurred from, or

the receipt therefrom forms part of, the Consolidated

Fund of India, has been provided by Section 7, i.e.

undergoing of an individual to an authentication. The

Preamble of the Act as well as objects and reasons as 368

noticed above also indicate that the Act has been

enacted to provide for, as a good governance,

efficient, transparent, and targeted delivery of

subsidies, benefits and services, the expenditure for

which is incurred from the Consolidated Fund of India,

to individuals residing in India through assigning of

unique identity numbers to such individuals and for

matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

Thus, the theme of the Act or main purpose and object

of the Act is to bring in place efficient, transparent

and targeted deliveries of subsidies, benefits and

services, which expenditure is out from the

Consolidated Fund of India. Thus, the above

provisions of the Act is clearly covered by Article

110(1)(c) and (e).

362. Shri P. Chidambaram, learned counsel for

petitioners has laid much emphasis on the word “only“

as occurring in Article 110(1). The word “only” used

in Article 110(1) has purpose and meaning. The

legislative intendment was that main and substantive

provisions should be only any or all of the clauses 369

from (a) to (f). In event, the main and substantive

provision of the Act are not covered by Clauses (a) to

(f), the said Bill cannot be said to be a Money Bill.

It will not be out of place to mention here that in

Constituent Assembly, an amendment was moved for

deletion of word “only” on 20.05.1949, Hon'ble Shri

Ghanshyam Singh Gupta moved the amendment in Draft

Article 90. It is useful to extract the above debate,

which is to the following effect:­

The Honourable Shri Ghanshyam Singh Gupta (C.P. & Berar: General): Sir, I beg to move:

"That in clause (1) of article 90, the word `only' be deleted."

This article is a prototype of Section 37 of the Government of India Act which says that a Bill or amendment providing for imposing or increasing a tax or borrowing money, etc. shall not be introduced or moved except on the recommendation of the Governor­General. This means that the whole Bill need not be a money Bill: it may contain other provisions, but if there is any provision about taxation or borrowing, etc. It will come under this Section37, and the recommendation of the Governor­General is necessary. Now article 90 says that a Bill shall be deemed to be a money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with the imposition, regulation, etc., of any tax or the borrowing of money, etc. This can mean that if there is a Bill which has other provisions and also a 370

provision about taxation or borrowing etc., it will not become a money Bill. If that is the intention I have nothing to say; but that if that is not the intention I must say the word "only" is dangerous, because if the Bill does all these things and at the same time does something else also it will not be a money Bill. I do not know what the intention of the Drafting Committee is but I think this aspect of the article should be borne in mind.”

363. After discussion, Mr. Naziruddin Ahmad also

suggested that the position of the word “only” in

connection with Amendment No.1669 should be specially

considered. It is a word which is absolutely

misplaced. On that day, the consideration was

deferred and again in the debate on 06.06.1949,

Constituent Assembly took up the discussion. The

President of the Constituent Assembly placed the

amendment for vote on 08.06.1949, which amendment was

negativated. Thus, use of word “only” in Article

110(1) has its purpose, which is a clear restriction

for a Bill to be certified as a Money Bill.

364. Other provisions of the Act can be said to be

incidental to the above matter. The architecture of 371

the Aadhaar Act veer round the Government's

constitutional obligation to provide for subsidies,

benefits and services to the individuals, who are

entitled for such subsidies, benefits and services.

Section 24 contemplates the appropriation made by

Parliament by law for grant of sums of money for the

purposes of Aadhaar Act. The disbursement of

subsidies, benefits and services from the Consolidated

Fund of India is in substance, the main object of the

Act for which Aadhaar architecture has been envisaged

and other provisions are only to give effect to the

above main theme of the Act. Other provisions of the

Act are only incidental provisions to main provision.

Section 57 on which much attack has been made by the

learned counsel for the petitioners that it cannot be

covered by any of the provisions from (a) to (f) of

Article 110(!). Suffice it to say that Section 57 is

a provision which clarifies that nothing contained in

Aadhaar Act shall prevent the use of Aadhaar number

for establishing the identity of an individual for any

purpose, whether by the State or any body corporate or 372

person, pursuant to any law, for the time being in

force, or any contract to this effect. The

applicability of the provision of Section 57 comes

into play when Aadhaar Number is allocated to an

individual after completing the process under the Act.

Section 57 is also a incidental provision covered by

sub­clause(g) of Article 110(1). Section 57 is a

limitation imposed under the Act on the use of Aadhaar

Number by State or any body corporate or any private

party. We, thus, are of the view that Aadhaar Bill

has rightly been certified as the Money Bill by the

Speaker, which decision does not violate any

constitutional provision, hence does not call for any

interference in this proceeding. Issue No. 16 is

answered in the following manner:­

Ans.16:­ Aadhaar Act has been rightly passed as Money

Bill. The decision of Speaker certifying the

Aadhaar Bill, 2016 as Money Bill is not

immuned from Judicial Review.

373 Issue No.17 Whether Section 139­AA of the Income Tax Act, 1961 is unconstitutional in view of the Privacy judgment in Puttaswamy case?

365. Section 139­AA was challenged by a bunch of writ

petitions, which were decided by this Court in Binoy

Viswam Vs. Union of India and Others, (2017) 7 SCC 59.

The writ petitions were disposed of upholding the

vires of Section 139­AA. Para 136 of the judgment

contains operative portion, which is to the following

effect:­

“136. Subject to the aforesaid, these writ petitions are disposed of in the following manner:

136.1 We hold that the Parliament was fully competent to enact Section 139­AA of the Act and its authority to make this law was not diluted by the orders of this Court.

136.2. We do not find any conflict between the provisions of the Aadhaar Act and Section 139AA of the Income Tax Act inasmuch as when interpreted harmoniously, they operate in distinct fields.

136.3. Section 139­AA of the Act is not discriminatory nor it offends equality Clause enshrined in Article 14 of the Constitution.

136.4. Section 139­AA is also not violative of Article 19(1)(g) of the Constitution insofar as it mandates giving of Aadhaar 374

enrollment number for applying for PAN cards, in the income tax returns or notified Aadhaar enrollment number to the designated authorities. Further, the proviso to Sub­ section (2) thereof has to be read down to mean that it would operate only prospectively.

136.5 The validity of the provision upheld in the aforesaid manner is subject to passing the muster of Article 21 of the Constitution, which is the issue before the Constitution Bench in Writ Petition (Civil) No. 494 of 2012 and other connected matters. Till then, there shall remain a partial stay on the operation of the proviso to Sub­section (2) of Section 139­AA of the Act, as described above. No cost.”

366. As per the above judgment, the validity of the

provisions of Section­139AA was upheld subject to

passing the muster of Article 21 of the Constitution,

which was the issue pending before the Constitution

Bench in Writ Petition (C) No. 494 of 2012 and other

connected matters. The Constitution Bench Judgment in

Puttaswamy was delivered on 24.08.2017. Right of

Privacy has been held to be fundamental right, any

restriction on such fundamental right has been held to

be valid when it passes the muster of three­fold test

as laid down there. In the lead judgment of Dr. 375

Justice D.Y. Chandrachud, three­fold test are:­

(a) The existence of law;

(b) A legitimate State interest and

(c) such law should pass the test of

proportionality.

367. Dr. Justice Chandrachud has delivered the

judgment for himself and three other Hon'ble Judges,

Justice Sanjay Kishan Kaul in paragraph 639 has upheld

the test of proportionality. As a result, at­least

five out of nine Judges requires the proportionality

test to be applied. In addition to tests propounded

by a Constitution Bench in Puttaswamy case, an

additional test as propounded by a Five Judges

Constitution Bench of this Court in Shayara Bano Vs.

Union of India, (2017) 9 SCC 1, Justice R.F. Nariman

has laid down a test of “manifest arbitrariness”. Reading the Nine Judge Bench decision in Puttaswamy

case and Five Judge Bench decision in Shayara Bano's

case, the Petitioner can succeed to the challenge to

Section 139­AA only if they successfully demonstrate

the said provision to be violative of Right to Privacy 376

on the basis of the following tests:­

(i) Absence of law;

(ii) Absence of Legitimate State Interest;

(iii) The provision being hit by lack of proportionality. (iv) The provision being manifestly arbitrary, which can be traced to Article 14. [The

test to determine “manifest arbitrariness” is to decide whether the enactment is drastically unreasonable and / or capricious, irrational or without adequate determining principle”]

368. The learned Attorney General relies on following

interest, which according to him are safeguarded by

Section 139­AA to satisfy the legitimate State

interest:­

a. To prevent income tax evasion by requiring, through an amendment to the Income Tax Act, that the Aadhaar number be linked with the PAN; and b. Prevention, accumulation, circulation and use of black money and money laundering by imposing a requirement by law for linking Aadhaar for opening bank accounts;

c. To prevent terrorism and protect national 377

security and prevention of crime by requiring that Aadhaar number be linked to SIM cards for mobile phones.

369. Binoy Viswam has examined Section 139­AA on the

Principle of Doctrine of Proportionality in Paragraphs

123 to 125:­

“123. Keeping in view the aforesaid parameters and principles in mind, we proceed to discuss as to whether the “restrictions” which would result in terms of the proviso to sub­section (2) of Section 139­AA of the Act are reasonable or not.

124. Let us revisit the objectives of Aadhaar, and in the process, that of Section 139­AA of the Act in particular.

125. By making use of the technology, a method is sought to be devised, in the form of Aadhaar, whereby identity of a person is ascertained in a flawless manner without giving any leeway to any individual to resort to dubious practices of showing multiple identities or fictitious identities. That is why it is given the nomenclature “unique identity”. It is aimed at securing advantages on different levels some of which are described, in brief, below:

125.1. In the first instance, as a welfare and democratic State, it becomes the duty of any responsible Government to come out with welfare schemes for the upliftment of poverty­stricken and marginalised sections of the society. This is even the ethos of Indian 378

Constitution which casts a duty on the State, in the form of “directive principles of State policy”, to take adequate and effective steps for betterment of such underprivileged classes. State is bound to take adequate measures to provide education, health care, employment and even cultural opportunities and social standing to these deprived and underprivileged classes. It is not that Government has not taken steps in this direction from time to time. At the same time, however, harsh reality is that benefits of these schemes have not reached those persons for whom that are actually meant.

125.1.1. India has achieved significant economic growth since Independence. In particular, rapid economic growth has been achieved in the last 25 years, after the country adopted the policy of liberalisation and entered the era of, what is known as, globalisation. Economic growth in the last decade has been phenomenal and for many years, the Indian economy grew at highest rate in the world. At the same time, it is also a fact that in spite of significant political and economic success which has proved to be sound and sustainable, the benefits thereof have not percolated down to the poor and the poorest. In fact, such benefits are reaped primarily by rich and upper middle classes, resulting into widening the gap between the rich and the poor.

125.1.2. Jean Dreze and Amartya Sen pithily narrate the position as under:

“Since India’s recent record of fast economic growth is often celebrated, with good reason, it is extremely important to point to the fact that the 379

societal reach of economic progress in India has been remarkably limited. It is not only that the income distribution has been getting more unequal in recent years (a characteristic that India shares with China), but also that the rapid rise in real wages in China from which the working classes have benefited greatly is not matched at all by India’s relatively stagnant real wages. No less importantly, the public revenue generated by rapid economic growth has not been used to expand the social and physical infrastructure in a determined and well­planned way (in this India is left far behind by China). There is also a continued lack of essential social services (from schooling and health care to the provision of safe water and drainage) for a huge part of the population. As we will presently discuss, while India has been overtaking other countries in the progress of its real income, it has been overtaken in terms of social indicators by many of these countries, even within the region of South Asia itself (we go into this question more fully in Chapter 3, ‘India in Comparative Perspective’).

To point to just one contrast, even though India has significantly caught up with China in terms of GDP growth, its progress has been very much slower than China’s in indicators such as longevity, literacy, child undernourishment and maternal mortality. In South Asia itself, the much poorer economy of Bangladesh has caught up with and overtaken India in 380

terms of many social indicators (including life expectancy, immunisation of children, infant mortality, child undernourishment and girls’ schooling). Even Nepal has been catching up, to the extent that it now has many social indicators similar to India’s, in spite of its per capita GDP being just about one third. Whereas twenty years ago India generally had the second best social indicators among the six South Asian countries (India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Nepal and Bhutan), it now looks second worst (ahead only of problem­ridden Pakistan). India has been climbing up the ladder of per capita income while slipping down the slope of social indicators.”

125.1.3. It is in this context that not only sustainable development is needed which takes care of integrating growth and development, thereby ensuring that the benefit of economic growth is reaped by every citizen of this country, it also becomes the duty of the Government in a welfare State to come out with various welfare schemes which not only take care of immediate needs of the deprived class but also ensure that adequate opportunities are provided to such persons to enable them to make their lives better, economically as well as socially. As mentioned above, various welfare schemes are, in fact, devised and floated from time to time by the Government, keeping aside substantial amount of money earmarked for spending on socially and economically backward classes. However, for various reasons including corruption, actual benefit does not reach those who are supposed to receive such benefits. One of the main 381

reasons is failure to identify these persons for lack of means by which identity could be established of such genuine needy class.

Resultantly, lots of ghosts and duplicate beneficiaries are able to take undue and impermissible benefits. A former Prime Minister of this country has gone on record to say that out of one rupee spent by the Government for welfare of the downtrodden, only 15 paisa thereof actually reaches those persons for whom it is meant. It cannot be doubted that with UID/Aadhaar much of the malaise in this field can be taken care of.

125.2. Menace of corruption and black money has reached alarming proportion in this country. It is eating into the economic progress which the country is otherwise achieving. It is not necessary to go into the various reasons for this menace. However, it would be pertinent to comment that even as per the observations of the Special Investigation Team (SIT) on black money headed by Justice M.B. Shah, one of the reasons is that persons have the option to quote their PAN or UID or passport number or driving licence or any other proof of identity while entering into financial/business transactions. Because of this multiple methods of giving proofs of identity, there is no mechanism/system at present to collect the data available with each of the independent proofs of ID. For this reason, even SIT suggested that these databases be interconnected. To the same effect is the recommendation of the Committee headed by Chairman, CBDT on measures to tackle black money in India and abroad which also discusses the problem of money laundering being done to evade taxes under the garb of shell companies by the persons who hold multiple bogus PAN numbers under 382

different names or variations of their names. That can be possible if one uniform proof of identity, namely, UID is adopted. It may go a long way to check and minimise the said malaise.

125.3. Thirdly, Aadhaar or UID, which has come to be known as the most advanced and sophisticated infrastructure, may facilitate law­enforcement agencies to take care of problem of terrorism to some extent and may also be helpful in checking the crime and also help investigating agencies in cracking the crimes. No doubt, going by the aforesaid, and may be some other similarly valid considerations, it is the intention of the Government to give fillip to Aadhaar movement and encourage the people of this country to enrol themselves under the Aadhaar Scheme.”

370. In Paragraphs 122 to 125 of Binoy Viswam, it has

also been observed that the measures taken may go a

long way to check and minimise the malaise of black

money.

371. Dr. Justice D.Y. Chandrachud in Puttaswamy case

in Paragraph 311 has stated:­

“311. …......Prevention and investigation of crime and protection of the revenue are among the legitimate aims of the State. Digital platforms are a vital tool of ensuring good governance in a social welfare State.

Information technology – legitimately deployed is a powerful enabler in the spread of innovation and knowledge.” 383

372. In Puttaswamy case, Justice Sanjay Kishan Kaul

has noted the European Union General Data Protection

Regulation and observed that restrictions on the right

to privacy may be justifiable on the ground of

regulation of taxes and financial institutions. In

Paragraph 640, Justice Kaul has held:­

“640. It would be useful to turn to the European Union Regulation of 2016.

Restrictions of the right to privacy may be justifiable in the following circumstances subject to the principle of proportionality:

(a) Other fundamental rights: The right to privacy must be considered in relation to its function in society and be balanced against other fundamental rights.

(b) Legitimate national security interest.

(c) Public interest including scientific or historical research purposes or statistical purposes.

(d) Criminal offences: The need of the competent authorities for prevention investigation, prosecution of criminal offences including safeguards against threat to public security;

(e) The unidentifiable data: The 384

information does not relate to identified or identifiable natural person but remains anonymous. The European Union Regulation of 2016 refers to “pseudonymisation” which means the processing of personal data in such a manner that the personal data can no longer be attributed to a specific data subject without the use of additional information, provided that such additional information is kept separately and is subject to technical and organisational measures to ensure that the personal data are not attributed to an identified or identifiable natural person;

(f) The tax, etc.: The regulatory framework of tax and working of financial institutions, markets may require disclosure of private information. But then this would not entitle the disclosure of the information to all and sundry and there should be data protection rules according to the objectives of the processing. There may however, be processing which is compatible for the purposes for which it is initially collected.”

373. Section 139­AA thus clearly enacted to fulfill

the legitimate State interest. Section 139­A which

came into effect w.e.f. 01.04.1989 provide for

Permanent Account Number (PAN) and the provision also

provided that statutory mandatory provisions as to 385

when “every person” shall quote such number (PAN

number) for various purposes as enumerated in Section

139A. Introduction of Section 139­AA is an extension

and implication of Section 139A. The introduction of

Section 139­AA was for the purpose of eliminating

duplicate PANs from the system with the help of a

robust technology solution.

374. The new Section 139­AA in the Income Tax Act

seeks to remove bogus PAN cards by linking with

Aadhaar, expose shell companies and thereby curb the

menace of black money, money laundering and tax

evasion. The fact that the tax base of India is very

narrow and that we are a largely tax non­compliant

society is evident from some of the startling figures

in the budget speech of the Finance Minister. Linking

of PAN with Aadhaar will at least ensure that

duplicate and fake PAN cards which are used for the

purpose of tax evasion will be eliminated and is one

of the many fiscal measures to eliminate black money

from the system.

386

375. The Binoy Viswam has referred to other relevant

rationals for enactment of Section 139­AA. Section

139­AA also cannot be said to be disproportionate.

The section has been enacted to achieve the legitimate

State aim. Section 139­AA is a law framed by

Parliament, which require linking of the Aadhaar with

PAN. The means which are sought to be achieved by

such enactment cannot be said to be disproportionate

in any manner. It has been further submitted that

Section 139­AA unfairly attracts only individual

assessees and not other tax paying assessees, who may

also be involved in financial frauds. The above

submission need not detain us since Aadhaar number can

be obtained by the individuals and not by the entities

hence Section­139AA can only apply to individuals.

In any event, the legislature cannot be expected to

address all issues relating to a particular evil at

one go. Section 139­AA is a required first step to

weed out fake PANs for individuals; it is perfectly

acceptable for the legislature to weed out fake PANs

for other tax­paying entities at a later stage. Such 387

a view is also endorsed in judicial decisions. In

Namit Sharma Vs. Union of India, (2013) 1 SCC 745

(per Swatanter Kumar, J.) this Court observed:­

“43. The rule of equality or equal protection does not require that a State must choose between attacking every aspect of a problem or not attacking the problem at all, and particularly with respect to social welfare programme. So long as the line drawn by the State is rationally supportable, the courts will not interpose their judgment as to the appropriate stopping point.…........”

376. Thus, the legislature is within its remit to only

target individual assessees with Section 139­AA, and

not every other tax­paying entity. The law does not

have to provide for complete coverage of tax­payers

who may be indulging in financial fraud but may

envisage 'degrees of harm' and act on that basis. In

this context, the Aadhaar number is being mandated for

all individual assessees. This is applicable to

natural persons as well as persons who together

constitute legal persons (e.g. Partners in a

partnership, members of a company etc.) and hence

provides significant coverage to weed out duplicate

PANs and hence reduce the incidence of financial and 388

tax frauds through these means. Aadhaar's inclusion

into PAN is meant to curb tax evasion, sham

transactions, entry providers which are rampantly

carried out on account of bogus PANs. Aadhaar's

unique de­duplication based on biometric

identification has been hailed as the most

sophisticated system by the World Bank. Inclusion of

Aadhaar into PAN eliminates the inequality between

honest tax payers and non­compliant, dishonest ones

who get away without paying taxes. Inclusion of

Aadhaar into PAN promotes rather than negates

equality. It bolsters equality and is consistent with

Article 14.

377. In result, Section 139­AA is fully compliant of

three­fold test as laid down in Puttaswamy's case.

Section 139­AA, thus does not breach fundamental Right

of Privacy of an individual and Section 139­AA cannot

be struck down on that ground.

Ans.17:­ Section 139­AA does not breach fundamental

Right of Privacy as per Privacy Judgment in

Puttaswamy case.

389

Issue No. 18 Whether Aadhaar Act violates the Interim Orders passed by this Court in Writ Petition (C) No. 494 of 2012?

378. The petitioners submits that this Court has

passed various Interim Orders in Writ Petition (C) No.

494 of 2012 from 23.09.2013 to 15.10.2015. On

23.09.2013, this Court directed “In the meanwhile, no

person should suffer not getting the Aadhaar card

inspite of the fact that some authority had issued a

circular making it mandatory and when any person

applies to get the Aadhaar Card voluntarily, it may be

checked whether that person is entitled for it under

the law and it should not be given to any illegal

immigrant”.

379. On 11.08.2015, this Court issued following

order:­

“Having considered the matter, we are of the view that the balance of interest would be best served, till the matter is finally decided by a larger Bench if the Union of India or the UIDA proceed in the following manner:­ 390

1. The Union of India shall give wide publicity in the electronic and print media including radio and television networks that it is not mandatory for a citizen to obtain an Aadhaar card;

2. The production of an Aadhaar card will not be condition for obtaining any benefits otherwise due to a citizen;

3. The Unique Identification Number or the Aadhaar card will not be used by the respondents for any purpose other than the PDS Scheme and in particular for the purpose of distribution of foodgrains, etc. and cooking fuel, such as kerosene. The Aadhaar card may also be used for the purpose of the LPG Distribution Scheme;

4. The information about an individual obtained by the Unique Identification Authority of India while issuing an Aadhaar card shall not be used for any other purpose, save as above, except as may be directed by a Court for the purpose of criminal investigation.” By subsequent order of 15.10.2015, some more

Schemes were included.

380. It is submitted that the Central Government and

the State Government issued various notifications

numbering 139, requiring Aadhaar authentication for

various benefits, subsidies and schemes. The issuance

of such orders is in breach of above Interim Orders

passed by this Court.

391

381. In Binoy Viswam (supra) an argument was advanced

that enactment of Section 139­AA was in breach of the

Interim Order passed in Writ Petition (C) No. 494 of

2012. The said argument was considered and in Para 99

it was held as follows:

“99. Main emphasis, however, is on the plea that Parliament or any State Legislature cannot pass a law that overrules a judgment thereby nullifying the said decision, that too without removing the basis of the decision. This argument appears to be attractive inasmuch as few orders are passed by this Court in pending writ petitions which are to the effect that the enrolment of Aadhaar would be voluntary. However, it needs to be kept in mind that the orders have been passed in the petitions where Aadhaar Scheme floated as an executive/administrative measure has been challenged. In those cases, the said orders are not passed in a case where the Court was dealing with a statute passed by Parliament. Further, these are interim orders as the Court was of the opinion that till the matter is decided finally in the context of right to privacy issue, the implementation of the said Aadhaar Scheme would remain voluntary. In fact, the main issue as to whether Aadhaar card scheme whereby biometric data of an individual is collected violates right to privacy and, therefore, is offensive of Article 21 of the Constitution or not is yet to be decided. In the process, the Constitution Bench is also called upon to decide as to whether right to privacy is a part of Article 21 of the Constitution at all. Therefore, no final decision has been taken. In a situation like 392

this, it cannot be said that Parliament is precluded from or it is rendered incompetent to pass such a law. That apart, the argument of the petitioners is that the basis on which the aforesaid orders are passed has to be removed, which is not done. According to the petitioners, it could be done only by making the Aadhaar Act compulsory. It is difficult to accept this contention for two reasons:

first, when the orders passed by this Court which are relied upon by the petitioners were passed when the Aadhaar Act was not even enacted. Secondly, as already discussed in detail above, the Aadhaar Act and the law contained in Section 139­AA of the Income Tax Act deal with two different situations and operate in different fields. This argument of legislative incompetence also, therefore, fails.”

382. We have noticed that the Writ Petition (C) No.

494 of 2012 was filed at the time when Aadhaar Scheme

was being implemented on the basis of executive's

instructions dated 28.01.2009. In the Writ Petition

filed prior to enactment of Act, 2016, challenge to

Aadhaar Scheme was founded on following:­

i. The requirement of making Aadhaar mandatory for availing benefits under various social service schemes by way of an executive order and ii. Concerns regarding the right to privacy of the individuals, which emanated on 393

account of collection of biometric data under the Aadhaar scheme, which is without any legislative backing.

383. Aadhaar Act, 2016 gives legislative backing to

the Aadhaar Scheme. The Act contains specific

provisions prohibiting disclosure of core biometric

information collected in Aadhaar enrolment. It is

submitted that Schemes notified under Section 7 of the

Act were on the strength of Aadhaar enactment and

cannot be said to be a violation of interim orders of

this Court. The submission that interim orders

directed the Aadhaar to be voluntary, it is submitted

by the respondent that consent was obtained from

individuals, who came for enrolment under the Aadhaar

Act. It is submitted that all those, who were enrolled

under the Statutory Scheme dated 28.01.2009, the

consent was given by the individuals in verifying

their informations.

384. We, thus, conclude that Aadhaar Act cannot be

struck down on the ground that it is in violation of

interim orders passed by this Court in Writ Petition

(C) No. 494 of 2012. Issue No. 18 is answered in 394

following manner:­

Ans.18:­ The Aadhaar Act does not violate the

interim orders passed in Writ Petition

(C) No. 494 of 2012 and other Writ

Petitions.

385. I had gone through the erudite and scholarly

opinion of Justice A.K.Sikri (which opinion is on his

own behalf and on behalf of Chief Justice and Justice

A.M.Khanwilkar) with which opinion I broadly agree.

Rule 9 as amended by PMLA (Second Amendment) Rules,

2017 has been struck down by my esteemed brother which

provision has been upheld by me. My reasons and

conclusions are on the same line except few where my

conclusions are not in conformity with the majority

opinion.

CONCLUSIONS:­

386. In view of above discussions, we arrive at following

conclusions:­

(1) The requirement under Aadhaar Act to give one's demographic and biometric information does not violate fundamental right of 395

privacy.

(2) The provisions of Aadhaar Act requiring demographic and biometric information from a resident for Aadhaar Number pass three­fold test as laid down in Puttaswamy (supra) case, hence cannot be said to be unconstitutional.

(3) Collection of data, its storage and use does not violate fundamental Right of Privacy.

(4) Aadhaar Act does not create an architecture for pervasive surveillance.

(5) Aadhaar Act and Regulations provides protection and safety of the data received from individuals.

(6) Section 7 of the Aadhaar is constitutional. The provision does not deserve to be struck down on account of denial in some cases of right to claim on account of failure of authentication.

(7) The State while enlivening right to food, right to shelter etc. envisaged under Article 21 cannot encroach upon the right of privacy of beneficiaries nor former can be given precedence over the latter.

396

(8) Provisions of Section 29 is constitutional and does not deserves to be struck down.

(9) Section 33 cannot be said to be unconstitutional as it provides for the use of Aadhaar data base for police investigation nor it can be said to violate protection granted under Article 20(3).

(10) Section 47 of the Aadhaar Act cannot be held to be unconstitutional on the ground that it does not allow an individual who finds that there is a violation of Aadhaar Act to initiate any criminal process.

(11) Section 57, to the extent, which permits use of Aadhaar by the State or any body corporate or person, in pursuant to any contract to this effect is unconstitutional and void. Thus, the last phrase in main provision of Section 57, i.e. “or any contract to this effect” is struck down.

(12) Section 59 has validated all actions taken by the Central Government under the notifications dated 28.01.2009 and 12.09.2009 and all actions shall be deemed to have been taken under the Aadhaar Act.

397

(13) Parental consent for providing biometric information under Regulation 3 & demographic information under Regulation 4 has to be read for enrolment of children between 5 to 18 years to uphold the constitutionality of Regulations 3 & 4 of Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update) Regulations, 2016.

(14) Rule 9 as amended by PMLA (Second Amendment) Rules, 2017 is not unconstitutional and does not violate Articles 14, 19(1)(g), 21 & 300A of the Constitution and Sections 3, 7 & 51 of the Aadhaar Act. Further Rule 9 as amended is not ultra vires to PMLA Act, 2002.

(15) Circular dated 23.03.2017 being unconstitutional is set aside.

(16) Aadhaar Act has been rightly passed as Money Bill. The decision of Speaker certifying the Aadhaar Bill, 2016 as Money Bill is not immuned from Judicial Review.

(17) Section 139­AA does not breach fundamental Right of Privacy as per Privacy Judgment in Puttaswamy case.

398

(18) The Aadhaar Act does not violate the interim orders passed in Writ Petition (C) No. 494 of 2012 and other Writ Petitions.

387. Now, we revert back to the batch of cases, which

have come up for consideration before us.

388. We having considered and answered the issues arising

in this batch of cases, all the Writ Petitions filed

under Article 32 deserves to be disposed of in accordance

with our conclusions as noted above. All Transfer

Cases/Transfer Petitions are also deserves to be decided

accordingly.

389. Now, we come to the Criminal Appeal arising out of

S.L.P. (Crl.) No. 2524 of 2014. The above S.L.P. (Crl.)

arose out of an order passed by Judicial Magistrate First

Class dated 22.10.2013 by which Judicial Magistrate First

Class directed DG, UIDAI and Dy. Dg. UIDAI Technology

Centre, Bangalore to provide the necessary data to the

respondent C.B.I. The said order was challenged in the

High Court by means of Criminal Writ Petition, in which

the order was passed by the High Court on 26.02.2014

giving rise to S.L.P. (Crl.) No. 2524 of 2014. 399

390. We have noticed above that according to Aadhaar Act

Section 33 disclosure of information can be made as per

sub­section (1) pursuant to an order of Court, not

inferior to that of District Judge. The order directing

for disclosure of information having been passed by

Judicial Magistrate First Class, in the present case, the

order is not in consonance with sub­section (1) of

Section 33, hence the order passed by Judicial

Magistrate, First Class dated 22.10.2013 and order of the

High Court passed in reference to the said order deserves

to be set aside. Criminal Appeal is allowed accordingly.

391. No case is made out to initiate any contempt

proceedings in the contempt applications as prayed for.

All the contempt petitions are dismissed.

392. In result, this batch of cases is decided in

following manner:­

(i) All the Writ Petitions filed under Article 32

as well as Transfer Cases are disposed of as

per our conclusions recorded above.

400

(ii) Criminal Appeal arising out of S.L.P.

(Criminal) No. 2524 of 2014 is allowed.

(iii) All the contempt applications are closed.

393. Before we part, we record our deep appreciation for

the industry, hard work and eloquence shown by learned

counsel for the parties appearing before us, which was

amply demonstrated in their respective arguments.

Learned counsel have enlightened us with all relevant

concerned materials available in this country and abroad.

The concern raised by these Public Interest Litigations

is a concern shown for little Indian for whom the

Society, Government and Court exists. We appreciate the

concern and passion expressed before us by learned

counsel appearing for both the parties as well as those,

who were permitted to intervene in the matter. We close

by once more recording of our appreciation for the cause

espoused in these cases.

..............................J. ( ASHOK BHUSHAN ) NEW DELHI, SEPTEMBER 26, 2018.

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